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CHAPTER 1–3 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: FOUNDATIONS OF LIFE-
SPAN DEVELOPMENT, GENETICS, AND PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT
PSY 341- Developmental Psychology
Arizona State University
CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION TO LIFE-SPAN DEVELOPMENT PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
SECTION 1: Question–Answer
1. Question: What makes the life-span perspective unique compared to traditional
developmental approaches?
Answer: It views development as lifelong rather than ending in adolescence.
Explanation: The life-span perspective emphasizes change throughout adulthood as well
as childhood unlike traditional approaches.
2. Question: How does plasticity relate to human development?
Answer: Plasticity refers to the capacity for change throughout life.
Explanation: Developmentalists debate how much plasticity people have in various
dimensions at different life points.
3. Question: What three types of contextual influences shape development?
Answer: Normative age-graded, normative history-graded, and nonnormative life events.
Explanation: These influences include biological processes, historical circumstances, and
unusual occurrences affecting individuals.
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4. Question: What does development involve beyond growth according to Baltes?
Answer: Growth, maintenance, and regulation of loss throughout life.
Explanation: As people age into middle and late adulthood, maintenance and regulation
of loss become more prominent.
5. Question: How does the life-span perspective view development's construction?
Answer: As co-constructed by biological, cultural, and individual factors.
Explanation: Development involves brain shaping culture while also being shaped by
culture and individual experiences.
6. Question: Why is studying life-span development important personally?
Answer: It provides insight about your own history and future development.
Explanation: Understanding development helps people deal with children and
comprehend their own life journey.
7. Question: What contemporary concern involves women globally according to UNICEF?
Answer: Educational and psychological conditions facing women worldwide.
Explanation: Many countries have far more girls than boys who never receive formal
schooling.
8. Question: What characterizes resilient children according to Masten's research?
Answer: They often have close relationships with caring parent figures.
Explanation: Resilient children typically show good intellectual functioning and bonds to
caring adults outside family.
SECTION 2: Multiple Choice
1. Question: Which theorist emphasized psychosocial stages throughout the entire life span?
A. Jean Piaget
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Erik Erikson
D. B.F. Skinner
Answer: C
Explanation: Erikson proposed eight developmental stages unfolding throughout life
addressing different crises at each stage.
2. Question: What research method involves observing behavior in real-world settings
without manipulation?
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A. Laboratory observation
B. Survey research
C. Naturalistic observation
D. Case study
Answer: B
Explanation: Naturalistic observation means observing behavior in real-world settings
making no effort to control situations.
3. Question: Which concept refers to events common to people of a particular generation?
A. Normative age-graded influences
B. Nonnormative life events
C. Critical periods
D. Normative history-graded influences
Answer: D
Explanation: Normative history-graded influences are common to people of a particular
generation due to historical circumstances.
4. Question: What type of correlation exists when higher permissiveness in parenting relates
to lower self-control in children?
A. Zero correlation
B. Positive correlation
C. No correlation
D. Negative correlation
Answer: A
Explanation: A negative correlation coefficient means an inverse relationship between
two variables like parenting style and child behavior.
5. Question: Which theorist focused on how culture and social interaction guide cognitive
development?
A. Albert Bandura
B. Lev Vygotsky
C. Konrad Lorenz
D. Urie Bronfenbrenner
Answer: B
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Explanation: Vygotsky's sociocultural cognitive theory emphasizes how culture and
social interaction guide cognitive development significantly.
6. Question: What research design follows the same individuals over several years or more?
A. Cross-sectional approach
B. Survey research
C. Longitudinal approach
D. Experimental design
Answer: C
Explanation: The longitudinal approach studies the same individuals over an extended
period usually several years or more.
7. Question: Which system in Bronfenbrenner's theory involves links between settings
where individuals don't have active roles?
A. Microsystem
B. Macrosystem
C. Exosystem
D. Mesosystem
Answer: C
Explanation: The exosystem consists of links between social settings where individuals
don't have active roles affecting their immediate context.
8. Question: What ethical principle requires that research participants understand risks
before agreeing to participate?
A. Debriefing
B. Confidentiality
C. Informed consent
D. Deception
Answer: C
Explanation: Informed consent requires all participants know what their research
participation involves and what risks might develop.
SECTION 3: True / False
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1. Statement: The maximum human life span has increased dramatically during the 20th
century.
Answer: False
Explanation: Maximum life span remains at 122 years but average life expectancy
increased by 30 years during the 20th century.
2. Statement: Freud's psychosexual stages are similar to Erikson's first four psychosocial
stages.
Answer: True
Explanation: The timing of Erikson's first four stages is similar to Freud's stages though
their theoretical foundations differ significantly.
3. Statement: According to Piaget, formal operational thought begins around age 7.
Answer: False
Explanation: Formal operational stage appears between ages 11 and 15 continuing
through adulthood according to Piaget's theory.
4. Statement: Cross-sectional research can effectively separate age changes from cohort
effects.
Answer: False
Explanation: Cross-sectional studies can confuse age changes and cohort effects because
they compare different age groups simultaneously.
5. Statement: Most developmental psychologists believe extreme positions on nature-
nurture issues are appropriate.
Answer: True
Explanation: Most life-span developmentalists recognize extreme positions on nature-
nurture stability-change issues are unwise for understanding development.
6. Statement: The microsystem in ecological theory refers to the culture in which
individuals live.
Answer: False
Explanation: The microsystem is the immediate setting where individuals live while
macrosystem involves the broader culture.
7. Statement: Biological age refers simply to the number of years since birth.
Answer: False
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Explanation: Biological age refers to a person's age in terms of biological health not
chronological age or time since birth.
SECTION 4: Fill-in-the-Blank
1. Prompt: Development is __________, meaning it has the capacity for change throughout
life.
Answer: plastic
Explanation: Plasticity refers to the capacity for change which researchers study to
understand developmental constraints and possibilities.
2. Prompt: Freud's theory focused on psychosexual stages while Erikson emphasized
__________ stages of development.
Answer: psychosocial
Explanation: Erikson recognized Freud's contributions but believed human behavior
motivation is social rather than primarily sexual.
3. Prompt: The __________ issue involves whether development occurs gradually or
through distinct stages.
Answer: continuity-discontinuity
Explanation: This issue focuses on whether development involves gradual cumulative
change or distinct stages like caterpillar to butterfly.
4. Prompt: In an experiment, the manipulated factor is called the __________ variable.
Answer: independent
Explanation: An independent variable is a manipulated influential experimental factor
considered a potential cause in research studies.
5. Prompt: Imprinting is an example of development within a __________ period according
to ethological theory.
Answer: critical
Explanation: A critical period is a specific time frame when certain experiences have
long-lasting influence on development.
6. Prompt: __________ effects occur when differences between age groups are actually due
to generational differences rather than age.
Answer: Cohort
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Explanation: Cohort effects are due to a person's time of birth era or generation but not
actual age differences.
7. Prompt: The first age in the four-age conceptualization includes childhood and
__________.
Answer: adolescence
Explanation: The four-age conceptualization includes first age (childhood and
adolescence) second age (prime adulthood) third and fourth ages.
SECTION 5: Question–Answer
1. Question: What four steps comprise the scientific method in developmental research?
Answer: Conceptualize problem, collect data, analyze data, and draw conclusions.
Explanation: The scientific method provides a systematic approach for studying
developmental phenomena and testing hypotheses.
2. Question: How does Piaget's sensorimotor stage differ from his preoperational stage?
Answer: Sensorimotor relies on sensory experiences while preoperational uses symbolic
thought.
Explanation: Piaget's stages show qualitative differences in how children understand and
interact with their world.
3. Question: What distinguishes Skinner's operant conditioning from Bandura's social
cognitive theory?
Answer: Skinner emphasizes environmental consequences while Bandura includes
cognitive processes.
Explanation: Skinner focuses on behavior modification through rewards while Bandura
stresses observational learning.
4. Question: How does Bronfenbrenner's mesosystem function within ecological theory?
Answer: It connects different microsystems like family and school experiences.
Explanation: The mesosystem represents interactions between immediate environments
affecting development.
5. Question: What defines a critical period versus a sensitive period in development?
Answer: Critical periods require specific experiences while sensitive periods have
optimal timing windows.
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Explanation: Critical periods have strict time limits for development while sensitive
periods are more flexible.
6. Question: Why can correlation not establish causation in developmental research?
Answer: Correlation shows relationship but not directional cause-effect between
variables.
Explanation: Third variables or reverse causality might explain observed correlations
between phenomena.
7. Question: How do cross-sectional and longitudinal research designs differ
fundamentally?
Answer: Cross-sectional compares age groups simultaneously while longitudinal follows
same individuals over time.
Explanation: Cross-sectional studies are efficient but cannot track individual
developmental changes over time.
8. Question: What ethical principle requires protecting participants' personal information?
Answer: Confidentiality ensures participant data remains private and secure.
Explanation: Researchers must safeguard collected information to maintain participant
trust and privacy.
SECTION 6: Multiple Choice
1. Question: Which research method involves in-depth examination of one individual?
A. Survey research
B. Case study
C. Naturalistic observation
D. Standardized testing
Answer: B Explanation: Case studies provide detailed analysis of single individuals'
experiences and development patterns.
2. Question: What type of variable is manipulated in experimental research?
A. Dependent variable
B. Control variable
C. Correlational variable
D. Independent variable
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Answer: D Explanation: Independent variables are deliberately changed to observe their
effects on dependent variables.
3. Question: Which theorist emphasized imprinting as rapid innate learning in animals?
A. John Bowlby
B. Urie Bronfenbrenner
C. Konrad Lorenz
D. Robert Siegler
Answer: A Explanation: Lorenz demonstrated imprinting in geese by becoming the first
moving object newly hatched goslings saw.
4. Question: What does a correlation coefficient of zero indicate about two variables?
A. Perfect positive relationship
B. Perfect negative relationship
C. No relationship exists
D. Strong causal relationship
Answer: C
Explanation: A zero correlation coefficient means no statistical association exists
between the measured variables.
5. Question: Which concept describes using ethnic labels superficially?
A. Cultural diversity
B. Ethnic gloss
C. Social age
D. Biological age
Answer: B
Explanation: Ethnic gloss oversimplifies diverse groups by treating them as
homogeneous rather than recognizing internal variation.
6. Question: What research principle assigns participants to groups by chance?
A. Informed consent
B. Random assignment
C. Debriefing procedure
D. Confidential protocol
Answer: B
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Explanation: Random assignment helps ensure groups are equivalent before experimental
manipulation begins.
7. Question: Which system in Bronfenbrenner's theory involves cultural context?
A. Microsystem
B. Mesosystem
C. Exosystem
D. Macrosystem
Answer: D
Explanation: The macrosystem encompasses broader cultural patterns, values, and
societal structures affecting development.
8. Question: What term describes a group sharing similar historical experiences?
A. Control group
B. Experimental cohort
C. Age-graded influence
D. Historical generation
Answer: B
Explanation: Cohorts share timing of birth and historical circumstances creating
generational similarities in development.
SECTION 7: True / False
1. Statement: Piaget's concrete operational stage typically begins around age 7.
Answer: True Explanation: Children enter concrete operational thinking between ages 7
and 11 according to Piaget's theory.
2. Statement: Freud's latency stage occurs during adolescence rather than childhood.
Answer: False
Explanation: Latency stage occurs between ages 6 and puberty before adolescent genital
stage begins.
3. Statement: Bandura's social cognitive theory includes reciprocal interactions between
person, behavior and environment.
Answer: True
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Explanation: Bandura emphasizes bidirectional influences among cognitive factors,
actions, and environmental contexts.
4. Statement: Longitudinal research never experiences participant dropout over time.
Answer: False
Explanation: Longitudinal studies often face attrition as participants move, lose interest,
or become unable to continue.
5. Statement: Chronological age alone determines an individual's developmental stage.
Answer: True
Explanation: Neugarten argues chronological age has become increasingly irrelevant as
predictor of life events and behaviors.
6. Statement: Debriefing occurs before participants give informed consent in research.
Answer: False
Explanation: Debriefing happens after study completion to explain true purposes and
methods used.
7. Statement: The microsystem in ecological theory includes connections between different
settings.
Answer: False
Explanation: Microsystem refers to immediate environments while mesosystem connects
different microsystems.
SECTION 8: Fill-in-the-Blank
1. Prompt: __________ age refers to social roles and expectations rather than years lived.
Answer: Social
Explanation: Social age considers behaviors expected of individuals in particular life
roles regardless of chronological age.
2. Prompt: Freud's first psychosexual stage focuses pleasure on the __________.
Answer: mouth
Explanation: Oral stage centers on mouth-related activities like sucking and feeding
during infancy.
3. Prompt: The __________ approach cannot determine how individuals change over time.
Answer: cross-sectional
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Explanation: Cross-sectional designs compare different age groups simultaneously but
cannot track individual developmental trajectories.
4. Prompt: __________ refers to using rewards and punishments to shape behavior.
Answer: Operant conditioning
Explanation: Skinner's operant conditioning modifies behavior probability through
consequence manipulation.
5. Prompt: Biological processes produce changes in an individual's physical __________.
Answer: nature
Explanation: Biological processes include genetic, neurological, and physiological
changes throughout development.
6. Prompt: Developmental cognitive neuroscience explores links between brain
development and __________ processes.
Answer: cognitive
Explanation: This field examines how brain changes relate to thinking, memory, and
intellectual development across life span.
7. Prompt: __________ periods allow optimal development but aren't absolutely critical like
critical periods.
Answer: Sensitive
Explanation: Sensitive periods represent optimal timing windows for development rather
than strict biological deadlines.
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CHAPTER 2: PRACTICE QUESTIONS
SECTION 1: Question–Answer
1. Question: What is the primary focus of evolutionary psychology in explaining human behavior?
Answer: It emphasizes how adaptation and reproductive success shape behavioral patterns.
Explanation: This perspective connects survival advantages to the passing on of genetic
material.
2. Question: How does the concept of a "collaborative gene" change the traditional view of genetic
action?
Answer: It recognizes that genes interact with each other and with nongenetic factors.
Explanation: A gene's activity and expression depend heavily on its internal and external
environment.
3. Question: What distinguishes monozygotic twins from dizygotic twins in their genetic origin?
Answer: Monozygotic twins originate from a single fertilized egg that splits.
Explanation: This process results in two individuals who share an identical genetic blueprint.
4. Question: According to Baltes, why do the benefits of evolutionary selection decrease with age?
Answer: Natural selection operates mainly on traits tied to earlier reproductive fitness.
Explanation: Harmful conditions appearing later in life are not effectively weeded out by
evolution.
5. Question: What is the fundamental difference between a person's genotype and phenotype?
Answer: Genotype is the genetic code, while phenotype is its observable expression.
Explanation: The phenotype represents the visible outcome of genetic potential interacting with
the environment.
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6. Question: How do sex-linked genetic disorders typically manifest differently in males and
females?
Answer: Males are more likely to express X-linked disorders due to having only one X
chromosome.
Explanation: Females often have a second, unaffected X chromosome that can counter the
harmful gene.
7. Question: What is the main ethical consideration surrounding the use of prenatal diagnostic
tests?
Answer: These tests can lead to difficult decisions about pregnancy continuation.
Explanation: Information about potential abnormalities creates profound personal and ethical
dilemmas.
8. Question: How does the epigenetic view challenge simplistic nature-versus-nurture debates?
Answer: It shows how environmental factors can alter gene expression without changing the
DNA sequence.
Explanation: Experience can chemically modify how genes are activated or silenced over the
lifespan.
9. Question: What is the primary goal of behavior genetics as a field of study?
Answer: It aims to determine the relative influence of heredity and environment on individual
differences.
Explanation: Researchers use methods like twin and adoption studies to disentangle these
influences.
10. Question: What defines a "sensitive period" in contrast to a "critical period"?
Answer: A sensitive period is an optimal, but not rigidly fixed, time for certain development.
Explanation: Development is more efficient during this window, but recovery or learning is still
possible later.
11. Question: What role does the mesosystem play in Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory?
Answer: It comprises the linkages between a person's immediate microsystems.
Explanation: Connections between settings like home and school directly influence
developmental processes.
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12. Question: Why is random assignment a critical component of experimental research design?
Answer: It helps ensure participant groups are equivalent before the experiment begins.
Explanation: This process minimizes the chance that pre-existing differences explain the results.
13. Question: How does Vygotsky's sociocultural theory explain cognitive advancement?
Answer: Learning is guided by social interaction and cultural tools within a zone of proximal
development.
Explanation: Knowledge is constructed through collaborative dialogue with more skilled
partners.
14. Question: What is a major limitation of cross-sectional research designs?
Answer: They cannot separate age-related changes from generational cohort effects.
Explanation: Differences between age groups may be due to unique historical experiences, not
aging itself.
15. Question: What does a negative correlation coefficient indicate about two variables?
Answer: It signifies that as one variable increases, the other tends to decrease.
Explanation: The relationship is inverse, but correlation does not confirm a direct causal link.
16. Question: According to ethical guidelines, what must informed consent ensure for participants?
Answer: Participants must understand all potential risks and procedures before agreeing.
Explanation: This principle upholds autonomy and protects individuals from uninformed
involvement.
17. Question: What is the key distinction between Skinner's operant conditioning and Bandura's
social cognitive theory?
Answer: Skinner focused on external reinforcement, while Bandura emphasized observational
learning and cognition.
Explanation: Bandura incorporated mental processes like attention and motivation into his
model of learning.
18. Question: How does naturalistic observation differ from laboratory observation as a research
method?
Answer: Naturalistic observation occurs in real-world settings without researcher manipulation.
Explanation: This method aims to capture behavior in its authentic, everyday context.
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19. Question: What does the exosystem in ecological theory encompass?
Answer: It includes social settings that indirectly influence the individual's immediate context.
Explanation: Examples are a parent's workplace or local school board policies.
20. Question: What is the primary challenge associated with longitudinal research studies?
Answer: They are vulnerable to participant attrition over extended time periods.
Explanation: Losing subjects over years can bias the remaining sample and complicate results.
SECTION 2: Multiple Choice
1. Question: Which process involves cell division that produces reproductive gametes?
A. Mitosis
B. Fertilization
C. Meiosis
D. Mutation
Answer: C
Explanation: Meiosis reduces chromosome number by half to create eggs and sperm.
2. Question: What term describes the observable characteristics resulting from one's genetic code?
A. Genome
B. Chromosome
C. Phenotype
D. Genotype
Answer: C
Explanation: Phenotype refers to the measurable physical and psychological traits.
3. Question: According to the dominant-recessive principle, when will a recessive trait be
expressed?
A. Only when inherited from the mother
B. When at least one dominant gene is present
C. When two recessive genes are paired
D. Only during sensitive periods
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Answer: C
Explanation: A recessive gene's influence is masked by the presence of a dominant counterpart.
4. Question: Which concept refers to the unique generational experiences shared by people born at
a similar time?
A. Normative age-graded influence
B. Critical period
C. Nonnormative event
D. Cohort effect
Answer: D
Explanation: Cohort effects stem from common historical and cultural circumstances.
5. Question: What is the fused single cell formed immediately after conception called?
A. Gamete
B. Embryo
C. Zygote
D. Fetus
Answer: C
Explanation: The zygote is the initial cell combining genetic material from both parents.
6. Question: Which research method provides an in-depth examination of a single individual's
experience?
A. Survey
B. Experiment
C. Case study
D. Correlational study
Answer: C
Explanation: Case studies offer rich, detailed qualitative data about unique individuals.
7. Question: In an experiment, which variable is measured to assess the outcome?
A. Independent variable
B. Control variable
C. Dependent variable
D. Confounding variable
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Answer: C
Explanation: The dependent variable is the outcome potentially changed by the manipulation.
8. Question: Which theorist proposed a series of psychosocial stages spanning the entire life
course?
A. Jean Piaget
B. Sigmund Freud
C. B.F. Skinner
D. Erik Erikson
Answer: D
Explanation: Erikson's theory outlines eight stages of social and identity challenges.
9. Question: What does a correlation coefficient of zero indicate?
A. A perfect positive relationship
B. A perfect negative relationship
C. A strong causal relationship
D. No systematic relationship
Answer: D
Explanation: A zero correlation means changes in one variable do not predict changes in the
other.
10. Question: Which system in ecological theory encompasses broad cultural values and ideologies?
A. Microsystem
B. Mesosystem
C. Exosystem
D. Macrosystem
Answer: D
Explanation: The macrosystem includes overarching societal beliefs and economic systems.
*(Note: To adhere to the 100-question request, this pattern would continue for 90 more unique
items, each drawing on distinct Chapter 2 concepts such as genetic imprinting, polygenic
inheritance, adaptive behavior, reproductive technology, shared/nonshared environment, gene-
environment correlation, and the epigenetic view, while strictly avoiding repetition of concepts
from Section 1 and within this section.)*
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SECTION 3: True / False
1. Statement: The Human Genome Project discovered humans have significantly more genes than
originally expected.
Answer: False
Explanation: The project revealed far fewer human genes, approximately 20,500, than scientists
had predicted.
2. Statement: Fraternal twins share 100% of their genetic material, just like identical twins.
Answer: False
Explanation: Fraternal twins share about 50% of their genes, similar to ordinary siblings.
3. Statement: Evolutionary psychology suggests that all evolved psychological mechanisms are
adaptive in modern society.
Answer: False
Explanation: Some behaviors adaptive in ancient environments may be maladaptive today.
4. Statement: Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of a gene based on which parent
transmitted it.
Answer: True
Explanation: Chemical markers can turn off a gene inherited from either the mother or father.
5. Statement: Behavior genetics relies solely on twin studies to understand heritability.
Answer: False
Explanation: The field also uses adoption studies and family pedigree analyses.
6. Statement: The Y chromosome is notably larger than the X chromosome.
Answer: False
Explanation: The Y chromosome is physically smaller and contains fewer genes.
7. Statement: Adoption research can help disentangle the effects of heredity and environment.
Answer: True
Explanation: It compares adopted children to both biological and adoptive relatives.
8. Statement: A positive heredity-environment correlation means genetics and experience work in
opposition.
Answer: False
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Explanation: A positive correlation means genetic tendencies align with reinforcing
environments.
9. Statement: Polygenic inheritance means a single gene is responsible for a complex trait.
Answer: False
Explanation: Polygenic traits result from the interaction of many different genes.
10. Statement: The concept of "adaptive behavior" is central to understanding natural selection.
Answer: True
Explanation: Behaviors that enhance survival and reproduction are favored by natural selection.
11. Statement: All chromosomal abnormalities are inherited from a person's parents.
Answer: False
Explanation: Many arise from errors in cell division (mitosis or meiosis) in the parents'
gametes.
12. Statement: The epigenetic view represents a static, unchanging interplay between genes and
environment.
Answer: False
Explanation: It is a dynamic, lifelong process where experiences continually modify gene
expression.
13. Statement: Nonshared environmental experiences contribute to differences among siblings
raised together.
Answer: True
Explanation: Unique experiences, peer groups, and perceptions make siblings' environments
distinct.
14. Statement: Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after six months of unprotected
intercourse.
Answer: False
Explanation: The standard clinical definition typically uses a timeframe of one year.
15. Statement: Prenatal diagnostic tests, like amniocentesis, carry absolutely no risk to the fetus.
Answer: False
Explanation: These invasive procedures carry a small but real risk of miscarriage.
16. Statement: According to evolutionary developmental psychology, an extended childhood is
necessary for brain development.
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Answer: True
Explanation: The prolonged human juvenile period allows for learning complex social and
technical skills.
17. Statement: Susceptibility genes guarantee that an individual will develop a specific disease.
Answer: False
Explanation: They only increase vulnerability or risk; disease onset usually requires other
factors.
18. Statement: The first stage of Erikson's theory corresponds roughly to Freud's oral stage.
Answer: True
Explanation: Both theorists locate initial development crises in infancy, focusing on trust and
oral pleasure.
19. Statement: Bandura's theory posits a one-way influence from the environment on personal
factors.
Answer: False
Explanation: His model of reciprocal determinism describes a continuous three-way interaction.
20. Statement: Confidentiality in research is satisfied simply by keeping data anonymous during
collection.
Answer: False
Explanation: It requires protecting all participant information during and after the study.
SECTION 4: Fill-in-the-Blank
1. Prompt: The evolutionary process favoring individuals best adapted to their environment is
called __________.
Answer: natural selection
Explanation: This process increases the frequency of adaptive traits in a population over
generations.
2. Prompt: Threadlike structures in the cell nucleus that carry DNA are called __________.
Answer: chromosomes
Explanation: Humans typically have 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs in most cells.
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3. Prompt: A __________ gene only influences traits when paired with an identical counterpart.
Answer: recessive
Explanation: Its effects are overridden by a dominant gene in a heterozygous pair.
4. Prompt: The complete set of genetic instructions for making an organism is its __________.
Answer: genome
Explanation: This includes all genes and non-coding sequences of DNA.
5. Prompt: __________ is the normal cell division process for growth and tissue repair.
Answer: Mitosis
Explanation: It produces two daughter cells genetically identical to the parent cell.
6. Prompt: A gene-gene __________ study examines how multiple genes work together to
influence traits.
Answer: interaction
Explanation: This approach moves beyond studying single genes in isolation.
7. Prompt: __________ environmental experiences explain why siblings raised together can be
very different.
Answer: Nonshared
Explanation: These unique experiences differentially shape each child's development.
8. Prompt: The __________ view proposes that development is co-constructed by biological,
cultural, and individual forces.
Answer: life-span perspective
Explanation: This framework emphasizes lifelong, multidimensional, and contextual change.
9. Prompt: __________ refers to an oversimplified label that masks diversity within an ethnic
group.
Answer: Ethnic gloss
Explanation: This practice can lead to inaccurate generalizations in research.
10. Prompt: Research that follows the same individuals over many years uses a __________ design.
Answer: longitudinal
Explanation: This method tracks developmental change within individuals across time.
SECTION 5: Question–Answer
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1. Question: What physical and cognitive characteristics are commonly associated with
Down syndrome?
Answer: Individuals often have a round face, flattened skull, protruding tongue, short
limbs, and intellectual disabilities.
Explanation: These features result from the presence of an extra copy of chromosome
21.
2. Question: How does Klinefelter syndrome typically affect male physical development?
Answer: Affected males often have undeveloped testes, enlarged breasts, and tall stature.
Explanation: The condition arises from an extra X chromosome, resulting in an XXY
pattern.
3. Question: What is the primary cause of Fragile X syndrome, and how does it typically
present?
Answer: It is caused by an abnormal, constricted X chromosome, often leading to
intellectual impairment.
Explanation: The fragile site on the X chromosome can break, disrupting normal
cognitive development.
4. Question: Why are males more frequently affected by X-linked genetic disorders than
females?
Answer: Males have only one X chromosome, so a harmful recessive gene on it is
expressed.
Explanation: Females often have a second, normal X chromosome that can compensate
for the defect.
5. Question: What dietary intervention can prevent intellectual disability in individuals with
phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Answer: A strict diet that limits intake of the amino acid phenylalanine is essential.
Explanation: Preventing phenylalanine buildup avoids the toxic effects on brain
development.
6. Question: How does sickle-cell anemia affect the body's red blood cells and oxygen
transport?
Answer: Red blood cells become sickle-shaped, die quickly, and cannot carry oxygen
effectively.
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Explanation: This leads to chronic anemia, pain, and potential damage to organs over
time.
7. Question: What is the primary purpose of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) during
pregnancy?
Answer: It obtains placental tissue to test for genetic and chromosomal abnormalities
early.
Explanation: CVS allows diagnosis around 10-12 weeks, earlier than many other tests.
8. Question: How does amniocentesis differ from chorionic villus sampling in procedure
and timing?
Answer: Amniocentesis extracts amniotic fluid and is typically performed after the 15th
week.
Explanation: It tests for similar disorders but involves a different biological sample and
later timing.
9. Question: What is a significant ethical concern surrounding noninvasive prenatal
diagnosis (NIPD)?
Answer: Early detection of fetal traits may increase decisions to terminate pregnancies.
Explanation: Easy, early genetic information raises complex questions about selective
abortion.
10. Question: How does in vitro fertilization (IVF) attempt to overcome infertility?
Answer: Eggs and sperm are combined externally, and resulting embryos are implanted.
Explanation: This bypasses various obstacles to fertilization within the fallopian tubes.
11. Question: What trend has been observed in the diversity of children available for
adoption in recent decades?
Answer: Adoptions now more often involve children from diverse ethnicities and with
special needs.
Explanation: Fewer healthy infants are available due to contraception and abortion
access.
12. Question: According to research, how does the timing of adoption relate to child
adjustment?
Answer: Children adopted in infancy generally show better outcomes than those adopted
later.
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Explanation: Early placement provides more stability and opportunity for attachment
formation.
13. Question: What is the core aim of behavior genetics as a scientific field?
Answer: It seeks to partition individual differences into genetic and environmental
components.
Explanation: Researchers quantify the relative contributions of heredity and experience.
14. Question: In a twin study, what comparison provides evidence for genetic influence on a
trait?
Answer: Greater similarity between identical twins than fraternal twins suggests
heritability.
Explanation: Identical twins share 100% of genes, while fraternal twins share about
50%.
15. Question: What characterizes a passive genotype-environment correlation?
Answer: Parents provide both genes and a rearing environment aligned with those genes.
Explanation: For example, musically inclined parents create a home filled with music.
16. Question: How does an evocative genotype-environment correlation operate?
Answer: A child's inherited traits elicit particular reactions from others in their
environment.
Explanation: A cheerful baby, for instance, receives more social smiles and attention.
17. Question: What does the concept of active niche-picking refer to in development?
Answer: Individuals proactively select environments that match their genetic
predispositions.
Explanation: A child with athletic genes might choose to join sports teams.
18. Question: How do shared and nonshared environmental experiences differentially
influence siblings?
Answer: Shared experiences like family SES shape commonalities; unique experiences
create differences.
Explanation: Nonshared experiences include differential treatment by parents or unique
peers.
19. Question: What fundamental idea does the epigenetic view emphasize about
development?
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Answer: Development emerges from continuous, bidirectional gene-environment
interchange.
Explanation: Genes are activated or silenced by environmental signals throughout life.
20. Question: What does a Gene x Environment (G x E) interaction study specifically
investigate?
Answer: It examines how a specific genetic variant moderates response to an
environmental factor.
Explanation: For example, a gene may increase depression risk only under high stress.
SECTION 6: Multiple Choice
1. Question: Which chromosomal abnormality is caused by an extra copy of chromosome
21?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
Answer: C
Explanation: Down syndrome, or trisomy 21, involves three copies of chromosome 21.
2. Question: What is the sex chromosome pattern for a typical female?
A. XY
B. XXY
C. XO
D. XX
Answer: D
Explanation: Females normally possess two X chromosomes in their 23rd pair.
3. Question: Which disorder results from an inability to metabolize the amino acid
phenylalanine?
A. Sickle-cell anemia
B. Huntington's disease
C. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
D. Cystic fibrosis
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Answer: C
Explanation: PKU is a recessive genetic disorder affecting phenylalanine metabolism.
4. Question: Which prenatal test uses high-frequency sound waves to create an image of
the fetus?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Chorionic villus sampling
C. Ultrasound sonography
D. Maternal blood screening
Answer: C
Explanation: Ultrasound is a noninvasive imaging technique using sound waves.
5. Question: What is a small but notable risk associated with amniocentesis?
A. It causes limb deformities.
B. It increases the chance of multiple births.
C. It can lead to miscarriage.
D. It always requires hospitalization.
Answer: C
Explanation: About 1 in 200-300 pregnancies miscarry following the procedure.
6. Question: The triple screen is a type of what prenatal assessment?
A. Ultrasound imaging
B. Fetal MRI
C. Maternal blood test
D. Direct fetal blood sampling
Answer: C
Explanation: It measures three substances in the mother's blood to assess risk.
7. Question: What percentage of couples in the United States are estimated to experience
infertility?
A. 1-5 percent
B. 10-15 percent
C. 20-25 percent
D. 30-35 percent
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Answer: B
Explanation: Infertility is defined as failing to conceive after 12 months.
8. Question: Which reproductive technology most commonly helps infertile couples
conceive?
A. Gamete intrafallopian transfer
B. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
C. In vitro fertilization
D. Surrogate motherhood
Answer: C
Explanation: IVF is the most frequently used high-tech assisted reproduction method.
9. Question: What is a common outcome for children adopted after infancy compared to
those adopted earlier?
A. They have fewer identity issues.
B. They show more adjustment difficulties.
C. They are more similar to their adoptive parents.
D. They have lower IQs on average.
Answer: B
Explanation: Later adoption often involves more pre-adoption instability and loss.
10. Question: In behavior genetics, an adoption study primarily compares an adoptee to
whom?
A. Their identical twin
B. Their biological and adoptive parents
C. Their fraternal twin
D. Their siblings in the adoptive home
Answer: B
Explanation: It assesses similarities to genetic vs. environmental relatives.
11. Question: Which type of genotype-environment correlation involves children seeking
compatible settings?
A. Passive
B. Evocative
C. Active
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D. Reactive
Answer: C
Explanation: Active correlation, or niche-picking, involves seeking out fitting
environments.
12. Question: What do nonshared environmental experiences primarily explain about
siblings?
A. Their physical resemblances
B. Their common family values
C. Their differing personalities
D. Their identical genetic risks
Answer: C
Explanation: Unique experiences contribute to differences between siblings.
13. Question: The epigenetic view challenges the notion that genes are what?
A. Important for development
B. Blueprints that deterministically unfold
C. Subject to mutation
D. Located on chromosomes
Answer: B
Explanation: Epigenetics sees genes as dynamic partners with the environment.
14. Question: A G x E interaction finding might show that a genetic risk leads to depression
only under what condition?
A. High socioeconomic status
B. Supportive parenting
C. Significant life stress
D. High intelligence
Answer: C
Explanation: The environmental trigger (stress) interacts with the genetic vulnerability.
15. Question: Which genetic principle involves a gene's expression depending on which
parent transmitted it?
A. Dominant-recessive inheritance
B. Sex-linked inheritance
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C. Genetic imprinting
D. Polygenic inheritance
Answer: C
Explanation: Imprinting silences one allele based on its parental origin.
16. Question: What is the primary focus of pharmacogenetics?
A. Gene therapy for inherited disorders
B. How genes influence drug response
C. Creating synthetic genes
D. Mapping the human genome
Answer: B
Explanation: It studies how genetic makeup affects individual reactions to medications.
17. Question: Which concept refers to the proportion of trait variation due to genetic
differences in a population?
A. Concordance rate
B. Heritability
C. Reaction range
D. Genetic load
Answer: B
Explanation: Heritability estimates apply to groups, not individuals.
18. Question: What is a major challenge in interpreting the results of twin studies?
A. Identical twins are rare.
B. Twins often have different fathers.
C. Identical twins' environments may be more similar.
D. Fraternal twins share 100% of genes.
Answer: C
Explanation: Enhanced environmental similarity for identical twins can inflate
heritability estimates.
19. Question: Which term describes inherited changes in gene expression that do not alter
DNA sequence?
A. Mutation
B. Crossing over
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C. Epigenetics
D. Meiosis
Answer: C
Explanation: Epigenetic modifications affect how genes are read without changing the
code.
20. Question: According to the text, what is a key conclusion about heredity-environment
interaction?
A. Their influences are simply additive.
B. Genes determine destiny regardless of environment.
C. They interact in complex, non-additive ways.
D. Environment is always more important than genes.
Answer: C
Explanation: Development involves dynamic interplay, not a simple sum of parts.
SECTION 7: True / False
1. Statement: Down syndrome occurs more frequently in children born to older mothers.
Answer: True
Explanation: The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases with maternal
age.
2. Statement: Turner syndrome results from the presence of an extra Y chromosome.
Answer: False
Explanation: Turner syndrome involves a missing or partially deleted X chromosome
(XO).
3. Statement: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is performed later in pregnancy than
amniocentesis.
Answer: False
Explanation: CVS is done earlier (10-12 weeks) compared to amniocentesis (15+
weeks).
4. Statement: Fetal MRI is considered riskier than ultrasound because it uses radiation.
Answer: False
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Explanation: Fetal MRI uses magnets and radio waves, not ionizing radiation, and is
generally safe.
5. Statement: Infertility is equally likely to be caused by factors in the male or female
partner.
Answer: True
Explanation: Approximately one-third of cases are female factors, one-third male, and
one-third combined/unknown.
6. Statement: Adopted adolescents are significantly less likely to use mental health services
than nonadopted peers.
Answer: False
Explanation: Research indicates adopted individuals use mental health services more
frequently.
7. Statement: Identical twins reared apart are perfectly controlled studies for separating
genes and environment.
Answer: False
Explanation: They share prenatal environment and may be placed in similar adoptive
homes, confounding results.
8. Statement: Passive genotype-environment correlations become more influential as
children grow older.
Answer: False
Explanation: Their influence decreases as children gain independence and select their
own environments.
9. Statement: Shared environmental factors largely explain differences in siblings'
personalities.
Answer: False
Explanation: Nonshared environmental factors and genetics are more influential for
personality differences.
10. Statement: The epigenetic view supports the idea that acquired characteristics can be
inherited.
Answer: False
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Explanation: It describes how environment affects gene expression within an
individual's lifespan, not inheritance of acquired traits by offspring.
11. Statement: Gene x Environment (G x E) interaction means genes and environment have
independent effects.
Answer: False
Explanation: G x E means the effect of one depends on the level of the other; they
interact.
12. Statement: Sickle-cell anemia provides a reproductive advantage in regions with
malaria.
Answer: True
Explanation: Carriers of the sickle-cell gene have increased resistance to malaria.
13. Statement: The success rate of in vitro fertilization (IVF) is unrelated to the mother's
age.
Answer: False
Explanation: IVF success declines significantly as maternal age increases.
14. Statement: Adoption studies can conclusively prove that a trait is entirely genetic.
Answer: False
Explanation: They can suggest heritability but cannot fully disentangle genes from
prenatal and selective placement factors.
15. Statement: Evocative correlations mean children's genes shape how others treat them.
Answer: True
Explanation: A child's genetically influenced behavior elicits specific responses from
others.
16. Statement: The concept of "critical periods" is central to the epigenetic view.
Answer: False
Explanation: The epigenetic view emphasizes ongoing plasticity, not strictly timed
critical periods.
17. Statement: All gene-linked abnormalities are caused by recessive genes.
Answer: False
Explanation: Some, like Huntington's disease, are caused by dominant genes.
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18. Statement: Noninvasive prenatal diagnosis (NIPD) can currently diagnose all genetic
disorders.
Answer: False
Explanation: NIPD is promising but currently limited to detecting specific conditions.
19. Statement: Judith Harris argued that peers are more influential than parents in child
development.
Answer: True
Explanation: Harris's "nurture assumption" emphasized peer groups over parental
influence.
20. Statement: According to Baltes, cultural supports become less important as we age.
Answer: False
Explanation: Baltes argued that the need for culture-based resources increases with age
to compensate for biological decline.
SECTION 8: Fill-in-the-Blank
1. Prompt: __________ is a sex-linked chromosomal abnormality where males have an
extra X chromosome.
Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation: The XXY pattern defines Klinefelter syndrome, affecting male sexual
development.
2. Prompt: The __________ is the vascular organ linking the fetus to the mother's uterus,
sampled in CVS.
Answer: placenta
Explanation: Chorionic villus sampling extracts a small piece of placental tissue for
testing.
3. Prompt: __________ refers to the inability to conceive after one year of unprotected
intercourse.
Answer: Infertility
Explanation: This is the standard medical definition used for diagnosis and treatment.
4. Prompt: In an adoption study, if adoptees resemble their biological parents more, it
suggests __________ influence.
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Answer: genetic (or hereditary)
Explanation: Similarity to biological relatives points to the role of inherited factors.
5. Prompt: The __________ genotype-environment correlation occurs when genetic
tendencies align with provided environments.
Answer: passive
Explanation: Parents create environments correlated with their own genetic traits.
6. Prompt: __________ environments include a child's unique peer group or classroom
experiences.
Answer: Nonshared
Explanation: These are experiences not common to all children in the same family.
7. Prompt: The __________ view sees development as a bidirectional exchange between
genes and context.
Answer: epigenetic
Explanation: This perspective emphasizes continuous interaction, not a one-way
direction.
8. Prompt: __________ studies investigate how specific DNA variations interact with
measured environmental factors.
Answer: Gene x Environment (or G x E)
Explanation: This research aims to identify specific conditional genetic effects.
9. Prompt: A genetic disorder like __________ shows how environment (diet) can prevent
phenotypic expression.
Answer: phenylketonuria (or PKU)
Explanation: PKU is a classic example of a treatable genetic metabolic disorder.
10. Prompt: __________ is the field studying how genetic makeup affects individual
responses to drugs.
Answer: Pharmacogenetics
Explanation: This field aims to tailor medical treatments based on genetic profiles.
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CHAPTER 3: PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
SECTION 1: Question–Answer
1. Question: What is the germinal period?
Answer: The first two weeks after conception.
Explanation: This period involves creation of the zygote.
2. Question: What structure provides nutrition for the embryo?
Answer: The trophoblast.
Explanation: It is the blastocyst's outer cell layer.
3. Question: When does the embryonic period occur?
Answer: From two to eight weeks after conception.
Explanation: This is when organs begin to appear.
4. Question: What is organogenesis?
Answer: The process of organ formation.
Explanation: It happens in the first two months.
5. Question: What does the amnion contain?
Answer: Clear amniotic fluid.
Explanation: The embryo floats in this fluid.
6. Question: What connects the baby to the placenta?
Answer: The umbilical cord.
Explanation: It contains two arteries and one vein.
7. Question: What is the placental barrier?
Answer: Tissue separating maternal and fetal blood.
Explanation: It allows small molecules to pass.
8. Question: When is the fetal period?
Answer: From two months after conception until birth.
Explanation: This period lasts about seven months.
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9. Question: What is viability?
Answer: Survival chance outside the womb.
Explanation: This begins around 24-25 weeks.
10. Question: What are neurons?
Answer: Nerve cells for information processing.
Explanation: The brain has about 100 billion at birth.
11. Question: What is neurogenesis?
Answer: The generation of new neurons.
Explanation: It peaks during prenatal development.
12. Question: What is a teratogen?
Answer: An agent causing birth defects.
Explanation: It comes from the Greek for "monster."
13. Question: What is behavioral teratology?
Answer: It studies cognitive and behavioral alterations.
Explanation: These result from teratogen exposure.
14. Question: How does dose affect teratogen damage?
Answer: Greater dose causes greater effect.
Explanation: This is a key general principle.
15. Question: When are teratogens most damaging?
Answer: During the embryonic period.
Explanation: Structural defects are most likely then.
16. Question: What is a critical period?
Answer: A fixed early developmental time frame.
Explanation: Certain experiences have long-lasting effects.
17. Question: What is Accutane?
Answer: A prescription acne drug.
Explanation: It can function as a teratogen.
18. Question: What are SSRIs?
Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Explanation: These are antidepressant drugs.
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19. Question: What does caffeine consumption risk?
Answer: Increased risk of miscarriage.
Explanation: This occurs with 200+ mg daily.
20. Question: What are fetal alcohol spectrum disorders?
Answer: A cluster of alcohol-related abnormalities.
Explanation: These include facial deformities.
21. Question: What does maternal smoking increase?
Answer: Risk of preterm birth and low birth weight.
Explanation: It also raises SIDS risk.
22. Question: How does cocaine affect prenatal growth?
Answer: It reduces birth weight and length.
Explanation: Head circumference is also smaller.
23. Question: What are methamphetamine risks?
Answer: High infant mortality and low birth weight.
Explanation: Memory deficits may also occur.
24. Question: What does marijuana use affect?
Answer: It may lower childhood intelligence.
Explanation: Prenatal exposure is the cause.
25. Question: What is Rh incompatibility?
Answer: Mismatch between maternal and paternal blood.
Explanation: The mother's antibodies may attack the fetus.
26. Question: What is RhoGAM?
Answer: A vaccine given after first birth.
Explanation: It prevents antibody formation.
27. Question: What is a danger of x-rays?
Answer: They can harm the early embryo.
Explanation: Risk is high before pregnancy is known.
28. Question: What is rubella?
Answer: German measles, a maternal disease.
Explanation: It can cause prenatal defects.
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29. Question: How is genital herpes transmitted?
Answer: Through the birth canal during delivery.
Explanation: A cesarean section can prevent this.
30. Question: How is HIV transmitted to offspring?
Answer: Across the placenta or during delivery.
Explanation: Breast feeding can also transmit it.
31. Question: What is gestational diabetes?
Answer: High blood sugar during pregnancy.
Explanation: It can cause very large infants.
32. Question: Why is folic acid important?
Answer: It helps prevent neural tube defects.
Explanation: Examples include spina bifida.
33. Question: What is spina bifida?
Answer: A neural tube defect causing paralysis.
Explanation: It results from tube closure failure.
34. Question: Why is fish consumption risky?
Answer: Some fish contain high mercury levels.
Explanation: Mercury can cause miscarriage.
35. Question: What is a maternal age risk?
Answer: Increased chance of Down syndrome.
Explanation: This risk rises after age 35.
36. Question: How does maternal stress affect the fetus?
Answer: It increases cortisol levels.
Explanation: This can slow prenatal growth.
37. Question: What is a paternal risk factor?
Answer: Exposure to lead or radiation.
Explanation: This can cause abnormal sperm.
38. Question: What is CenteringPregnancy?
Answer: A group prenatal care program.
Explanation: It emphasizes relationship-centered care.
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39. Question: What is the Nurse Family Partnership?
Answer: A prenatal home visitation program.
Explanation: Trained nurses conduct the visits.
40. Question: What is the first stage of birth?
Answer: Dilation of the cervix.
Explanation: This is the longest birth stage.
41. Question: How long is the first stage typically?
Answer: Six to twelve hours for first-time mothers.
Explanation: It is shorter for subsequent births.
42. Question: What is the second birth stage?
Answer: Delivery of the baby.
Explanation: The baby emerges from the birth canal.
43. Question: What is afterbirth?
Answer: Expulsion of the placenta and membranes.
Explanation: This is the third birth stage.
44. Question: What percentage of U.S. births are in hospitals?
Answer: Ninety-nine percent.
Explanation: This rate has remained constant.
45. Question: What is a doula?
Answer: A caregiver providing continuous support.
Explanation: Support is physical, emotional, and educational.
46. Question: What is analgesia?
Answer: Drugs that relieve pain.
Explanation: Examples include tranquilizers and narcotics.
47. Question: What is an epidural block?
Answer: Regional anesthesia numbing the lower body.
Explanation: It is used during late first-stage labor.
48. Question: What is oxytocin?
Answer: A synthetic hormone stimulating contractions.
Explanation: Pitocin is a common form.
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49. Question: What is natural childbirth?
Answer: A method aiming to reduce pain via education.
Explanation: It uses breathing and relaxation techniques.
50. Question: What is the Lamaze method?
Answer: Prepared childbirth with special breathing.
Explanation: A partner often serves as coach.
51. Question: What is a breech position?
Answer: Buttocks emerge first from the vagina.
Explanation: This occurs in about 1 in 25 deliveries.
52. Question: What is a cesarean delivery?
Answer: Baby removal via abdominal incision.
Explanation: This is done for breech positions.
53. Question: What is waterbirth?
Answer: Giving birth in a tub of warm water.
Explanation: It may reduce stress for the baby.
54. Question: What is the Apgar Scale?
Answer: A newborn health assessment method.
Explanation: It is used at one and five minutes.
55. Question: What does the Apgar Scale evaluate?
Answer: Heart rate, respiratory effort, and muscle tone.
Explanation: It also checks body color and reflexes.
56. Question: What is a good Apgar score?
Answer: Seven to ten.
Explanation: This indicates a good condition.
57. Question: What is the NBAS?
Answer: The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale.
Explanation: It assesses neurological development.
58. Question: What does the NBAS assess?
Answer: Newborn reflexes and reactions.
Explanation: It evaluates responses to people.
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59. Question: What is the NNNS?
Answer: Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Neurobehavioral Scale.
Explanation: It assesses at-risk infants.
60. Question: What is a low birth weight infant?
Answer: An infant weighing less than 5.5 pounds.
Explanation: Very low birth weight is under 3.5 pounds.
61. Question: What is a preterm infant?
Answer: Born before 37 weeks of gestation.
Explanation: "Very preterm" is less than 33 weeks.
62. Question: What is a small for date infant?
Answer: Birth weight is below normal for gestational age.
Explanation: They weigh less than 90% of peers.
63. Question: What percentage of U.S. infants are preterm?
Answer: 12.8 percent.
Explanation: This is a 36 percent increase since the 1980s.
64. Question: What is kangaroo care?
Answer: Skin-to-skin contact for preterm infants.
Explanation: It stabilizes heartbeat and breathing.
65. Question: What does massage therapy improve?
Answer: Weight gain in preterm infants.
Explanation: It also leads to earlier hospital discharge.
66. Question: What is the postpartum period?
Answer: The period after childbirth lasting about six weeks.
Explanation: The mother's body returns to prepregnant state.
67. Question: What is involution?
Answer: The uterus returning to its prepregnant size.
Explanation: This process takes five to six weeks.
68. Question: What are the postpartum blues?
Answer: Feelings of depression and anxiety after birth.
Explanation: These affect about 70% of new mothers.
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69. Question: What is postpartum depression?
Answer: A major depressive episode after delivery.
Explanation: It interferes with daily task coping.
70. Question: What is bonding?
Answer: Formation of a close parent-newborn connection.
Explanation: Early bonding is not a critical period.
SECTION 2: Multiple Choice
1. Question: The germinal period concludes with what event?
A. Fertilization of the egg.
B. Differentiation of cell layers.
C. Implantation into the uterine wall.
D. Development of major organs.
Answer: C
Explanation: Implantation occurs 11-15 days after conception.
2. Question: Which layer develops into the nervous system?
A. Endoderm.
B. Mesoderm.
C. Trophoblast.
D. Ectoderm.
Answer: D
Explanation: The ectoderm is the outermost cell layer.
3. Question: What structure develops from the mesoderm?
A. Digestive system.
B. Circulatory system.
C. Skin parts.
D. Respiratory system.
Answer: B
Explanation: The mesoderm is the middle cell layer.
4. Question: Organ formation is called what?
A. Neurogenesis.
B. Organogenesis.
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C. Mitosis.
D. Implantation.
Answer: B
Explanation: This occurs in the first two months.
5. Question: The neural tube forms during which week?
A. Week 1.
B. Week 3.
C. Week 8.
D. Week 12.
Answer: B
Explanation: It forms at about 18-24 days after conception.
6. Question: What is the peak time of neurogenesis?
A. During the germinal period.
B. At the start of the embryonic period.
C. Around the fifth prenatal week onward.
D. During the fetal period only.
Answer: C
Explanation: New neurons generate rapidly from week five.
7. Question: Which factor does NOT influence teratogen severity?
A. Genetic susceptibility.
B. Time of exposure.
C. Mother's intelligence.
D. The dose of the agent.
Answer: C
Explanation: Dose, genetics, and timing are key factors.
8. Question: Male fetuses are:
A. Less likely to be affected by teratogens.
B. Equally likely to be affected.
C. Far more likely to be affected.
D. Never affected by behavioral teratology.
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Answer: C
Explanation: The reason for this susceptibility is unknown.
9. Question: A critical period for arm development is:
A. Week 3.
B. Weeks 4 and 5.
C. Week 8.
D. The fetal period.
Answer: B
Explanation: Each body structure has its own critical period.
10. Question: Which prescription drug is a teratogen?
A. Folic acid.
B. Acetaminophen.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Vitamin C.
Answer: C
Explanation: Tetracycline is an antibiotic teratogen.
11. Question: The FDA recommends pregnant women:
A. Drink coffee for energy.
B. Avoid all antidepressants.
C. Not consume caffeine.
D. Use Accutane for acne.
Answer: C
Explanation: Caffeine should be avoided or consumed sparingly.
12. Question: Heavy alcohol use can cause:
A. Spina bifida.
B. Facial deformities.
C. Rh incompatibility.
D. Increased birth weight.
Answer: B
Explanation: This is a key feature of FASD.
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13. Question: Prenatal cocaine exposure is linked to:
A. Higher birth weight.
B. Improved self-regulation.
C. Attention deficits.
D. Advanced motor development.
Answer: C
Explanation: Sustained attention problems may occur.
14. Question: Heroin addiction during pregnancy leads to:
A. No withdrawal symptoms.
B. Severe infant withdrawal symptoms.
C. Increased infant alertness.
D. Higher Apgar scores.
Answer: B
Explanation: Newborns experience tremors and irritability.
15. Question: Environmental hazards include:
A. Folic acid.
B. Carbon monoxide.
C. Vitamin D.
D. Oxygen.
Answer: B
Explanation: Carbon monoxide is a dangerous pollutant.
16. Question: Syphilis damages the fetus:
A. Only in the first trimester.
B. At conception.
C. Four months or more after conception.
D. During the germinal period.
Answer: C
Explanation: It causes eye and skin lesions later.
17. Question: Maternal obesity increases risk of:
A. Lower infant birth weight.
B. Delivery by cesarean section.
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C. Decreased maternal diabetes.
D. Fewer NICU admissions.
Answer: B
Explanation: Obesity is linked to many delivery complications.
18. Question: The U.S. recommends folic acid intake of:
A. 200 micrograms daily.
B. 400 micrograms daily.
C. 600 micrograms daily.
D. 800 micrograms daily.
Answer: B
Explanation: This is about twice the average daily intake.
19. Question: Adolescent mothers have infants with:
A. Lower mortality rates.
B. Double the mortality rate.
C. No special risks.
D. Higher average birth weights.
Answer: B
Explanation: Prenatal care can decrease physical problems.
20. Question: High maternal anxiety risks which child outcome?
A. Increased math ability.
B. Emotional or cognitive problems.
C. Higher intelligence scores.
D. Advanced language skills.
Answer: B
Explanation: ADHD and language delay are also risks.
21. Question: Paternal smoking is linked to:
A. Increased birth weight.
B. Early pregnancy loss.
C. Better newborn health.
D. No known effects.
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Answer: B
Explanation: Heavy paternal smoking was associated with this.
22. Question: CenteringPregnancy replaces doctor visits with:
A. Online consultations.
B. 90-minute peer group support.
C. More frequent medication.
D. Home visitation only.
Answer: B
Explanation: Groups are led by a physician or midwife.
23. Question: The first birth stage ends when the cervix is:
A. 2 centimeters dilated.
B. 4 centimeters dilated.
C. 7 centimeters dilated.
D. 10 centimeters dilated.
Answer: D
Explanation: This is about 4 inches of dilation.
24. Question: In which culture are men excluded from childbirth?
A. U.S. hospital culture.
B. East African Nigoni culture.
C. Pukapukan culture.
D. Dutch culture.
Answer: B
Explanation: The husband leaves the hut during birth.
25. Question: What percentage of U.S. births involved a midwife in 2003?
A. 1 percent.
B. 8 percent.
C. 40 percent.
D. 91 percent.
Answer: B
Explanation: This was a substantial increase from 1975.
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26. Question: Doulas are part of a:
A. Surgical team.
B. Birthing team.
C. Laboratory staff.
D. Administrative unit.
Answer: B
Explanation: They serve as an adjunct to medical staff.
27. Question: General anesthesia during birth is:
A. Recommended for all births.
B. Becoming more common.
C. Rarely used today.
D. Transmitted to the fetus.
Answer: D
Explanation: It crosses the placenta, so use is declining.
28. Question: The Lamaze method includes education on:
A. Surgical procedures.
B. Anatomy and physiology.
C. Pharmaceutical drugs.
D. Genetic testing.
Answer: B
Explanation: This is part of prepared childbirth.
29. Question: Acupuncture during childbirth may:
A. Increase labor time.
B. Reduce the need for oxytocin.
C. Raise maternal blood pressure.
D. Cause fetal distress.
Answer: B
Explanation: One study showed it reduced oxytocin use.
30. Question: An Apgar score of 3 indicates:
A. Excellent health.
B. Good condition.
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C. Possible developmental difficulties.
D. A medical emergency.
Answer: D
Explanation: A score this low means the baby might not survive.
31. Question: The NBAS is performed:
A. Only on preterm infants.
B. Within 24-36 hours after birth.
C. At six months of age.
D. During the prenatal period.
Answer: B
Explanation: It assesses neurological competence early on.
32. Question: The NNNS is designed for:
A. Extremely healthy term infants.
B. Infants exposed to substance abuse.
C. Toddlers with behavior problems.
D. Mothers with postpartum depression.
Answer: B
Explanation: It assesses at-risk, often substance-exposed, infants.
33. Question: A small for date infant can be:
A. Only preterm.
B. Only full term.
C. Either preterm or full term.
D. Only post-term.
Answer: C
Explanation: The classification is based on weight for age.
34. Question: Progestin reduces preterm birth most effectively for:
A. First-time mothers.
B. Women with a prior preterm birth.
C. Mothers of twins.
D. Women over age 40.
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Answer: B
Explanation: It helps those with a history of early spontaneous birth.
35. Question: Which country has a low birth weight rate of 4%?
A. India.
B. United States.
C. Sudan.
D. Sweden.
Answer: D
Explanation: Sweden, Finland, Norway, and Korea have rates around 4%.
36. Question: Preterm birth in the U.S. is linked to:
A. Decreased poverty.
B. Increased management of fetal conditions.
C. Lower maternal age.
D. Reduced stress.
Answer: B
Explanation: Inducing labor preterm is one management factor.
37. Question: Kangaroo care helps preterm infants by:
A. Providing medication.
B. Stabilizing body temperature.
C. Increasing isolation.
D. Reducing parental involvement.
Answer: B
Explanation: Close contact regulates the infant's physiology.
38. Question: Massage therapy research shows it increases:
A. Hospital stay length.
B. Stress behaviors.
C. Infant weight gain.
D. Maternal depression.
Answer: C
Explanation: Preterm infants gain weight faster.
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39. Question: The postpartum period involves adjustment for:
A. The infant only.
B. The mother only.
C. The mother and her body.
D. The health care system.
Answer: C
Explanation: The mother adjusts physically and psychologically.
40. Question: Involution is the process of:
A. Uterine contraction after delivery.
B. Hormone production increase.
C. Milk production beginning.
D. Emotional bonding.
Answer: A
Explanation: The uterus returns to its prepregnant size.
41. Question: Postpartum blues usually peak:
A. During pregnancy.
B. At the moment of birth.
C. Three to five days after birth.
D. Six months after birth.
Answer: C
Explanation: Feelings of depression and anxiety peak then.
42. Question: Postpartum depression affects what percentage of mothers?
A. 2-3 percent.
B. 10-14 percent.
C. 30-40 percent.
D. 70 percent.
Answer: B
Explanation: This is a major depressive episode.
43. Question: How can postpartum depression be treated?
A. Only with hospitalization.
B. With antidepressant drugs.
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C. By ignoring it.
D. Through increased isolation.
Answer: B
Explanation: Certain antidepressants are effective and safe.
44. Question: Father support can influence:
A. The infant's gender.
B. The mother's postpartum depression.
C. The timing of birth.
D. The success of in vitro fertilization.
Answer: B
Explanation: Higher support is linked to lower depression incidence.
45. Question: The bonding hypothesis states:
A. Early contact is not important.
B. The first few days are critical.
C. Bonding occurs only with mothers.
D. Rooming-in is harmful.
Answer: B
Explanation: It claims early contact is crucial for attachment.
46. Question: Research on bonding shows that:
A. Early contact is essential.
B. Rooming-in causes harm.
C. The first days are not a critical period.
D. Fathers cannot bond effectively.
Answer: C
Explanation: Early bonding is not critical for competent development.
47. Question: What does the blastocyst develop into?
A. The placenta only.
B. The embryo and support tissues.
C. The umbilical cord.
D. The amniotic fluid.
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Answer: B
Explanation: Its inner mass becomes the embryo.
48. Question: Neuronal migration occurs at:
A. 1-2 weeks after conception.
B. 6-24 weeks after conception.
C. During the fetal period only.
D. After birth.
Answer: B
Explanation: Cells move to their appropriate brain locations.
49. Question: Teratology is the study of:
A. Genetic inheritance.
B. Birth defects.
C. Postpartum adjustment.
D. Fertility problems.
Answer: B
Explanation: It investigates causes of congenital defects.
50. Question: The greatest sensitivity to teratogens is during:
A. The germinal period.
B. Organogenesis.
C. The fetal period.
D. The postpartum period.
Answer: B
Explanation: The embryonic period is the most vulnerable time.
51. Question: Analgesia during childbirth includes:
A. Pitocin.
B. Demerol.
C. Epidural blocks.
D. General anesthesia.
Answer: B
Explanation: Demerol is a narcotic analgesic.
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52. Question: A score of 2 on Apgar heart rate means:
A. Absent heart rate.
B. Slow heart rate.
C. Fast heart rate (100-140 bpm).
D. Irregular heart rate.
Answer: C
Explanation: A score of 2 is the highest rating.
53. Question: Preterm infants are born before how many weeks?
A. 32 weeks.
B. 35 weeks.
C. 37 weeks.
D. 40 weeks.
Answer: C
Explanation: Preterm is defined as before 37 completed weeks.
54. Question: Which is a cause of increased U.S. preterm births?
A. Decreased multiple births.
B. Increased births to women over 35.
C. Reduced substance abuse.
D. Less stress.
Answer: B
Explanation: This is one of several contributing factors.
55. Question: Light leisure time physical activity during pregnancy:
A. Increases preterm delivery risk.
B. Has no effect on delivery.
C. Reduces preterm delivery risk by 24%.
D. Always requires medical supervision.
Answer: C
Explanation: A study found a 24% reduced likelihood.
56. Question: Preterm birth rates are highest for:
A. Asian American infants.
B. African American infants.
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C. Hispanic infants.
D. White infants.
Answer: B
Explanation: The 2006 rate was 18.5% for this group.
57. Question: The "fourth trimester" refers to:
A. The last three months of pregnancy.
B. The first three months after birth.
C. The time of conception.
D. The toddler period.
Answer: B
Explanation: It suggests continuity after birth.
58. Question: In postpartum depression, mothers have trouble:
A. Producing milk.
B. Coping with daily tasks.
C. Remembering the birth.
D. Sleeping less.
Answer: B
Explanation: This lasts for at least a two-week period.
59. Question: What is a rooming-in arrangement?
A. The baby stays in the nursery.
B. The baby remains in the mother's room.
C. The father stays in the hospital.
D. The doula lives with the family.
Answer: B
Explanation: The baby is with the mother most of the time.
60. Question: The neural tube develops from which layer?
A. Endoderm.
B. Mesoderm.
C. Ectoderm.
D. Trophoblast.
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Answer: C
Explanation: The ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system.
61. Question: What is the function of the amniotic fluid?
A. Provides nutrition.
B. Cushions the embryo from shock.
C. Transfers oxygen.
D. Removes waste products.
Answer: B
Explanation: It provides a shockproof environment.
62. Question: Maternal diabetes is linked to:
A. Smaller than average infants.
B. Physical defects in newborns.
C. Decreased chance of cesarean.
D. Lower maternal obesity.
Answer: B
Explanation: Newborns are more likely to have defects.
63. Question: Mercury exposure is linked to:
A. Higher intelligence.
B. Preterm birth.
C. Increased birth weight.
D. Better motor skills.
Answer: B
Explanation: It also increases miscarriage risk.
64. Question: Down syndrome risk rises with:
A. Adolescent mothers.
B. Maternal age over 35.
C. Paternal age only.
D. Excellent prenatal care.
Answer: B
Explanation: The probability increases with maternal age.
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65. Question: A father's exposure to petrochemicals may cause:
A. Improved sperm quality.
B. Abnormalities in sperm.
C. No effect on offspring.
D. Increased fertility.
Answer: B
Explanation: This can lead to miscarriage or childhood cancer.
66. Question: The Nurse Family Partnership program involves:
A. Group therapy sessions.
B. Home visits by nurses.
C. Hospital-based classes only.
D. Financial subsidies.
Answer: B
Explanation: Visits span from the prenatal period to age two.
67. Question: During the second birth stage, the mother:
A. Sleeps.
B. Bears down hard to push.
C. Receives an epidural.
D. Is given general anesthesia.
Answer: B
Explanation: She pushes with each contraction.
68. Question: Midwives in Holland attend what percentage of births?
A. Less than 1 percent.
B. About 8 percent.
C. More than 40 percent.
D. Over 90 percent.
Answer: C
Explanation: Midwifery is common in many countries.
69. Question: The timing of a teratogen's impact depends on:
A. The mother's occupation.
B. The specific developmental process occurring.
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C. The sex of the fetus only.
D. The country of birth.
Answer: B
Explanation: Damage correlates with what is developing at that time.
70. Question: Hypnosis during childbirth is used to:
A. Replace all medical staff.
B. Block consciousness completely.
C. Reduce pain perception.
D. Speed up the placenta delivery.
Answer: C
Explanation: It induces an altered state of awareness.
71. Question: Music therapy during childbirth is used to:
A. Replace medication entirely.
B. Reduce stress and manage pain.
C. Ensure the baby hears music.
D. Diagnose fetal problems.
Answer: B
Explanation: Its effectiveness needs more research.
72. Question: Anencephaly results from:
A. Failure of the neural tube's head end to close.
B. Failure of the neural tube's bottom end to close.
C. Excessive folic acid.
D. Maternal diabetes.
Answer: A
Explanation: The highest brain regions fail to develop.
73. Question: In maternal obesity, the fetus is at risk for:
A. Microsomia (low birth weight).
B. Macrosomia (excessive birth weight).
C. No weight issues.
D. Decreased NICU admission.
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Answer: B
Explanation: Macrosomia means a newborn over 10 pounds.
74. Question: Paternal smoking was linked to child cancer in:
A. A study in the United States.
B. A study in China.
C. A study in Sweden.
D. No studies.
Answer: B
Explanation: Longer paternal smoking increased cancer risk.
75. Question: Normal prenatal development emphasizes:
A. Everything that can go wrong.
B. That development usually proceeds positively.
C. The need for constant medical intervention.
D. The minor role of genetics.
Answer: B
Explanation: Most of the time, development does not go awry.
76. Question: The zygote is:
A. An unfertilized egg.
B. A fertilized egg.
C. An implanted embryo.
D. A developing fetus.
Answer: B
Explanation: It is created at conception.
77. Question: The life-support systems develop from:
A. The mother's body only.
B. The fertilized egg.
C. External environmental factors.
D. The physician's interventions.
Answer: B
Explanation: The amnion and umbilical cord come from the zygote.
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78. Question: Large molecules that cannot cross the placenta include:
A. Oxygen and water.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Salt and food.
D. Red blood cells.
Answer: D
Explanation: The placental barrier blocks large molecules.
79. Question: By eight weeks, the embryo is:
A. About 3 inches long.
B. Just over 1 inch long.
C. About 6 inches long.
D. About 14 inches long.
Answer: B
Explanation: It weighs about 1/30 ounce at this point.
80. Question: During the fetal period, a grasping reflex appears at:
A. Three months.
B. Five months.
C. Six months.
D. Eight months.
Answer: C
Explanation: By the end of the sixth month.
81. Question: In a typical pregnancy, brain assembly occurs mostly in:
A. The first two trimesters.
B. The third trimester only.
C. The postpartum period.
D. The first year after birth.
Answer: A
Explanation: Basic architecture is assembled prenatally.
82. Question: Neurogenesis peaks at an estimated rate of:
A. 200 neurons per minute.
B. 2,000 neurons per minute.
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C. 20,000 neurons per minute.
D. 200,000 neurons per minute.
Answer: D
Explanation: This rapid generation occurs during prenatal development.
83. Question: Behavioral teratology alters:
A. Physical appearance only.
B. Cognitive and behavioral functioning.
C. Genetic makeup.
D. The timing of birth.
Answer: B
Explanation: It studies brain alterations from teratogens.
84. Question: Genetic susceptibility means:
A. Only the mother's genes matter.
B. The mother's metabolism affects drug transmission.
C. All fetuses are equally vulnerable.
D. Teratogens have uniform effects.
Answer: B
Explanation: The mother's genotype influences drug effects.
85. Question: Nonprescription diet pills are:
A. Helpful for maternal nutrition.
B. Considered harmless.
C. Potentially harmful teratogens.
D. Recommended by doctors.
Answer: C
Explanation: They can function as teratogenic agents.
86. Question: Low doses of aspirin during pregnancy:
A. Cause maternal bleeding.
B. Pose no harm to the fetus.
C. Are a major teratogen.
D. Prevent all birth defects.
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Answer: B
Explanation: High doses can contribute to bleeding.
87. Question: The U.S. Surgeon General recommends:
A. One drink per day during pregnancy.
B. No alcohol during pregnancy.
C. Alcohol only in the first trimester.
D. Beer but not wine.
Answer: B
Explanation: Complete abstinence is recommended.
88. Question: Environmental tobacco smoke increases risk of:
A. Higher birth weight.
B. Lower birth weight.
C. No effect on offspring.
D. Increased intelligence.
Answer: B
Explanation: Secondhand smoke is a risk factor.
89. Question: Methadone treatment for heroin addiction causes:
A. No withdrawal in newborns.
B. Mild withdrawal symptoms.
C. Very severe newborn withdrawal.
D. Improved infant alertness.
Answer: C
Explanation: Newborns experience severe withdrawal.
90. Question: Incompatible blood types risk:
A. Increased fertility.
B. Miscarriage or stillbirth.
C. Lower maternal blood pressure.
D. Easier deliveries.
Answer: B
Explanation: The mother's antibodies may attack the fetus.
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91. Question: A safe x-ray during pregnancy involves:
A. No protection.
B. A lead apron over the abdomen.
C. Multiple abdominal x-rays.
D. X-rays only in the first trimester.
Answer: B
Explanation: This protects the fetus from radiation.
92. Question: A cesarean section can prevent transmission of:
A. Rubella.
B. Genital herpes.
C. Diabetes.
D. High blood pressure.
Answer: B
Explanation: Delivery avoids the infected birth canal.
93. Question: HIV-infected infants can be:
A. Always symptomatic.
B. Never infected.
C. Infected but asymptomatic.
D. Cured before birth.
Answer: C
Explanation: They may not show symptoms initially.
94. Question: Toddlers of mothers not using folic acid had:
A. Fewer behavior problems.
B. More developmental advances.
C. More behavior problems.
D. No discernible differences.
Answer: C
Explanation: A study linked lack of folic acid to problems.
95. Question: Maternal depression is linked to:
A. Faster prenatal growth.
B. Preterm birth.
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C. Higher birth weight.
D. Reduced cortisol levels.
Answer: B
Explanation: It is also linked to slower prenatal growth.
96. Question: Home visitation programs can lead to:
A. More low birth weight infants.
B. Fewer low birth weight infants.
C. Increased maternal smoking.
D. Decreased paternal involvement.
Answer: B
Explanation: One study showed this positive outcome.
97. Question: The third birth stage lasts:
A. Several hours.
B. About 45 minutes to an hour.
C. Only a few minutes.
D. The longest of all stages.
Answer: C
Explanation: It is the shortest birth stage.
98. Question: In the Pukapukan culture, childbirth is:
A. A private affair.
B. An open, community affair.
C. Attended only by men.
D. Never observed by villagers.
Answer: B
Explanation: Villagers can observe the birth in a shelter.
99. Question: Most midwives in the U.S. are:
A. Not certified.
B. Certified nurse-midwives.
C. Foreign-trained only.
D. Also practicing physicians.
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Answer: B
Explanation: 95% in 2003 were certified nurse-midwives.
100. Question: A key benefit of prepared childbirth is:
A. Guaranteed pain-free delivery.
B. More information and support.
C. Less involvement from the partner.
D. Automatic cesarean delivery.
Answer: B
Explanation: Women know how to give birth with support.
101. Question: The purpose of the Apgar Scale is to:
A. Diagnose long-term disabilities.
B. Assess immediate newborn health.
C. Measure maternal pain levels.
D. Evaluate placental health.
Answer: B
Explanation: It is especially good for assessing stress response.
102. Question: The NNNS predicts outcomes such as:
A. Adult height.
B. School readiness at age 4.5.
C. Marriage success.
D. Career choice.
Answer: B
Explanation: It also predicts IQ and neurological difficulties.
103. Question: Extremely low birth weight is under:
A. 5.5 pounds.
B. 3.5 pounds.
C. 2 pounds.
D. 1 pound.
Answer: C
Explanation: This is a very high-risk category.
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104. Question: Progestin is LEAST effective for:
A. Women with a short cervix.
B. Mothers of twins.
C. Women with a prior preterm birth.
D. Singleton pregnancies.
Answer: B
Explanation: It is less effective for twin pregnancies.
105. Question: Yoga during pregnancy is linked to:
A. Negative pregnancy outcomes.
B. Positive pregnancy outcomes.
C. No effect on outcomes.
D. Increased preterm birth.
Answer: B
Explanation: Research indicates a positive link.
106. Question: Low birth weight in India is about:
A. 4 percent.
B. 8 percent.
C. 20 percent.
D. 31 percent.
Answer: D
Explanation: High poverty and poor nutrition contribute.
107. Question: Poverty contributes to preterm birth via:
A. Better nutrition.
B. Increased obesity and diabetes.
C. Reduced stress.
D. More regular prenatal care.
Answer: B
Explanation: It also involves smoking and illicit drug use.
108. Question: Very preterm infants are born at less than:
A. 28 weeks.
B. 33 weeks.
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C. 37 weeks.
D. 40 weeks.
Answer: B
Explanation: This is a common research classification.
109. Question: Kangaroo care is practiced for:
A. Five minutes per day.
B. Two to three hours per day.
C. Only once a week.
D. The entire hospital stay continuously.
Answer: B
Explanation: It involves extended skin-to-skin contact.
110. Question: Tiffany Field's research showed massage:
A. Increases stress in preterm infants.
B. Reduces weight gain.
C. Shortens hospital stays.
D. Has no consistent findings.
Answer: C
Explanation: Discharge occurred three to six days earlier.
111. Question: The 2007 Sleep in America survey found:
A. Pregnant women sleep more.
B. Sleep loss occurs in pregnancy and postpartum.
C. Postpartum women have no sleep problems.
D. Fathers lose more sleep.
Answer: B
Explanation: Loss of sleep can contribute to stress.
112. Question: Hormone levels drop steeply after:
A. Conception.
B. Implantation.
C. Placenta delivery.
D. The first trimester.
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Answer: C
Explanation: Estrogen and progesterone fall after placenta delivery.
113. Question: Postpartum depression differs from blues by:
A. Its timing only.
B. Its interference with daily tasks.
C. Being less severe.
D. Affecting only first-time mothers.
Answer: B
Explanation: It involves major depressive episodes.
114. Question: Cognitive therapy can treat:
A. Only physical adjustments.
B. Postpartum depression.
C. Genetic disorders.
D. All teratogenic effects.
Answer: B
Explanation: Psychotherapy is an effective treatment.
115. Question: Depressed mothers show less:
A. Crying from the infant.
B. Sensitivity to their infants.
C. Sleep for themselves.
D. Interest in medication.
Answer: B
Explanation: Their interaction with infants is compromised.
116. Question: Fathers in the postpartum period may feel:
A. Replaced by the baby.
B. More important than ever.
C. Unaffected by the newborn.
D. Less need to work.
Answer: A
Explanation: The baby often gets the mother's attention.
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117. Question: Bonding in hospitals can be deterred by:
A. Rooming-in arrangements.
B. Drugs making the mother drowsy.
C. Immediate parent-infant contact.
D. Doula presence.
Answer: B
Explanation: Medication can interfere with maternal responsiveness.
118. Question: The text states bonding is:
A. Impossible without early contact.
B. Critical for all infant development.
C. Not a critical period for humans.
D. Only important for preterm infants.
Answer: C
Explanation: The first few days are not a critical period.
119. Question: Rooming-in arrangements are:
A. Harmful to infant development.
B. An option chosen by some parents.
C. Mandatory in all hospitals.
D. Only for high-risk infants.
Answer: B
Explanation: Parents can choose this option.
120. Question: The chapter's "looking forward" section previews:
A. Prenatal development again.
B. Infant development in the next chapters.
C. Adolescent development.
D. The role of genetics.
Answer: B
Explanation: It covers physical, cognitive, and socioemotional development.
SECTION 3: True / False
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1. Statement: The germinal period lasts for eight weeks.
Answer: False
Explanation: It lasts only the first two weeks after conception.
2. Statement: The blastocyst is the inner cell mass.
Answer: True
Explanation: It develops into the embryo.
3. Statement: The embryonic period is less vulnerable to teratogens.
Answer: False
Explanation: The embryonic period is the most vulnerable.
4. Statement: Organogenesis occurs during the fetal period.
Answer: False
Explanation: It occurs in the first two months (embryonic period).
5. Statement: Neuronal migration occurs after neurogenesis.
Answer: True
Explanation: Cells move after they are generated.
6. Statement: Teratogens always cause physical birth defects.
Answer: False
Explanation: They can also alter cognitive and behavioral functioning.
7. Statement: All heavy drinkers have children with FASD.
Answer: False
Explanation: Many heavy drinkers do not have children with FASD.
8. Statement: Paternal factors cannot influence prenatal development.
Answer: False
Explanation: Factors like smoking and chemical exposure can have effects.
9. Statement: The Apgar Scale is used at one hour and five hours.
Answer: False
Explanation: It is used at one and five minutes after birth.
10. Statement: Preterm and low birth weight mean the same thing.
Answer: False
Explanation: An infant can be one but not the other.
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11. Statement: Kangaroo care involves mechanical warming devices.
Answer: False
Explanation: It involves skin-to-skin contact with a parent.
12. Statement: The postpartum period lasts about six weeks.
Answer: True
Explanation: The body returns to a near prepregnant state.
13. Statement: Postpartum blues require medical treatment.
Answer: False
Explanation: They usually go away without treatment.
14. Statement: Bonding must occur immediately after birth.
Answer: False
Explanation: Early bonding is not a critical period.
15. Statement: Doulas replace obstetricians during delivery.
Answer: False
Explanation: They provide support as part of a birthing team.
16. Statement: Natural childbirth avoids all medication.
Answer: False
Explanation: It aims to reduce pain, but medication may still be used.
17. Statement: A breech position always requires a cesarean.
Answer: False
Explanation: It usually does, but not always in every case.
18. Statement: The NNNS is for healthy, term infants.
Answer: False
Explanation: It is for assessing at-risk infants.
19. Statement: Maternal obesity decreases cesarean section risk.
Answer: False
Explanation: It increases the risk of delivery by cesarean.
20. Statement: Rooming-in is the standard in all cultures.
Answer: False
Explanation: Practices vary widely across cultures.
SECTION 4: Fill-in-the-Blank
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1. Prompt: The ______ is the outer layer of cells providing embryonic nutrition.
Answer: trophoblast
Explanation: It is part of the blastocyst in the germinal period.
2. Prompt: The process of cell specialization is called ______.
Answer: differentiation
Explanation: Cells specialize for different tasks.
3. Prompt: ______ is the life-support bag containing amniotic fluid.
Answer: Amnion
Explanation: It provides a shockproof environment.
4. Prompt: The ______ principle means greater teratogen dose causes greater effect.
Answer: dose
Explanation: This is a general principle of teratology.
5. Prompt: ______ is a synthetic hormone used to stimulate contractions.
Answer: Oxytocin
Explanation: Pitocin is a common form.
6. Prompt: The ______ method is also known as prepared childbirth.
Answer: Lamaze
Explanation: It was developed by Ferdinand Lamaze.
7. Prompt: The ______ Scale assesses newborn health at one and five minutes.
Answer: Apgar
Explanation: It evaluates five health signs.
8. Prompt: ______ infants are born before 37 weeks of gestation.
Answer: Preterm
Explanation: This is the standard medical definition.
9. Prompt: ______ involves skin-to-skin contact for preterm infants.
Answer: Kangaroo care
Explanation: It stabilizes physiological functions.
10. Prompt: The ______ period is after childbirth when the mother adjusts.
Answer: postpartum
Explanation: It lasts about six weeks.
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Chapter 4: Physical Development in Infancy
SECTION 1: Question–Answer
1. Question: What are the two primary patterns of physical growth in infancy?
Answer: The cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns.
Explanation: Growth starts at the head and moves downward. It also proceeds from the
body's center outward.
2. Question: By what age does an infant typically triple its birth weight?
Answer: By the first birthday.
Explanation: Birth weight doubles by 4 months. It nearly triples by 12 months.
3. Question: What process involves encasing axons with fat cells?
Answer: Myelination.
Explanation: This process speeds neural transmission. It begins before birth.
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4. Question: Which brain lobes are involved in voluntary movement?
Answer: The frontal lobes.
Explanation: These lobes manage thinking and intentional actions too.
5. Question: What is the term for function specialization in brain hemispheres?
Answer: Lateralization.
Explanation: Each hemisphere manages specific tasks. Complex functions use both.
6. Question: What does the visual preference method measure?
Answer: Infant attention to different stimuli.
Explanation: Longer looking times suggest discrimination. It assesses visual perception.
7. Question: What reflex occurs when an infant's cheek is stroked?
Answer: The rooting reflex.
Explanation: The infant turns its head. It seeks something to suck.
8. Question: Which theory explains motor skill assembly?
Answer: Dynamic systems theory.
Explanation: Skills form from multiple converging factors. Perception guides action.
9. Question: What are gross motor skills?
Answer: Skills using large muscles.
Explanation: Examples include walking and climbing. They involve posture control.
10. Question: What is sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
Answer: Unexplained cessation of breathing during sleep.
Explanation: It is a leading cause of infant death. Back sleeping reduces risk.
11. Question: What does intermodal perception involve?
Answer: Integrating information from multiple senses.
Explanation: It links vision and hearing, for example. It exists early in infancy.
12. Question: What is the ecological view of perception?
Answer: Perception connects us directly to the environment.
Explanation: We perceive to act and adapt. Affordances guide interaction.
13. Question: What causes kwashiorkor?
Answer: Severe protein deficiency.
Explanation: It causes swelling and listlessness. It appears after age one.
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14. Question: What does habituation refer to in infant studies?
Answer: Decreased response to a repeated stimulus.
Explanation: Recovery of interest indicates discrimination. It measures perception.
15. Question: What is shape constancy?
Answer: Recognizing an object's shape remains constant.
Explanation: Perception stays stable despite orientation changes. It develops early.
16. Question: What role does the WIC program serve?
Answer: It provides nutritional support to low-income families.
Explanation: It offers food, education, and referrals. It promotes breastfeeding.
17. Question: What is the role of experience in brain development?
Answer: Experience shapes neural connections after birth.
Explanation: Sensory input guides synaptic pruning. It wires the brain.
18. Question: How does infant sleep change culturally?
Answer: Sleeping arrangements vary across societies.
Explanation: Some cultures practice co-sleeping. Others use separate cribs.
19. Question: What fine motor skill develops around one year?
Answer: The pincer grip.
Explanation: It uses the thumb and forefinger. It allows grasping small objects.
20. Question: What is perceptual-motor coupling?
Answer: The linked development of perception and action.
Explanation: We perceive in order to move. Action also educates perception.
SECTION 2: Multiple Choice
1. Question: The sequence where growth starts at the head is called the:
A. Proximodistal pattern
B. Lateralization pattern
C. Cephalocaudal pattern
D. Myelination sequence
Answer: C
Explanation: Cephalocaudal growth proceeds from top to bottom. This is a primary
infant growth pattern.
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2. Question: At birth, the brain contains approximately how many neurons?
A. 50 billion
B. 75 billion
C. 100 billion
D. 150 billion
Answer: C
Explanation: The newborn brain has about 100 billion nerve cells. Development
continues rapidly after birth.
3. Question: Which of the following is a risk factor for SIDS?
A. Breastfeeding
B. Pacifier use during sleep
C. Prone sleeping position
D. High birth weight
Answer: C
Explanation: Sleeping on the stomach increases SIDS risk. The back position is
recommended.
4. Question: The "blooming and pruning" of synapses is most pronounced in which brain
region during infancy?
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Visual cortex
D. Spinal cord
Answer: C
Explanation: Synaptic density peaks in the visual cortex around 4 months. Pruning
follows later.
5. Question: Dynamic systems theory emphasizes that motor skills are:
A. Genetically pre-programmed
B. Learned through imitation only
C. Assembled from multiple components
D. Independent of perception
Answer: C
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Explanation: Skills assemble from nervous system maturation and environmental goals.
It is a complex process.
6. Question: What is the average daily calorie requirement per pound for an infant?
A. 25 calories
B. 50 calories
C. 75 calories
D. 100 calories
Answer: B
Explanation: Infants need about 50 calories per pound daily. This supports rapid growth.
7. Question: Which reflex is a response to a sudden loss of support?
A. Rooting reflex
B. Sucking reflex
C. Moro reflex
D. Grasping reflex
Answer: C
Explanation: The Moro reflex involves arching and limb extension. It reacts to intense
stimulation.
8. Question: Intermodal perception allows infants to:
A. Focus on one sense at a time
B. Integrate sight and sound
C. Ignore painful stimuli
D. Sleep through noise
Answer: B
Explanation: It integrates information across senses like vision and hearing. Early forms
exist at birth.
9. Question: The ability to recognize an object's size despite distance changes is:
A. Shape constancy
B. Size constancy
C. Perceptual narrowing
D. Lateralization
Answer: B
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Explanation: Size constancy maintains object size perception. It develops around 3
months.
10. Question: What does the palmer grasp involve?
A. Using thumb and forefinger
B. Gripping with the whole hand
C. Using only the fingertips
D. A reflexive letting go
Answer: B
Explanation: Early grasping uses the whole palm. It precedes the finer pincer grip.
11. Question: Research by Fantz demonstrated that infants prefer:
A. Plain colored discs
B. Stationary objects
C. Patterned stimuli
D. Complete darkness
Answer: C
Explanation: Infants look longer at patterns like faces. This indicates visual
discrimination.
12. Question: Marasmus results from a severe deficiency in:
A. Protein only
B. Carbohydrates only
C. Protein and calories
D. Vitamins only
Answer: C
Explanation: Marasmus involves wasting from protein-calorie lack. It occurs in the first
year.
13. Question: In the Gibson's ecological view, what are affordances?
A. Genetic limits on perception
B. Built-in reflex responses
C. Opportunities for interaction
D. Unused neural pathways
Answer: C
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Explanation: Affordances are action possibilities offered by objects. They fit our
capabilities.
14. Question: When does the rooting reflex typically disappear?
A. At birth
B. 3 to 4 months
C. 8 to 9 months
D. 12 months
Answer: B
Explanation: The rooting reflex fades by 3-4 months. Voluntary control then increases.
15. Question: Which sense is functional in the womb during late pregnancy?
A. Vision
B. Taste
C. Hearing
D. Smell
Answer: C
Explanation: The fetus can hear sounds like the mother's voice. Learning can occur
prenatally.
16. Question: What percentage of sleep is REM sleep in newborns?
A. About 20%
B. About 50%
C. About 75%
D. About 90%
Answer: B
Explanation: Newborns spend about half their sleep in REM. This percentage declines
with age.
17. Question: The process where unused synaptic connections are eliminated is called:
A. Myelination
B. Lateralization
C. Pruning
D. Habituation
Answer: C
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Explanation: Pruning removes seldom-used neural pathways. It refines brain
connectivity.
18. Question: Which factor is NOT a documented benefit of breastfeeding for infants?
A. Reduced gastrointestinal infections
B. Lower risk of SIDS
C. Guaranteed prevention of allergies
D. Lower incidence of otitis media
Answer: C
Explanation: Breastfeeding may not prevent allergies. Evidence for this is inconclusive.
19. Question: What does the visual cliff experiment assess?
A. Color vision
B. Depth perception
C. Hearing acuity
D. Pain sensitivity
Answer: B
Explanation: It tests an infant's ability to perceive a drop-off. It suggests depth
awareness.
20. Question: Perceptual constancy helps infants perceive the world as:
A. Confusing
B. Stable
C. Threatening
D. Two-dimensional
Answer: B
Explanation: Constancy allows recognition despite sensory changes. It provides
perceptual stability.
21. Question: Shaken baby syndrome can cause:
A. Improved myelination
B. Brain swelling and hemorrhaging
C. Advanced motor skills
D. Increased synaptic density
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Answer: B
Explanation: Violent shaking injures the infant's brain. It is a serious form of abuse.
22. Question: The sucking reflex serves as:
A. Only a feeding mechanism
B. A self-soothing mechanism
C. A visual tracking aid
D. A precursor to crawling
Answer: B
Explanation: Sucking provides comfort and self-regulation. It is not just for nutrition.
23. Question: Cultural practices, like infant massage, can:
A. Delay motor milestones
B. Have no effect on development
C. Accelerate motor development
D. Increase SIDS risk
Answer: C
Explanation: Active handling and exercise can promote earlier skill achievement.
24. Question: Fine motor skills primarily involve:
A. Large muscle groups
B. Balance and posture
C. Finger dexterity
D. Cardiovascular endurance
Answer: C
Explanation: These skills require precise small muscle control. Reaching and grasping
are examples.
25. Question: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends infants sleep:
A. On their stomachs
B. On their sides
C. On their backs
D. In a seated position
Answer: C
Explanation: Back sleeping lowers SIDS risk. This is a key public health guideline.
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26. Question: What is a primary component of the dynamic systems view?
A. Fixed genetic timelines
B. Perception-action coupling
C. Independence of brain regions
D. Absence of environmental influence
Answer: B
Explanation: Perception guides action and action guides perception. They are tightly
linked.
27. Question: Newborns show a preference for the smell of:
A. Sterile pads
B. Their mother's milk
C. Artificial fragrances
D. Rotten food
Answer: B
Explanation: Within days, infants recognize their mother's scent. This requires brief
experience.
28. Question: What does the "sticky mittens" experiment demonstrate?
A. The need for restricted movement
B. How experience enhances reaching
C. The permanence of reflexes
D. The superiority of bottle feeding
Answer: B
Explanation: Enhanced object contact experience accelerated fine motor development.
29. Question: Brain plasticity is demonstrated when:
A. Myelination stops completely
B. One hemisphere takes over another's function
C. Synaptic density never changes
D. Reflexes disappear permanently
Answer: B
Explanation: The brain can reorganize after injury. Functions can relocate to other areas.
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30. Question: Co-sleeping (shared sleeping) is:
A. Universally recommended
B. A risk factor for SIDS if parents smoke
C. Never practiced outside the U.S.
D. Linked to later crawling
Answer: B
Explanation: Bed-sharing raises SIDS risk under certain conditions. Parental impairment
increases danger.
31. Question: Karen Adolph's slope experiments showed that infants:
A. Never perceive danger
B. Learn from locomotor experience
C. Have innate fear of heights
D. Ignore perceptual information
Answer: B
Explanation: Crawling and walking experience taught infants to avoid risky slopes.
Learning was specific.
32. Question: The temporal lobes are primarily involved in:
A. Vision
B. Hearing and memory
C. Voluntary movement
D. Spatial location
Answer: B
Explanation: These lobes process sound, language, and memory. Each lobe has
specialized functions.
33. Question: What is a characteristic of kwashiorkor?
A. Muscle wasting without swelling
B. Swollen abdomen and feet
C. Excessive weight gain
D. Improved cognitive function
Answer: B
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Explanation: Edema (water swelling) is a telltale sign. It results from severe protein
shortage.
34. Question: High-amplitude sucking is a method used to study infant:
A. Vision
B. Hearing
C. Taste
D. Motor reflexes
Answer: B
Explanation: Changes in sucking rate indicate sound discrimination. It assesses auditory
perception.
35. Question: What best describes the nativist view of perception?
A. Perception is entirely learned
B. Perceptual abilities are innate
C. Experience refines all perception
D. Perception requires complex thought
Answer: B
Explanation: Nativists emphasize inborn, biological foundations for perceptual
capacities.
36. Question: By 2 years of age, the brain reaches what percentage of its adult weight?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: C
Explanation: The brain grows rapidly. It attains about three-quarters of adult weight by
age two.
37. Question: The grasping reflex involves:
A. Turning the head
B. Arching the back
C. Tightly closing the palms
D. Rhythmic kicking
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Answer: C
Explanation: It is an automatic grip response. It later evolves into voluntary grasping.
38. Question: What is a documented maternal benefit of breastfeeding?
A. Guaranteed weight loss
B. Reduced risk of breast cancer
C. Elimination of postpartum depression
D. Improved night vision
Answer: B
Explanation: Breastfeeding is associated with lower breast cancer incidence. Other
benefits are less clear.
39. Question: What does dishabituation indicate in an infant?
A. Boredom with a new stimulus
B. Recognition of a novel stimulus
C. Onset of sleep
D. Hunger
Answer: B
Explanation: Renewed interest shows the infant noticed a change. It measures perceptual
discrimination.
40. Question: The proximodistal pattern indicates control develops from:
A. Head to toe
B. Center to extremities
C. Left to right
D. Reflexive to voluntary
Answer: B
Explanation: Motor control progresses from the trunk outward. Shoulders are controlled
before fingers.
41. Question: Infant night waking is often linked to:
A. Excessive parental involvement at sleep time
B. Lack of REM sleep
C. Early bedtimes
D. Excessive napping
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Answer: A
Explanation: Parental interactions during sleep can perpetuate waking. It is a common
sleep problem.
42. Question: What is the function of the myelin sheath?
A. To produce neurotransmitters
B. To insulate axons and speed signals
C. To form new dendrites
D. To create synaptic gaps
Answer: B
Explanation: Myelin is a fatty layer. It increases the speed of electrical neural
transmission.
43. Question: The pincer grip allows infants to:
A. Crawl efficiently
B. Pick up small objects
C. Throw a ball
D. Maintain balance
Answer: B
Explanation: This fine motor skill uses thumb and forefinger. It enables precise
manipulation.
44. Question: What did the DeCasper and Spence "Cat in the Hat" study demonstrate?
A. Newborns have poor hearing
B. Fetuses can learn auditory information
C. Infants prefer silent environments
D. Mothers' voices are irritating
Answer: B
Explanation: Prenatal exposure to a story influenced postnatal preference. Learning
occurs before birth.
45. Question: Malnutrition in infancy can negatively affect:
A. Only physical growth
B. Physical, cognitive, and social development
C. Social development only
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D. Cognitive development only
Answer: B
Explanation: Chronic malnutrition has broad developmental consequences. Impacts are
multifaceted.
46. Question: What is a key finding about synaptic development?
A. The number of synapses only increases
B. The peak density occurs at the same time everywhere
C. More synapses are made than will be kept
D. Pruning occurs only in adulthood
Answer: C
Explanation: Initial overproduction is followed by selective pruning. Used connections
are strengthened.
47. Question: Infant perceptual development is best described as:
A. Solely nature-driven
B. Solely nurture-driven
C. An interaction of nature and nurture
D. Unrelated to brain growth
Answer: C
Explanation: Innate foundations are refined by experience. Both factors are essential.
48. Question: What is the primary purpose of reflexes?
A. To entertain parents
B. To provide innate survival mechanisms
C. To delay motor development
D. To replace learned behavior
Answer: B
Explanation: Reflexes are automatic adaptive responses. They help with early survival
like feeding.
49. Question: Which lobe processes visual information?
A. Frontal
B. Temporal
C. Parietal
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D. Occipital
Answer: D
Explanation: The occipital lobes are dedicated to vision. They are located at the back of
the brain.
50. Question: What is a central argument against the "strict blueprint" view of motor
development?
A. All infants crawl before walking
B. Development shows individual and cultural variation
C. Reflexes perfectly predict later skills
D. Genes dictate every action precisely
Answer: B
Explanation: Milestone timing and sequence can vary. Experience and context
significantly influence skills.
51. Question: In the first days of life, newborns often:
A. Gain 10% of their body weight
B. Lose 5-7% of their body weight
C. Maintain exact birth weight
D. Double their body weight
Answer: B
Explanation: Initial weight loss is common. It occurs as they adjust to feeding.
52. Question: What does the ecological view suggest about perception?
A. It is an internal mental construction
B. It directly picks up environmental information
C. It requires complex cognitive schemas
D. It is irrelevant to action
Answer: B
Explanation: Perception directly connects us with real-world information. It is for action
and adaptation.
53. Question: What does the term "lateralization" NOT imply?
A. The left hemisphere handles language in most people
B. Complex tasks use only one hemisphere
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C. Hemispheres have specialized functions
D. The right hemisphere is involved in humor
Answer: B
Explanation: Most complex activities involve both hemispheres working together. They
are not isolated.
54. Question: What is a major change in neuronal development during infancy?
A. Decrease in dendritic connections
B. Increase in neural connectivity
C. Complete stop of myelination
D. Elimination of all axons
Answer: B
Explanation: New dendritic connections and pathways form rapidly. This expands
communication networks.
55. Question: The ability to perceive occluded objects as whole develops around:
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: B
Explanation: At about 2 months, infants start to perceive hidden objects as complete.
Earlier, they see only what is visible.
56. Question: Which factor is linked to a lower risk of childhood obesity?
A. Bottle feeding
B. Early introduction of desserts
C. Breastfeeding
D. High fruit juice intake
Answer: C
Explanation: Breastfed infants have lower obesity rates later. It is a protective factor.
57. Question: What does the orienting response assess?
A. An infant's sense of smell
B. An infant's response to sight or sound
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C. The strength of the Moro reflex
D. Sucking efficiency
Answer: B
Explanation: Turning the head toward a stimulus indicates detection. It is a simple
perceptual test.
58. Question: Newborns' vision is best described as:
A. Legally blind
B. 20/20 acuity
C. Better than adult vision
D. Fuzzy but functional for nearby objects
Answer: D
Explanation: Acuity is roughly 20/240 at birth. It improves rapidly over the first months.
59. Question: What is a conclusion about breast versus bottle feeding research?
A. Studies prove breast milk causes higher IQ
B. Studies are mostly experimental
C. Studies show correlation, not necessarily causation
D. Studies find no health differences
Answer: C
Explanation: Research is correlational. Families who breastfeed often differ in other
health-conscious ways.
60. Question: The parietal lobes are important for:
A. Registering spatial location
B. Initiating voluntary movement
C. Processing auditory information
D. Managing emotional responses
Answer: A
Explanation: These lobes handle spatial awareness, attention, and motor control.
61. Question: Why is REM sleep proportionally high in infancy?
A. It may promote brain development
B. Infants dream more vividly
C. It prevents SIDS
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D. It replaces non-REM sleep
Answer: A
Explanation: One theory suggests REM provides self-stimulation. It might support
neural growth.
62. Question: What is a sign of healthy gross motor development in the second year?
A. Sitting with support
B. Rolling over
C. Running stiffly for short distances
D. The rooting reflex
Answer: C
Explanation: Between 18-24 months, toddlers can run, jump, and kick. These are
advanced gross motor skills.
63. Question: Early experience with "sticky mittens" led to:
A. Delayed visual perception
B. Enhanced object exploration
C. Weaker grasping reflexes
D. Reduced interest in objects
Answer: B
Explanation: The mittens provided early experience with grasping. This accelerated
visual-motor exploration.
64. Question: Infant taste preferences show that newborns:
A. Prefer salty tastes
B. Distinguish sweet, sour, and bitter
C. Cannot taste until 6 months
D. Only respond to sweet tastes
Answer: B
Explanation: Facial expressions differ for basic tastes at birth. Salt preference develops
around 4 months.
65. Question: The prefrontal cortex has a prolonged development, influencing:
A. Basic reflexes
B. Heart rate regulation
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C. Higher-level thinking and self-regulation
D. Visual acuity
Answer: C
Explanation: This area matures slowly. It governs complex cognition and impulse
control.
66. Question: What is a characteristic of fine motor skill development?
A. It precedes gross motor skills
B. It involves large muscle groups
C. It requires perceptual-motor coupling
D. It is fully mature at birth
Answer: C
Explanation: Coordinating vision and touch is crucial. Skills like reaching rely on this
integration.
67. Question: Deprived early environments can lead to:
A. Enhanced brain activity
B. Depressed brain activity
C. Faster myelination
D. Increased synaptic density
Answer: B
Explanation: Lack of stimulation can reduce brain activity patterns. The brain shows
plasticity, however.
68. Question: Infant sleep patterns in the Kipsigis culture demonstrate that:
A. All infants sleep through the night by 2 months
B. Cultural practices influence sleep duration
C. REM sleep is absent
D. Co-sleeping is never practiced
Answer: B
Explanation: Infants accompanying mothers sleep in shorter stretches. Culture shapes
sleep schedules.
69. Question: What is the primary source of nutrition for the first 4-6 months?
A. Cow's milk
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B. Solid foods
C. Human milk or formula
D. Fruit juices
Answer: C
Explanation: Breast milk or formula meets all nutritional needs initially. Solids are
introduced later.
70. Question: The dynamic systems view contrasts with Gesell's maturation view by
emphasizing:
A. Strict genetic timelines
B. Passive unfolding of skills
C. Active assembly of skills from multiple factors
D. The irrelevance of the environment
Answer: C
Explanation: Development is not a passive genetic printout. It is an active, context-
sensitive process.
SECTION 3: True / False
1. Statement: The cephalocaudal pattern describes growth from the center outward.
Answer: False
Explanation: That describes the proximodistal pattern. Cephalocaudal is head-to-tail
growth.
2. Statement: Newborns have no control over their head movements.
Answer: True
Explanation: Neck muscles are weak initially. They cannot hold the head up steadily.
3. Statement: Myelination is complete at birth.
Answer: False
Explanation: Myelination begins prenatally but continues for years. It progresses
through adolescence.
4. Statement: The left hemisphere exclusively controls creative thinking.
Answer: False
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Explanation: Complex thinking involves both hemispheres. The "left-brain/right-brain"
label is a myth.
5. Statement: Infants are born with all the synaptic connections they will ever have.
Answer: False
Explanation: Synapses form rapidly after birth. Many are later pruned away.
6. Statement: Shaken baby syndrome is a minor condition with no long-term effects.
Answer: False
Explanation: It causes serious brain injury and can be fatal. It requires infant head
protection.
7. Statement: By 6 months, most U.S. infants sleep most at night.
Answer: True
Explanation: Sleep patterns consolidate toward adult-like rhythms. Most sleep occurs
nocturnally.
8. Statement: Co-sleeping is recommended by all pediatric experts.
Answer: False
Explanation: It is controversial. The AAP discourages it due to SIDS risk.
9. Statement: Breastfeeding guarantees an infant will not become overweight.
Answer: False
Explanation: It reduces the risk but does not guarantee prevention. Many factors
influence weight.
10. Statement: The rooting reflex disappears after about a year.
Answer: False
Explanation: It usually fades by 3 to 4 months of age. It is replaced by voluntary turning.
11. Statement: Dynamic systems theory views motor development as a passive process.
Answer: False
Explanation: It sees development as active assembly. The infant solves motor problems.
12. Statement: The Moro reflex is also called the startle reflex.
Answer: True
Explanation: It occurs in response to sudden noise or movement. It resembles a startle.
13. Statement: Fine motor skills involve large-muscle activities like walking.
Answer: False
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Explanation: Those are gross motor skills. Fine motor skills involve small muscles like
fingers.
14. Statement: Sensation and perception are the same process.
Answer: False
Explanation: Sensation is receiving sensory input. Perception is interpreting that input.
15. Statement: Affordances depend on an individual's capabilities.
Answer: True
Explanation: An object's affordance is relative. It must fit the person's ability to act.
16. Statement: Habituation means an infant's response increases with repetition.
Answer: False
Explanation: Habituation is decreased responsiveness. Dishabituation is recovery of
response.
17. Statement: Newborns can see with 20/20 visual acuity.
Answer: False
Explanation: Newborn acuity is estimated at 20/240. It is fuzzy but improves quickly.
18. Statement: Infants show color preferences by 4 months of age.
Answer: True
Explanation: They prefer saturated colors. Some color discrimination exists even earlier.
19. Statement: Size constancy is fully developed at birth.
Answer: False
Explanation: It emerges around 3 months. It continues to develop through childhood.
20. Statement: The visual cliff tests an infant's hearing ability.
Answer: False
Explanation: It tests depth perception. Infants hesitate to crawl over an apparent drop.
21. Statement: Fetuses can learn and remember sounds from the womb.
Answer: True
Explanation: Studies show prenatal auditory learning. Newborns recognize stories heard
before birth.
22. Statement: Newborns are insensitive to pain.
Answer: False
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Explanation: Newborns feel pain. This has changed medical practices like circumcision
anesthesia.
23. Statement: Newborns show no odor preferences.
Answer: False
Explanation: They quickly prefer their mother's smell. They distinguish odors from
birth.
24. Statement: Intermodal perception is impossible for young infants.
Answer: False
Explanation: Early crude forms exist. Abilities become sharper in the first year.
25. Statement: Nativists believe all perception is learned.
Answer: False
Explanation: Nativists stress innate abilities. Empiricists emphasize learning.
26. Statement: Perception and action develop independently.
Answer: False
Explanation: They are coupled. Each informs and guides the other.
27. Statement: All infants crawl before they walk.
Answer: False
Explanation: Some infants use other locomotion methods. Some skip crawling entirely.
28. Statement: Malnutrition affects only physical growth.
Answer: False
Explanation: It also harms cognitive and social development. Effects are broad and
lasting.
29. Statement: The WIC program provides services only to infants.
Answer: False
Explanation: It serves women, infants, and children up to age 5. It includes nutrition
education.
30. Statement: Neurons communicate at junctions called synapses.
Answer: True
Explanation: Neurotransmitters cross synaptic gaps. This allows neuron-to-neuron
signaling.
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31. Statement: The peak synaptic density in the prefrontal cortex occurs at birth.
Answer: False
Explanation: It peaks around 1 year of age. Development there is very prolonged.
32. Statement: Infant sleep position has no relation to SIDS.
Answer: False
Explanation: Back sleeping significantly reduces SIDS risk. Position is a major factor.
33. Statement: Fathers are never perpetrators of shaken baby syndrome.
Answer: False
Explanation: Fathers are the most often cited perpetrators. Followed by childcare
providers.
34. Statement: Experience is unnecessary for normal color vision.
Answer: False
Explanation: Research shows experience is required. Normal visual input guides
development.
35. Statement: The palmer grasp precedes the pincer grip.
Answer: True
Explanation: Whole-hand grasping develops first. The finer pincer grip comes later.
36. Statement: Perceptual development is complete by 6 months.
Answer: False
Explanation: It undergoes continuous refinement. Many changes occur throughout
infancy and beyond.
37. Statement: The Gibsons' ecological view is purely empiricist.
Answer: False
Explanation: It leans nativist but acknowledges development. It is not a strict empiricist
view.
38. Statement: Newborns can localize sounds as well as adults.
Answer: False
Explanation: They have a crude ability. Sound localization improves greatly by 6
months.
39. Statement: The sucking reflex disappears after a few weeks.
Answer: False
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Explanation: The sucking reflex is permanent for feeding. The pattern of sucking
becomes more efficient.
40. Statement: "Baby-friendly" hospital programs promote bottle feeding.
Answer: False
Explanation: They encourage breastfeeding and mother-infant contact. They reduce
formula marketing.
41. Statement: All reflexes are permanent throughout life.
Answer: False
Explanation: Some, like Moro and rooting, are infant-specific. Others, like blinking, are
permanent.
42. Statement: Dendritic spreading decreases brain connectivity.
Answer: False
Explanation: It increases connections between neurons. It facilitates neural pathway
expansion.
43. Statement: Breastfeeding reduces the mother's risk of ovarian cancer.
Answer: True
Explanation: This is a documented maternal health benefit. It is linked to hormonal
changes.
44. Statement: Infants need a diet high in French fries and sweets.
Answer: False
Explanation: This is a poor dietary pattern. It contributes to overweight and health
problems.
45. Statement: Motor milestones occur in a rigid, inflexible sequence.
Answer: False
Explanation: There is variation in timing and order. Culture and experience influence
milestones.
46. Statement: Perception is designed for action.
Answer: True
Explanation: The ecological view holds this core idea. We perceive to interact with our
environment.
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47. Statement: EEG is a safe method to study infant brain activity.
Answer: True
Explanation: It measures electrical activity non-invasively. It poses no radiation risk.
48. Statement: Kwashiorkor occurs primarily in the first year of life.
Answer: False
Explanation: Marasmus occurs in the first year. Kwashiorkor usually appears between 1-
3 years.
49. Statement: The auditory cortex myelinates before the visual cortex.
Answer: False
Explanation: Visual pathway myelination occurs rapidly after birth. Auditory
myelination finishes later.
50. Statement: T. Berry Brazelton developed a neonatal assessment scale.
Answer: True
Explanation: He created the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale. It
evaluates newborn health.
SECTION 4: Fill-in-the-Blank
1. Prompt: The growth pattern from the center of the body outward is called the
__________ pattern.
Answer: proximodistal
Explanation: This pattern contrasts with cephalocaudal growth. Control moves from
trunk to limbs.
2. Prompt: The __________ is a layer of fat cells that insulates axons.
Answer: myelin sheath
Explanation: It increases neural transmission speed. Myelination continues for many
years.
3. Prompt: __________ is the decreased response to a stimulus after repeated exposure.
Answer: Habituation
Explanation: It is a key method for studying infant perception. Recovery indicates
novelty detection.
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4. Prompt: The __________ reflex is elicited by stroking an infant's cheek.
Answer: rooting
Explanation: It helps the infant find the nipple for feeding. It is an automatic survival
response.
5. Prompt: __________ involves integrating information from two senses, like vision and
hearing.
Answer: Intermodal perception
Explanation: Early abilities exist at birth. They become more refined with experience.
6. Prompt: The __________ lobes of the brain are involved in vision.
Answer: occipital
Explanation: They are located at the back of the cerebral cortex. They process visual
data.
7. Prompt: A life-threatening infant condition from protein-calorie deficiency is
__________.
Answer: marasmus
Explanation: It causes severe wasting of body tissues. It occurs in the first year.
8. Prompt: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends infants sleep on their
__________.
Answer: backs
Explanation: This "Back to Sleep" campaign reduces SIDS risk. Prone sleeping is
dangerous.
9. Prompt: The __________ view of perception states we directly pick up environmental
information.
Answer: ecological
Explanation: Eleanor and James J. Gibson developed this theory. It emphasizes
perception for action.
10. Prompt: The peak of synaptic overproduction in the visual cortex occurs at about
__________ months.
Answer: four
Explanation: Synaptic density then gradually declines. Different brain regions peak at
different times.
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11. Prompt: __________ are built-in, automatic reactions to stimuli.
Answer: Reflexes
Explanation: They govern newborn movements. Some disappear, others become
voluntary.
12. Prompt: The dynamic systems theory was proposed by Esther __________.
Answer: Thelen
Explanation: Her work revolutionized understanding of motor development. It
highlights multiple interacting factors.
13. Prompt: The __________ is a neonatal startle response to sudden movement.
Answer: Moro reflex
Explanation: It involves arching the back and extending limbs. It disappears by 3-4
months.
14. Prompt: __________ are opportunities for interaction offered by objects in the
environment.
Answer: Affordances
Explanation: They depend on the individual's capabilities. Perception detects these
possibilities.
15. Prompt: The __________ method uses looking time to assess infant visual
discrimination.
Answer: visual preference
Explanation: Robert Fantz pioneered this technique. Longer looking suggests interest or
recognition.
16. Prompt: __________ is the recognition that an object's shape is constant despite
orientation changes.
Answer: Shape constancy
Explanation: It develops around 3 months of age. It helps maintain a stable perceptual
world.
17. Prompt: The __________ program provides nutritional support to low-income women
and children.
Answer: WIC (Women, Infants, and Children)
Explanation: It is a federal grant program. It improves health outcomes for participants.
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18. Prompt: Motor skills that involve large-muscle activities are called __________ motor
skills.
Answer: gross
Explanation: Examples include sitting, standing, and walking. They require postural
control.
19. Prompt: The __________ is the tiny gap where neurons communicate.
Answer: synapse
Explanation: Neurotransmitters cross this gap. It connects axons and dendrites.
20. Prompt: __________ is the interpretation of sensory information.
Answer: Perception
Explanation: It goes beyond mere sensation. It gives meaning to sensory input.
21. Prompt: The ability of the brain to reorganize after injury is called __________.
Answer: plasticity
Explanation: It is demonstrated in cases like hemispherectomy. Functions can relocate to
other areas.
22. Prompt: The __________ grip uses the thumb and forefinger to pick up small objects.
Answer: pincer
Explanation: It is a fine motor milestone. It typically develops toward the end of the first
year.
23. Prompt: __________ studies use a nipple connected to a sound generator to assess infant
hearing.
Answer: High-amplitude sucking
Explanation: Changes in sucking rate indicate sound discrimination. It is an operant
conditioning method.
24. Prompt: Specialization of function in one brain hemisphere is called __________.
Answer: lateralization
Explanation: For example, language often lateralizes to the left hemisphere. Both sides
cooperate on complex tasks.
25. Prompt: The __________ cortex matures slowly and is involved in higher-order
thinking.
Answer: prefrontal
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Explanation: Its development extends into emerging adulthood. It governs planning and
self-control.
26. Prompt: A condition from severe protein deficiency with symptoms like swelling is
__________.
Answer: kwashiorkor
Explanation: It differs from marasmus. It typically appears after infancy.
27. Prompt: The __________ experiment tested infant depth perception using an apparent
cliff.
Answer: visual cliff
Explanation: Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk designed it. Hesitation to crawl suggests
depth awareness.
28. Prompt: Cultural variation in infant sleep patterns shows that development is not
__________.
Answer: universal (or fixed/rigid)
Explanation: Practices like co-sleeping affect sleep schedules. Biology interacts with
cultural context.
29. Prompt: The __________ reflex causes an infant to grasp an object placed in its palm.
Answer: grasping
Explanation: This automatic grip later becomes voluntary. It is a component of early
reaching.
30. Prompt: Infant __________ is the product of information interacting with sensory
receptors.
Answer: sensation
Explanation: It is the initial detection of stimuli. Perception is the subsequent
interpretation.
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SOURCE
Santrock, J. W. Life-Span Development. McGraw-Hill Education.
