BIOL 204
STUDY GUIDE: EXAM 4
Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) It was the first antibiotic.
B) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells.
C) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis.
D) It has selective toxicity.
E) It kills bacteria.
Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against
A) Viruses.
B) Bacteria.
C) Fungi.
D) Protozoa.
E) All of the above.
Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?
A) Aminoglycosides
B) Cephalosporins
C) Polyenes
D) Rifampins
E) Penicillin
Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?
A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis
B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
C) Injury to plasma membrane
D) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
E) Competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Bacitracin
C) Cephalosporin
D) Penicillin
E) Polymyxin
More than half of our antibiotics are
A) Produced by fungi.
B) Produced by bacteria.
C) Synthesized in laboratories.
D) Produced by Fleming.
E) Produced by eukaryotic organisms.
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BIOL 204
Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A) Cephalosporins
B) Macrolides
C) Natural penicillins
D) Semisynthetic penicillins
E) Vancomycin
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because
A) Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
B) They replicate inside human cells.
C) They don't have ribosomes.
D) They don't reproduce.
E) They have more genes than bacteria.
Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together?
A) It can prevent drug resistance.
B) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs.
C) Two are always twice as effective as one.
D) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis.
E) All of the above are advantages.
Drug resistance occurs
A) Because bacteria are normal microbiota.
B) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
C) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents.
D) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear.
E) All of the above.
Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?
A) Bacitracin – inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
B) Ethambutol – inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
C) Streptogramin – inhibits protein synthesis
D) Streptomycin – inhibits protein synthesis
E) Vancomycin – inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or
RNA polymerase is false?
A) They cause mutations.
B) They are used against viral infections.
C) They can affect host cell DNA.
D) They are too dangerous to use.
E) They interfere with protein synthesis.
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BIOL 204
Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation;
therefore, it would NOT affect
A) Bacteria.
B) Fungi.
C) Helminths.
D) Human cells.
E) Protozoa.
The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with
A) Transcription.
B) Translation.
C) Cellular respiration.
D) Plasma membrane function.
E) Peptide bond formation.
Which of the following is NOT normal microbiota of the skin?
A) Streptococcus
B) Pityrosporum
C) Staphylococcus
D) Propionibacterium
E) Corynebacterium
An 8-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier
she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the 8-year-old have?
A) Chickenpox
B) Measles
C) Fever blisters
D) Scabies
E) Rubella
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Staphylococcus aureus – impetigo
B) Streptococcus pyogenes – erysipelas
C) Propionibacterium acnes – pimples
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa – otitis externa
E) Str. pyogenes – toxic shock syndrome
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) Gram-positive cell wall
B) Oxidative metabolism
C) Oxidase-positive
D) Produce pyocyanin
E) Rod shaped
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BIOL 204
Which of these is NOT caused by herpesvirus?
A) Chickenpox
B) Shingles
C) Keratitis
D) Smallpox
E) Roseola
Newborns' eyes are treated with an antibiotic
A) When Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes.
B) When the mother is blind.
C) When the mother has genital herpes.
D) When the mother has gonorrhea.
E) Always.
Which of the following is sensitive to penicillin?
A) Chlamydia
B) Herpesvirus
C) Candida
D) Streptococcus
E) Pseudomonas
Which of the following is NOT a causative agent of conjunctivitis?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Herpes simplex
C) Adenovirus
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Haemophilus influenzae
Vaccination for rubella
A) Is not necessary because the disease is mild.
B) Is not necessary if a person has had an infection.
C) Is recommended only for pregnant women.
D) Is recommended for newborns to prevent congenital disease.
E) Has reduced incidence of rubella.
The etiologic agent of fifth disease is
A) Herpes simplex.
B) Herpes zoster.
C) HHV-6.
D) Parvovirus.
E) Poxvirus.
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BIOL 204
Which of the following is used to treat smallpox?
A) Penicillin
B) Sulfonamide
C) Trifluridine
D) Fungicide
E) None of the above
Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis?
A) Penicillin
B) Sulfonamide
C) Trifluridine
D) Fungicide
E) None of the above
Scabies is a skin disease caused by
A) A slow virus.
B) A protozoan.
C) A mite.
D) A bacterium.
E) A prion.
Which of the following leads to all the others?
A) Toxemia
B) Scalded skin syndrome
C) Staphylococcal infection
D) TSST-1
E) Sudden drop in blood pressure
A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin
scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by
A) Candida albicans.
B) Herpes simplex virus.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) Varicella-zoster virus.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Chickenpox – Poxvirus
B) Conjunctivitis – Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Keratitis – Acanthamoeba
D) Infected tissue fluoresces – Dermatomycosis
E) Buruli ulcer – Mycobacterium
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BIOL 204
Which of the following is true about the normal microbiota of the nervous system?
A) Only transient microbiota are present.
B) There are no normal microbiota.
C) Normal microbiota are present in the central nervous system only.
D) Normal microbiota are present in the peripheral nervous system only.
E) Only micrococci are present.
Which of the following organisms does NOT cause meningitis?
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
E) Mycobacterium leprae
Which of the following organisms is NOT correctly matched to the recommended treatment?
A) Neisseria meningitidis – cephalosporins
B) Haemophilus influenzae – cephalosporins
C) Cryptococcus neoformans – amphotericin B
D) Mycobacterium leprae – dapsone
E) Poliovirus – Salk vaccine
Which of the following statements about leprosy is false?
A) It is rarely fatal.
B) Patients with leprosy must be isolated.
C) It is transmitted by direct contact.
D) Diagnosis is based on skin biopsy.
E) The etiologic agent is acid-fast.
Which of the following statements about rabies is false?
A) It is caused by Rhabdovirus.
B) Hydrophobia is an early symptom.
C) The reservoir is mainly rodents.
D) Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques.
E) It is not fatal in bats.
The treatment for tetanus is
A) Penicillin.
B) Antibodies.
C) Toxoid.
D) Cleansing the wound.
E) There is no treatment.
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BIOL 204
The most effective control of a vector-borne disease is
A) Treatment of infected humans.
B) Treatment of infected wild animals.
C) Elimination of the vector.
D) Avoidance of endemic areas.
E) Treatment of uninfected humans.
The prodromal symptom(s) of meningitis is (are)
A) Like a mild cold.
B) Fever and headache.
C) Stiff neck and back pains.
D) Convulsions.
E) Paralysis.
Which of the following CANNOT lead to an outbreak of botulism?
A) Killing bacteria that compete with Clostridium
B) An anaerobic environment
C) An incubation period
D) A nutrient medium with a pH below 4.5
E) Eating food from dented cans
The most common cause of meningitis in children is
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) Haemophilus influenzae.
E) Neisseria meningitidis.
Which of the following is NOT caused by prions?
A) Sheep scrapie
B) Kuru
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Elk chronic wasting disease
E) Rabies
Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
A) Botulism
B) Tetanus
C) Streptococcal pneumonia
D) Polio
E) All of the above
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BIOL 204
For which of the following is a vaccine NOT available?
A) Haemophilus meningitis
B) Neisseria meningitis
C) Tetanus
D) Rabies
E) Botulism
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Tetanus – blocks relaxation nerve impulse
B) Botulism – stimulates transmission of nerve impulse
C) Poliomyelitis – kills CNS cells
D) Rabies virus – grows in brain cells
E) All of the above are correctly matched.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Subacute bacterial endocarditis – alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B) Acute bacterial endocarditis – Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pericarditis – Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Puerperal sepsis – Staphylococcus aureus
E) Burkitt's lymphoma – EB virus
Which of the following is NOT treated with penicillin?
A) Pericarditis
B) Tularemia
C) Anthrax
D) Listeriosis
E) Rat-bite fever
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
A) Aerobic
B) Gram-positive
C) Forms endospores
D) Found in soil
E) Produces endotoxins
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Malaria – Anopheles (mosquito)
B) Dengue – Aedes (mosquito)
C) Epidemic typhus – Pediculus (louse)
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever – Dermacentor (tick)
E) Encephalitis – Ixodes (tick)
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BIOL 204
Which of the following pairs does NOT apply to Chagas' disease?
A) Causative agent – T. cruzi
B) Vector – kissing bug
C) Reservoir – rodents
D) Diagnosis – serological tests for antibodies
E) Treatment – Nifurtimox
Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?
A) Epidemic typhus
B) Tickborne typhus
C) Malaria
D) Plague
E) Relapsing fever
Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is false?
A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus.
B) It is caused by health care personnel.
C) It begins as a focal infection.
D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth.
E) It doesn't occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Rickettsia – intracellular parasite
B) Brucella – gram-negative aerobic rods
C) Francisella – gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic rods
D) Bacillus – gram-positive endospore-forming rods
E) None of the above
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Borrelia – relapsing fever
B) Yersinia – plague
C) Streptobacillus – rat-bite fever
D) Pasteurella – cat-scratch disease
E) Spirillum – rat-bite fever
Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by
A) Rat flea.
B) Dog flea.
C) The respiratory route.
D) Wounds.
E) Unsanitary conditions.
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BIOL 204
A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is
A) Gangrene.
B) Burns.
C) Debridement.
D) Hyperbaric treatment.
E) An infected finger.
Which of the following is the same for both relapsing fever and undulant fever?
A) Vector
B) Mode of transmission
C) Presence of rash
D) Reservoir
E) Etiology
EB virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT
A) Endocarditis.
B) Infectious mononucleosis.
C) Burkitt's lymphoma.
D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
E) Hodgkin's disease.
Which of the following leads to all the others?
A) Subcutaneous hemorrhaging
B) Presence of antirickettsial antibodies
C) Blockage of capillaries
D) Bacterial growth in endothelial cells
E) Breakage of capillaries
You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because
A) She could contract plague.
B) She could give the cat tularemia.
C) She could get toxoplasmosis.
D) She could get listeriosis.
E) You don't like cats and want to see your friend without one.
Bioweapons
A) Are all respiratory pathogens.
B) Are not susceptible to antibiotics.
C) Are all viruses.
D) Are impossible to detect.
E) Have been used for centuries.
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BIOL 204
Which of the following statements about otitis media is false?
A) It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) It is a complication of tonsillitis.
C) It is transmitted by swimming pool water.
D) It is caused by rhinovirus.
E) It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Mycoplasmal pneumonia differs from viral pneumonia in that
A) Mycoplasmal pneumonia doesn't have any known etiologic agent.
B) Mycoplasmal pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines.
C) Viral pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines.
D) The symptoms are distinctly different.
E) Mycoplasma can't be cultured.
Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to a virulence factor?
A) Diphtheria – exotoxin
B) Scarlet fever – exotoxin
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia – exotoxin
D) Haemophilus pneumonia – endotoxin
E) Whooping cough – endotoxin
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Corynebacterium – gram-positive rod
B) Mycobacterium – acid-fast rod
C) Mycoplasma – gram-positive pleomorphic rod
D) Bordetella – gram-negative pleomorphic rod
E) Haemophilus – gram-negative rod
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Epiglottitis – Haemophilus
B) Q fever – Rickettsia
C) Psittacosis – Chlamydia
D) Whooping cough – Bordetella
E) Melioidosis – Burkholderia
Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A) Pneumocystis
B) Aspergillus
C) Rhizopus
D) Mucor
E) All of the above
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BIOL 204
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and
convalescent stages?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Respiratory syncytial virus
Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen?
A) Pneumocystis
B) Legionella
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycoplasma
E) Rhinovirus
Which of the following is most susceptible to destruction by phagocytes?
A) Chlamydophila psittaci
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Influenza virus
E) Histoplasma capsulatum
Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) None of the above
A patient has pneumonia. Gram-negative rods are cultured on nutrient agar from a sputum
sample. The etiology is
A) Burkholderia pseudomallei.
B) Chlamydophila psittaci.
C) Haemophilus influenzae.
D) Legionella pneumophila.
E) Streptococcus pneumonia.
The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Haemophilus
C) Bordetella
D) Mycobacterium
E) Can't tell
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BIOL 204
Which one of the following organisms does NOT belong with the others?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin
skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has
A) Tuberculosis.
B) Influenza.
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia.
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia.
E) Common cold.
Which one of the following is NOT required for tooth decay?
A) Sucrose
B) Glucose
C) Capsule-forming bacteria
D) Acid-producing bacteria
E) All of the above are required for tooth decay.
Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by
A) Eating contaminated food.
B) A blood transfusion.
C) Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D) Improper food storage.
E) Travel to an underdeveloped country.
Amoebic dysentery and bacillary dysentery differ in the
A) Mode of transmission.
B) Appearance of the patient's stools.
C) Etiologic agent.
D) Presence of diarrhea.
E) Abscess formation.
Poultry products are a likely source of infection by
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Salmonella enterica.
C) Vibrio cholerae.
D) Shigella spp.
E) Clostridium perfringens.
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BIOL 204
Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is false?
A) Suspect foods are those not cooked before eating.
B) It can be prevented by refrigeration.
C) It can be prevented by boiling foods for 5 minutes before eating.
D) It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes.
E) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms.
The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably
A) Shigella spp.
B) Salmonella enterica.
C) Giardia lamblia.
D) Escherichia coli.
E) Campylobacter jejuni.
Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT
A) Trichinellosis.
B) Beef tapeworm.
C) Staphylococcal food poisoning.
D) Salmonellosis.
E) Shigellosis.
Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the
A) Mouth.
B) Stomach.
C) Small intestine.
D) Large intestine.
E) C and D.
Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever
A) The microorganisms become invasive.
B) The symptoms are due to an exotoxin.
C) The symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder.
D) The classic symptom is diarrhea.
E) Chemotherapy is highly effective.
"Rice water stools" are characteristic of
A) Salmonellosis.
B) Cholera.
C) Bacillary dysentery.
D) Amebic dysentery.
E) Tapeworm infestation.
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BIOL 204
Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with
A) Antitoxin.
B) Penicillin.
C) Water and electrolytes.
D) Quinacrine.
E) Thorough cooking.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Ergot – gangrene
B) Salmonella endotoxin – coagulates blood
C) Vibrio enterotoxin – secretion of Cl-, K+, and H2O
D) Aflatoxin – liver cancer
E) Shiga toxin – tissue destruction
The easiest way to prevent outbreaks of gram-negative gastroenteritis is to
A) Cook foods thoroughly.
B) Salt foods.
C) Add vinegar and spices to foods.
D) Refrigerate foods.
E) Avoid eating meat.
Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably
belong to the genus
A) Campylobacter.
B) Escherichia.
C) Salmonella.
D) Shigella.
E) Vibrio.
Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it
A) Hides in macrophages.
B) Makes a capsule.
C) Makes NH3.
D) Makes HCl.
E) Invades epithelial cells.
Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 4 to 24 hours is probably caused by
A) Giardia
B) Rotavirus
C) Salmonella
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Trichinella
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BIOL 204
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Beef – E. coli O157:H7
B) Delicatessen meats – Listeria
C) Eggs – Trichinella
D) Milk – Campylobacter
E) Oysters – Vibrio
Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of
A) Lactobacillus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Mycobacterium.
D) Neisseria.
E) Candida.
Cystitis is most often caused by
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Leptospira interrogans.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
A) Lymphogranuloma venereum
B) Genital herpes
C) Gonorrhea
D) Chancroid
E) Trichomoniasis
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Trichomoniasis – fungus
B) Gonorrhea – gram-negative cocci
C) Chancroid – gram-negative rod
D) Gardnerella – clue cells
E) Syphilis – gram-negative spirochete
Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Genital herpes
D) Chancroid
E) LGV
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BIOL 204
Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
A) Mycoplasma homini.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Trichomonas vaginalis.
D) Streptococci.
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
A normal urine sample collected by urinating into a sterile collection cup
A) Is sterile.
B) Contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml.
C) Contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml.
D) Contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml.
E) Has leukocyte esterase.
Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by
A) E. coli.
B) Enterococcus.
C) Proteus.
D) Klebsiella.
E) Pseudomonas.
The most common reportable disease in the United States is
A) Cystitis.
B) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
C) Gonorrhea.
D) Syphilis.
E) Candidiasis.
Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Genital herpes
B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis
D) Trichomoniasis
E) Leptospirosis
Recurring vesicles are symptoms of
A) Gardnerella vaginosis.
B) Genital herpes.
C) Candidiasis.
D) Trichomoniasis.
E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
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BIOL 204
Which one of the following statements about genital warts is false?
A) It is transmitted by direct contact.
B) It is caused by papillomaviruses.
C) It is always precancerous.
D) It is treated by removing them.
E) All of the above.
The most common NGU in the United States is treated with
A) Penicillin.
B) Cephalosporins.
C) Acyclovir.
D) AZT.
E) Doxycycline.
Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to
penicillin and fluoroquinolones?
A) Mycoplasma hominis
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Gardnerella vaginalis
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