Medication Aide TEST
Questions and Answers
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1. Which does for is not a liquid?
a. emulsions
b. elixirs
c. troches
d. syrups: Troches
2. To apply ear drops to a person 3 years of age or older, you:
a. instill the drops without pulling the ear
b. pull the ear down and back
c. pull the ear upward and back
d. pull the ear down and foward: pull the ear upward and back
3. A watery preparation containing suspended particles is:
a. lotion
b. cream
c. ointment
d. powder: lotion
4. A drug interaction occurs when:
a. person cannot control the ingestion of drugs
b. withdrawal symptoms occur if the drug is not taken for a certain period
c. the action of one drug is altered by the action of another drug
d. a person begins to need higher dosages to produce the same effects
that lower dosages one produced: the action of one drug is altered by the
action of another drug
5. You are applying a trans-dermal patch. You
a. cover the patch with plastic wrap
b. remove the old trans-dermal path before applying the new patch
c. discard it in the trash
d. tell the person the drug is absorbed quickly: remove the old trans-
dermal path before applying the new patch
6. Before giving a drug, you must
a. take the persons pulse
b. measure the blood pressure
c. check the care plan
d. check the allergies: check the allergies
7. Knowledge of what is right conduct and what is wrong conduct is
a. criminal law
b. civil law
c. advanced directives
d. ethics: ethics
8. one tsp equals
a. 5mL
b. 30mL
c. 2mL
d. 10mL: 5mL
9. You are applying topical nitroglycerin. You
a. rub or massage the ointment into the skin
b. check for an old application before applying a new one
c. apply it in the per area
d. apply the ointment to an irritated or open area: check for an old
application before applying a new one
10. You are not sure of something on a drug order. you should
a. call the pharmacist
b. tell the nurse
c. transcribe the order as written
d. call the doctor: tell the nurse
11. before giving a suspension, you
a. mix the drug with food
b. warm the drug
c. dilute the drug
d. shake the bottle: shake the bottle
12. you suspect a person is being abused in your facility. You should
a. call the police
b. tell another med aide
c. share your concerns with the nurse
d. tell the social worker: share your concerns with the nurse
13. The intentional mistreatment or harm of another person is
a. malpractice
b. defamation
c. abuse
d. neglect: abuse
14. controlled substances are
a. left at the persons bedside
b. kept in a locked cabinet or in a locked drawer
c. regulated state laws
d. are kept in the persons drug drawer: kept in a locked cabinet or in a
locked drawer
15. ocular or optic drugs are given into the
a. eye
b. mouth
c. nose
d. ear: eye
16. before applying a topical drug, you should
a. provide privacy
b. expose the person's entire body
c. treat the person rudely
d. keep doors and window coverings open: provide privacy
17. As a med aide, you should
a. perform acts that are against your morals or religion
b. work within the legal limits of your role
c. perform functions that are beyond the legal limits of your role
d. function beyond your training limits: work within the legal limits of your role
18. A drug is ordered q.8.h. the drug should be given
a. daily
b. every 4 hours
c. four times a day
d. every eight hours: every eight hours
19. You are giving liquid drug. You
a. return the extra liquid back to the bottle
b. give cough syrup last
c. dilute the drug with water
d. mix all the liquid drugs together: give cough syrup last
20. A doctor begins to give you a telephone order. You
a. politely give your name and title and ask the doctor to wait for a nurse
b. give the phone to a unit secretary
c. write the order on the MAR
d. accept the order from the doctor: politely give your name and title and ask
the doctor to wait for a nurse
21. when giving oral drugs, you should
a. follow the 6 rights of drug administration
b. help feed a person
c. follow the three checks of label and MAR check
d. answer A and C: Answer A and C
22. You tell a patient about your personal problems. This is
A. professional sexual misconduct
b. boundary crossing
c. boundary sign
d. boundary violation: boundary violation
23. you need to give a person two different eye drugs. How long should
you wait between drugs?
a. 60 min
b. 24 hours
c. 30 min
d. 1-5 min: Usually 1-5 minutes
24. The following statements are about prescription labels. Which is
FALSE?
a. if a label is not complete, tell the nurse
b. check the expiration date
c. you may give a drug after the expiration date
d. always read the label carefully: You may give the drug after the expiration
date
25. To prevent infections, you should
a. practice hand hygiene before giving drugs
b. practice hand hygiene after giving drugs
c. practice hand hygiene before and after giving drugs
d. wear gloves when giving an oral drug: practice hand hygiene before and
after giving drugs
26. A drug is dropped on the floor. You should
a. dispose of it following agency policy
b. keep it for yourself.
c. give it to the person
d. return it to the drug box: dispose of it following agency policy
27. A cone shaped, solid drug inserted into a body opening is called
a. foam
b. tablet
c. gel
d. suppository: suppository
28. The purpose of a nurse practice act is to
a. protect the public welfare and safety
b. protect the safety of nursing assistive personnel
c. protect health care workers
d. protect the welfare of nursing assistive personnel: protect the public
welfare and safety
29. When giving oral drugs, you should
a. mix solid drugs with liquid drugs
b. stay with the person while he or she takes the drug
c. place a bottle lid upside down on a clean surface
d. give liquid drugs before solid drugs: stay with the person while he or
she takes the drug
30. Which of the following prevents a tablet from dissolving in the stomach?
a. Enteric coating
b. layering
c. scoring
d. granules: enteric coating
31. you are giving a buccal tablet. The tablet is
a. placed between the cheek and the molar teeth
b. crushed before you give it to the person
c. taken with a full glass of water
d. placed under the tongue: placed between the cheek and the molar teeth
32. to give the right dose, you
a. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the progress notes
b. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the graphic sheet
c. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the MAR
d. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the Kardex: compare
the dose on the pharmacy label against the MAR
33. you made a drug error and need to complete an incident report. You:
a. complete the incident report according to facility policy
b. contact the doctor about the error.
c. give your opinions about why the error occurred
d. record the error in the progress notes: complete the incident report
according to facility policy
34.
A drug is ordered q.i.d. The drug should be given:
a. twice a day
b. three times a day
c. four times a day
d. daily: 4 times a day
35. Which is used to give a vaginal cream, gel, or foam?
a. an applicator provided by the manufacturer
b. suppository
c. gloved finger
d. cotton-tipped swab: an applicator provided by the manufacturer
36. Drug cart keys should be
a. given to the unit clerk when you enter a persons room
b. kept with you when you enter a persons room
c. kept on the cart when you enter a persons room
d. given to a CNA when you enter a persons room: kept with you when
you enter a persons room
37. A severe, life threatening sensitivity to an antigen is
a. drug reaction
b. side effect
c. anaphylaxis
d. allergic reation: anaphlaxis
38. When giving a rectal or vaginal drug, you should wear
a. mask
b. shoe coverings
c. gloves
d. eye shields: gloves
39. Vaginal drugs are often given
a. bedtime
b. before the shower
c. early afternoon
d. late afternoon: bedtime
40. You are giving drugs from a drug cart. When you ender a persons
room you,
a. ask a CNA to watch the cart for you
b. leave the unlocked cart in the hallway
c. wheel the drug cart into the room
d. lock the cart before entering the persons room: lock the cart before
entering the persons room
41. Otic means
a. sublingual
b. mouth
c. eye
d. ear: ear
42. Oral drugs can be given if the person
a. is vomiting
b. unconscious or comatose
c. able to swallow
d. risk for aspiration: able to swallow
43. To make sure you have the right person when giving a drug, you use
at least
a. three identifiers
b. two identifiers
c. one identifier
d. four identifiers: two identifiers
44. A drug is ordered p.c. this drug is given,
a. after meals
b. upon wakening
c. before meals
d. at bedtime: after meals
45. Oral drugs are ordered for a person who is comatose. You should
a. notify the doctor
b. call the pharmacist for IM drugs
c. ask the nurse what to do
d. give the drugs as ordered: ask the nurse what to do
46. When applying a topical drug, you do all the following EXCEPT
a. document before you apply the drug
b. apply the dose form to clean, dry skin
c. wear gloves
d. practice hand hygiene before and after the application: document
before you apply the drug
47. When do you record a drug as given on the MAR?
a. at once after giving the drug
b. after all drugs are given at the end of the med pass
c. at the end of the shift
d. after the CNA gives the drug: at once after giving the drug
48. a sublingual drug is given
a. under the tongue
b. on the skin
c. between the cheek and molar teeth
d. in the eye: under the tongue
49. You gave a drug to the wrong person this is
a. abuse
b. malpractice
c. fraud
d. negligence: negligence
50. only a portion of a controlled substance is ordered. What should you
do with the unused portion?
a. return it to the medicine room
b. Return it to the pharmacy
d. save the unused portion for the next dose
d. document and place the unused portion in a designated secure, locked
area until it can be appropriately dispose of per facility policy: document
and place the unused portion in a designated secure, locked area until it can
be appropriately dispose of per facility policy
51. Taking a person's drugs for your own use is
a. drug diversion
b. malpractice
c. boundary crossing
d. negligence: drug diversion
52. A person has difficulty swallowing his or her drug. You
a. hold the drug
b. call the pharmacist
c. tell the doctor
d. tell the nurse: tell the nurse
53. If you fail to do something that a reasonable and careful person
would have done, you are
a. committing libel
b. fraudulent
c. abusive
d. negligent: negligent
54. When giving an eye medication, you
a. apply the drops or ointment to the cornea
b. give eye drops at room temperature
c. remove eye secretions by cleaning from the outer to the inner aspect of
the eye
d. tilt the persons head forward: give eye drops at room temperature
55. The nurse asks you to perform a task that is in your job description.
You have not done this task before. You
a. refuse to do the task without an explanation
b. ignore the request from the nurse
c. tell the nurse you have not done the task before and ask for help
d. do the task without asking questions: tell the nurse you have not done
the task before and ask for help
56. Primary routes of excretion for a drug are
a. secretion into saliva and breast milk
b. elimination through urine and feces
c. exhalation from the lungs
d. evaporation from the skin and nails: elimination through urine and feces
57. Ear medications are given
a. at room temperature
b. after being heated
c. cold
d. directly from the refrigerator: at room temperature
58. drugs should be stored in a refrigerator
a. with fluids
b. beverages
c. only for drugs
d. with food: only for drugs
59. A person has an allergy to a drug listed on the MAR. you should
a. tell the unit secretary
b. tell the nurse
c. call the doctor
d. give the drug: tell the nurse
60. A prescription label is not complete. you should
a. give the drug
b. check the expiration date
c. tell the nurse
d. call the pharmacy: tell the nurse
61. The basic unit of body structure is the
a. cell
b. neuron
c. nephron
d. ovum: cell
62. The outer layer of skin is called the:
a. dermis
b. epidermis
c. integument
d. myelin: epidermis
63. Which is not a function of the skin?
a. provides the protective covering for the body
b. regulates body temperature
c. senses cold, pain, touch, and pressure
d. provides the shape and framework for the body: provides the shape
and framework for the body
64. Which allows movement?
a. bone marrow
b. synovial membrane
c. joints
d. ligaments: joints
65. skeletal muscles
a. are under involuntary control
b. appear smooth
c. are under voluntary control
d. appear striped and smooth: are under voluntary control
66. The highest functions in the brain take place in the
a. cerebral cortex
b. medulla
c. brainstem
d. spinal nerves: cerebral cortex
67. The ear is involved with
a. regulating body movements
b. balance
c. the smoothness of body movements
d. controlling involuntary movements: balance
68. The liquid part of the blood is the
a. hemoglobin
b. red blood cell
c. plasma
d. white blood cell: plasma
69. Which part of the heart pumps blood TO the body?
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle: left ventricle
70. Which carry blood away from the heart?
a) Capillaries
b) Veins
c) Venules
d) Arteries: Veins
71. oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged
a. in the bronchi
b. between the alveoli and capillaries
c. between the lungs and pleura
d. in the trachea: between the alveoli and capillaries
72. Digestion begins in the
a. mouth
b. stomach
c. small intestines
d. colon: mouth
73. Most food absorption takes place in the
a. stomach
b. small intestine
c. colon
d. large intestines: small intestine
74. urine is formed by the
a. jejunum
b. kidneys
c. bladder
d. liver: kidneys
75. urine passes from the body through the
a. ureters
b. urethra
c. anus
d. nephrons: urethra
76. The male sex gland is called the
a. penis
b. semen
c. testis
d. scrotum: testis
77. The male sex cell is called
a. semen
b. ovum
c. gonad
d. sperm: sperm
78. the female sex gland is the
a. ovary
b. cervix
c. uterus
d. vagina: ovary
79. the discharge of the lining of the uterus is called
a. endometrium
b. ovulation
c. fertilization
d. menstruation: menstruation
80. the immune system protects the body from
a. low blood sugar
b. disease and infection
c. loss of fluid
d. stunted growth: disease and infection
81. the endocrine glands secrete
a. hormones
b. mucus
c. semen
d. insulin: hormones
82. Skin absorption of drugs is enhanced in infants. this is because
their skin,
a. is thinner
b. has more water
c. is dry
d. has fewer hair follicles: has more water
83. You are giving drugs to an older person. Which of the following
may enhance skin absorption?
a. thin skin
b. dry skin
c. wrinkled skin
d. decreased blood flow to the skin: thin skin
84. A tablet is too large for a person to swallow. With the nurse's
permission, you can
a. crush the tablet and mix it with food
b. give the liquid form of the same drug
c. ask the person to chew the tablet
d. dissolve the drug in water: crush the tablet and mix it with food
85. Before giving a chewable tablet, you should
a. taste the drug
b. ask about the person's saliva flow
c. mix the drug with food
d. ask about loose teeth: ask about loose teeth
86. These statements are about gastro-intestinal absorption of drugs in
older persons. Which is FALSE?
a. gastric acid secretion increases
b. stomach emptying is slower
c. GI mobility is slower
d. blood flow to the stomach and intestines is decreased: gastric acid
secretion increases
87. Drugs are given orally to an older person. The person is at risk for
the following except
a. enzymes
b. ulcers
c. constipation
d. diarrhea: enzymes
88. Drug distribution is likely to be greater in
a. infants
b. persons with liver disease
c. persons with kidney disease
c. older persons: infants
89. In persons with liver or kidney disease, you should expect drug
dosages to be
a. increased
b. decreased
c. within the normal range
d. half the normal range: decreased
90. Therapeutic drug monitoring is done to measure
a. metabolites
b. enzymes
c. a drug's concentration in body fluids
d. drug toxicity: a drug's concentration in body fluids
91. You assist the nurse with therapeutic drug monitoring by measuring
a. vital signs and urine output
b. gastric pH
c. blood pH
d. drug blood levels: vital signs and urine output
92. The following are used to give oral drugs to children except
a. medicine cups
b. oral droppers
c. oral syringes
d. pacifiers: pacifiers
93. A child cannot swallow a capsule. With the nurse's permission, you can
a. sprinkle the contents onto small amounts of applesauce, jelly or pudding
d. sprinkle the contents into a flavored drink
c. dilute the capsule following the manufacturer's instructions
d. have the child chew the drug: sprinkle the contents onto small amounts of
applesauce, jelly or pudding
94. From birth through the teenage years, children should not be given
a. tylenol
b. advil
c. penicillin
d. aspirin: aspirin
95. When giving drugs to an infant, you should
a. support the child's head
b. let the child choose which drug to take first
c. place a tablet near the back of the child's tongue
d. use a straw if the drug can stain teeth: support the child's head
96. To remove and unpleasant after-taste, you should let the child
a. have candy
b. rinse with a flavored drink
c. choose which drug form to take
d. choose where to take the drug: rinse with a flavored drink
97. Which is a useful reminder for when to take drugs?
a. medicine cup
b. oral dropper
c. oral syringe
d. drug organizer: drug organizer
98. A tablet is "scored" what does "scored" mean?
a. you keep track of the number of tablets given to the person
b. the tablet can be broken in half
c. a "score" means 20. there are 20 doses in the tablet
d. the tablet is time released.: the tablet can be broken in half
99. A pregnant woman should do the following except
a. try non-drug treatments before trying drugs
b. take only drugs ordered by the doctor
c. have one alcoholic drink a day
d. take prescribed drugs after the infant is done breast-feeding: have
one alcoholic drink a day
100. The brand name of a drug is
a. its trade name
b. it chemical structure
c. the common name
d. the name listed by the FDA: its trade name
101. A prescription drug
a. affects one body system
b. has one use
c. needs a doctor order
d. is not approved for use by the FDA: needs a doctor order
102. OTC drugs
a. are called recreational drugs
b. are sold without a prescription
c. have no therapeutic use
d. require the phrase "Rx only" on the label: are sold without a prescription
103. Drugs act in the human body by
a. Forming a chemical bond within specific sites
b. creating new body responses
c. reconstituting a body fluid
d. diluting a body fluid: Forming a chemical bond within specific sites
104. the process by which the body inactivated a drug is called
a. absorption
b. distribution
c. metabolism
d. excretion: metabolism
105. A drug is given by the enteral route. You know that the drug is given
a. into a vein
b. into a muscle
c. beneath the skin
d. into the GI tract: into the GI tract
106. The nurse tells you that the blood level of a drug is too high. You
know that the
a. person is taking illegal drugs
b. person is at risk for high toxicity
c. the rate or absorption is low
d. the rate of excretion is high: person is at risk for high toxicity
107. Most drugs are metabolized
a. in the kidneys
b. by white blood cells
c. by the GI tract
d. in the liver: liver
108. Most drugs leave the body through
a. the skin
b. the lungs
c. saliva
d. urine and feces: urine and feces
109. Which is life threatening:
a. an allergic reaction
b. an adverse drug reaction
c. an idiosyncratic drug reaction
d. an anaphylactic reaction: an anaphylactic reaction
110. A person complains of severe itching. You observe raised,
irregular patches on the person's skin. This is called
a. a side effect
b. an adverse drug reaction
c. anaphylaxis
d. hives: hives
111. A hyper-sensitivity to a drug is called
a. an allergic reaction
b. an adverse drug reaction
c. side effect
d. an anaphylactic reaction: an allergic reaction
112. Which has no active ingredients?
a. IM
b. IV
c. subcutaneous
d. placebo: placebo
113. A person needs higher dosages of a drug to produce the same
effects that lower dosages once gave. This is called
a. tolerance
b. dependence
c. cumulative effect
d. drug interaction: tolerance
114. When checking drug information you must use
a. the PDR
b. package inserts
c. the most current resource
d. online resources: the most current resource
115. A single drug order is given
a. at once
b. as needed
c. at a certain time
d. at bedtime: at a certain time
116. Which abbreviation is on the "do not use" list?
a. QD
b. PO
c. AC
d. q6h: QD
117. Which abbreviation is safe to use?
a. cc
b. U
c. QOD
d. mL: mL
118. A drug order state to give the drug if the person has not had a bowel
movement for 3 days. Where will you find information about the drug
order?
a. the Kardex
b. graphic sheet
c. progress notes
d. care plan: the Kardex
119. You gave a PRN drug as directed by the nurse. Besides the MAR,
where should you record giving the drug?
a. the Kardex
b. graphic sheet
c. progress notes
d. care plan: progress notes
120. When is a copy of the order sent to the pharmacy?
a. as soon as it is written
b. after it is transcribed
c. at the end of the shift
d. at the time noted by the doctor: after it is transcribed
121. After transcribing a drug order, you should do the following EXCEPT
a. place a check mark by the order
b. write noted or posted on the order
c. sign, date, and time the order
d. give the drug: give the drug
122. A drug is given daily. What time should you put on the
MAR? a. 0900
b. the agency's standard time for a drug given daily
c. the time the drug was ordered
d. the time preferred by the person: the agency's standard time for a drug
given daily
123. A drug order was changed from daily to twice a day. When
transcribing the new order to the MAR, you should do the following except
a. erase the first order
b. discontinue the first order
c. put an X through every date and time not included in the order
d. transcribe the new order on a new line: erase the first order
124. A drug is dispensed in a packed for each drug ordered. This is done
with the
a. floor stock system
b. individual prescription order system
c. unit dose system
d. narcotic control system: unit dose system
125. The pharmacy sends a 3-5 day supply of an ordered drug to the
nursing unit. This is done with the
a. floor stock system
b. individual prescription order system
c. unit dose system
d. computer-controlled dispensing system: individual prescription order
sys- tem
126. A narcotics count is required
a. at the end of the shift
b. every week
c. every month
d. whenever a dose is removed: at the end of the shift
127. to receive oral drugs, the person must be able to
a. state his or her name
b. identify the drug
c. sit in fowler's position
d. swallow: swallow
128. oral drug orders are written as follows. Which should you question?
a. 10 mL
b. 10 mL per os
c. 10 mL orally
d. 10 mL by mouth: 10 mL per os
129. Which dose form contains granules?
a. tablet
b. capsule
c. time-release capsule
d. lozenge: time-release capsule
130. Which form is held in the mouth to dissolve?
a. tablet
b. capsule
c. time-release capsule
d. lozenge: lozenge
131. Another name for a lozenge is
a. elixir
b. emulsion
c. troche
d. suspension: troche
132. Which is NOT a liquid dose form?
a. elixir
b. emulsion
c. lozenge
d. syrup: lozenge
133. Which dose form should you shake before pouring the drug?
a. suspension
b. timed-released capsule
c. elixir
d. syrup: suspension
134. Which has a hollow rubber ball at one end?
a. souffle cup
b. medicine cup
c. medicine dropper
d. oral syringe: medicine dropper
135. A person has 4 drugs ordered for 0900. Which should you give first?
a. the liquid drug
b. a drug in a unit dose package
c. a solid drug
d. the most important drug: the most important drug
136. Before giving a person a solid dose form, you should have the person
a. eat some food
b. drink a small amount of water
c. drink a full glass of water
d. tilt his or her head back: drink a small amount of water
137. Topical Drug Absorption is affected by the following except
a. the time of application
b. how long the drug is in contact with the skin
c. skin thickness
d. amount of water in the tissues: the time of application
138. a topical drug is applied to debride a wound. Debriding is done to
a. relieve itching
b. provide a protective barrier to the skin
c. reduce inflammation
d. promote healing: promote healing
139. Which of the following do you shake and has watery preparation?
a. cream
b. lotion
c. ointment
d. powder: lotion
140. Lotions are used for the following reasons except
a. absorb moisture
b. soothe and protect the skin
c. relieve itching
d. cleanse the skin: absorb moisture
141. Which topical dose form is dabbed on?
a. cream
b. lotion
c. ointment
d. powder: lotion
142. These statements are about applying powder. Which is false?
a. you shake or sprinkle powder onto the person
b. powder is applied in a thin layer
c. powder is slippery and can cause falls
d. after applying powder you smooth over the area for even coverage.:
you shake or sprinkle powder onto the person
143. Before applying a topical dose form, ALWAYS
a. provide for the person's privacy
b. follow isolation precautions
c. shave the application site
d. clip hair at the application site: provide for the person's privacy
144. An ointment is in a jar. What should you use to remove the
amount ordered?
a. your hand
b. a sterile tongue blade
c. a syringe
d. a measuring spoon: a sterile tongue blade
145. These statements are about nitroglycerin ointment and
transdermal drug delivery systems. Which is FALSE?
a. an old application is removed before applying a new one
b. you rub or massage the ointment into the skin
c. the application site is rotated
d. the drug is applied to the skin site with little or no hair: you rub or
massage the ointment into the skin
146. Which is used to measure the ordered dose of nitroglycerin ointment?
a. a measuring spoon
b. medicine cup
c. dose-measuring paper
d. transdermal patch: dose-measuring paper
147. Eye drops are ordered you should use
a. a syringe
b. a dropper from the supply cart
c. the dropper supplied by the drug manufacturer
d. a squeeze bottle.: the dropper supplied by the drug manufacturer
148. Which is NOT a position for giving eye medications?
a. supine
b. sitting
c. Fowler's
d. with the head over the edge of the mattress.: with the head over the edge
of the mattress.
149. A drug order states that a medication is to be given "OS" what
should you do?
a. give the drug to the left eye
b. give the drug to the right eye
c. give the drug to both eyes
d. check with the nurse: check with the nurse
150. After an eye ointment is applied, the person should
a. wipe eye
b. rub eye
c. close the eyes gently
d. stare straight ahead: close the eyes gently
151. Ear medications are given
a. cold
b. at room temperature
c. after being heated
d. directly from the refrigerator: at room temperature
152. What should you do to remove excess cerumen?
a. tongue blade
b. cotton-tipped applicator
c. gauze and saline
d. wet washcloth: wet washcloth
153. to instill a drug means to give
a. a puff by squeezing a tube
b. a spray by squeezing a container
c. it drop by drop
d. it in a strip fashion: it drop by drop
154. Ear drops are ordered for both ears. How long should you wait
before giving ear drops in the second ear?
a. no waiting is required
b. 1-5 minutes
c. 5-10 mins
d. 10-15 mins.: 5-10 mins
155. You inserted a cotton pledget after giving ear drops. How long should
it remain in place?
a. 1 min
b. 5 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 15 mins: 15 mins
156. After receiving nose drops, how long should a patient remain in
supine position?
a. 1 min
b. 5 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 15 mins: 5 mins
157. Which is the best position for giving nasal spray?
a. supine
b. side-lying
c. Fowler's
d. with hand over the edge of the mattress: Fowler's
158. To give a nasal spray, you give a puff of spray as the person
a. blows his or her nose
b. takes a deep breath
c. exhales deeply
d. holds his or her breath: takes a deep breath
159. Before a person uses a MDI spacer, you should
a. squeeze the dispensing valve to remove foreign objects
b. shake the MDI and spacer
c. ask the person to inhale
d. have the person rinse out his or her mouth with water: shake the MDI
and spacer
160. The mouthpiece of an MDI spacer is
a. placed 1-2 inches in front of the persons mouth
b. placed 3-4 inches in front of the person mouth
c. positioned on the persons lips
d. placed in the persons mouth: placed in the persons mouth
161. After using the MDI, the person does the following EXCEPT
a. holds his or her breath for about 10 seconds
b. exhales slowly through the mouth
c. inhales more puffs immediately
d. rinses the mouth with water if a cortico-steroid was inhaled: inhales
more puffs immediately
162. a cone-shaped, solid drug that is inserted into a body opening is called
a. tablet
b. foam
c. gel
d. suppository: suppository
163. For vaginal suppositories the client should be in an posi-
tion.
a. lithotomy position
b. sims' position
c. left side-lying position
d. supine position: lithotomy position
164. After receiving a vaginal drug, the woman is positioned in
a. lithotomy position
b. sims' position
c. left side-lying position
d. supine position: supine position
165. To protect garments and bed linens after giving a vaginal drug, you can
a. apply a perineal pad of panty shield
b. place a waterproof pad under the buttocks
c. elevate the woman's hips on pillows
d. ask the woman to use a bed pan or toilet: apply a perineal pad of panty
shield
166. To give a rectal drug, the person is positioned in
a. lithotomy position
b. sims' position
c. right side-lying position
d. supine position: Sims' position
167. Rectal suppositories usually melts in
a. 5-10 minutes
b. 15-20 minutes
c. 20-25 minutes
d. 25-30 minutes: 15-20 minutes
168. a rectal suppository can be given
a. for fever
b. after rectal surgery
c. after prostate surgery
d. if the person has diarrhea: for fever
169. Which is used to give a rectal suppository?
a. a gloved finger
b. an applicator provided by the manufacturer
c. a cotton-tipped applicator
d. enema tube: gloved finger
170. Nerve signals or impulses are caused by
a. neurons
b. synapses
c. agonists
d. neurotransmitters: neurotransmitters
171. Which is NOT an adrenergic agent?
a. levodopa
b. dopamine
c. epinephrine
d. norepinephrine: levodopa
172. Most adrenergic agents cause
a. vaso-constriction
b. vaso-dilation
c. broncho-spasm
d. hypotension: vaso-constriction
173. Beta-blocking agents are commonly used to treat
a. hypotension
b. hypertension
c. vaso-constriction
d. respiratory disorders: hypertension
174. When giving a beta blocker, you assist with assessment by
a. measuring heart rate and blood pressure
b. observing the color of urine
c. asking the person to use a pain rating scale
d. observing the person's level of alertness: measuring heart rate and
blood pressure
175. Cholinergic agents are used in the treatment of
a. myocardial infarction
b. parkinsons disease
c. myasthenia gravis
d. heart failure: myasthenia gravis
176. Anti-cholinergic actions include the following EXCEPT
a. increasing the heart rate
b. drying respiratory secretions
c. increasing GI mobility
d. dilating the pupil: increasing GI mobility
177. Which of the following drugs is an anti-cholinergic?
a. carvedilol (Coreg)
b. terbutaline (Brethine)
c. bethanechol (Urecholine)
d. atropine (Atropine Sulfate): atropine (Atropine Sulfate)
178. When giving an anticholinergic agent, you assist with assessment by
a. measuring heart rate and blood pressure
b. observing the color of urine
c. asking the person to use a pain rating scale
d. observing the person's level of alertness: measuring heart rate and
blood pressure
179. Sedative-hypnotic drugs are used to
a. produce sleep
b. dry respiratory secretions before surgery
c. decrease drooling and tremors
d. stimulate the central nervous system: produce sleep
180. All of the following are barbiturates EXCEPT
a. phenobarbital (Luminal)
b. pentobarbital (Nembutal)
c. secobarbital (Seconal)
d. flurazepam (Dalmane): flurazepam
181. The benzodiazepines are used for the following reasons except
a. to dry respiratory secretions
b. produce mild sedation
c. produce sleep
d. pre-operative sedation: to dry respiratory secretions
182. the following are benzodiazepines except
a. zolpidem (ambien)
b. lorazepam (Ativan)
c. estazolam (ProSom)
d. triazolam (halcion): zolpidem (ambien)
183. Which drug is NOT used to promote sleep?
a. chloral hydrate (Aquachloral)
b. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
c. zaleplon (Sonata)
d. carbidopa, levodopa (Sinemet): carbidopa, levodopa (Sinemet)
184. Which is a common side effect of drugs used to treat Parkinson's?
a. drooling
b. rigid, stiff muscles
c. orthostatic hypotension
d. tremors: orthostatic hypotension
185. Signs and symptoms of Parkinson's are caused by a deficiency of
a. levodopa
b. dopamine
c. carbidopa
d. norepinephrine: dopamine
186. The following drugs are used to treat Parkinson's EXCEPT
a. pramipexole (Mirapex)
b. ropinirole (Requip)
c. secobarbital (Seconal)
d. selegiline (Eldepryl): secobarbital (Seconal)
187. Drugs used to treat Parkinson's
a. depress the CNS
b. increase the amount of dopamine available to brain cells
c. cure the disease
d. inhibit the use of dopamine: increase the amount of dopamine available
to brain cells
188. a state of severe mental impairment is called
a. anxiety
b. depression
c. mood disorder
d. psychosis: psychosis
189. Many of the drugs used to treat mental disorders affect the
a. CNS
b. endocrine system
c. respiratory system
d. cardiovascular system: CNS
190. Which of the following are used to treat anxiety?
a. benzodiazepines
b. monoamine oxidase inhibitors
c. selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors
d. anti-manic agents: benzodiazepines
191. the following drugs are used to treat anxiety EXCEPT
a. alprozolam (Xanax)
b. diazepam (Valium)
c. clorazepate (tranxene)
d. fluoxetine (Prozac): fluoxetine (Prozac)
192. the following drugs are used to treat anxiety EXCEPT
a. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
b. paroxetine (Paxil)
c. hydroxyzine (Atarax)
d. fluvoxamine (Luvox): paroxetine (Paxil)
193. Which of the following is used to produce sedation before surgery?
a. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
b. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
c. lorazepam (Ativan)
d. clorazepate (tranxene): hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
194. Mood disorders are treated with
a. anti-anxiety meds
b. anti-depressants
c. anti-psychotic
d. sedative-hypnotics: anti-depressants
195. Which of the following have severe side effects when taken with
aged cheese and other foods?
a. monamine oxidase inhibitors
b. tri-cyclics
c. selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors
d. benzodiazepines: monamine oxidase inhibitors
196. The last does of an MAOI is usually given no later
than a. 1400
b. 1600
c. 1800
d. 2000: 1800
197. What is the most common side effect of an MAOI?
a. orthostatic hypotension
b. sedation
c. insomnia
d. mouth dryness: orthostatic hypotension
198. Which of the following is an MAOI?
a. doxepin
b. fluoxtine
c. sertraline
d. phenelzine: phenelzine (Nardil)
199. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors are used to treat
a. anxiety
b. depression
c. bipolar disorder
d. schizophrenia: depression
200. How long does it usually take to see the effects of SSRIs?
a. 1 week
b. 1-2 weeks
c. 2-4 weeks
d. 4-6 weeks: 2-4 weeks
201. Which is an SSRI?
a. sertraline
b. amitriptyline hydrochloride
c. phenelzine
d. doxepin: sertraline
202. Which is not an anti-depressant?
a. bupropion hydrochloride
b. mirtazapine
c. buspirone
d. trazodone hydrochloride: buspirone
203. Which is an anti-manic agent?
a. lithium carbonate
b. paroxetine
c. fluoxetine
d. sertraline: lithium carbonate
204. Anti-Manic agents are used to treat
a. psychosis
b. bipolar disorder
c. anxiety
d. depression: bipolar disorder
205. The full effect of anti-manic agents are usually seen in
a. 5-7 days
b. 7-14 days
c. 10-21 days
d. 6 months: 10-21 days
206. Lithium can cause a loss of
a. sodium
b. calories
c. protein
d. potassium: sodium
207. The most common psychotic disorder is
a. hallucinations
b. delusions
c. schizophrenia
d. PTSD: schizophrenia
208. Anti-psychoitc drugs often cause
a. involuntary muscle movements
b. severe hypertension
c. suicidal actions
d. sedation: involuntary muscle movements
209. The following are anti-psychotic agents EXCEPT
a. diazepam
b. chlorpromazine
c. prochlorperazine
d. haloperidol: diazepam
210. a body part may jerk. The person does not lose consciousness. This is
a. epilepsy
b. partial seizure
c. generalized seizure
d. petit mal seizure: partial seizure
211. Anti-convulsant drugs control seizures by affecting
a. neurons in the brain
b. nerves in the central nervous system
c. voluntary muscles
d. involuntary muscles: neurons in the brain
212. Seizure treatment must always contain
a. anti-convulsant therapy
b. benzodiazepines
c. the cause of the seizures
d. treatment of epilepsy: the cause of the seizures
213. Which is a benzodiazepine?
a. diazepam
b. ethotoin
c. phenytoin
d. ethosuximide: diazepam
214. When giving a benzodiazepine you must
a. give the drug with food or milk
b. provide for safety
c. give good oral hygiene
d. measure blood pressure: provide for safety
215. Succinimides are given
a. with food or milk
b. at bedtime
c. before meals
d. after meals: with food or milk
216. Before giving carbamazepine, you
a. measure blood glucose
b. give good oral hygiene
c. measure weight
d. give the person food.: Measure weight
217. When giving most anti-convulsants, you observe the following EXCEPT
a. the persons speech pattern
b. urine color
c. degree of alertness
d. orientation to the person, time, and place: urine color
218. Which drug's dosage is based on the person's body weight?
a. valproic acid
b. tiagabine
c. topiramate
d. zonisamide: valproic acid
219. Which are given to reduce fever?
a. opiate agonists
b. salicylates
c. methadone-like derivatives
d. opiate partial agonists: salicylates
220. The following are opiate agonists EXCEPT
a. codeine and morphine sulfate
b. oxycontin and Percodan
c. Talwin and Darvon
d. Dilaudid and Demerol: Talwin and Darvon
221. Which are the strongest anti-lipemic drugs?
a. bile acid-binding resins
b. fibric acids
c. statins
d. Zetia and Omacor: statins
222. Common side effects of anti-lipemic drugs are
a. chest pain
b. nausea
c. hypotension
d. dizziness: nausea
223. In a normal cardiac cycle, the impulse starts in the
a. atria
b. SA node
c. AV node
d. bundle of His: SA node
224. Another term for dysrhythmia is: arrhythmia
225. Which dysrhythmia has more P waves than QRS complexes?
a. sinus tachycardia
b. premature atrial contractions
c. atrial flutter
d. atrial fibrillation: atrial flutter
226. dysrhythmia that develop above the bundle of His are called
a. sinus dysrhythmias
b. premature contractions
c. junctional rhythms
d. supra-ventricular dysrhythmias: supra-ventricular dysrhythmias
227. Ventricular dysrhythmias develop
a. in the SA node
b. in the AV node
c. above the bundle of His
d. below the bundle of His: below the bundle of His
228. Which is NOT considered life threatening?
a. atrial fibrillation
b. premature ventricular contractions
c. ventricular tachycardia
d. ventricular fibrillation: atrial fibrillation
229. Intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to
a. liquify secretions
b. ease breathing
c. reduce sedation
d. reduce inflammation: reduce inflammation
230. Intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to treat
a. common cold
b. emphysema
c. allergic rhinitis
d. rhinitis medicamentosa: allergic rhinitis
231. intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to reduce the following except
a. nasal burning
b. itching
c. rhinorrhea
d. sneezing: nasal burning
232. Which liquify mucus?
a. anti-inflammatory
b. antitussives
c. broncho-dilators
d. expectorants: expectorants
233. Broncho-dilators are given to
a. promote a productive cough
b. ease breathing
c. liquify secretions
d. dry secretions: ease breathing
234. A person has other drugs ordered with the antacids. the drugs are
given
a. with the antacids
b. 30 mins before
c. 30 mins after
d. 1 hour before OR 2 hours after: 1 hour before OR 2 hours after
235. an antacid is high in sodium and should observe for signs and
symp- toms such as
a. heart failure
b. diabetes
c. asthma
d. urinary retention: heart failure
236. Histamine receptor antagonists result in
a. decreased amounts of gastric juices
b. a low pH of stomach contents
c. increased GI motility
d. decreased GI motility: decreased amounts of gastric juices
237. Histamine receptor antagonists are given
a. with food or milk
b. an an empty stomach
c. with antacids
d. after meals: with food or milk
238. which is a (H2) receptor antagonist?
a. Tagemet
b. Maalox
c. Mylanta
d. Philips' milk of magnesia: Tagemet
239. Gastro-intestinal prostaglandins
a. form a substance that adheres to the crater of an ulcer
b. stimulate GI movement and motility
c. block the action of histamine
d. inhibit gastric secretion: inhibit gastric secretion
240. Which is a gastro- intestinal prostaglandins?
a. Di-Gel
b. cimetidine
c. Cytotec
D. carafate: Cytotec
241. Which is NOT a proton pump inhibitor?
a. Pepcid AC
b. Nexium
c. Prilosec
d. Prevacid: Pepcid AC
242. When giving a proton pump inhibitor, the dose form
a. should be swallowed whole
b. can be opened
c. can be crushed
d. can be chewed: should be swallowed whole
243. Coating agents can cause
a. diarrhea
b. heartburn
c. constipation
d. urinary retention: constipation
244. Metoclopramide is given
a. 30 mins before meals and at bedtime
b. with food or milk
c. on an empty stomach
d. after meals: 30 mins before meals and at bedtime
245. The effects of anti-spasmodic agents occur
a. in the esophagus
b. in the stomach
c. in the intestines
d. throughout the body: throughout the body
246. Anti-spasmodic agents result in
a. decreased gastric juices and decreased GI mobility
b. increased gastric juices and increased GI mobility
c. decreased amounts of histamine
d. increased amounts of histamines: decreased gastric juices and
decreased GI mobility
247. Which is an anti-spasmodic agent?
a. Aciphex
b. Atropnie
c. Riopan
d. Zantac: Atropnie
248. Which can cause a chalky taste in the mouth?
a. antacids
b. coating agents
c. anti-spasmodics
d. gastro-intestinal prostaglandins: antacids
249. Which can cause mental disturbances?
a. antacids
b. coating agents
c. anti-spasmodics
d. gastro-intestinal prostaglandins: anti-spasmodics
250. Emesis means
a. diarrhea
b. constipation
c. retching or griping
d. vomiting: vomiting
251. Drugs that cause bowel evacuation are called
a. anti-diarrheals
b. anti-emetics
c. laxatives
d. enemas: laxatives
252. Which is a phenothiazine used to control vomiting?
a. prochlorperazine
b. haloperidol
c. trimethobenzamide
d. dimenhydrinate: prochlorperazine
253. Which is often used to control motion sickness?
a. prochlorperazine
b. haloperidol
c. trimethobenzamide
d. dimenhydrinate: dimenhydrinate
254. Benzodiazepines are used to prevent nausea and vomiting
from chemotherapy because they also
a. control diarrhea
b. reduce anxiety
c. improve alertness
d. improve memory: reduce anxiety
255. Stimulant laxatives
a. cause an irritation that promotes peristalsis
b. draw water into the intestine
c. contains oils
d. draw water into the feces: cause an irritation that promotes peristalsis
256. Which maintain fluid and electrolyte balance?
a. androgens
b. estrogen
c. gluco-corticoids
d. mineralocorticoids: mineralocorticoids
257. Which have anti-inflammatory, anti-allergenic, and immuno-
suppres- sant activity?
a. androgens
b. estrogens
c. testosterone
d. mineralocorticoids: androgens
258. Oral glucocorticoids are given
a. before meals
b. with meals
c. after meals
d. at bedtime: with meals
259. Corticosteroids may cause signs and symptoms of
a. electrolyte embalance
b. masculine characteristics
c. infection and inflammation
d. allergies: electrolyte embalance
260. A person has a history of mental health problems. Behavior
changes may occur when taking
a. corticosteroids
b. estrogens
c. progestins
d. androgens: corticosteroids
261. Estrogen may be used in the treatment of the following except
a. menopause
b. some types of breast cancer
c. advanced prostate cancer
d. endometriosis: advanced prostate cancer
262. Progestins are used for the following except
a. breast cancer in post-menopausal women
b. contraception
c. endometriosis
d. abnormal uterine bleeding: breast cancer in post-menopausal women
263. Male hormones are lacking, what is this called?
a. androgen deficiency
b. eunuchism
c. hypogonadism
d. priapism: eunuchism
264. Contraceptives are used to
a. prevent pregnancy
b. treat BPH
c. treat erectile dysfunction
d. prevent leukorrhea: prevent pregnancy
265. Combination oral contraceptives contain
a. estrogen only
b. progestin only
c. estrogen and progestin
d. progestin and testosterone: estrogen and progestin
266. Combination oral contraceptives are packaged with 28 tablets. The
last 7 contain
a. estrogen
b. progestin
c. testosterone
d. no hormones: no hormones
267. Mini-pill oral contraceptives are packaged with 28 tablets in which
all contain
a. estrogen
b. progestin
c. testosterone
d. no hormones: progestin
268. Which oral contraceptive results in 4 periods in one year?
a. mono-phasic
b. bi-phasic
c. tri-phasic
d. seasonale: seasonale
269. The following are side effects of contraceptives. Which may signal
seri- ous problems?
a. weight gain
b. break through bleeding
c. leg pain
d. vaginal discharge: leg pain
270. A transdermal contraceptive can be applied to the following areas
EX- CEPT
a. breast
b. arm
c. butt
d. abdomen: breast
271. Tamsulosin is used to treat BPH. It
a. caused muscles to relax so blood can fill erectile tissue
b. causes muscles to relax to allow greater urine flow
c. reduced cell growth
d. inhibits estrogen secretion: causes muscles to relax to allow greater
urine flow
272. Which drug is NOT used to treat erectile dysfunction?
a. tadalafil
b. vardenafil
c. finasteride
d. sildenafil: finasteride
273. Cystitis is an inflammation of the
a. bladder
b. kidney pelvis
c. prostate
d. urethra: kidney pelvis
274. which does not occur in OAB syndrome?
a. urgency
b. frequency
c. incontinence
d. diuresis: diuresis
275. Drugs given for OAB syndrome can cause
a. numbness and tingling in the arms and legs
b. rust brown to yellow urine
c. dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision
d. hematuria and nocturia: dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision
276. Two types of eye drops are ordered. You apply the first type. How
long do you wait for the second?
a. at least 5 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 30 mins
d. a few hours: at least 5 minutes
277. a person has glaucoma. the goal of the drug is to
a. prevent infection
b. reduce intra-ocular pressure
c. reverse blindness
d. restore normal vision: reduce intra-ocular pressure
278. Cholinergic agents and cholinesterase inhibitors may cause
a. increased intra-ocular pressure
b. infection
c. problems seeing at night
d. kidney failure: problems seeing at night
279. Adrengeric agents
a. dilate pupils
b. increase intra-ocular pressure
c. cause problems seeing at night
d. cause heart failure: dilate pupils
280. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
a. decrease intra-ocular pressure
b. increase intra-ocular pressure
c. dilate pupils
d. constrict pupils: decrease intra-ocular pressure
281. Prostaglandin agonists
a. decrease intra-ocular pressure
b. increase intra-ocular pressure
c. dilate pupils
d. constrict pupils: decrease intra-ocular pressure
282. Anti-cholinergics
a. lubricate the eyes
b. prevent infection
c. cause problems seeing at night
d. cause sensitivity to bright lights: cause sensitivity to bright lights
283. corticosteroids are used
a. to increase intra-ocular pressure
b. to decrease intra-ocular pressure
c. before and after cataract surgery
d. to treat allergic reactions of the eye: to treat allergic reactions of the eye
284. Artificial tears are used to
a. treat allergies
b. dilate the pupils
c. constrict the pupils
d. lubricate the eyes: lubricate the eyes
285. Which is NOTa warning sign of cancer?
a. painful, swollen joints
b. a sore that does not heal
c. unusual bleeding or discharge
d. discomfort after eating: painful, swollen joints
286. Chemotherapy is most effective
a. when the tumor is first diagnosed
b. after surgery
c. after radiation
d. when the tumor is small: when the tumor is small
287. A person receiving chemo will likely experience
a. diarrhea
b. burns
c. skin breakdown
d. weight gain: skin breakdown
288. An involuntary muscle contraction of sudden onset is called
a. clonus
b. hyperreflexia
c. spasm
d. jerk: spasm
289. The rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of
the skeletal muscles is called
a. clonus
b. spasm
c. jerking
d. hyperreflexia: clonus
290. Centrally Acting Skeletal Muscle Relaxants act
a. directly on the muscles
b. depressing the CNS
c. inhibiting reflex activity at the spinal chord
d. by blocking nerve impulses: depressing the CNS
291. All centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants cause some degree of
a. confusion
b. orthostatic hypotension
c. sedation
d. spasticity: sedation
292. The goal of therapy for central acting muscle relaxants is relief of
a. clonus
b. muscle spasm
c. jerking
d. hyperreflexia: muscle spasm
293. which has a dose form of orally disintegrating tablets
a. dantrolene
b. baclofen
c. carisoprodol
d. tizanidine: baclofen
294. Which is not a centrally acting muscle relaxant?
a. dantrolene
b. cyclobenzaprine
c. methocarbamol
d. carisoprodol: dantrolene
295. Direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxants decrease
a. clonus, hyperreflexia and muscle spasm
b. cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis
c. spinal cord injury
d. photo-sensitivity, sedation, and drowsiness: clonus, hyperrelfexia and
mus- cle spasm
296. Allopurinol is given for gout. The initial adult dose is
a. 100 mg
b. 200 mg
c. 300 mg
d. 400 mg: 100 mg
297. Persons receiving drug therapy for gout should be observed for
a. dysrhythmias
b. tremors
c. GI symptoms
d. confusion: GI symptoms
298. Microbes that grow in living cells are called
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. germs
d. viruses: viruses
299. Plants that live on other plants or animals are called
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. germs
d. viruses: fungi
300. Chemicals that eliminate pathogens are called
a. antibiotics
b. antimicrobials
c. antivirals
d. nonpathogens: antimicrobials
301. a person with a weakened immune system develops an infection. It
is caused by a non-pathogen. The person has
a. a bacterial infection
b. healthcare associated infection
c. opportunistic infection
d. secondary infection: opportunistic infection
302. a person is being treated for an infection. Another infection develops.
This is called
a. bacterial infection
b. healthcare associated infection
c. opportunistic infection
d. secondary infection: secondary infection
303. To maintain blood levels of the drug, antimircobals are usually given
a. at regular intervals
b. at the same times everyday
c. every 6 hours
d. every 12 hours: at regular intervals
304. Which is NOT penicillin?
a. Amoxil
b. Cipro
c. Pincipen
d. trimox: Cipro
305. A common side effect of penicillin is
a. diarrhea
b. hearing loss
c. photo-toxicity
d. tingling: diarrhea
306. Anti-viral drugs used to treat HIV also are used to reduce the
frequency of
a. hep B
b. Hep c
c. opportunistic infections
d. secondary infections: opportunistic infections
307. Nutrition is
a. fats, protein, carbs, vitamins, and minerals
b. many processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption and
use of foods and fluid in body
c. MyPyramid
d. balance between calories taken in and used in the body: many processes
involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption and use of foods and fluid in
body
308. Vitamin A is needed for
a. vision
b. muscle tone
c. formation of red blood cells
d. healthy bones: vision
309. Vitamin B12 is needed for
a. nervous system function
b. growth
c. healthy eyes
d. digestive system: nervous system function
310. Vitamin K is needed for
a. blood clotting
b. resistance to infection
c. healthy bones
d. protein metablosim: blood clotting
311. Sodium is needed for
a. blood clotting
b. bone and teeth health
c. thyroid gland function
d. fluid balance: fluid balance
312. Which is needed for nerve and heart function?
a. phosphorus
b. iron
c. iodine
d. potassium: potassium
313. Enteral nutrition
a. requires an NG tube
b. is given into a central venous site
c. is given in the GI tract
d. requires IV: is given in the GI tract
314. For a tube feeding, the person is positioned in
a. Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position
b. left lying
c. right lying
d. supine: Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position
315. Which is an oral nutritional supplement?
a. Ensure
b. aloe
c. green tea
d. st. John's wort: Ensure
