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Quiz: Comprehensive Final
Due Aug 20 at 11:59pm Points 200 Questions 50 Time Limit 165 Minutes
Instructions
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 80 minutes 172 out of 200
Score for this quiz: 172 out of 200
Submitted Aug 19 at 12:22pm
This attempt took 80 minutes.
The quiz:
Covers the Textbookmaterial from Module 1: Week 1 through Module 8: Week 8.
Contains 50multiple-choicequestions.
Islimitedto2 hours and 45 minutes.
Allows one attempt.
Is worth 200 points.
You may refer to your notes and textbooks at any time during the assessment.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module 8: Week 8.
0 / 4 pts
Question 1
Which of the following best describes the current status of performance-based
assessment? It is:
about to be implemented on a national basis.
an idea that once was considered innovative but is no longer in vogue.
a currently popular idea that awaits further debate and development.
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
destined to replace norm- and criterion-referenced testing in the schools.
You Answered
You Answered
4 / 4 pts
Question 2
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Which of the following is NOT a factor that can affect a test’s usefulness?
Diversity considerations
Education reform
Correct!
Correct!
Technical adequacy
Test user competency
4 / 4 pts
Question 3
According to the text, which statement about high-stakes testing (HST) is true?
HST is the use of a summative standardized test for educational decision making.
HST began as a state level initiative.
With the enactment of NCLB, HST became a requirement under federal law.
All of the above.
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 4
Why would some states use a nationally standardized test that might not be as well
aligned with state standards?
Because some states were pressured to develop a test in advance of developing
standards.
Correct!
Correct!
Because nationally standardized tests are better because the federal government
developed them.
Because national tests are performance standards-based
All of the above.
4 / 4 pts
Question 5
What does RTI stand for?
Readiness for instruction
Resistance to innovation
Response to intervention
Correct!
Correct!
None of the above
4 / 4 pts
Question 6
Universal screening is intended to:
assess all students to identify those at educational risk.
Correct!
Correct!
be used to ensure that all students prot from Tier 3 instruction.
ensure that the use of screening measures is not discriminatory.
require the screening of interventions to be sure they are research-based.
4 / 4 pts
Question 7
When RTI is fully implemented, it applies to:
both regular and special education personnel.
Correct!
Correct!
regular education personnel only.
special education personnel only.
neither regular nor special education personnel.
4 / 4 pts
Question 8
Why is it important to specify what we want to measure before we begin to test?
Ambiguous test questions could result.
To avoid interpretive errors.
Correct!
Correct!
To combine objective and subjective information.
You would not be accountable otherwise.
4 / 4 pts
Question 9
This type of test does NOT expect all students to complete all items:
Non-verbal
Power
Speed
Correct!
Correct!
Subjective
4 / 4 pts
Question 10
Which of the following best describes norm-referenced items?
Measure high-level thinking
Of uniform diculty level
Several items per objective
Tied to broad objectives
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 11
In a criterion-referenced test, we are interested in:
how a pupil compares with national norms.
how a pupil compares with others in his school system.
how a pupil compares with others in his class.
whether a pupil has achieved mastery of the skill.
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 12
Educational objectives should guide classroom activities and evaluation. To
accomplish this effectively, the objectives should be:
formulated by the teacher alone.
largely uniform throughout the nation.
reviewed and revised by concerned laymen.
stated in terms of specic, observable behaviors.
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 13
Which of the following is one of the functions of a test blueprint?
Balancing the proportions of learning outcomes and learning activities.
Determining that items are simple and direct measures of objectives.
Ensuring the test has content validity.
Helping the teacher develop a test that reects instructional emphases.
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 14
Which one of the following test attributes is most likely to be improved by use of a
table of specications?
Diculty
Objectivity
Reliability
Sampling
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 15
The use of “none of these” as an option in a multiple-choice item is only appropriate
when:
guessing is apt to be a serious problem.
more than ve correct answers can be provided.
the number of possible answer choices is limited to two or three.
the opinions provide absolutely correct or incorrect answers.
Correct!
Correct!
0 / 4 pts
Question 16
According to the authors, which objective item formats are most suitable for use in
interpretive exercises?
Matching
Multiple-choice
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
True-false
None of these
You Answered
You Answered
4 / 4 pts
Question 17
In an extended essay, your detailed scoring criteria should at least assign weights to
organization, process and:
congruence.
correspondence.
content.
Correct!
Correct!
criticism.
4 / 4 pts
Question 18
To test a student’s ability to use higher mental processes of logical reasoning, and
critical thinking, a(n) ___________test should be used?
essay
Correct!
Correct!
completion
matching
true-false
4 / 4 pts
Question 19
One prominient limitation of essay tests is:
the amount of construction time required.
the diculty of analyzing the subparts of the correct response.
Correct!
Correct!
the extent to which they are subject to guessing.
the lack of objectivity in the construction of the test.
4 / 4 pts
Question 20
Which of the following best reects a performance assessment?
Developing a class presentation utilizing more than one medium that demonstrates the
steps followed in completing the presentation.
Correct!
Correct!
Performing well enough on the GRE to obtain a combined verbal and quantitative score of
at least 1000.
Submitting your notebook to your teacher who will grade it based on whether there are
notes for each class meeting.
Writing an essay on the “Republican Revolution” in the 1994 elections, citing the primary
social, economic, and political forces that led to this event.
0 / 4 pts
Question 21
One of the major advantages of performance assessment over traditional tests is that
performance assessments
are superior for measuring knowledge of basic academic skills.
measure learning directly rather than relying on indicators.
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
require less time to develop and evaluate.
yield authentic rather than inauthentic results.
You Answered
You Answered
4 / 4 pts
Question 22
Which of the following best describes a portfolio?
It emerges from a process of continual renement over a period of time.
Correct!
Correct!
It includes all the student’s work for the semester.
Since a holistic score is assigned to a semester’s work, it decreases scoring time.
They do not lend themselves well to ongoing evaluation.
4 / 4 pts
Question 23
Rubrics may best be considered to be:
criteria for grading the portfolio.
Correct!
Correct!
the means for aggregating portfolio grades.
the reasons you are assigning a portfolio.
the sample of products that go into the portfolio.
4 / 4 pts
Question 24
Within a given item format, the items of a test should be arranged by:
increasing level of complexity.
Correct!
Correct!
information provided.
level of reading diculty.
subject matter content.
4 / 4 pts
Question 25
The rst decision made by the test constructor is determining the:
diculty of the test.
number of test-items to use.
purpose of the test.
Correct!
Correct!
types of test-items to use.
4 / 4 pts
Question 26
Use the following set of data from a criterion-referenced test; which item is probably
too dicult?
1
3
Correct!
Correct!
5
7
0 / 4 pts
Question 27
Marking and reporting systems should benet the pupil in all of the following ways
EXCEPT:
clarifying objectives of the educational program.
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
enhancing and maintaining pupil motivations.
indicating pupil’s strengths and weaknesses.
You Answered
You Answered
negatively reinforcing undesirable behavior.
4 / 4 pts
Question 28
Each mark in a course should be assigned and interpreted as:
a combination of measures of attitude and achievement.
a combination of measure of growth and attitude.
a measure of the level of achievement.
Correct!
Correct!
indicating similar achievement levels across schools.
4 / 4 pts
Question 29
The distribution below is :
negatively skewed.
normal.
positively skewed.
Correct!
Correct!
rectangular.
4 / 4 pts
Question 30
Another name for a histogram is:
bar graph.
Correct!
Correct!
frequency polygon.
smooth curve.
symmetrical distribution.
4 / 4 pts
Question 31
One of the disadvantages of a grouped frequency distribution is:
that it frequently has too many zeros in the frequency columns.
that it loses information about individual scores.
Correct!
Correct!
that it requires a lot of space to represent data accurately.
that it works well only if the range and number of scores is small.
0 / 4 pts
Question 32
In a normal distribution, approximately what percentage of scores lies between T-
scores of 40-80?
68%
You Answered
You Answered
80%
84%
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
98%
4 / 4 pts
Question 33
Which of the following fall(s) at a z-score of 0.0 in a normal distribution?
Mean
Median
Mode
Mean, media and mode
Correct!
Correct!
0 / 4 pts
Question 34
Assume that a set of 90 normally distributed test scores has a mean of 70 and a
standard deviation of 10. Which of the following represents the highest degree of
relative performance?
A percentile rank of 20
You Answered
You Answered
A raw score of 67
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
A T-score of 35
A z-score of - 1.2
4 / 4 pts
Question 35
Eliminating scores near the middle of a distribution cannot affect this statistic:
the item refers to the mean.
the item refers to the median.
the item refers to the mode.
the item refers to the range.
Correct!
Correct!
the item refers to the standard deviation.
4 / 4 pts
Question 36
An individual reported a correlation of 1.25 between form A and form B of an
intelligence test. From this coecient one would conclude that:
a mistake has been made; correlations can’t be greater than 1.
Correct!
Correct!
the test includes no measurement error.
the test is unusually reliable.
the test would be a good predictor of school achievement.
0 / 4 pts
Question 37
Which of the following correlation coecients indicates the highest degree of linear
relationship?
.00
You Answered
You Answered
.10
.81
.87
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
4 / 4 pts
Question 38
Which type of validity coecient is most appropriately used for selection purposes?
concurrent
construct
content
predictive
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 39
Which type of validity coecient is most important for personality tests?
Concurrent validity
Construct validity
Correct!
Correct!
Content validity
Predictive validity
4 / 4 pts
Question 40
If a thermometer measured the temperature in an oven as 400oF ve days in a row
when the temperature was actually 397oF, this measuring instrument would be
considered quite:
reliable and valid.
reliable but not valid.
Correct!
Correct!
unreliable and invalid.
valid but not reliable.
4 / 4 pts
Question 41
You administer the Quick and Dirty Personality Test on January 16, 1984, and March 1,
1984, to the same group of subjects and correlate the results. This gives you an
estimate of:
alternate forms reliability.
concurrent validity.
predictive validity.
test-retest reliability
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 42
When two intelligence tests are given to an adult a year or two apart, the difference in
individual’s IQ’s or percentile ranks from one test to the other is most likely due to:
error in measurement.
Correct!
Correct!
normal growth processes.
special education opportunities.
the effect of emotional factors.
4 / 4 pts
Question 43
The purpose for interpreting a test score as a band of scores, rather than a specic
value, is to:
eliminate the errors of measurement.
emphasize the similarities among pupils.
prevent attaching signicance to chance differences.
Correct!
Correct!
reduce the real differences among pupils.
4 / 4 pts
Question 44
The term “aptitude” means that the individual:
has developed cognitive skills prerequisite to learn a task.
has high “scholastic ability” to be successful in school.
has the innate capability to learn and to be successful in school.
is likely to be “successful” if the aptitude is present and is likely to be unsuccessful if not.
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 45
Which of the following types of test results may be given to parents without
interpretation?
Inventoried interests
Norms on an achievement test
Personality measures
None of the above
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 46
Which one of the following is a major advantage that teacher-made tests have over
standardized achievement tests?
Broad generalizations can be made from teacher-made tests.
Teacher-made tests are less dependent on verbal skills.
Teacher-made tests are more objective and easier to score.
Teacher-made tests can better match course objectives.
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Question 47
Which of the following represents the highest degree of relative performance?
A percentile rank of 75
A stanine score of 5
A T-score of 72
Correct!
Correct!
A z-score of 1.6
4 / 4 pts
Question 48
The Wechsler Full Scale IQ is an example of:
a percentile rank.
a raw score.
a standard score.
Correct!
Correct!
an anticipated achievement score.
4 / 4 pts
Question 49
The present status of personality testing may be best characterized as:
equivalent with achievement testing.
experimental and for restricted professional use.
Correct!
Correct!
largely worthless and not useful.
limited to testing interests and attitudes.
4 / 4 pts
Question 50
All of the following are appropriate uses for the results of standardized aptitude tests
EXCEPT:
adjusting instruction to meet individual needs.
assisting pupils with their educational plans.
evaluating pupils’ readiness for new learning.
judging the effectiveness of a new teaching method.
Correct!
Correct!
Quiz Score: 172 out of 200
