SL@v3
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Although slavery existed in virtually all parts of the Old World, slavery in pre-1500 Africa, Asia, and Europe was not race-based. A such, racism--discrimination by a dominant group of another group based on skin color--is a relatively recent construction in world history.
That said, how and why did labor in 17th-century America transition from mostly white indentured servitude to race-based slavery?
Furthermore, why did slavery take hold in the Southern colonies far more than in the Northern colonies?
6 years ago 20
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