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Quiz: Stage Check 1 — Instruments and Tools
Due Jan 29 at 11:59pm Points 50 Questions 50
Time Limit 120 Minutes Allowed Attempts 3
Instructions
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 47 minutes 49 out of 50
Correct answers are hidden.
Score for this attempt: 49 out of 50
Submitted Jan 29 at 9:05pm
This attempt took 47 minutes.
The quiz:
Covers the Learnmaterial from Module 2: Week 2.
Contains 50 multiple-choice questions.
Is limited to 120 minutes.
Allows multiple attempts.
Is worth 50 points.
Resource
Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement for Commercial Pilot
(https://www.faa.gov/sites/faa.gov/les/training_testing/testing/supplements/commercial_akts.pdf)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module 2: Week 2.
TAKE THE QUIZ AGAIN
1 / 1 pts
Question 1
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(Refer to Figure 53.) What is indicated by the star next to the "L" in
the airport information box for the MADERA (MAE) airport north of
area 2?
Special VFR is prohibited.
There is a rotating beacon at the eld.
Lighting limitations exist.
The "L" with an asterisk indicates lighting limitations exist. Pilots
should refer to the Chart Supplement U.S. for this airport for
details on these limitations.
1 / 1 pts
Question 2
After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary
considerations should include
turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing.
maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road.
planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted
portion of an area.
If the engine fails at night, one of the primary considerations
includes planning an emergency approach and landing to an
unlighted portion of the area.
1 / 1 pts
Question 3
(Refer to Figure 5.) The vertical line from point D to point G is
represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit
of the
green arc.
yellow arc.
white arc.
The high speed limit of the green arc is the maximum speed for
normal operation. This is designated as maximum structural
cruising speed (V(NO)), which is line D to G. Answer (B) is
incorrect because the high speed limit of the yellow arc is the
never exceed speed (V(NE)), which is line E to F. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the high speed limit of the white arc is the
maximum ap extended speed (V(FE)), which is not indicated on
the chart.
1 / 1 pts
Question 4
Which is true regarding pilot certication requirements for
operations in Class B airspace?
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certicate
with an instrument rating.
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certicate.
Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area
unless the pilot-in-command holds at least a private pilot
certicate. Answer (A) is incorrect because a private pilot
certicate without an instrument rating is sucient to operate in
Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because with the proper
training and endorsements, a student pilot may operate in Class B
airspace.
1 / 1 pts
Question 5
(Refer to Figure 57.) You are directed to taxi to runway 10. You see
this sign at a taxiway intersection while taxiing. Which way should
you proceed?
Left.
Right.
Straight ahead.
This destination sign indicates runway 10 is straight ahead.
1 / 1 pts
Question 6
What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to
receive a "land and hold short" clearance?
3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.
3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet.
3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.
Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a
minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. The
intent of having 'basic' VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to
maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle
operations.
1 / 1 pts
Question 7
An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions:
Cruising altitude 7,500 ft
Airport elevation 1,300 ft
Descends to 800 ft AGL
Rate of descent 300 ft/min
Average true airspeed 120 kts
True course 165°
Average wind velocity 240° at 20 kts
Variation 4° E
Deviation -2°
Average fuel consumption 9.6 gal/hr
Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and
fuel consumed during the descent.
16 minutes, 168°, 30 NM, 2.9 gallons.
18 minutes, 164°, 34 NM, 3.2 gallons.
18 minutes, 168°, 34 NM, 2.9 gallons.
1. Calculate the time to descend: Time = vertical distance ÷
vertical speed Where vertical distance = 7,500 - 2,100 = 5,400 feet
Time = 5,400 feet ÷ 300 FPM = 18 minutes = 0.3 hour 2. Compute
the fuel requirement: 9.6 gal/hr x 0.3 hour = 2.88 gallons 3.
Calculate the wind correction angle and ground speed using a
wind triangle: WCA = 9° right Ground speed = 113 knots 4.
Calculate true heading (TH = TC + WCA): 165° + 9° = 174° TH
5. Calculate compass heading (CH = TH + Var + Dev): 174° - 4° -
2° = 168°CH 6. Compute distance own: Distance = 113 knots x
0.3 hour = 33.9 NM.
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Question 8
Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude
airways extend from
700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.
1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.
1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.
Each Federal airway includes that airspace extending upward from
1,200 feet above the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet
MSL. Federal airways for Hawaii have no upper limits.
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Question 9
(Refer to Figure 51, A.) This taxiway sign would be expected
at the intersection of runway 04/22 departure end and the taxiway.
near the intersection of runways 04 and 22.
at a taxiway intersecting runway 04/22.
This question will likely include an onscreen graphic of a taxiway
location sign with a direction sign or runway holding position sign.
This type of sign is used at a taxiway intersection of runways.
1 / 1 pts
Question 10
For night ying operations, the best night vision is achieved when
the
pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10
minutes.
rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in
approximately 30 minutes.
cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in
approximately 5 minutes.
When entering a dark room, it is dicult to see anything until the
eyes become adjusted to the darkness. After approximately 5 to
10 minutes, the cones become adjusted to the dim light and the
eyes become 100 times more sensitive to the light than they were
before the dark room was entered. Much more time, about 30
minutes, is needed for the rods to become adjusted to darkness;
but when they do adjust, they are about 100,000 times more
sensitive to light than they were in the lighted area.
1 / 1 pts
Question 11
(Refer to Figure 52, point 4.) The terrain at the obstruction
approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is
approximately how much higher than the airport elevation?
376 feet.
827 feet.
1,135 feet.
1,245 feet MSL obstruction height - 297 feet AGL = 948 feet MSL
terrain height at obstruction - 121 feet MSL airport elevation = 827
feet terrain height higher than airport elevation.
1 / 1 pts
Question 12
(Refer to Figure 52, point 6.) Van Vleck airport is
an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots.
a restricted military stage eld within restricted airspace.
a nonpublic use airport.
The 'Pvt' after the airport names indicates Van Vleck airport is a
restricted or non-public use airport. Answer (A) is incorrect
because the R in the circle indicates the airport is a nonpublic-use
airport. Answer (B) is incorrect because the blue box near Van
Vleck airport indicates an alert area.
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Question 13
GIVEN:
Distance off course 9 mi
Distance own 95 mi
Distance to y 125 mi
To converge at the destination, the total correction angle would be
4°.
6°.
10°.
1. Determine the number of degrees correction required to parallel
the desired course: Miles off Course x 60 ÷ Number of Miles
Flown = Correction to Parallel 9 x 60 ÷ 95 = 5.68° to parallel 2.
Determine the number of additional degrees correction required to
intercept the course: Miles off Course x 60 ÷ Number of Miles
Remaining = Correction to Intercept 9 x 60 ÷ 125 = 4.32°
additional to intercept 3. Add the number of degrees required to
parallel the course and the number of degrees required to
intercept the course to nd the total correction angle required to
converge at destination: 5.68° to parallel + 4.32° to intercept =
10.00° total to converge.
1 / 1 pts
Question 14
Which is true regarding ight operations to or from a satellite
airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C
airspace area?
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain
communication with the ATC serving facility.
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.
Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the
ATC controlling facility.
No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport
within a Class C airspace area except in compliance with FAA
arrival and departure trac patterns. Each person must establish
two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air
trac services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter
maintain those communications while within that airspace.
Answer (B) is incorrect because unless otherwise authorized or
directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class C
airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable
transponder and altitude reporting equipment; from a satellite
airport without an operating control tower within Class C airspace,
the pilot must establish and maintain two-way radio
communications with the controlling ATC facility as soon as
practicable after departing. Answer (C) is incorrect because unless
otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate
an aircraft in Class C airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with
an operable transponder and altitude reporting equipment; from a
satellite airport without an operating control tower within Class C
airspace, the pilot must establish and maintain two-way radio
communications with the controlling ATC facility as soon as
practicable after departing.
1 / 1 pts
Question 15
Structural damage or failure is more likely to occur in smooth air at
speeds above
V(NO).
V(A).
V(NE).
Any speed above V(NE) can cause damage; therefore, ight above
this speed should be avoided even in smooth air.
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Question 16
When departing from a runway that is covered with snow or slush,
what can a pilot do to prevent damage to the landing gear due to
the conditions?
Do not retract the landing gear immediately to allow the gear to air-
dry.
Immediately retract the landing gear so it can be heated in the gear
wells.
Fly at a speed above the green arc of the airspeed indicator can
remove the snow and slush.
If departing from an airstrip with wet snow or slush on the takeoff
surface, the gear should not be retracted immediately so that any
wet snow or slush is allowed to air-dry.
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Question 17
Why should ight speeds above V(NE) be avoided?
Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure.
Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are
encountered.
Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes
uncontrollable.
Any speed above V(NE) can cause damage; therefore, ight above
this speed should be avoided even in smooth air. Answer (A) is
incorrect because induced drag decreases with increased
airspeed. Answer (C) is incorrect because control effectiveness
increases with increased airspeed.
1 / 1 pts
Question 18
What is the minimum ight visibility and proximity to cloud
requirements for VFR ight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E
airspace?
1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.
In Class C, D, or E airspace at 6,500 feet MSL, the VFR ight
visibility requirement is 3 SM. The distance from cloud
requirement is 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet
horizontal. Answer (A) is incorrect because 1 SM visibility and
clear of clouds is the VFR weather minimum when at or below
1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during the day. Answer (C) is
incorrect because 5 SM visibility and cloud clearance of 1,000 feet
above and below is the VFR weather minimum in Class E airspace
at or above 10,000 feet MSL.
1 / 1 pts
Question 19
GIVEN:
True course 345°
True heading 355°
True airspeed 85 kts
Groundspeed 95 kts
Determine the wind direction and speed.
095° and 19 knots.
113° and 19 knots.
238° and 18 knots.
Using an E6-B computer: 1. Turn compass azimuth so 345° is at
the true index. 2. Slide board so grommet is on the ground speed
arc, 95 knots. 3. Determine the WCA by comparing course to
heading. 345° - 355° = 10° right 4. Plot WCA at TAS arc with a
pencil dot, 85 knots. 5. Rotate compass azimuth so pencil dot is
on the centerline. 6. Read wind direction under true index and wind
speed as number of units between grommet and pencil dot, 114°
and 19 knots.
1 / 1 pts
Question 20
To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must
be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in ying.
condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress
appears.
avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit
responsibilities.
Good cockpit management begins with good life stress
management. Many of the stress coping techniques practiced for
life stress management are not usually practical in ight. Rather,
you must condition yourself to relax and think rationally when
stress appears.
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Question 21
Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other
record by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR
operations?
VOR name or identication, place of operational check, amount of
bearing error, and date of check.
Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and
signature.
VOR name or identication, amount of bearing error, date of check,
and signature.
Each person making a VOR operational check shall enter the date,
place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record.
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Question 22
VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when ying
at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course.
more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading.
In level cruise at more than 3,000 feet AGL, magnetic course
determines proper altitude. Answer (A) is incorrect because VFR
cruising altitudes are based on magnetic course and apply for
ights above 3,000 feet AGL. Answer (C) is incorrect because VFR
cruising altitudes are based on magnetic course and apply for
ights above 3,000 feet AGL.
1 / 1 pts
Question 23
While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization
system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is
inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin
pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the
following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY
reaction?
What is the worst that could happen.
He can handle a little problem like this.
It's too late to x it now.
The invulnerability attitude is found in people who feel accidents
happen to others, but never to them. They know accidents can
happen, and they know that anyone can be affected, but they never
really feel or believe that they will be personally involved. Pilots
who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase
risk.
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Question 24
When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating
control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should
make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
y a left-hand trac pattern at 800 feet AGL.
enter and y a trac pattern at 800 feet AGL.
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating
control tower in a Class G airspace area each pilot of an airplane
must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport
displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that
turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must
make all turns to the right.
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Question 25
What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to
receive a "land and hold short" clearance?
3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.
3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet.
3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.
Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a
minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. The
intent of having 'basic' VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to
maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle
operations.
1 / 1 pts
Question 26
14 CFR Part 1 denes V(LE) as
maximum landing gear extended speed.
maximum landing gear operating speed.
maximum leading edge aps extended speed.
V(LE) is the maximum landing gear extended speed. Answer (B) is
incorrect because V(LO) is the maximum landing gear operating
speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because maximum leading edge
aps extended speed is not dened in 14 CFR Part 1.
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Question 27
To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one mixed drink, the
human body requires about
1 hour.
2 hours.
3 hours.
As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four ounces of
wine can impair ying skills, with the alcohol consumed in these
drinks being detectable in the breath and blood for at least 3
hours.
1 / 1 pts
Question 28
(Refer to Figure 17.) Which statement is true regarding illustration
2, if the present heading is maintained? The airplane will
cross the 180 radial at a 45° angle outbound.
intercept the 225 radial at a 45° angle.
intercept the 360 radial at a 45° angle inbound.
Illustration 2 shows the aircraft heading 225°. The bearing
pointer indicates a heading of 235° will take the aircraft to the
station; therefore, you are on the 055° radial. If the present
heading is maintained, the station will remain to the right of the
aircraft and you will cross the 180° radial at approximately a 45°
angle outbound (225° - 180° = 45°).
1 / 1 pts
Question 29
The runway holding position sign is located on
runways that intersect other runways.
taxiways protected from an aircraft approaching a runway.
runways that intersect other taxiways.
Mandatory instruction signs are used to denote an entrance to a
runway or critical area and areas where an aircraft is prohibited
from entering. The runway holding position sign is located at the
holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways
that intersect other runways.
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Question 30
(Refer to Figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address
runway incursion with other aircraft?
Illustration D.
Illustration G.
Illustration H.
Illustration D prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. This sign
would typically be located on one-way taxiways or a vehicle
roadway. Thus, this sign does not directly address runway
incursions with other aircraft.Answer (B) is incorrect because
Illustration G is used to indicate when you are clear of the runway.
Answer (C) is incorrect because Illustration H is used to indicate
when you are clear of the ILS critical area.
1 / 1 pts
Question 31
What is a consideration when using a hand-held GPS for VFR
navigation?
Position accuracy may degrade without notication.
RAIM capability will be maintained for entire ight.
Waypoints will still be accurate even if database is not current.
While a hand-held GPS receiver can provide excellent navigation
capability to VFR pilots, be prepared for intermittent loss of
navigation signal, possibly with no RAIM warning to the pilot.
1 / 1 pts
Question 32
A pilot is entering an area where signicant clear air turbulence has
been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the
rst ripple?
Maintain altitude and airspeed.
Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.
Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed.
In an area where signicant clear air turbulence (CAT) has been
reported or is forecast, it is suggested that the pilot adjust the
speed to y at the recommended rough air speed on encountering
the rst ripple, since the intensity of such turbulence may build up
rapidly. Answer (A) is incorrect because the appropriate action is
to adjust airspeed to design maneuvering speed (V(A)). Answer
(C) is incorrect because the appropriate action is to adjust
airspeed to design maneuvering speed (V(A)).
1 / 1 pts
Question 33
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the
purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
Indicates direction to take-off runway.
Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an
intersection.
The taxiway directional sign identies the designation(s) of the
intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of the intersection that a pilot
would normally be expected to turn onto or hold short of. Answer
(A) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the runway location
sign. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the
destination sign.
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Question 34
Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at
which an airplane can be operated during
abrupt maneuvers.
normal operations.
ight in smooth air.
The maximum structural cruising speed (V(NO)) is the speed at
which exceeding the load limit factor may cause permanent
deformation of the airplane structure. This is the maximum speed
for normal operation. Answer (A) is incorrect because design
maneuvering speed (V(A)) is the maximum speed for abrupt
maneuvers. Answer (C) is incorrect because the yellow arc
identies the range where ight is only recommended in smooth
air.
1 / 1 pts
Question 35
Which is true regarding ight operations in Class A airspace?
Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring
equipment (DME).
Must conduct operations under instrument ight rules.
Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
Each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must
conduct that operation under instrument ight rules. Answer (A) is
incorrect because if VOR navigational equipment is required, no
person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft at or above
FL240 unless that aircraft is equipped with approved distance
measuring equipment (DME). Answer (C) is incorrect because all
aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder and
altitude reporting equipment in airspace at and above 10,000 feet
MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the
surface.
1 / 1 pts
Question 36
(Refer to Figure 54, point 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan
Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface
upward has a ceiling of
both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL.
2,100 feet AGL.
The letter 'T' denotes the ceiling of the Class C airspace which
extends up to, but does not include the oor of the overlying Class
B airspace. The Class C airspace normally extends upward to
4,000 feet AGL. However, in this case the Class C airspace extends
upward to the base of the Class B airspace. The overlying Class B
airspace has bases of 2,100 feet MSL, and 3,000 feet MSL. Answer
(B) is incorrect because 10,000 feet is the ceiling of the Class B
airspace over OAK. Answer (C) is incorrect because the Class C
airspace ceiling on the west side of OAK is 2,100 feet MSL, and the
ceiling on the east side is 3,000 feet MSL.
1 / 1 pts
Question 37
An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions:
Cruising altitude 6,500 ft
Airport elevation 700 ft
Descends to 800 ft AGL
Rate of descent 500 ft/min
Average true airspeed 110 kts
True course 335°
Average wind velocity 060° at 15 kts
Variation 3° W
Deviation +2°
Average fuel consumption 8.5 gal/hr
Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and
fuel consumed during the descent.
10 minutes, 348°, 18 NM, 1.4 gallons.
10 minutes, 355°, 17 NM, 2.4 gallons.
12 minutes, 346°, 18 NM, 1.6 gallons.
1. Calculate the time to descend: Time = vertical distance ÷
vertical speed Where vertical distance = 6,500 - 1,500 = 5,000 feet
Time = 5,000 feet ÷ 500 FPM = 10 minutes = 0.1667 hr 2.
Compute the fuel requirement: 8.5 gal/hr x 0.1667 hr = 1.42
gallons 3. Calculate the wind correction angle and ground speed
using a wind triangle: WCA = 8° right Ground speed = 108 knots
4. Calculate true heading (TH = TC + WCA): 335° + 8° = 343°
TH 5. Calculate compass heading (CH = TH + Var + Dev): 343° +
3° + 2° = 348°CH 6. Compute distance own: Distance = 108
knots x 0.1667 hour = 18 NM.
1 / 1 pts
Question 38
When navigating using only VOR/DME based RNAV, selection of a
VOR NAVAID that does not have DME service will
result in loss of RNAV capability.
have no effect on navigation capability.
not impact navigation provided enough of the GPS is operating.
VOR/DME-based RNAV units need both VOR and DME signals to
operate in RNAV mode. If the NAVAID selected is a VOR without
DME, RNAV mode will not function. When DME is not available the
RNAV unit will function as a VOR receiver with DME capability in
VOR (or non-RNAV) mode.
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Question 39
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft
is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center
with a FROM indication.
Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within
plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set
to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that
radial with a TO indication.
Airborne and ground checkpoints consist of certied radials that
should be received at specic points on the airport surface or over
specic landmarks while airborne in the immediate vicinity of the
airport. Should an error in excess of ±4° be indicated through
use of a ground check, or ±6° using the airborne check, IFR
ight shall not be attempted without rst correcting the source of
the error. Caution: No correction other than the correction card
gures supplied by the manufacturer should be applied in making
these VOR receiver checks.
1 / 1 pts
Question 40
As hyperventilation progresses, a pilot can experience
decreased breathing rate and depth.
heightened awareness and feeling of well being.
symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.
The common symptoms of hyperventilation are dizziness, nausea,
hot and cold sensations, tingling of the hands, legs and feet,
sleepiness, and nally, unconsciousness. Answer (A) is incorrect
because hyperventilation is an increase of the breathing rate and
depth. Answer (B) is incorrect because heightened awareness and
feeling of well-being are symptoms of hypoxia.
0 / 1 pts
Question 41
Incorrect
Incorrect
(Refer to Figure 51.) Illustration D would most likely be found
upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.
at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
near the approach end of ILS runways.
This sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this
sign would be located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one
direction or at the intersection of vehicle roadways with runways,
taxiways, or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a
taxiway or other aircraft movement surface. Answer (A) is
incorrect because this refers to Illustration G. Answer (C) is
incorrect because this refers to Illustration H.
1 / 1 pts
Question 42
If severe turbulence is encountered during ight, the pilot should
reduce the airspeed to
minimum control speed.
design-maneuvering speed.
maximum structural cruising speed.
Design maneuvering speed (V(A)) is the maximum speed at which
the maximum load limit can be imposed (either by gust or full
deection of the control surfaces) without causing structural
damage. Answer (A) is incorrect because in turbulence, minimum
control speed would result in the airplane stalling or signicant
control problems. Answer (C) is incorrect because the maximum
structural cruising speed is faster than V(A).
1 / 1 pts
Question 43
While on an IFR ight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to nd himself
within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives
best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction?
He is not too concerned; everything will be alright.
He ies a little closer, just to show him.
He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.
The Macho attitude is found in people who are always trying to
prove they are better than anyone else. They are always thinking 'I
can do it, I'll show them.' Pilots with this type of attitude will try to
prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others.
1 / 1 pts
Question 44
What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and
the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator
is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-
driven.
indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate
of turn and coordination.
indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip
indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
The turn coordinator indicates roll rate in addition to rate of turn
and coordination. The turn-and-slip indicator only indicates rate of
turn and coordination. Answer (A) is incorrect because both these
instruments are usually electrically driven. Answer (B) is incorrect
because a turn coordinator does not indicate bank angle.
1 / 1 pts
Question 45
(Refer to Figure 53.)
GIVEN:
Location Madera Airport (MAE)
Altitude 1,000 ft AGL
Position 7 NM north of Madera (MAE)
Time 3 p.m. local
Flight visibility 1 SM
You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the
north. You
are in violation of the CFRs; you need 3 miles of visibility under
VFR.
are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of
Class E airspace and may continue for landing.
may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering
Class E airspace and continue to the airport.
At 7 NM north of Madera, you are outside the magenta shading,
which indicates the oor of the Class E airspace is 1,200 feet AGL.
At 1,000 feet, you are in Class G airspace. During daylight hours,
the minimum ight visibility for VFR ight is 1 SM. Inside the
magenta shading, the oor of the Class E airspace drops to 700
feet. Therefore, to remain VFR, you must remain in Class G
airspace, which requires you to descend below 700 feet before
entering the Class E airspace to continue for landing. Answer (A)
is incorrect because only 1 SM visibility is necessary to remain
VFR in Class G airspace at 1,000 feet AGL during daylight hours.
Answer (C) is incorrect because you must descend below 700 feet
AGL before entering Class E airspace to remain VFR.
1 / 1 pts
Question 46
After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate
from that clearance, unless the pilot
requests an amended clearance.
is operating VFR on top.
receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot-in-command
may deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is
obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a
trac alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
1 / 1 pts
Question 47
Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
Drowsiness.
Decreased breathing rate.
A sense of well-being.
The common symptoms of hyperventilation are dizziness, nausea,
hot and cold sensations, tingling of the hands, legs and feet,
sleepiness and nally unconsciousness. Answer (B) is incorrect
because hyperventilation is an increase of the breathing rate.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a feeling of well-being, or
euphoria, is a symptom of hypoxia.
1 / 1 pts
Question 48
The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is
normally
20 NM.
30 NM.
40 NM.
The normal radius of the outer area will be 20 NM. This is the area
where separation is provided after two-way communication is
established. It is only a requirement to contact ATC before
entering the 10 NM Class C airspace depicted on the sectional
chart.
1 / 1 pts
Question 49
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum
steady ight speed in a specied conguration?
V(S).
V(S1).
V(S0).
V(S1) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady ight speed
obtained in a specic conguration. Answer (A) is incorrect
because V(S) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady ight
speed at which the airplane is controllable. Answer (C) is incorrect
because V(S0) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady ight
speed in the landing conguration.
1 / 1 pts
Question 50
Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may
fall into are: trying to
assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority.
promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in
behavior.
complete a ight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules,
and demonstrate the 'right stuff.'
There are a number of classic behavioral traps into which pilots
have been known to fall. Pilots, particularly those with
considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a ight
as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally
demonstrate that they have the 'right stuff.' Answer (A) is incorrect
because promoting situation awareness and then necessary
changes in behavior and asserting PIC authority are positive pilot
behaviors. Answer (B) is incorrect because promoting situation
awareness and then necessary changes in behavior and asserting
PIC authority are positive pilot behaviors.
Quiz Score: 49 out of 50
