Mgt exam 3
E. Personality
The stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes that give a person her identity are known as
her...
A. Character
B. Values
C. Attitudes
D. Attributions
E. Personality
C. Openness to experience
________ is the personality dimension that describes how intellectual, imaginative, curios, and broad-
minded a person is.
A. Inquisitiveness
B. Emotional stability
C. Openness to experience
D. Extroversion
E. Inventiveness
A. Emotional stability
Michael is frequently nervous, tense, and worried, both at work and at home. He likely scores low on
which of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A. Emotional stability
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extroversion
D. Openness to experience
E. Self-monitoring
A. Extroversion
______ has been associated with success for managers and salespeople.
A. Extroversion
B. Agreeableness
C. Openness to experience
D. Emotional stability
E. Conscientiousness
B. Proactive
A person who is apt to take initiative and persevere to influence the environment is said to have a(n)
______ personality.
A. emotionally stable
B. proactive
C. extroverted
D. emotionally intelligent
E. self-efficacious
C. internal locus of control
People with ______ exhibit less anxiety, greater motivation, and stronger expectations that effort leads
to performance.
A. high self-efficacy
B. high self-monitoring
C. internal locus of control
D. high tolerance for ambiguity
E. high self-esteem
E. provide an incentive structure to pay Cara
Cara's manager notices that she exhibits an internal locus of control when she speaks about her work.
Her manager should
A. give Cara a lot of positive feedback.
B. ensure that Cara has a highly structured job.
C. give Cara a job with much social contact with coworkers and customers.
D. closely supervise Cara's work.
E. provide an incentive structure to pay Cara.
A. Self-efficancy
Complex, challenging, and autonomous jobs tend to enhance people's perceptions of their
A. self-efficacy.
B. increased anxiety.
C. tolerance for pain.
D. learned helplessness.
E. self-esteem.
B. self-esteem
The extent to which people like or dislike themselves is called their
A. emotional stability.
B. self-esteem.
C. locus of control.
D. self-efficacy.
E. self-monitoring.
E. express confidence in the employee's abilities to complete given tasks
If a manager knows one of her subordinates has low self-esteem and wishes to enhance it, she should
A. provide frequent reminders about improving weaknesses.
B. avoid delegating work to this subordinate.
C. redesign the work so that it is routine and structured.
D. avoid giving feedback.
E. express confidence in the employee's abilities to complete given tasks.
E. insensitive
Low self-monitors are often criticized for being ______ to others.
A. insincere
B. boastful
C. aggressive
D. unfair
E. insensitive
D. Social awareness
Which of the following is a trait of emotional intelligence?
A. situational awareness
B. self-sufficiency
C. self-monitoring
D. social awareness
E. self-efficacy
A. behavior
Organizational ______ tries to explain and predict workplace behavior to help managers better lead and
motivate others.
A. behavior
B. development
C. culture
D. strategy
E. science
D. work-life balance
Surveys show that employees are more interested in ______ rather than just earning a paycheck.
A. advancement opportunity
B. recognition
C. benefits
D. work-life balance
E. status
C. cognitive
The ______ component of an attitude consists of the beliefs and knowledge one has about a situation.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. factual
A. behavioral
The statement, "I won't give Kim such a tight deadline again," reflects the ______ component of an
attitude.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
E. cognitive dissonance
Because people are uncomfortable with inconsistency between their attitudes and behaviors, they will
seek to reduce
A. a self-fulfilling prophecy.
B. fundamental attribution.
C. a self-serving bias.
D. causal attribution.
E. cognitive dissonance.
C. eliminate the self-serving bias
Which of the following is not one of the main ways to reduce cognitive dissonance?
A. Change your attitude.
B. Change your behavior.
C. Eliminate the self-serving bias.
D. Find consonant elements that outweigh the dissonant ones.
E. Belittle the importance of the inconsistent behavior.
B. perception
The process of interpreting and understanding one's environment is called
A. self-awareness.
B. perception.
C. cognition.
D. self-monitoring.
E. openness to experience.
A. cognitive dissonance
Which of the following is not a distortion in perception?
A. Cognitive dissonance
B. Stereotyping
C. Halo effect
D. The recency effect
E. Causal attribution
C. job satisfaction increases
As an employee's age increases, his or her
A. job involvement decreases.
B. absenteeism increases.
C. job satisfaction increases.
D. work motivation decreases.
E. organizational commitment decreases.
A. halo effect
The ______ occurs when we form an impression of an individual based on a single trait.
A. halo effect
B. self-fulfilling prophecy
C. fundamental attribution error
D. self-serving bias effect
E. selective perception error
C. the fundamental attribution bias
The tendency to attribute another person's behavior to his or her personal characteristics rather than to
the situation the person is in is called
A. the halo effect.
B. a self-serving bias.
C. the fundamental attribution bias.
D. selective perception.
E. stereotyping.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy
A waiter expects a group of poorly dressed customers to be stingy tippers and gives them poor service,
so he gets the result that he expects, a very small tip. This is an example of the
A. halo effect.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy.
C. fundamental attribution bias.
D. self-serving bias.
E. selective perception error.
E. low job satisfaction
Julia really doesn't like her new boss and is not happy with the new tasks she's been assigned and the
long hours she's been working. Still, she truly believes in what the company is trying to accomplish.
Julia has
A. poor job performance.
B. low job involvement.
C. low organizational commitment.
D. poor job enrichment.
E. low job satisfaction.
C. organizational commitment; perceived stress
Job satisfaction results in stronger ______ and lower levels of ______
A. job involvement; work-life balance.
B. motivation; life satisfaction.
C. organizational commitment; perceived stress.
D. perceived stress; life satisfaction.
E. perceived stress; absenteeism.
C. onboarding
________ programs help employees to integrate and transition to a new job.
A. Organizational citizenship
B. Employee assistance
C. Onboarding
D. Self-efficacy
E. Proactive
C. organizational citizenship behaviors
Miles impressed his boss by making lots of suggestions for department improvements and by putting in
many weekend hours to do extra tasks to develop the new procedures. Miles is exhibiting
A. self-efficacy.
B. onboarding traits.
C. organizational citizenship behaviors.
D. the halo effect.
E. counterproductive work behaviors.
E. Diversity
______ represent(s) all the ways people are unlike and alike.
A. Lifestyle
B. Dimensions
C. Background
D. Conditions
E. Diversity
B. Personality
______ is at the center of the diversity wheel.
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Psychometrics
D. Philanthropy
E. Psychology
A. Income
Which of the following dimensions is an example of a secondary dimension on the diversity wheel?
A. Income
B. Race
C. Sexual orientation
D. Physical abilities
E. Age
C. the median age of the american worker is increasing
Which of the following diversity issues is true in the U.S. workforce?
A. Unemployment among the disabled has dropped sharply since the introduction of the Americans
with Disabilities Act.
B. Literacy has ceased to be an issue among American workers.
C. The median age of the American worker is increasing.
D. White households continue to have higher median incomes than Asian ones.
E. Among the top 500 U.S. companies, most currently do not yet offer domestic partner benefits for
same-sex couples.
B. reasonably accommodate an individual's disability
The Americans with Disabilities Act requires employers to
A. hire all qualified disabled persons who apply
B. reasonably accommodate an individual's disability.
C. hire quotas of qualified disabled persons.
D. actively solicit job applications from disabled persons.
E. hire disabled persons to qualify for tax breaks.
E. Ethnocentrism
______ is the belief that one's native country, culture, language, abilities, or behavior is superior to
those of another culture.
A. Reverse discrimination
B. Stereotyping
C. An ethical dilemma
D. Diversity
E. Ethnocentrism
D. stress
______ is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring extraordinary demands, constraints,
or opportunities and are uncertain about their ability to handle them effectively.
A. Apprehension
B. Role conflict
C. Role overload
D. Stress
E. Anxiety
B. Role overload
When others' expectations exceed one's ability, ______ has occurred.
A. Burnout
B. Role overload
C. Learned helplessness
D. Role conflict
E. Role ambiguity
A. slurred speech
Which of the following is not a symptom of stress?
A. Slurred speech
B. Insomnia
C. Hostility
D. Alcohol abuse
E. Heart attack
E. Alcohol
Which of the following is the most common drug of abuse?
A. Marijuana
B. Tranquilizers
C. Prescription pain medication
D. Methamphetamine
E. Alcohol
C. develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision
Which of the following is not a suggested strategy for reducing unhealthy stressors in organizations?
A. Rollout employee assistance programs.
B. Recommend a holistic wellness approach.
C. Develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision.
D. Make jobs interesting.
E. Make career counseling available.
D. Motivation
______ is defined as the psychological processes that arouse and direct goal-directed behavior.
A. Stimulus
B. Productivity
C. Enticement
D. Motivation
E. Incented action
D. extrinsic reward
Craig's sales manager has just told the group that all sales in the month of September will earn an extra
5% commission. The team gets right to work, being motivated by a(n)
A. intrinsic reward.
B. physiological need.
C. high need for power.
D. extrinsic reward.
E. hygiene factor.
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
Which of the following is a need-based perspective on motivation?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
C. Job characteristics model
D. Goal-setting theory
E. Equity theory
B. esteem
The need for status, reputation, and recognition are part of
A. self-actualization.
B. esteem.
C. love.
D. safety.
E. physiological.
A. self-actualization
An accounting firm provides employees with educational reimbursements if they complete job-related
coursework with a B or better, which helps them meet which of Maslow's levels of needs?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Love
D. Safety
E. Physiological
B. existence
Which of the following is a need in Alderfer's ERG theory?
A. Esteem
B. Existence
C. Realization
D. Rating
E. Generalization
B. power
According to the acquired needs theory, the desire to influence others is part of the need for
A. affiliation.
B. power.
C. self-actualization.
D. relatedness.
E. achievement
C. high need for power
Even when he started his first job, Galen was not content to be just one of the employees. His boss
noticed that he often coached his coworkers about ways to improve their work, even when it wasn't his
job. Galen probably has a
A. high need for achievement.
B. high need for affiliation.
C. high need for power.
D. low need for achievement.
E. high need for leadership.
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs
McClelland's need for achievement corresponds most closely to
A. Herzberg's hygiene factors.
B. Maslow's esteem needs.
C. extrinsic rewards.
D. Alderfer's relatedness needs.
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.
D. relationships
According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a hygiene factor?
A. Responsibility
B. Advancement
C. The work itself
D. Relationships
E. Recognition
A. motivating
According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, only ______ factors can make employees satisfied with
their jobs.
A. motivating
B. self-actualization
C. growth
D. hygiene
E. achievement
B. hygiene factors
Anders is manager for a large freight company. He has noticed low morale lately, perhaps because of
the cramped quarters and lack of raises this year among workers on his shift. According to Herzberg,
Anders should first concentrate on
A. needs for achievement.
B. hygiene factors.
C. esteem needs.
D. motivating factors.
E. growth needs.
E. process perspectives
Theories that try to understand the thought processes by which people decide how to act are called
A. needs-based perspectives.
B. reinforcement perspectives.
C. job design perspectives.
D. cognitive perspectives.
E. process perspectives.
B. resolve feelings of injustice
In equity theory, employees are motivated to
A. work harder when they have more freedom.
B. resolve feelings of injustice.
C. correct themselves when they aren't working hard enough.
D. blame others when they miss work or fail at tasks.
E. work just hard enough to get what they want.
C. expect that brady will reduce his hours
Brady went to his boss Lynn to complain that he got the same bonus this quarter as everyone else,
despite the longer hours he's been putting in and his higher level of experience and efficiency. If Lynn
can't change the bonuses, she should
A. tell Brady "That's just the way bonuses are given."
B. suggest that Brady take this up with her boss.
C. expect that Brady will reduce his hours.
D. start documenting Brady's complaints for future disciplinary action.
E. expect that Brady's performance will improve.
B. expectancy
After struggling with the training, Sachin is unsure whether he can complete the end-of-year financial
reporting with minimal errors in the time allotted at his new job. In this case, Sachin is low on the
______ element of expectancy theory.
A. valence
B. expectancy
C. outcomes
D. instrumentality
E. performance
A. instrumentality; low
At his review last year, Ryan was promised a big raise if he met his production goals. Raises were
included in today's paychecks, and despite that Ryan has met all of his goals, he only received a cost-
of-living raise. In the future, Ryan's ______ will probably be
A. instrumentality; low.
B. valence; low.
C. expectancy; low.
D. instrumentality; high.
E. expectancy; high.
B. help workers understand and accept the goals
When using goal-setting theory to motivate employees, managers should
A. set targets that are just out of employees' reach.
B. help workers understand and accept the goals.
C. set general goals that are emotionally appealing.
D. hold employees responsible for getting their own feedback.
E. set goals that are easily achievable.
E. setting goals linked to an action plan
According to goal-setting theory, which of the following is necessary for goals to create high
motivation and performance?
A. Setting general goals that will work for multiple employees.
B. Predetermining acceptable rewards for meeting goals.
C. Setting goals that fulfill self-actualization needs.
D. Reinforcing of desired behaviors.
E. Setting goals linked to an action plan.
B. job design
______ involves division of an organization's work and applies motivational theories to jobs to increase
satisfaction and performance.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job design
C. Job simplification
D. Job development
E. Job enrichment
B. poor mental health
Research shows that simplified jobs lead to
A. job satisfaction.
B. poor mental health.
C. a sense of accomplishment.
D. a sense of personal growth.
E. decreased worker productivity.
C. job enrichment
The process of building into a job such motivating factors as recognition and achievement is called
A. MBO.
B. job design.
C. job enrichment.
D. job enlargement.
E. horizontal loading.
C. task significance
Of the following, which is a core job characteristic?
A. Meaningfulness
B. Skill specificity
C. Task significance
D. Teamwork
E. Task variety
E. autonomy
The extent to which a job allows an employee to make decisions about scheduling different tasks and
deciding how to perform them is called
A. horizontal loading.
B. skill variety.
C. task identity.
D. task significance.
E. autonomy.
D. task significance
As a maintenance person for the Air Force, Craig services aircraft engines, which protects the lives and
safety of military personnel and their ability to conduct missions. Craig's job has a high level of
A. autonomy.
B. task identity.
C. skill variety.
D. task significance.
E. context satisfactions.
C. the job characteristics model
The motivating potential score is calculated as part of using
A. reinforcement theory.
B. McClelland's acquired needs theory.
C. the job characteristics model.
D. goal-setting theory.
E. equity theory.
D. positive reinforcement
The use of desirable consequences to strengthen a particular behavior is called
A. constructive feedback.
B. extinction.
C. intrinsic motivation.
D. positive reinforcement.
E. valence.
B. negative reinforcement
Estefan tells one of his staff that he is taking her off of probation since she has corrected her tardiness
problem. Estefan is using
A. instrumentality.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. punishment.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. positive reinforcement.
C. extinction
It has been seven quarters since any employee has received a bonus at R & G Mills, so now the
possibility of getting one does not seem to be motivating the workers any longer. In this case,
management has inadvertently applied
A. expectancy.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
E.clearly communicate the desired behavior
In using reinforcement, a manager should
A. avoid using punishment.
B. reward both desired and undesired behavior.
C. give all subordinates the same rewards to ensure fairness.
D. save rewards for weekly or monthly celebrations.
E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.
D. the rewards require rarely attainable performance
Which of the following is not an advisable criterion for an effective incentive plan?
A. The rewards are believable.
B. The rewards are linked to performance.
C. The rewards satisfy individual needs.
D. The rewards require rarely attainable performance.
E. The rewards are agreed on by the manager and employees.
A. pay-for-performance
Gabe has a summer job hand-dying shirts that will be sold on the boardwalk. He is paid $3.50 per shirt.
This is an example of a ______ compensation plan.
A. pay-for-performance
B. pay-for-knowledge
C. bonus
D. profit-sharing
E. gainsharing
B. gainsharing
A Scanlon plan is a type of ______ compensation plan.
A. pay-for-knowledge
B. gainsharing
C. benchmarking
D. pay-for-performance
E. profit-sharing
B. pay for knowledge
Erica teaches fourth grade at a local elementary school. She significantly increased her salary by
earning a master's degree in education. This is an example of
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. a bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
A. focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations
Which of the following is the best way to manage virtual teams?
A. Focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations.
B. When beginning with a virtual team, set the final deadline and reprimand any virtual team members
who don't make the deadline.
C. Because you don't have face-to-face contact, relay instructions via phone.
D. Require each team member to keep their own personal record of the work that's been done as a
team.
E. Utilize employees on a global team around the clock
B. decreased stress
Which of the following is not a benefit of teamwork in an organization?
A. Increased speed
B. Decreased stress
C. Reduced costs
D. Improved workplace cohesiveness
E. Reduced destructive internal competition
C. team
A _______ is defined as a small group of people with complementary skills who are committed to a
common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves accountable.
A. cross-functional team
B. group
C. team
D. panel
E. formal group
E. formal group
Jane organized several teachers to discuss the school's interior painting scheduled for summer. They
looked at several brands, and heard a presentation by a designer who then helped them choose a color
palette to recommend to school administrators. In this instance, the teachers make up a(n)
A. self-managed team.
B. virtual team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. informal group.
E. formal group.
B. informal group
In all but the worst weather, Laura and four of her coworkers met each day at 12:15 to walk the
wilderness trail behind their office building. This is an example of a(n)
A. continuous improvement team.
B. informal group.
C. self-managed team.
D. virtual team.
E. formal group
C. Cross-functional team
A team composed of people from different departments who are pursuing a common objective is called
a
A. quality circle.
B. problem-solving team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. virtual team.
E. work force.
E. virtual team
A team that consists of members who interact by computer network to collaborate on projects is called
a(n)
A. remote team.
B. e-team.
C. self-managed team.
D. informal team.
E. virtual team.
D. Action team
A work team that works to accomplish tasks that require people with specialized training and a high
degree of coordination is called a(n)
A. production team.
B. project team.
C. development team.
D. action team.
E. advice team
B. a type of advice team
Which of the following is a characteristic of a continuous improvement team?
A. A built-in part of any effective organizational group.
B. A type of advice team.
C. Requires assigned membership.
D. Emerged from self-managed team concept.
E. Encourages high empowerment
B. administrative oversight
Self-managed teams are groups of workers who have been given ______ for their task domains.
A. individual incentives
B. administrative oversight
C. reduced responsibility
D. complete freedom
E. no technology
D. allow members to hire their own coworkers
When using a self-managed team, a manager should
A. maintain detailed monitoring of its performance.
B. create the team within whatever structure currently exists.
C. offer lucrative individual bonuses.
D. allow members to hire their own coworkers.
E. provide elaborate retreats for team discussions.
C. reforming
Which of the following is not one of the stages of group and team development?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Reforming
D. Adjourning
E. Performing
B. allow people to socialize
During the forming stage, the leader should
A. establish permanent control.
B. allow people to socialize.
C. empower team members.
D. encourage disagreement.
E. work through team conflicts
A. storming
The group development stage in which individuals test the leader's policies and assumptions as they try
to determine how they fit into the power structure is the ______ stage.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
B. norming
During the ______ stage of team development, close relationships develop and unity and harmony
emerge.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
A. norming
The stage during which a group sets guidelines about issues like attendance and punctuality is the
______ stage.
A. norming
B. storming
C. forming
D. adjourning
E. performing
C. group cohesiveness
The principal by-product of the norming stage of team development is
A. adjournment.
B. uncertainty.
C. group cohesiveness.
D. conflict.
E. empowerment.
A. helping the team identify group goals and values
Since hard feelings about group leadership and assignments had passed, Elena's group recently seemed
to be relating much better. At the meeting tomorrow she should take advantage of this moment by
A. helping the team identify group goals and values.
B. encouraging members to voice disagreements.
C. helping people get to know each other.
D. empowering the members.
E. throwing a thank-you party.
D. "Can we do the job properly?"
During the performing stage of team development, the group answers the question
A. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"
B. "Why are we here?"
C. "Why are we fighting?"
D. "Can we do the job properly?"
E. "Who's in charge?"
A. trust
Which of the following is considered one of the most essential considerations in building a group into
an effective team?
A. Trust
B. Promoting groupthink
C. Organizational structure
D. Market stability
E. Size
B. trust
________ is defined as reciprocal faith in others' intentions and behaviors.
A. Cooperation
B. Trust
C. Cohesiveness
D. Unity
E. Fairness
E. emphasizing members' common characteristics
Which of the following is a way managers can enhance team cohesiveness?
A. Isolating the group from the actions of competitors or other threats.
B. Providing team members precise instructions for their tasks.
C. Creating a relatively large team.
D. Assigning members randomly to teams.
E. Emphasizing members' common characteristics.
A. unfair work distribution
Which of the following is a disadvantage of smaller groups?
A. Unfair work distribution
B. Autocratic leadership
C. Lower morale
D. Tendency to form cliques
E. Tendency to take unreasonable risk
B. less commitment
Which of the following is a disadvantage of larger groups?
A. Less creativity and innovation
B. Less commitment
C. More division of labor
D. Fewer resources
E. Fewer cliques
A. roles
Members of a team develop their ______ based on the expectations of the team, of the organization,
and of themselves.
A. roles
B. norms
C. groupthink
D. job descriptions
E. social fit
B. task
Marielle points out during the meeting that the group has fallen a half hour behind schedule according
to the agenda, and should get back to the important work at hand. She is performing a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
C. maintenance
Tension was thick in the room as the management team discussed changes to promotion requirements.
But then Chris made a joke about Jake's white-knuckled grip on his pen, and the laughter seemed to
improve the mood. Chris was acting in a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
D. to emphasize the group's important values
Nordstrom's department store chain emphasizes the great lengths to which it goes in customer service,
an example of which of these reasons to enforce norms?
A. To clarify role expectations.
B. To help the group survive.
C. To create cohesiveness.
D. To emphasize the group's important values.
E. To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations.
A. groupthink
Dave sat through the meeting feeling convinced his team was misinterpreting recent marketing
research, but he didn't say anything. The team leader was a close friend. Plus, he didn't want to disrupt
the team since he perceived himself to be the only one with reservations. Dave's team appears to be
experiencing
A. groupthink.
B. storming.
C. social loafing.
D. norming.
E. devil's advocacy.
C. bring in outside experts for fresh perspectives
To prevent groupthink, a manager should
A. reinforce how capable the group is.
B. never admit errors to outsiders.
C. bring in outside experts for fresh perspectives.
D. encourage everyone to "get with the team."
E. express high confidence in the group's previous decisions.
B. indecision
Which of the following is characteristic of workgroups with too little conflict?
A. Dissatisfaction
B. Indecision
C. Political infighting
D. Lack of teamwork
E. Turnover
C. conflict is at a moderate level
Workplace performance is maximized when
A. conflict is absent.
B. conflict is at a very low level.
C. conflict is at a moderate level.
D. conflict is at a high level.
E. conflict occurs only at nonmanagerial levels.
B. a personality clash
Hannah is on a team with Carson, and they are often in conflict. Hannah likes to begin her work with
careful planning and she gets started immediately. Carson, on the other hand, likes trying out several
ideas, and tends to be working frantically at the last minute. Their team conflict most likely stems from
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. ambiguous jurisdictions.
E. inconsistent goals.
D. status differences
Ken, whose primary job is supervising a small production group, is not getting cooperation from all
members on the cross-functional team he leads. In particular, Bethany, a marketing manager, seems to
resist his direction. The source of conflict in this cause may be
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. status differences.
E. ambiguous jurisdictions.
B. accommodationg
The conflict-handling style in which a person allows the desires of another to prevail is known as
A. forcing.
B. accommodating.
C. avoiding.
D. collaborating.
E. compromising.
A. avoiding
Rachel missed another deadline and her boss Keri is very upset. She will have to explain to the client
again why the project is behind. Keri thinks she may say something she'll regret if she talks to Rachel
about this now, so she decides to wait awhile. Keri is using the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
D. forcing
Malia told her team that she is moving forward with a change to the bonus structure, despite vocal
objections from several team members. Malia is using the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
B. collaborating
The disadvantage of the ______ conflict-handling style is that it is very time consuming.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
B. programmed conflict
______ is designed to elicit different opinions without inciting people's personal feelings.
A. Groupthink
B. Programmed conflict
C. Social loafing
D. Storming
E. Dysfunctional conflict
E. the dialectic method
______ is the process of having two people or groups play opposing roles in a debate in order to better
understand a proposal.
A. Storming
B. Positive conflict
C. Devil's advocacy
D. Groupthink
E. The dialectic method
D. Influence
Leadership is the ability to _____ employees to pursue organizational goals
A. Force
B. Reward
C. Request
D. Influence
E. Compensate
E. Complementary to each other
According to Kotter, management and leadership are considered to be
A. opposing forces.
B. causal; here, management causes leadership.
C. equivalent to one another.
D. almost entirely unrelated.
E. complementary to each other.
A. solving problems
According to Kotter, companies manage complexity in which of the following ways?
A. Solving problems
B. Motivating people
C. Lobbying the government
D. Innovating new products
E. Setting a direction
E. reward
Jennifer congratulated her staff when the team received an industry award for their project, and also
sent a companywide e-mail announcing it. Here, Jennifer is using her ______ power.
A. personalized
B. referent
C. coercive
D. expert
E. reward
C. expert
______ power results from one's specialized knowledge.
A. Legitimate
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward
E. Coercive
B. referent
Tracy is outgoing, warm, and truly inspirational when she talks about where she wants to lead her
division. Her employees seem eager to do anything she asks. Because of her personality and not her
position, Tracy has ______ power.
A. legitimate
B. referent
C. reward
D. coercive
E. expert
E. consultation
Jesse brought his proposal to Erica even before the meeting saying, "I'm sure you have some ideas on
this and we could try to get them incorporated upfront." Jesse is using which influence tactic?
A. Legitimating tactics
B. Inspirational appeals
C. Ingratiating tactics
D. Personal appeals
E. Consultation
A. personal appeal
When Nielle saw Laura in the stockroom stuffing her purse with expensive printer cartridges, Laura
was quick to say, "We've been friends since first grade, so I'm sure you won't say anything about this."
This is an example of using a(n)
A. personal appeal.
B. legitimating tactic.
C. pressure tactic.
D. coalition tactic.
E. exchange tactic.
B. trait
The ______ approach to leadership attempts to identify distinctive characteristics that account for the
effectiveness of leaders.
A. attribute
B. trait
C. behavior
D. quality
E. contingency
D. project GLOBE
______ studies reveal that visionary and inspirational charismatic leaders who are good team builders
generally are most desirable worldwide.
A. Servant leader
B. E-leadership
C. Contingency model
D. Project GLOBE
E. Full-range approach
C. job-centered
Peizhi manages his employees through a careful monitoring of their production, comparing what they
do to predicted schedules and desired budgets. Peizhi can best be described as a(n) ______ leader.
A. production-oriented
B. charismatic
C. job-centered
D. transformational
E. employee-centered
E. contingency
The approach to leadership that suggests that effective leadership behavior depends on the situation at
hand is the ______ approach.
A. trait
B. transformational
C. circumstantial
D. behavioral
E. contingency
A. poor leader-member relations
Craig's peers were surprised when he received a promotion and suddenly became their supervisor.
They thought he was rather unreliable and weren't sure he was up to the task. According to the
contingency model, Craig has
A. poor leader-member relations.
B. weak position power.
C. poor worker facilitation.
D. low task structure.
E. unsuccessful leadership adaptation.
E. weak position power
Liz is trying to lead a cross-functional team, but she is having some issues. Most members were other
department managers at her level, and they saw no reason to do what she told them to. Here, Liz has
A. low tolerance for ambiguity.
B. high task structure.
C. weak referent power.
D. poor leader-member relations.
E. weak position power.
A. is low
DeAndre leads a task force developing specifications for a new customer database to be used by
several departments. DeAndre is an IT supervisor, but most of the others are directors of other
departments. At the first meeting, a few of them asked him questions he couldn't answer. According to
the contingency model, DeAndre's situational control likely
A. is low.
B. is moderate.
C. is high.
D. is extremely high.
E. cannot be determined from the information.
C. task-oriented
Marco supervises the pool of word processors serving the firm's lawyers. He gets along well with his
people, and has created detailed procedures for all types of legal document they encounter. Marco hires
and fires, and gives work assignments, performance appraisals, and promotions. According to the
contingency model, the optimal leadership style is
A. transformational.
B. team management.
C. task-oriented.
D. relationship-oriented.
E. consideration.
A. try to move to a more suitable situation
In the contingency model, if your leadership orientation does not match the situation in your
workplace, Fiedler recommends that you
A. try to move to a more suitable situation.
B. alter your leadership style.
C. take management classes to improve your power.
D. get an assistant with the preferred orientation.
E. gradually change the makeup of your subordinates.
C. laissez-faire
According to the concept of full-range leadership, leadership behaviors vary along a range from
______ leadership at one extreme to transformational leadership at the other.
A. transactional
B. shared
C. laissez-faire
D. servant
E. charismatic
D. They encourage people to do exceptional things
Which of the following is a characteristic of transformational leaders?
A. They are better in stable situations.
B. They clarify employees' roles.
C. They set goals and monitor progress toward their achievement.
D. They encourage people to do exceptional things.
E. They provide rewards in exchange for subordinates doing the work.
D. servant leader
A leader who focuses on providing increased service to others is called a
A. charismatic leader.
B. transformational leader.
C. transactional leader.
D. servant leader.
E. situational leader
B. servant
Karen, the manager of a branch location of a large travel firm, treated company resources as if they
were her own and her employees even better. She cared about the staff deeply and even organized
international volunteering activities to promote their growth. Karen could best be described as which
type of leader?
A. Situational
B. Servant
C. Laissez-faire
D. Shared
E. Transactional
D. significance
Research shows that followers seek and admire leaders who create feelings of
A. anticipation.
B. individualism.
C. clarity.
D. significance.
E. freedom.
B. efficient communicator
When your intended message is sent accurately in the least amount of time, you are a(n)
A. economical communicator.
B. efficient communicator.
C. formal communicator.
D. collaborative communicator.
E. effective communicator.
A. encoding
The process of translating a message into understandable symbols or language is called
A. encoding.
B. transforming.
C. mediating.
D. decoding.
E. enriching.
B. rich
A(n) ______ form of media allows receivers to observe multiple cues, such as body language and tone
of voice, and allows senders to get feedback.
A. encoded
B. rich
C. dense
D. complex
E. formal
E. videoconferencing
Of the following, which medium is the richest?
A. Company newsletter
B. Telephone
C. E-mail
D. Memos
E. Videoconferencing
E. newsletter
A manager wants to tell employees that the quarterly project management training will start on April
12, about two months from now. Generally, which of the following should the manager use?
A. Videoconferencing
B. Telephone
C. Personal notes
D. Face-to-face meeting
E. Newsletter
A. sender barrier
Claire wanted to tell her employee about the seminar, but she put the flier in a stack of papers and
forgot about it until after the deadline to sign up. This is an example of what type of barrier to
communication?
A. Sender barrier
B. Encoding barrier
C. Medium barrier
D. Feedback barrier
E. Receiver barrier
D. receiver barrier
Rodrigo was in meetings all day and didn't get a chance to check his e-mail before he had to pick up his
children from daycare, so he missed an important message from a client. This is an example of what
type of barrier to communication?
A. Medium barrier
B. Decoding barrier
C. Feedback barrier
D. Receiver barrier
E. Encoding barrier
A. jargon
______ is likely to cause a semantic barrier to communication.
A. Jargon
B. Technology
C. Gossip
D. The grapevine
E. Rhetoric
C. oversized ego
Kelly was recently promoted to manager. Though he used to take advice from his peers, he seems no
longer willing to listen to even his superiors and is really running the project how he thinks best. This is
an example of which personal barrier to communication?
A. Tendency to judge others' messages.
B. Variable skills in communicating effectively.
C. Oversized ego.
D. Inability to listen with understanding.
E. Variation in interpreting information.
A. writing a thank-you note
Which of the following is not a way in which nonverbal communication is expressed?
A. Writing a thank-you note.
B. Making someone wait an hour in the lobby.
C. Looking away while talking to someone.
D. Grimacing.
E. Touching someone's shoulder.
E. close your eyes
Which of the following is a "don't" when attempting to improve communication?
A. Occasionally nod in agreement.
B. Lean toward the speaker.
C. Speak in a quiet, reassuring tone.
D. Smile and show animation.
E. Close your eyes.
E. externally
Shortly after the end of the fiscal year, Stavanger Investments released an earnings report to clients.
This is an example of communicating
A. vertically.
B. upward.
C. horizontally.
D. downward.
E. externally.
E. grapevine; informal
Gossip and rumor in an organization are part of the _____, which itself is a type of ______
communication channel.
A. organization chart; horizontal
B. culture; horizontal
C. organization chart; informal
D. grapevine; horizontal
E. grapevine; informal
C. videoconferencing
Using video and audio links along with computers to allow people at different locations to see, hear,
and talk with each other is called
A. telecommuting.
B. collaborative computing.
C. videoconferencing.
D. telecollaborating.
E. using the extranet.
______ is defined as the psychological processes that arouse and direct
goal-directed behavior.
A. Stimulus
B. Productivity
C. Enticement
D. Motivation
E. Incented action
D. Motivation
A simple model of motivation does NOT include which of the following?
A. Unfulfilled need
B. Behaviors
C. Reactions
D. Motivation
E. Rewards
A simple model of motivation does NOT include which of the following?
A. Unfulfilled need
B. Behaviors
C. Reactions
D. Motivation
E. Rewards
C. Reactions
Jason's team lead has just told the group that if they finish the current
project before then, they can have Friday off without taking vacation.
The team gets right to work, being motivated by a(n)
A. intrinsic reward.
B. physiological need.
C. high need for power.
D. extrinsic reward.
E. hygiene factor
D. extrinsic reward.
Maleah's management professor just told her class that the final exam
is optional for students like her that currently have an A. She decides to
take the exam anyway, since she likes the subject and wants to master
the material. Here, Maleah is motivated to take the exam by a(n)
A. intrinsic reward.
B. physiological need.
C. high need for power.
D. extrinsic reward.
E. hygiene factor.
A. intrinsic reward.
Which of the following is a need-based perspective on motivation?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
C. Job characteristics model
D. Goal-setting theory
E. Equity theory
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
Maslow's levels of needs, in order from lowest (most basic) to highest
level, are
A. self-actualization, esteem, love, safety, and physiological.
B. safety, love, esteem, self-actualization, and physiological.
C. physiological, safety, self-actualization, esteem, and love.
D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization.
E. safety, physiological, esteem, love, and self-actualization.
D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization.
An accounting firm provides employees with educational
reimbursements if they complete job-related coursework with a B or
better, which helps them meet which of Maslow's levels of needs?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Love
D. Safety
E. Physiological
A. Self-actualization
The need for status, reputation, and recognition are part of
A. self-actualization.
B. esteem.
C. love.
D. safety.
E. physiological.
B. esteem.
After a series of bus accidents, one of which resulted in a critical injury
to a driver, Apex Transportation drivers received additional training
and buses were retrofitted with new braking systems. This helps to
satisfy which of Maslow's needs?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Love
D. Safety
E. Physiological
D. Safety
For managers, the importance of Maslow's contribution is that he
showed that workers
A. are only interested in compensation that helps them fulfill
physiological needs.
B. are as complex as their organization.
C. have needs that cannot be understood by their employer.
D. expect an employer to fulfill every level of their hierarchy of needs.
E. have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.
E. have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.
______ assumes that three basic needs influence behavior and that they
may be activated concurrently.
A. Maslow's theory
B. Expectancy theory
C. Alderfer's ERG theory
D. Hertzberg's theory
E. Equity theory
C. Alderfer's ERG theory
Which of the following is a need in Alderfer's ERG theory?
A. Esteem
B. Existence
C. Realization
D. Ruling
E. Generation
B. Existence
According to the acquired needs theory, the desire to influence others is
part of the need for
A. affiliation.
B. power.
C. self-actualization.
D. relatedness.
E. achievement.
B. power.
Mina was very aggressive at her job, and her coworkers complained
that she often manipulated them and her boss in order to get ahead. She
attempted to direct everything and everyone, regardless of the
consequences to others or even the organization itself. Mina is
expressing what type of need for power?
A. Personal
B. Destructive
C. Legitimate
D. Organizational
E. Compensatory
A. Personal
Even when he started his first job, Cyrus was not content to be just one
of the employees. His boss noticed that he often directed his coworkers
about ways to improve their work, even when it wasn't his job. Cyrus
probably has a
A. high need for achievement.
B. high need for affiliation.
C. high need for power.
D. low need for achievement.
E. high need for leadership.
C. high need for power.
Theresa has really blossomed in her sales job. She loves building
mutually beneficial relationships and is extremely well liked by her
clients. Theresa likely has a
A. low need for affiliation.
B. low need for power.
C. low need for achievement.
D. high need for affiliation.
E. high need for achievement.
D. high need for affiliation.
McClelland's need for achievement corresponds most closely to
A. Herzberg's hygiene factors.
B. Maslow's esteem needs.
C. extrinsic rewards.
D. Alderfer's relatedness needs.
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.
According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a
motivating factor?
A. Pay
B. The work itself
C. Working conditions
D. Company policy
E. Supervisors
B. The work itself
According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a
hygiene factor?
A. Responsibility
B. Advancement
C. The work itself
D. Supervisors
E. Recognition
D. Supervisors
According to Herzberg's two factor theory, in the zone between the
motivating factors and the hygiene factors, employees are
A. dissatisfied.
B. satisfied.
C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
D. unmotivated.
E. stagnant.
C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
According to Herzberg's two factor theory, only ______ factors can
make employees satisfied with their jobs.
A. motivating
B. self-actualization
C. growth
D. hygiene
E. achievement
A. motivating
Which of the following is a higher-level need based on the four content
theory perspectives?
A. Esteem
B. Existence
C. Hygiene
D. Physiological
E. Safety
A. Esteem
Pieter is manager for a large freight company. He has noticed low
morale lately, perhaps because of the cramped quarters and lack of
raises this year among workers on his shift. According to Herzberg,
Pieter should first concentrate on
A. needs for achievement.
B. hygiene factors.
C. esteem needs.
D. motivating factors.
E. growth needs.
B. hygiene factors.
According to Herzberg's theory, the first thing managers of employees
who dislike their jobs should do is to
A. provide opportunities for achievement.
B. publicly recognize good performance.
C. make sure pay levels, policies and working conditions are reasonable.
D. create opportunities for personal growth and advancement.
E. increase employees' responsibility and opportunity for leadership.
C. make sure pay levels, policies and working conditions are reasonable.
Theories that try to understand the thought processes by which people
decide how to act are called
A. needs-based perspectives.
B. reinforcement perspectives.
C. job design perspectives.
D. cognitive perspectives.
E. process perspectives.
E. process perspectives.
Which of the following is a process perspective on motivation?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Job characteristics model
C. Two-factor theory
D. ERG theory
E. Acquired needs theory
A. Expectancy theory
In equity theory, employees are motivated to
A. work harder all the time.
B. resolve feelings of injustice.
C. believe they aren't working hard enough.
D. blame others when they miss work or fail at tasks.
E. work just hard enough to get what they want.
B. resolve feelings of injustice.
When workers perceive they are being treated fairly on the job, they
are most likely to
A. pass up promotional opportunities.
B. show improved safety practices.
C. be a whistleblower.
D. cooperate in group settings.
E. seek additional education.
D. cooperate in group settings.
Jake went to his boss Nadia to complain that he got the same bonus this
quarter as everyone else, despite the longer hours he's been putting in
and his higher level of experience and efficiency. If Nadia can't change
the bonuses, she should
A. tell Jake "That's just the way bonuses are given."
B. suggest that Jake take this up with her boss.
C. expect that Jake will reduce his hours.
D. start documenting Jake's complaints for future disciplinary action.
E. expect that Jake's performance will improve.
C. expect that Jake will reduce his hours.
The theory under which people make the choice that promises them the
greatest reward if they think they can get it is
A. goal-setting theory.
B. expectancy theory.
C. reinforcement theory.
D. equity theory.
E. two-factor theory.
B. expectancy theory.
______ is the expectation that successful performance of the task will
lead to the desired outcome.
A. Expectancy
B. Reinforcement
C. Valence
D. Instrumentality
E. Effort
D. Instrumentality
At his review last year, Mike was promised a big raise if he met his
production goals. Raises came out today, and despite that Mike has met
all of his goals, he only received a cost-of-living raise. In the future,
Mike's ______ will probably be _________.
A. instrumentality; low
B. valence; low
C. expectancy; low
D. instrumentality; high
E. expectancy; high
A. instrumentality; low
After struggling with the training, Caroline is unsure whether she can
complete tax returns with minimal errors in the time allotted at her new
job. In this case, Caroline is low on the ______ element of expectancy
theory.
A. valence
B. expectancy
C. outcomes
D. instrumentality
E. performance
B. expectancy
Shen was interviewing for jobs, and the HR manager at one firm told
him that the company pays the total health insurance costs for a family
of four. As a single man, this benefit did not seem especially important
to him right now. Here, Shen is low on the ______ element of the
expectancy theory.
A. valence
B. instrumentality
C. outcomes
D. expectancy
E. significance
A. valence
A goal that states "Attend work 80% of the time this quarter" has
which of the following problems?
A. It is not specific enough.
B. It is not measurable.
C. It does not have a target date.
D. It is not challenging enough.
E. It is not achievable.
D. It is not challenging enough.
When using goal-setting theory to motivate employees, managers should
A. set targets that are just out of employees' reach.
B. help workers understand and accept the goals.
C. set general goals that are emotionally appealing.
D. hold employees responsible for getting their own feedback.
E. set goals that are easily achievable.
B. help workers understand and accept the goals.
According to goal-setting theory, which of the following is necessary for
goals to create high motivation and performance?
A. Setting general goals that will work for multiple employees
B. Predetermining acceptable rewards for meeting goals
C. Setting goals that fulfill self-actualization needs
D. Reinforcing of desired behaviors
E. Setting goals linked to an action plan
E. Setting goals linked to an action plan
Which of the following is the best statement of a goal?
A. Give your very best effort.
B. Get through some of those reports by 9/1.
C. Reduce production errors by ten percent by the end of the quarter.
D. Increase customer retention.
E. Be late to work less often.
C. Reduce production errors by ten percent by the end of the quarter.
______ applies motivational theories to jobs to increase satisfaction and
performance.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job design
C. Job simplification
D. Job development
E. Job enrichment
B. Job design
The process of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase
variety and motivation is called
A. job enlargement.
B. job design.
C. job development.
D. job rotation.
E. job enrichment.
A. job enlargement.
Research shows that simplified jobs lead to
A. job satisfaction.
B. poor mental health.
C. a sense of accomplishment.
D. a sense of personal growth.
E. decreased worker productivity.
B. poor mental health.
Job ______ is the opposite of job
A. rotation; enrichment.
B. rotation; enlargement.
C. loading; enrichment.
D. simplification; enrichment.
E. simplification; enlargement.
E. simplification; enlargement.
The process of building into a job such motivating factors as recognition
and achievement is called
A. MBO.
B. job design.
C. job enrichment.
D. job enlargement.
E. horizontal loading.
C. job enrichment.
Anya's job as an accounting assistant was recently modified to include
reconciling of bank accounts and delivering checks to the bank, two
tasks previously done by the accounting manager. This increase in
responsibility would best be described as
A. job development.
B. job enlargement.
C. job satisficing.
D. job design.
E. vertical loading.
E. vertical loading.
Of the following which is a core job characteristic?
A. Meaningfulness
B. Skill specificity
C. Task significance
D. Teamwork
E. Task variety
C. Task significance
According to the job characteristics model, the core job characteristics
of skill variety, task identity, and task significance combine to affect
A. knowledge of results.
B. meaningfulness of work.
C. autonomy of work.
D. responsibility for results.
E. feedback from others.
B. meaningfulness of work.
The extent to which a job allows an employee to make decisions about
scheduling different tasks and deciding how to perform them is called
A. horizontal loading.
B. skill variety.
C. task identity.
D. task significance.
E. autonomy.
E. autonomy.
Fatima runs a gift basket business. She recently made some changes so
that one employee answers phones and does paperwork, while another
assembles baskets, and a third packages and ships. Previously, each
employee was responsible for the order from the phone call through the
shipment. Fatima's job redesign has
A. increased task identity.
B. decreased task identity.
C. increased task significance.
D. decreased task significance.
E. decreased autonomy.
B. decreased task identity.
Even as an entry-level engineer at NASA, Caleb makes booster rocket
calculations, the accuracy of which protects the lives and safety of
astronauts. Caleb's job has a high level of
A. autonomy.
B. task identity.
C. skill variety.
D. task significance.
E. context satisfactions.
D. task significance.
Which of the following is a contingency factor in the job characteristics
model?
A. Autonomy
B. Knowledge of actual results
C. High work satisfaction
D. Knowledgeable and skilled employees
E. Feedback
D. Knowledgeable and skilled employees
The motivating potential score is calculated as part of using
A. reinforcement theory.
B. McClelland's acquired needs theory.
C. the job characteristics model.
D. goal-setting theory.
E. equity theory.
C. the job characteristics model.
The theory that attempts to explain behavior change by suggesting that
behavior with positive consequences tends to be repeated while
behavior with negative consequences tends not to be repeated, is called
A. reinforcement theory.
B. equity theory.
C. expectancy theory.
D. acquired needs theory.
E. two-factor theory.
A. reinforcement theory.
The use of desirable consequences to encourage desirable behavior is
called
A. constructive feedback.
B. extinction.
C. intrinsic motivation.
D. positive reinforcement.
E. valence.
D. positive reinforcement.
The removal of unpleasant consequences following a desired behavior is
called
A. positive reinforcement.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
B. negative reinforcement.
Carlos tells one of his staff that he is taking her off of probation since
she has corrected her tardiness problem. Carlos is using
A. instrumentality.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. punishment.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. positive reinforcement.
B. negative reinforcement.
Your boss requires you to give up your company car since you have
missed your sales goals for three consecutive quarters. She is using
A. positive reinforcement.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
E. punishment.
The withholding or withdrawal of positive rewards for a particular
behavior, so that the behavior is less likely to occur in the future, is
called
A. extinction.
B. intrinsic motivation.
C. punishment.
D. instrumentality.
E. negative reinforcement.
A. extinction.
It has been seven quarters since any employee has received a bonus at R
& G Mills, so now the possibility of getting one does not seems to be
motivating the workers any longer. In this case, management has
inadvertently applied
A. expectancy.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
C. extinction.
In using reinforcement, a manager should
A. avoid using punishment.
B. reward both desired and undesired behavior.
C. give all subordinates the same rewards to insure fairness.
D. save rewards for weekly or monthly celebrations.
E. clearly communicate the desired behavior
E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.
When using punishment, a manager should
A. ignore undesirable behaviors.
B. save reprimands until the end of the workday, or preferably before a
weekend.
C. do it in conjunction with positive reinforcement.
D. make sure that other employees witness the punishment.
E. punish even minor infractions, so as to appear consistent.
C. do it in conjunction with positive reinforcement.
Which of the following is not an advisable criterion for an effective
incentive plan?
A. The rewards are believable.
B. The rewards are linked to performance.
C. The rewards satisfy individual needs.
D. The rewards require special performance, and are thus rarely
obtained.
E. The rewards are agreed on by the manager and employees.
D. The rewards require special performance, and are thus rarely obtained.
A sales commission is an example of a ______ compensation plan.
A. pay for knowledge
B. profit sharing
C. pay for performance
D. gainsharing
E. Scanlon
C. pay for performance
Valerie has a summer job hand-dying shirts that will be sold on the
boardwalk. She is paid $3.50 per shirt. This is an example of a ______
compensation plan.
A. pay for performance
B. pay for knowledge
C. bonus
D. profit sharing
E. gainsharing
A. pay for performance
Clarke's employer passes out checks at the end of each quarter,
representing an equitable portion of 5% of the company's pretax profits
for the previous period. This is known as
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. a bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
D. profit sharing.
A Scanlon plan is a type of ______ compensation plan.
A. pay for knowledge
B. gainsharing
C. benchmarking
D. pay for performance
E. profit sharing
B. gainsharing
Tracy's department at Cranston College was nearly $8,000 under
budget last year due to a variety of cost-cutting measures. This year,
50% of the savings were returned to the department to spend as
desired, as a form of
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
E. gainsharing.
Danielle teaches 4th grade at a local elementary school. She significantly
increased her salary by earning a Master's degree in education. This is
an example of
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. a bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
B. pay for knowledge.
Which of the following is NOT a practice used to create a flexible
workplace?
A. Job sharing
B. Telecommuting
C. Gainsharing
D. Part-time work
E. Compressed workweeks
C. Gainsharing
Chapter 12
Motivating Employees: Achieving Superior Performance in the
Workplace
Multiple Choice Questions
65. ______ is defined as the psychological processes that arouse and direct goal-
directed behavior.
A. Stimulus
B. Productivity
C. Enticement
D. Motivation
E. Incented action
66. A simple model of motivation does NOT include which of the following?
A. Unfulfilled need
B. Behaviors
C. Reactions
D. Motivation
E. Rewards
67. Jason's team lead has just told the group that if they finish the current project
before then, they can have Friday off without taking vacation. The team gets right
to work, being motivated by a(n)
A. intrinsic reward.
B. physiological need.
C. high need for power.
D. extrinsic reward.
E. hygiene factor.
68. Maleah's management professor just told her class that the final exam is
optional for students like her that currently have an A. She decides to take the
exam anyway, since she likes the subject and wants to master the material. Here,
Maleah is motivated to take the exam by a(n)
A. intrinsic reward.
B. physiological need.
C. high need for power.
D. extrinsic reward.
E. hygiene factor.
69. Which of the following is a need-based perspective on motivation?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
C. Job characteristics model
D. Goal-setting theory
E. Equity theory
70. Maslow's levels of needs, in order from lowest (most basic) to highest level,
are
A. self-actualization, esteem, love, safety, and physiological.
B. safety, love, esteem, self-actualization, and physiological.
C. physiological, safety, self-actualization, esteem, and love.
D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization.
E. safety, physiological, esteem, love, and self-actualization.
71. An accounting firm provides employees with educational reimbursements if
they complete job-related coursework with a B or better, which helps them meet
which of Maslow's levels of needs?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Love
D. Safety
E. Physiological
72. The need for status, reputation, and recognition are part of
A. self-actualization.
B. esteem.
C. love.
D. safety.
E. physiological.
73. After a series of bus accidents, one of which resulted in a critical injury to a
driver, Apex Transportation drivers received additional training and buses were
retrofitted with new braking systems. This helps to satisfy which of Maslow's
needs?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Love
D. Safety
E. Physiological
74. For managers, the importance of Maslow's contribution is that he showed
that workers
A. are only interested in compensation that helps them fulfill physiological needs.
B. are as complex as their organization.
C. have needs that cannot be understood by their employer.
D. expect an employer to fulfill every level of their hierarchy of needs.
E. have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.
75. ______ assumes that three basic needs influence behavior and that they may be
activated concurrently.
A. Maslow's theory
B. Expectancy theory
C. Alderfer's ERG theory
D. Hertzberg's theory
E. Equity theory
76. Which of the following is a need in Alderfer's ERG theory?
A. Esteem
B. Existence
C. Realization
D. Ruling
E. Generation
77. According to the acquired needs theory, the desire to influence others is part
of the need for
A. affiliation.
B. power.
C. self-actualization.
D. relatedness.
E. achievement.
78. Mina was very aggressive at her job, and her coworkers complained that she
often manipulated them and her boss in order to get ahead. She attempted to
direct everything and everyone, regardless of the consequences to others or even
the organization itself. Mina is expressing what type of need for power?
A. Personal
B. Destructive
C. Legitimate
D. Organizational
E. Compensatory
79. Even when he started his first job, Cyrus was not content to be just one of the
employees. His boss noticed that he often directed his coworkers about ways to
improve their work, even when it wasn't his job. Cyrus probably has a
A. high need for achievement.
B. high need for affiliation.
C. high need for power.
D. low need for achievement.
E. high need for leadership.
80. Theresa has really blossomed in her sales job. She loves building mutually
beneficial relationships and is extremely well liked by her clients. Theresa likely
has a
A. low need for affiliation.
B. low need for power.
C. low need for achievement.
D. high need for affiliation.
E. high need for achievement.
81. McClelland's need for achievement corresponds most closely to
A. Herzberg's hygiene factors.
B. Maslow's esteem needs.
C. extrinsic rewards.
D. Alderfer's relatedness needs.
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.
82. According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a motivating
factor?
A. Pay
B. The work itself
C. Working conditions
D. Company policy
E. Supervisors
83. According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a hygiene
factor?
A. Responsibility
B. Advancement
C. The work itself
D. Supervisors
E. Recognition
84. According to Herzberg's two factor theory, in the zone between the
motivating factors and the hygiene factors, employees are
A. dissatisfied.
B. satisfied.
C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
D. unmotivated.
E. stagnant.
85. According to Herzberg's two factor theory, only ______ factors can make
employees satisfied with their jobs.
A. motivating
B. self-actualization
C. growth
D. hygiene
E. achievement
86. Which of the following is a higher-level need based on the four content theory
perspectives?
A. Esteem
B. Existence
C. Hygiene
D. Physiological
E. Safety
87. Pieter is manager for a large freight company. He has noticed low morale
lately, perhaps because of the cramped quarters and lack of raises this year
among workers on his shift. According to Herzberg, Pieter should first
concentrate on
A. needs for achievement.
B. hygiene factors.
C. esteem needs.
D. motivating factors.
E. growth needs.
88. According to Herzberg's theory, the first thing managers of employees who
dislike their jobs should do is to
A. provide opportunities for achievement.
B. publicly recognize good performance.
C. make sure pay levels, policies and working conditions are reasonable.
D. create opportunities for personal growth and advancement.
E. increase employees' responsibility and opportunity for leadership.
89. Theories that try to understand the thought processes by which people
decide how to act are called
A. needs-based perspectives.
B. reinforcement perspectives.
C. job design perspectives.
D. cognitive perspectives.
E. process perspectives.
90. Which of the following is a process perspective on motivation?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Job characteristics model
C. Two-factor theory
D. ERG theory
E. Acquired needs theory
91. In equity theory, employees are motivated to
A. work harder all the time.
B. resolve feelings of injustice.
C. believe they aren't working hard enough.
D. blame others when they miss work or fail at tasks.
E. work just hard enough to get what they want.
92. When workers perceive they are being treated fairly on the job, they are most
likely to
A. pass up promotional opportunities.
B. show improved safety practices.
C. be a whistleblower.
D. cooperate in group settings.
E. seek additional education.
93. Jake went to his boss Nadia to complain that he got the same bonus this
quarter as everyone else, despite the longer hours he's been putting in and his
higher level of experience and efficiency. If Nadia can't change the bonuses, she
should
A. tell Jake "That's just the way bonuses are given."
B. suggest that Jake take this up with her boss.
C. expect that Jake will reduce his hours.
D. start documenting Jake's complaints for future disciplinary action.
E. expect that Jake's performance will improve.
94. The theory under which people make the choice that promises them the
greatest reward if they think they can get it is
A. goal-setting theory.
B. expectancy theory.
C. reinforcement theory.
D. equity theory.
E. two-factor theory.
95. ______ is the expectation that successful performance of the task will lead to
the desired outcome.
A. Expectancy
B. Reinforcement
C. Valence
D. Instrumentality
E. Effort
96. At his review last year, Mike was promised a big raise if he met his production
goals. Raises came out today, and despite that Mike has met all of his goals, he
only received a cost-of-living raise. In the future, Mike's ______ will probably be
_________.
A. instrumentality; low
B. valence; low
C. expectancy; low
D. instrumentality; high
E. expectancy; high
97. After struggling with the training, Caroline is unsure whether she can
complete tax returns with minimal errors in the time allotted at her new job. In
this case, Caroline is low on the ______ element of expectancy theory.
A. valence
B. expectancy
C. outcomes
D. instrumentality
E. performance
98. Shen was interviewing for jobs, and the HR manager at one firm told him that
the company pays the total health insurance costs for a family of four. As a single
man, this benefit did not seem especially important to him right now. Here, Shen
is low on the ______ element of the expectancy theory.
A. valence
B. instrumentality
C. outcomes
D. expectancy
E. significance
99. A goal that states "Attend work 80% of the time this quarter" has which of the
following problems?
A. It is not specific enough.
B. It is not measurable.
C. It does not have a target date.
D. It is not challenging enough.
E. It is not achievable.
100. When using goal-setting theory to motivate employees, managers should
A. set targets that are just out of employees' reach.
B. help workers understand and accept the goals.
C. set general goals that are emotionally appealing.
D. hold employees responsible for getting their own feedback.
E. set goals that are easily achievable.
101. According to goal-setting theory, which of the following is necessary for
goals to create high motivation and performance?
A. Setting general goals that will work for multiple employees
B. Predetermining acceptable rewards for meeting goals
C. Setting goals that fulfill self-actualization needs
D. Reinforcing of desired behaviors
E. Setting goals linked to an action plan
102. Which of the following is the best statement of a goal?
A. Give your very best effort.
B. Get through some of those reports by 9/1.
C. Reduce production errors by ten percent by the end of the quarter.
D. Increase customer retention.
E. Be late to work less often.
103. ______ applies motivational theories to jobs to increase satisfaction and
performance.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job design
C. Job simplification
D. Job development
E. Job enrichment
104. The process of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase variety
and motivation is called
A. job enlargement.
B. job design.
C. job development.
D. job rotation.
E. job enrichment.
105. Research shows that simplified jobs lead to
A. job satisfaction.
B. poor mental health.
C. a sense of accomplishment.
D. a sense of personal growth.
E. decreased worker productivity.
106. Job ______ is the opposite of job
A. rotation; enrichment.
B. rotation; enlargement.
C. loading; enrichment.
D. simplification; enrichment.
E. simplification; enlargement.
107. The process of building into a job such motivating factors as recognition and
achievement is called
A. MBO.
B. job design.
C. job enrichment.
D. job enlargement.
E. horizontal loading.
108. Anya's job as an accounting assistant was recently modified to include
reconciling of bank accounts and delivering checks to the bank, two tasks
previously done by the accounting manager. This increase in responsibility would
best be described as
A. job development.
B. job enlargement.
C. job satisficing.
D. job design.
E. vertical loading.
109. Of the following which is a core job characteristic?
A. Meaningfulness
B. Skill specificity
C. Task significance
D. Teamwork
E. Task variety
110. According to the job characteristics model, the core job characteristics of
skill variety, task identity, and task significance combine to affect
A. knowledge of results.
B. meaningfulness of work.
C. autonomy of work.
D. responsibility for results.
E. feedback from others.
111. The extent to which a job allows an employee to make decisions about
scheduling different tasks and deciding how to perform them is called
A. horizontal loading.
B. skill variety.
C. task identity.
D. task significance.
E. autonomy.
112. Fatima runs a gift basket business. She recently made some changes so that
one employee answers phones and does paperwork, while another assembles
baskets, and a third packages and ships. Previously, each employee was
responsible for the order from the phone call through the shipment. Fatima's job
redesign has
A. increased task identity.
B. decreased task identity.
C. increased task significance.
D. decreased task significance.
E. decreased autonomy.
113. Even as an entry-level engineer at NASA, Caleb makes booster rocket
calculations, the accuracy of which protects the lives and safety of astronauts.
Caleb's job has a high level of
A. autonomy.
B. task identity.
C. skill variety.
D. task significance.
E. context satisfactions.
114. Which of the following is a contingency factor in the job characteristics
model?
A. Autonomy
B. Knowledge of actual results
C. High work satisfaction
D. Knowledgeable and skilled employees
E. Feedback
115. The motivating potential score is calculated as part of using
A. reinforcement theory.
B. McClelland's acquired needs theory.
C. the job characteristics model.
D. goal-setting theory.
E. equity theory.
116. The theory that attempts to explain behavior change by suggesting that
behavior with positive consequences tends to be repeated while behavior with
negative consequences tends not to be repeated, is called
A. reinforcement theory.
B. equity theory.
C. expectancy theory.
D. acquired needs theory.
E. two-factor theory.
117. The use of desirable consequences to encourage desirable behavior is called
A. constructive feedback.
B. extinction.
C. intrinsic motivation.
D. positive reinforcement.
E. valence.
118. The removal of unpleasant consequences following a desired behavior is
called
A. positive reinforcement.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
119. Carlos tells one of his staff that he is taking her off of probation since she has
corrected her tardiness problem. Carlos is using
A. instrumentality.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. punishment.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. positive reinforcement.
120. Your boss requires you to give up your company car since you have missed
your sales goals for three consecutive quarters. She is using
A. positive reinforcement.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
121. The withholding or withdrawal of positive rewards for a particular behavior,
so that the behavior is less likely to occur in the future, is called
A. extinction.
B. intrinsic motivation.
C. punishment.
D. instrumentality.
E. negative reinforcement.
122. It has been seven quarters since any employee has received a bonus at R & G
Mills, so now the possibility of getting one does not seems to be motivating the
workers any longer. In this case, management has inadvertently applied
A. expectancy.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
123. In using reinforcement, a manager should
A. avoid using punishment.
B. reward both desired and undesired behavior.
C. give all subordinates the same rewards to insure fairness.
D. save rewards for weekly or monthly celebrations.
E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.
124. When using punishment, a manager should
A. ignore undesirable behaviors.
B. save reprimands until the end of the workday, or preferably before a weekend.
C. do it in conjunction with positive reinforcement.
D. make sure that other employees witness the punishment.
E. punish even minor infractions, so as to appear consistent.
125. Which of the following is not an advisable criterion for an effective incentive
plan?
A. The rewards are believable.
B. The rewards are linked to performance.
C. The rewards satisfy individual needs.
D. The rewards require special performance, and are thus rarely obtained.
E. The rewards are agreed on by the manager and employees.
126. A sales commission is an example of a ______ compensation plan.
A. pay for knowledge
B. profit sharing
C. pay for performance
D. gainsharing
E. Scanlon
127. Valerie has a summer job hand-dying shirts that will be sold on the
boardwalk. She is paid $3.50 per shirt. This is an example of a ______
compensation plan.
A. pay for performance
B. pay for knowledge
C. bonus
D. profit sharing
E. gainsharing
128. Clarke's employer passes out checks at the end of each quarter, representing
an equitable portion of 5% of the company's pretax profits for the previous
period. This is known as
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. a bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
129. A Scanlon plan is a type of ______ compensation plan.
A. pay for knowledge
B. gainsharing
C. benchmarking
D. pay for performance
E. profit sharing
130. Tracy's department at Cranston College was nearly $8,000 under budget last
year due to a variety of cost-cutting measures. This year, 50% of the savings were
returned to the department to spend as desired, as a form of
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
131. Danielle teaches 4th grade at a local elementary school. She significantly
increased her salary by earning a Master's degree in education. This is an
example of
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. a bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
132. Which of the following is NOT a practice used to create a flexible
workplace?
A. Job sharing
B. Telecommuting
C. Gainsharing
D. Part-time work
E. Compressed workweeks
Chapter 12 Motivating Employees: Achieving Superior Performance
in the Workplace Answer Key
Multiple Choice Questions
65. (p. 372) ______ is defined as the psychological processes that arouse and direct
goal-directed behavior.
A. Stimulus
B. Productivity
C. Enticement
D. Motivation
E. Incented action
Motivation may be defined as the psychological processes that arouse and direct
goal-directed behavior.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-01 What's the motivation for studying motivation?
Topic: Motivating for Performance
66. (p. 372-373) A simple model of motivation does NOT include which of the
following?
A. Unfulfilled need
B. Behaviors
C. Reactions
D. Motivation
E. Rewards
In a simple model of motivation, people have certain (1) needs that (2) motivate
them to perform specific (3) behaviors for which they receive (4) rewards that
(5) feed back and satisfy the original need (see Figure 12.1).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-01 What's the motivation for studying motivation?
Topic: Motivating for Performance
67. (p. 373) Jason's team lead has just told the group that if they finish the current
project before then, they can have Friday off without taking vacation. The team
gets right to work, being motivated by a(n)
A. intrinsic reward.
B. physiological need.
C. high need for power.
D. extrinsic reward.
E. hygiene factor.
An extrinsic reward is the payoff, such as money, a person receives from others
for performing a particular task. An extrinsic reward is an external reward; the
payoff comes from pleasing others. Here, the team lead offers a day off as an
extrinsic reward.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-01 What's the motivation for studying motivation?
Topic: Motivating for Performance
68. (p. 373) Maleah's management professor just told her class that the final exam is
optional for students like her that currently have an A. She decides to take the
exam anyway, since she likes the subject and wants to master the material. Here,
Maleah is motivated to take the exam by a(n)
A. intrinsic reward.
B. physiological need.
C. high need for power.
D. extrinsic reward.
E. hygiene factor.
An intrinsic reward is the satisfaction, such as a feeling of accomplishment, a
person receives from performing the particular task itself. An intrinsic reward is
an internal reward; the payoff comes from pleasing yourself.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-01 What's the motivation for studying motivation?
Topic: Motivating for Performance
69. (p. 374) Which of the following is a need-based perspective on motivation?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
C. Job characteristics model
D. Goal-setting theory
E. Equity theory
In addition to McGregor's Theory X/Theory Y, content perspectives include four
theories: Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Alderfer's ERG theory, McClelland's
acquired needs theory, and Herzberg's two-factor theory.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
70. (p. 374) Maslow's levels of needs, in order from lowest (most basic) to highest
level, are
A. self-actualization, esteem, love, safety, and physiological.
B. safety, love, esteem, self-actualization, and physiological.
C. physiological, safety, self-actualization, esteem, and love.
D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization.
E. safety, physiological, esteem, love, and self-actualization.
Abraham Maslow, one of the first researchers to study motivation, put forth a
hierarchy of needs theory, which proposes that people are motivated by five
levels of needs: (1) physiological, (2) safety, (3) love, (4) esteem, and (5) self-
actualization.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
71. (p. 375) An accounting firm provides employees with educational
reimbursements if they complete job-related coursework with a B or better,
which helps them meet which of Maslow's levels of needs?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Love
D. Safety
E. Physiological
The highest level of need, self-actualization is self-fulfillment—the need to
develop one's fullest potential, to become the best one is capable of being.
Education helps fully develop one's self.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
72. (p. 375) The need for status, reputation, and recognition are part of
A. self-actualization.
B. esteem.
C. love.
D. safety.
E. physiological.
After they meet their social needs, people focus on such matters as self-respect,
status, reputation, recognition, and self-confidence, which are part of esteem
needs.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
73. (p. 375) After a series of bus accidents, one of which resulted in a critical injury
to a driver, Apex Transportation drivers received additional training and buses
were retrofitted with new braking systems. This helps to satisfy which of
Maslow's needs?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Love
D. Safety
E. Physiological
Safety needs are concerned with both physical safety and emotional security, so
that a person is concerned with avoiding threats like dangerous working
conditions.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
74. (p. 376) For managers, the importance of Maslow's contribution is that he
showed that workers
A. are only interested in compensation that helps them fulfill physiological needs.
B. are as complex as their organization.
C. have needs that cannot be understood by their employer.
D. expect an employer to fulfill every level of their hierarchy of needs.
E. have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.
For managers, the importance of Maslow's contribution is that he showed that
workers have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
75. (p. 376) ______ assumes that three basic needs influence behavior and that they
may be activated concurrently.
A. Maslow's theory
B. Expectancy theory
C. Alderfer's ERG theory
D. Hertzberg's theory
E. Equity theory
Unlike Maslow's theory, ERG theory suggests that behavior is motivated by three
needs, not five, and that more than one need may be activated at a time rather
than activated in a stair-step hierarchy.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
76. (p. 376) Which of the following is a need in Alderfer's ERG theory?
A. Esteem
B. Existence
C. Realization
D. Ruling
E. Generation
ERG theory assumes that three basic needs influence behavior—existence,
relatedness, and growth, represented by the letters E, R, and G.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
77. (p. 377) According to the acquired needs theory, the desire to influence others is
part of the need for
A. affiliation.
B. power.
C. self-actualization.
D. relatedness.
E. achievement.
In acquired needs theory, the need for power is the desire to be responsible for
other people, to influence their behavior or to control them.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
78. (p. 377) Mina was very aggressive at her job, and her coworkers complained that
she often manipulated them and her boss in order to get ahead. She attempted to
direct everything and everyone, regardless of the consequences to others or even
the organization itself. Mina is expressing what type of need for power?
A. Personal
B. Destructive
C. Legitimate
D. Organizational
E. Compensatory
McClelland identifies two forms of the need for power. The negative kind is the
need for personal power, as expressed in the desire to dominate others, and
involves manipulating people for one's own gratification.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
79. (p. 378) Even when he started his first job, Cyrus was not content to be just one
of the employees. His boss noticed that he often directed his coworkers about
ways to improve their work, even when it wasn't his job. Cyrus probably has a
A. high need for achievement.
B. high need for affiliation.
C. high need for power.
D. low need for achievement.
E. high need for leadership.
The need for power is the desire to be responsible for other people, to influence
their behavior or to control them. If you, like most effective managers, have a
high need for power, that means you enjoy being in control of people and events
and being recognized for this responsibility.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
80. (p. 378) Theresa has really blossomed in her sales job. She loves building
mutually beneficial relationships and is extremely well liked by her clients.
Theresa likely has a
A. low need for affiliation.
B. low need for power.
C. low need for achievement.
D. high need for affiliation.
E. high need for achievement.
If you tend to seek social approval and satisfying personal relationships, you may
have a high need for affiliation. In that case, you may not be the most efficient
manager because at times you will have to make decisions that will make people
resent you. Instead, you will tend to prefer work, such as sales, that provides for
personal relationships and social approval.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
81. (p. 377) McClelland's need for achievement corresponds most closely to
A. Herzberg's hygiene factors.
B. Maslow's esteem needs.
C. extrinsic rewards.
D. Alderfer's relatedness needs.
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.
McClelland's need for achievement refers to the desire to excel, to do something
better or more efficiently, to solve problems, to achieve excellence in challenging
tasks. Maslow's self-actualization needs refer to the need for self-fulfillment—the
need to develop one's fullest potential, to become the best one is capable of
being.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
82. (p. 379) According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a
motivating factor?
A. Pay
B. The work itself
C. Working conditions
D. Company policy
E. Supervisors
According to Figure 12.4, the work itself is a motivation factor in Herzberg's two-
factor theory.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
83. (p. 379) According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a
hygiene factor?
A. Responsibility
B. Advancement
C. The work itself
D. Supervisors
E. Recognition
According to Figure 12.4, supervisors are a hygiene factor in Herzberg's two-
factor theory.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
84. (p. 379) According to Herzberg's two factor theory, in the zone between the
motivating factors and the hygiene factors, employees are
A. dissatisfied.
B. satisfied.
C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
D. unmotivated.
E. stagnant.
In Herzberg's theory, the hygiene factors are the lower-level needs, the
motivating factors are the higher-level needs. The two areas are separated by a
zone in which employees are neither satisfied nor dissatisfied (see Figure 12.4).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
85. (p. 380) According to Herzberg's two factor theory, only ______ factors can make
employees satisfied with their jobs.
A. motivating
B. self-actualization
C. growth
D. hygiene
E. achievement
According to Herzberg, the higher-level needs, motivating factors, or simply
motivators, are factors associated with job satisfaction—such as achievement,
recognition, responsibility, and advancement—all of which affect the job content
or the rewards of work performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
86. (p. 380) Which of the following is a higher-level need based on the four content
theory perspectives?
A. Esteem
B. Existence
C. Hygiene
D. Physiological
E. Safety
According to Figure 12.5, esteem is the only higher-level need.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
87. (p. 380) Pieter is manager for a large freight company. He has noticed low
morale lately, perhaps because of the cramped quarters and lack of raises this
year among workers on his shift. According to Herzberg, Pieter should first
concentrate on
A. needs for achievement.
B. hygiene factors.
C. esteem needs.
D. motivating factors.
E. growth needs.
According to Herzberg, the lower-level needs, hygiene factors, are factors
associated with job dissatisfaction, such as salary, working conditions,
interpersonal relationships, and company policy. Managers of dissatisfied
employees must concentrate on these factors first.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
88. (p. 380) According to Herzberg's theory, the first thing managers of employees
who dislike their jobs should do is to
A. provide opportunities for achievement.
B. publicly recognize good performance.
C. make sure pay levels, policies and working conditions are reasonable.
D. create opportunities for personal growth and advancement.
E. increase employees' responsibility and opportunity for leadership.
If you were managing employees working in jobs they didn't like, the basic lesson
of Herzberg's research is that you should first eliminate dissatisfaction, making
sure that working conditions, pay levels, and company policies are reasonable.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-02 What kinds of needs motivate employees?
Topic: Content Perspectives on Employee Motivation
89. (p. 381) Theories that try to understand the thought processes by which people
decide how to act are called
A. needs-based perspectives.
B. reinforcement perspectives.
C. job design perspectives.
D. cognitive perspectives.
E. process perspectives.
Process perspectives are concerned with the thought processes by which people
decide how to act—how employees choose behavior to meet their needs.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
90. (p. 381) Which of the following is a process perspective on motivation?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Job characteristics model
C. Two-factor theory
D. ERG theory
E. Acquired needs theory
Three process perspectives on motivation include equity theory, expectancy
theory, and goal-setting theory.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
91. (p. 381) In equity theory, employees are motivated to
A. work harder all the time.
B. resolve feelings of injustice.
C. believe they aren't working hard enough.
D. blame others when they miss work or fail at tasks.
E. work just hard enough to get what they want.
Equity theory is based on the idea that employees are motivated to see fairness in
the rewards they expect for task performance. Employees are motivated to
resolve feelings of injustice.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
92. (p. 382) When workers perceive they are being treated fairly on the job, they are
most likely to
A. pass up promotional opportunities.
B. show improved safety practices.
C. be a whistleblower.
D. cooperate in group settings.
E. seek additional education.
Employees who think they are treated fairly are more likely to support
organizational change, more apt to cooperate in group settings, and less apt to
turn to arbitration and the courts to remedy real or imagined wrongs.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
93. (p. 382) Jake went to his boss Nadia to complain that he got the same bonus this
quarter as everyone else, despite the longer hours he's been putting in and his
higher level of experience and efficiency. If Nadia can't change the bonuses, she
should
A. tell Jake "That's just the way bonuses are given."
B. suggest that Jake take this up with her boss.
C. expect that Jake will reduce his hours.
D. start documenting Jake's complaints for future disciplinary action.
E. expect that Jake's performance will improve.
Employees who feel they are being underrewarded will respond to the perceived
inequity in one or more negative ways, as by reducing their inputs, trying to
change the outputs or rewards they receive, distorting the inequity, changing the
object of comparison, or leaving the situation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
94. (p. 383) The theory under which people make the choice that promises them the
greatest reward if they think they can get it is
A. goal-setting theory.
B. expectancy theory.
C. reinforcement theory.
D. equity theory.
E. two-factor theory.
Expectancy theory suggests people are motivated by two things: how much they
want something and how likely they think they are to get it. In other words,
assuming they have choices, people will make the choice that promises them the
greatest reward if they think they can get it.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
95. (p. 384) ______ is the expectation that successful performance of the task will lead
to the desired outcome.
A. Expectancy
B. Reinforcement
C. Valence
D. Instrumentality
E. Effort
Instrumentality is the expectation that successful performance of the task will
lead to the outcome desired.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
96. (p. 384) At his review last year, Mike was promised a big raise if he met his
production goals. Raises came out today, and despite that Mike has met all of his
goals, he only received a cost-of-living raise. In the future, Mike's ______ will
probably be _________.
A. instrumentality; low
B. valence; low
C. expectancy; low
D. instrumentality; high
E. expectancy; high
Instrumentality is the expectation that successful performance of the task will
lead to the outcome desired. Based on recent experience, Mike will likely have a
low level of instrumentality.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
97. (p. 384) After struggling with the training, Caroline is unsure whether she can
complete tax returns with minimal errors in the time allotted at her new job. In
this case, Caroline is low on the ______ element of expectancy theory.
A. valence
B. expectancy
C. outcomes
D. instrumentality
E. performance
Expectancy is the belief that a particular level of effort will lead to a particular
level of performance. You are asking yourself, "Will I be able to perform at the
desired level on a task?"
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
98. (p. 384) Shen was interviewing for jobs, and the HR manager at one firm told
him that the company pays the total health insurance costs for a family of four. As
a single man, this benefit did not seem especially important to him right now.
Here, Shen is low on the ______ element of the expectancy theory.
A. valence
B. instrumentality
C. outcomes
D. expectancy
E. significance
Valence is value, the importance a worker assigns to the possible outcome or
reward. Here, Shen does not particularly value this reward for taking the job.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
99. (p. 386) A goal that states "Attend work 80% of the time this quarter" has which
of the following problems?
A. It is not specific enough.
B. It is not measurable.
C. It does not have a target date.
D. It is not challenging enough.
E. It is not achievable.
Goal theory suggests you not set goals that a lot of people can reach, since this is
not very motivational. Managers should set goals that are challenging.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
100. (p. 386) When using goal-setting theory to motivate employees, managers
should
A. set targets that are just out of employees' reach.
B. help workers understand and accept the goals.
C. set general goals that are emotionally appealing.
D. hold employees responsible for getting their own feedback.
E. set goals that are easily achievable.
It is natural for people to set and strive for goals; however, the goal-setting
process is useful only if people understand and accept the goals.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
101. (p. 386) According to goal-setting theory, which of the following is necessary
for goals to create high motivation and performance?
A. Setting general goals that will work for multiple employees
B. Predetermining acceptable rewards for meeting goals
C. Setting goals that fulfill self-actualization needs
D. Reinforcing of desired behaviors
E. Setting goals linked to an action plan
To result in high motivation and performance, according to goal-setting theory,
goals must be specific, challenging, achievable, and linked to action plans.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
102. (p. 386) Which of the following is the best statement of a goal?
A. Give your very best effort.
B. Get through some of those reports by 9/1.
C. Reduce production errors by ten percent by the end of the quarter.
D. Increase customer retention.
E. Be late to work less often.
Goals should be SMART—specific, measurable, attainable, results-oriented, and
have target dates. Choice "C" is the only choice that has these characteristics.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-03 Is a good reward good enough? How do other factors affect motivation?
Topic: Process Perspectives on Employee Motivation
103. (p. 387) ______ applies motivational theories to jobs to increase satisfaction and
performance.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job design
C. Job simplification
D. Job development
E. Job enrichment
Job design is (1) the division of an organization's work among its employees and
(2) the application of motivational theories to jobs to increase satisfaction and
performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
104. (p. 387) The process of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase
variety and motivation is called
A. job enlargement.
B. job design.
C. job development.
D. job rotation.
E. job enrichment.
Job enlargement consists of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase
variety and motivation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
105. (p. 387) Research shows that simplified jobs lead to
A. job satisfaction.
B. poor mental health.
C. a sense of accomplishment.
D. a sense of personal growth.
E. decreased worker productivity.
Research shows that simplified, repetitive jobs lead to job dissatisfaction, poor
mental health, and a low sense of accomplishment and personal growth.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
106. (p. 387) Job ______ is the opposite of job
A. rotation; enrichment.
B. rotation; enlargement.
C. loading; enrichment.
D. simplification; enrichment.
E. simplification; enlargement.
Job simplification is the process of reducing the number of tasks a worker
performs, while job enlargement consists of increasing the number of tasks in a
job to increase variety and motivation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
107. (p. 388) The process of building into a job such motivating factors as
recognition and achievement is called
A. MBO.
B. job design.
C. job enrichment.
D. job enlargement.
E. horizontal loading.
Job enrichment consists of building into a job such motivating factors as
responsibility, achievement, recognition, stimulating work, and advancement.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
108. (p. 388) Anya's job as an accounting assistant was recently modified to include
reconciling of bank accounts and delivering checks to the bank, two tasks
previously done by the accounting manager. This increase in responsibility would
best be described as
A. job development.
B. job enlargement.
C. job satisficing.
D. job design.
E. vertical loading.
Instead of the job-enlargement technique of simply giving employees additional
tasks of similar difficulty (known as horizontal loading), with job enrichment
employees are given more responsibility (known as vertical loading). Thus,
employees take on chores that would normally be performed by their
supervisors.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
109. (p. 388) Of the following which is a core job characteristic?
A. Meaningfulness
B. Skill specificity
C. Task significance
D. Teamwork
E. Task variety
The five core job characteristics are skill variety, task identity, task significance,
autonomy, and feedback (see Figure 12.8).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
110. (p. 388) According to the job characteristics model, the core job characteristics
of skill variety, task identity, and task significance combine to affect
A. knowledge of results.
B. meaningfulness of work.
C. autonomy of work.
D. responsibility for results.
E. feedback from others.
The core job characteristics of skill variety, task identity, and task significance
combine to affect the experienced meaningfulness of work (see Figure 12.8).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
111. (p. 389) The extent to which a job allows an employee to make decisions about
scheduling different tasks and deciding how to perform them is called
A. horizontal loading.
B. skill variety.
C. task identity.
D. task significance.
E. autonomy.
Autonomy describes the extent to which a job allows an employee to make
choices about scheduling different tasks and deciding how to perform them.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
112. (p. 389) Fatima runs a gift basket business. She recently made some changes so
that one employee answers phones and does paperwork, while another
assembles baskets, and a third packages and ships. Previously, each employee
was responsible for the order from the phone call through the shipment. Fatima's
job redesign has
A. increased task identity.
B. decreased task identity.
C. increased task significance.
D. decreased task significance.
E. decreased autonomy.
Task identity describes the extent to which a job requires a worker to perform all
the tasks needed to complete the job from beginning to end.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
113. (p. 389) Even as an entry-level engineer at NASA, Caleb makes booster rocket
calculations, the accuracy of which protects the lives and safety of astronauts.
Caleb's job has a high level of
A. autonomy.
B. task identity.
C. skill variety.
D. task significance.
E. context satisfactions.
Task significance describes the extent to which a job affects the lives of other
people, whether inside or outside the organization.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
114. (p. 390) Which of the following is a contingency factor in the job characteristics
model?
A. Autonomy
B. Knowledge of actual results
C. High work satisfaction
D. Knowledgeable and skilled employees
E. Feedback
Contingency factors refer to the degree to which a person wants personal and
psychological development. Job design works when employees are motivated; to
be so, they must have three attributes: (1) necessary knowledge and skill, (2)
desire for personal growth, and (3) context satisfactions, or the right physical
working conditions, pay, and supervision (see Figure 12.8).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
115. (p. 390) The motivating potential score is calculated as part of using
A. reinforcement theory.
B. McClelland's acquired needs theory.
C. the job characteristics model.
D. goal-setting theory.
E. equity theory.
There are three steps to apply the job characteristics model. The first is to
diagnose the work environment to see whether a problem exists. A self-report
instrument for managers to use called the job diagnostic survey will indicate
whether an individual's so-called motivating potential score (MPS)—the amount
of internal work motivation associated with a specific job—is high or low.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-04 What's the best way to design jobs-- adapt people to work or work to people?
Topic: Job Design Perspectives on Motivation
116. (p. 391) The theory that attempts to explain behavior change by suggesting
that behavior with positive consequences tends to be repeated while behavior
with negative consequences tends not to be repeated, is called
A. reinforcement theory.
B. equity theory.
C. expectancy theory.
D. acquired needs theory.
E. two-factor theory.
Reinforcement theory attempts to explain behavior change by suggesting that
behavior with positive consequences tends to be repeated, whereas behavior
with negative consequences tends not to be repeated.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
117. (p. 391) The use of desirable consequences to encourage desirable behavior is
called
A. constructive feedback.
B. extinction.
C. intrinsic motivation.
D. positive reinforcement.
E. valence.
Positive reinforcement is the use of positive consequences to encourage desirable
behavior.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
118. (p. 391) The removal of unpleasant consequences following a desired behavior
is called
A. positive reinforcement.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
Negative reinforcement is the removal of unpleasant consequences following a
desired behavior.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
119. (p. 391) Carlos tells one of his staff that he is taking her off of probation since
she has corrected her tardiness problem. Carlos is using
A. instrumentality.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. punishment.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. positive reinforcement.
Negative reinforcement is the removal of unpleasant consequences following a
desired behavior.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
120. (p. 392) Your boss requires you to give up your company car since you have
missed your sales goals for three consecutive quarters. She is using
A. positive reinforcement.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
Punishment is applying negative consequences to stop or change undesirable
behavior.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
121. (p. 392) The withholding or withdrawal of positive rewards for a particular
behavior, so that the behavior is less likely to occur in the future, is called
A. extinction.
B. intrinsic motivation.
C. punishment.
D. instrumentality.
E. negative reinforcement.
Extinction is the withholding or withdrawal of positive rewards for desirable
behavior, so that the behavior is less likely to occur in the future.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
122. (p. 392) It has been seven quarters since any employee has received a bonus at
R & G Mills, so now the possibility of getting one does not seems to be motivating
the workers any longer. In this case, management has inadvertently applied
A. expectancy.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
Extinction is the withholding or withdrawal of positive rewards for desirable
behavior, so that the behavior is less likely to occur in the future.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
123. (p. 393) In using reinforcement, a manager should
A. avoid using punishment.
B. reward both desired and undesired behavior.
C. give all subordinates the same rewards to insure fairness.
D. save rewards for weekly or monthly celebrations.
E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.
Whether using positive reinforcement or punishment a manager should be clear
about what behavior is appropriate and what is undesirable.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
124. (p. 393) When using punishment, a manager should
A. ignore undesirable behaviors.
B. save reprimands until the end of the workday, or preferably before a weekend.
C. do it in conjunction with positive reinforcement.
D. make sure that other employees witness the punishment.
E. punish even minor infractions, so as to appear consistent.
As a manager, you should combine punishment and positive reinforcement. If
you're reprimanding an employee, be sure to also say what he or she is doing
right and state what rewards the employee might be eligible for.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-05 What are the types of incentives I might use to influence employee behavior?
Topic: Reinforcement Perspectives on Motivation
125. (p. 394) Which of the following is not an advisable criterion for an effective
incentive plan?
A. The rewards are believable.
B. The rewards are linked to performance.
C. The rewards satisfy individual needs.
D. The rewards require special performance, and are thus rarely obtained.
E. The rewards are agreed on by the manager and employees.
For incentive plans to work, certain criteria are advisable, as follows. (1) Rewards
must be linked to performance and be measurable. (2) The rewards must satisfy
individual needs. (3) The rewards must be agreed on by manager and employees.
(4) The rewards must be believable, and achievable by employees.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-06 How can I use compensation and other rewards to motivate people?
Topic: Using Compensation & Other Rewards to Motivate
126. (p. 395) A sales commission is an example of a ______ compensation plan.
A. pay for knowledge
B. profit sharing
C. pay for performance
D. gainsharing
E. Scanlon
Pay for performance bases pay on one's results. An example is the sales
commission, in which sales representatives are paid a percentage of the earnings
the company made from their sales, so that the more they sell, the more they are
paid.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-06 How can I use compensation and other rewards to motivate people?
Topic: Using Compensation & Other Rewards to Motivate
127. (p. 395) Valerie has a summer job hand-dying shirts that will be sold on the
boardwalk. She is paid $3.50 per shirt. This is an example of a ______
compensation plan.
A. pay for performance
B. pay for knowledge
C. bonus
D. profit sharing
E. gainsharing
Pay for performance bases pay on one's results. An example is payment
according to a piece rate, in which employees are paid according to how much
output they produce, as is often used with farm workers picking fruit and
vegetables.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-06 How can I use compensation and other rewards to motivate people?
Topic: Using Compensation & Other Rewards to Motivate
128. (p. 395) Clarke's employer passes out checks at the end of each quarter,
representing an equitable portion of 5% of the company's pretax profits for the
previous period. This is known as
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. a bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
Profit sharing is the distribution to employees of a percentage of the company's
profits.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-06 How can I use compensation and other rewards to motivate people?
Topic: Using Compensation & Other Rewards to Motivate
129. (p. 396) A Scanlon plan is a type of ______ compensation plan.
A. pay for knowledge
B. gainsharing
C. benchmarking
D. pay for performance
E. profit sharing
Gainsharing is the distribution of savings or "gains" to groups of employees who
reduced costs and increased measurable productivity. A Scanlon plan is a type of
gainsharing plan first used in the steel industry.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-06 How can I use compensation and other rewards to motivate people?
Topic: Using Compensation & Other Rewards to Motivate
130. (p. 396) Tracy's department at Cranston College was nearly $8,000 under
budget last year due to a variety of cost-cutting measures. This year, 50% of the
savings were returned to the department to spend as desired, as a form of
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
Gainsharing is the distribution of savings or "gains" to groups of employees who
reduced costs and increased measurable productivity.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-06 How can I use compensation and other rewards to motivate people?
Topic: Using Compensation & Other Rewards to Motivate
131. (p. 396) Danielle teaches 4th grade at a local elementary school. She
significantly increased her salary by earning a Master's degree in education. This
is an example of
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. a bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
Also known as skill-based pay, pay for knowledge ties employee pay to the
number of job-relevant skills or academic degrees they earn. The teaching
profession is an example; elementary and secondary teachers are encouraged to
increase their salaries by earning further college credit.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 12-06 How can I use compensation and other rewards to motivate people?
Topic: Using Compensation & Other Rewards to Motivate
132. (p. 396) Which of the following is NOT a practice used to create a flexible
workplace?
A. Job sharing
B. Telecommuting
C. Gainsharing
D. Part-time work
E. Compressed workweeks
There is a whole class of nonmonetary incentives to attract, retain, and motivate
employees. The foremost example is the flexible workplace—including part-time
work, flextime, compressed workweek, job sharing, and telecommuting.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 12-06 How can I use compensation and other rewards to motivate people?
Topic: Using Compensation & Other Rewards to Motivate
Chapter 11
Managing Individual Differences & Behavior: Supervising People
as People
Multiple Choice Questions
69. Gen Yers are more likely than older workers to
A. be very independent.
B. desire financial rewards exclusively.
C. appreciate a slower pace.
D. want more guidance.
E. be more patient in seeing the results of their work.
70. The stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes that give a person
her identity are known as her
A. character.
B. values.
C. attitudes.
D. attributions.
E. personality.
71. Which of the following is one of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A. Dependability
B. Tolerance for ambiguity
C. Openness to change
D. Agreeableness
E. Openness to extremes
72. ______ is the personality dimension that describes how intellectual,
imaginative, curious, and broad-minded a person is.
A. Inquisitiveness
B. Emotional stability
C. Openness to experience
D. Extroversion
E. Inventiveness
73. ______ is the personality dimension that describes how achievement-oriented
and persistent a person is.
A. Emotional stability
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extroversion
D. Locus of control
E. Self-efficacy
74. Lorenzo is frequently nervous, tense and worried, both at work and at home.
He likely scores low on which of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A. Emotional stability
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extroversion
D. Openness to experience
E. Self-monitoring
75. Adrienne really enjoys mingling at work functions, both to network for new
contacts and simply to share stories with other interesting people. Adrienne
probably scores high in
A. emotional stability.
B. conscientiousness.
C. extroversion.
D. agreeableness.
E. openness to experience.
76. ______ has been associated with success for managers and salespeople.
A. Extroversion
B. Agreeableness
C. Openness to experience
D. Emotional stability
E. Conscientiousness
77. A person who is apt to take initiative and persevere to influence the
environment is said to have a ______ personality.
A. emotionally stable
B. proactive
C. extroverted
D. emotionally intelligent
E. self-efficacious
78. How should a manager use personality tests?
A. Use graphology tests to infer personality
B. Create personality profiles of the desirable employee for different jobs
C. Experiment with various personality tests that appear on the Internet
D. Assess testing for any possible adverse impact on hiring women and
minorities
E. Avoid them, as they are illegal
79. The extent to which people believe they control their own fate through their
own efforts is called their
A. tolerance for ambiguity.
B. locus of control.
C. emotional stability.
D. self-efficacy.
E. self-monitoring.
80. People with ______ exhibit less anxiety, greater motivation, and stronger
expectations that effort leads to performance.
A. high self-efficacy
B. high self-monitoring
C. internal locus of control
D. high tolerance for ambiguity
E. high self-esteem
81. Employees with a(n) ______ locus of control will probably resist close
managerial supervision.
A. high
B. internal
C. external
D. absent
E. low
82. Aimee has an internal locus of control. Her manager should
A. give Aimee a lot of positive feedback.
B. ensure that Aimee has a highly structured job.
C. give Aimee a job with much social contact with coworkers and customers.
D. closely supervise Aimee's work.
E. provide an incentive structure to pay Aimee.
83. Belief in one's personal ability to do a task is called
A. self-esteem.
B. openness to experience.
C. self-efficacy.
D. locus of control.
E. self-monitoring.
84. Complex, challenging, and autonomous jobs tend to enhance people's
perceptions of their
A. self-efficacy.
B. increased anxiety.
C. tolerance for pain.
D. learned helplessness.
E. self-esteem.
85. Tony is a manager of several subordinates that seem to be low in self-efficacy.
In an effort to improve this, he should
A. let them learn new tasks independently.
B. give them simplistic jobs.
C. immediately create very challenging goals for them.
D. provide guided experiences.
E. avoid giving positive feedback.
86. The extent to which people like or dislike themselves is called their
A. emotional stability.
B. self-esteem.
C. locus of control.
D. self-efficacy.
E. self-monitoring.
87. People with low self-esteem ______ than people with high self-esteem.
A. handle failure better
B. choose more unconventional jobs
C. focus more on their strengths
D. are more dependent on others
E. exhibit more aggressive behavior
88. If a manager knows one of her subordinates has low self-esteem and wishes
to enhance it, she should
A. provide frequent reminders about improving weaknesses.
B. avoid delegating work to this subordinate.
C. redesign the work so that it is routine and structured.
D. avoid giving feedback.
E. break larger projects into smaller tasks and projects.
89. People with high ______ are responsive to social and interpersonal cues of
others.
A. self-esteem
B. self-monitoring
C. locus of control
D. self-efficacy
E. agreeableness
90. Low self-monitors are often criticized for being ______ to others.
A. insincere
B. boastful
C. aggressive
D. unfair
E. insensitive
91. The ability to cope, empathize with others, and be self-motivated is called
A. emotional intelligence.
B. self-awareness.
C. social awareness.
D. self-efficacy.
E. self-monitoring.
92. Which of the following is a trait of emotional intelligence?
A. Situational awareness
B. Self-sufficiency
C. Self-monitoring
D. Social awareness
E. Self-efficacy
93. The ability to control your emotions and act with honesty and integrity in
reliable and adaptable ways is known as
A. self-awareness.
B. self-management.
C. social awareness.
D. situational awareness.
E. relationship management.
94. Organizational ______ tries to explain and predict workplace behavior to help
managers better lead and motivate others.
A. behavior
B. development
C. culture
D. strategy
E. science
95. The abstract ideals that guide a person's thinking and behavior across all
situations are called
A. ethics.
B. culture.
C. values.
D. attitudes.
E. perceptions.
96. According to the Society for Human Resource Management, employees are
more interested in ______ rather than just earning a paycheck.
A. advancement opportunity
B. recognition
C. benefits
D. work-life balance
E. status
97. The three components of ______ are affective, cognitive, and behavioral.
A. value assessment
B. attitude
C. job satisfaction
D. personality
E. stress
98. The ______ component of an attitude consists of the beliefs and knowledge one
has about a situation.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
99. The statement, "I really don't like that Carlos came back from the meeting
very upset," reflects the ______ component of an attitude.
A. behavioral
B. emotion
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
100. The statement, "I won't ask Eric to run that report again," reflects the ______
component of an attitude.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
101. The statement, "Claudia is never willing to help out," reflects the ______
component of an attitude.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
102. Because people are uncomfortable with inconsistency, they will seek to
reduce
A. a self-fulfilling prophecy.
B. fundamental attribution.
C. a self-serving bias.
D. causal attribution.
E. cognitive dissonance.
103. Under which of the following circumstances would the desire to reduce
cognitive dissonance be greatest?
A. When large amounts of money are on the line
B. When the individual has little control
C. When the elements seem like an inconsequential ambiguity
D. When there is little emotional investment in the situation
E. When the components of attitude have no inconsistency
104. Which of the following is NOT one of the main ways to reduce cognitive
dissonance?
A. Change your attitude
B. Change your behavior
C. Release control of the situation
D. Find consonant elements that outweigh the dissonant ones
E. Belittle the importance of the inconsistent behavior
105. According to Festinger, which of the following factors is most relevant as
people deal with the discomfort of cognitive dissonance?
A. Personal ethics
B. Judgment of others
C. Personality differences
D. Control over the situation
E. Ease of decision
106. The extent to which an employee has positive or negative feelings about
various aspects of his or her work refers to
A. job involvement.
B. job performance.
C. organizational commitment.
D. job enrichment.
E. job satisfaction.
107. Franco really doesn't like his new boss and is not happy with the new tasks
he's been assigned and the long hours he's been working. Still, he really believes
in what the company is trying to accomplish. Franco has
A. poor job performance.
B. low job involvement.
C. low organizational commitment.
D. poor job enrichment.
E. low job satisfaction.
108. Which of the following factors is most relevant to a person's overall
satisfaction with his or her job?
A. Life outside of work
B. Co-workers
C. Locus of control
D. Industry
E. Self-efficacy
109. Job satisfaction results in stronger ______ and lower levels of
A. job involvement; work-life balance.
B. motivation; life satisfaction.
C. organizational commitment; perceived stress.
D. perceived stress; life satisfaction.
E. perceived stress; absenteeism.
110. The extent to which an employee identifies with an organization and is
committed to its goals is called
A. job involvement.
B. job performance.
C. organizational commitment.
D. job satisfaction.
E. job enrichment.
111. Employee behaviors that exceed the work-role requirements for the job are
known as
A. organizational citizenship behaviors.
B. the halo effect.
C. counterproductive work behaviors.
D. self-efficacy behaviors.
E. proactive behaviors.
112. Miles impressed his boss by making lots of suggestions for department
improvements and by putting in many weekend hours to do extra tasks to
develop the new procedures. Miles is exhibiting
A. self-efficacy.
B. turnover.
C. organizational citizenship behaviors.
D. the halo effect.
E. counterproductive work behaviors.
113. Absenteeism, drug and alcohol abuse, and disciplinary problems are
examples of
A. organizational citizenship behaviors.
B. self-efficacy.
C. causal attribution.
D. counterproductive work behaviors.
E. self-serving bias.
114. The process of interpreting and understanding one's environment is called
A. self-awareness.
B. perception.
C. cognition.
D. self-monitoring.
E. openness to experience.
115. Which of the following is NOT a step in the perceptual process?
A. Selective attention
B. Retrieving from memory to make judgments and decisions
C. Causal attribution
D. Interpretation & evaluation
E. Storing in memory
116. Which of the following is NOT a distortion in perception?
A. Pygmalion effect
B. Stereotyping
C. Halo effect
D. Selective perception
E. Causal attribution
117. The tendency to filter out information that is discomforting, irrelevant, or
contradictory to one's beliefs is called
A. cognitive dissonance.
B. a fundamental attribution error.
C. the halo effect.
D. a self-fulfilling prophecy.
E. selective perception.
118. The tendency to attribute to an individual the characteristics one believes
are typical of the group to which that individual belongs is called
A. generalization.
B. selective perception.
C. a fundamental attribution error.
D. stereotyping.
E. the halo effect.
119. As employees' age increases, their
A. job involvement decreases.
B. absenteeism increases.
C. job satisfaction increases.
D. work motivation decreases.
E. organizational commitment decreases.
120. Brad was hiring a new financial analyst, and he had several good candidates.
He was leaning towards hiring Kai, a Japanese-American woman, since he thinks
Asians are just better at math. Brad is exhibiting which distortion in perception?
A. Racism.
B. Selective perception.
C. A fundamental attribution error.
D. Stereotyping.
E. The halo effect.
121. The ______ occurs when we form an impression of an individual based on a
single trait.
A. halo effect
B. self-fulfilling prophecy
C. fundamental attribution error
D. self-serving bias effect
E. selective perception error
122. The tendency to attribute another person's behavior to his or her personal
characteristics rather than to the situational factors is called
A. the self-fulfilling prophecy.
B. a self-serving bias.
C. the fundamental attribution bias.
D. selective perception.
E. stereotyping.
123. Tori has been telling everyone in the sales department of her incredible skill
as a salesperson, since she beat her goal this year by nearly 30%. But last year
when she didn't even reach her goal, she said it was simply the economy. This is
an example of the
A. halo effect.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy.
C. fundamental attribution bias.
D. self-serving bias.
E. selective perception error.
124. A waiter expects a group of poorly dressed customers to be stingy tippers
and gives them poor service, so he gets the result that he expects, a very small tip.
This is an example of the
A. halo effect.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy.
C. fundamental attribution bias.
D. self-serving bias.
E. selective perception error.
125. ______ is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring
extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities and are uncertain about
their ability to handle them effectively.
A. Apprehension
B. Role conflict
C. Role overload
D. Stress
E. Anxiety
126. Which of the following best describes the graph of stress (x-axis) versus
performance (y-axis)?
A. Line with a positive slope
B. Line with a negative slope
C. A horizontal line
D. U-shaped curve
E. Inverted u-shaped curve
127. When others' expectations exceed one's ability, ______ has occurred.
A. burnout
B. role overload
C. learned helplessness
D. role conflict
E. role ambiguity
128. You have important clients in town who want to have dinner with you, but
your mother has a plumbing leak and has asked you to come over and shut off
the water until she can get it fixed tomorrow. You are experiencing
A. role ambiguity.
B. burnout.
C. learned helplessness.
D. role overload.
E. role conflict.
129. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of stress?
A. Slow speech
B. Insomnia
C. Hostility
D. Alcohol abuse
E. Heart attack
130. ______ is a state of emotional, mental, and even physical exhaustion,
expressed as listlessness, indifference, or frustration.
A. Eustress
B. Distress
C. Role overload
D. Burnout
E. Breakdown
131. Which of the following is the most common drug of abuse?
A. Marijuana
B. Tranquilizers
C. Prescription pain medication
D. Cocaine
E. Alcohol
132. A(n) ______ program includes plans to help employees cope with stress,
burnout, substance abuse, health problems, and family issues that influence job
performance.
A. holistic wellness
B. employee engagement
C. counterproductive behavior
D. employee assistance
E. self-monitoring
133. Which of the following is NOT a suggested strategy for reducing unhealthy
stressors in organizations?
A. Rollout employee assistance programs
B. Recommend a holistic wellness approach
C. Develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision
D. Make jobs interesting
E. Make career counseling available
Chapter 11 Managing Individual Differences & Behavior: Supervising
People as People Answer Key
Multiple Choice Questions
69. (p. 339) Gen Yers are more likely than older workers to
A. be very independent.
B. desire financial rewards exclusively.
C. appreciate a slower pace.
D. want more guidance.
E. be more patient in seeing the results of their work.
Gen Yers are extremely independent, because many were raised as day care or
latchkey kids and have been left alone to make their own decisions.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
70. (p. 340) The stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes that give a
person her identity are known as her
A. character.
B. values.
C. attitudes.
D. attributions.
E. personality.
Personality consists of the stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes
that give a person his or her identity.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
71. (p. 340) Which of the following is one of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A. Dependability
B. Tolerance for ambiguity
C. Openness to change
D. Agreeableness
E. Openness to extremes
The Big Five personality dimensions are (1) extroversion, (2) agreeableness, (3)
conscientiousness, (4) emotional stability, and (5) openness to experience.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
72. (p. 340) ______ is the personality dimension that describes how intellectual,
imaginative, curious, and broad-minded a person is.
A. Inquisitiveness
B. Emotional stability
C. Openness to experience
D. Extroversion
E. Inventiveness
Openness to experience is how intellectual, imaginative, curious, and broad-
minded one is.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
73. (p. 340) ______ is the personality dimension that describes how achievement-
oriented and persistent a person is.
A. Emotional stability
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extroversion
D. Locus of control
E. Self-efficacy
Conscientiousness is how dependable, responsible, achievement-oriented, and
persistent one is.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
74. (p. 340) Lorenzo is frequently nervous, tense and worried, both at work and at
home. He likely scores low on which of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A. Emotional stability
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extroversion
D. Openness to experience
E. Self-monitoring
Standardized personality tests are used to score people on each dimension to
draw a person's personality profile that is supposedly as unique as his or her
fingerprints. For example, if you scored low on emotional stability, you
supposedly would be nervous, tense, angry, and worried.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
75. (p. 340) Adrienne really enjoys mingling at work functions, both to network for
new contacts and simply to share stories with other interesting people. Adrienne
probably scores high in
A. emotional stability.
B. conscientiousness.
C. extroversion.
D. agreeableness.
E. openness to experience.
Extroversion is how outgoing, talkative, sociable, and assertive a person is, which
appears to describe Adrienne.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
76. (p. 341) ______ has been associated with success for managers and salespeople.
A. Extroversion
B. Agreeableness
C. Openness to experience
D. Emotional stability
E. Conscientiousness
Extroversion (an outgoing personality) has been associated with success for
managers and salespeople.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
77. (p. 341) A person who is apt to take initiative and persevere to influence the
environment is said to have a ______ personality.
A. emotionally stable
B. proactive
C. extroverted
D. emotionally intelligent
E. self-efficacious
A proactive personality, someone who is more apt to take initiative and persevere
to influence the environment. People of this sort identify opportunities and act
on them, which makes them associated not only with success—individual, team,
and organizational—but also with entrepreneurship.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
78. (p. 341) How should a manager use personality tests?
A. Use graphology tests to infer personality
B. Create personality profiles of the desirable employee for different jobs
C. Experiment with various personality tests that appear on the Internet
D. Assess testing for any possible adverse impact on hiring women and
minorities
E. Avoid them, as they are illegal
In using personality tests, you should regularly assess any possible adverse
impact of personality tests on the hiring of women and minorities. This is truly a
matter of great importance, since you don't want to find your company (or
yourself) embroiled in a lawsuit at some point downstream.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
79. (p. 342) The extent to which people believe they control their own fate through
their own efforts is called their
A. tolerance for ambiguity.
B. locus of control.
C. emotional stability.
D. self-efficacy.
E. self-monitoring.
Locus of control indicates how much people believe they control their fate
through their own efforts. If you have an internal locus of control, you believe you
control your own destiny. If you have an external locus of control, you believe
external forces control you.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
80. (p. 342) People with ______ exhibit less anxiety, greater motivation, and stronger
expectations that effort leads to performance.
A. high self-efficacy
B. high self-monitoring
C. internal locus of control
D. high tolerance for ambiguity
E. high self-esteem
Those with internal locus of control exhibit less anxiety, greater work motivation,
and stronger expectations that effort leads to performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
81. (p. 342) Employees with a(n) ______ locus of control will probably resist close
managerial supervision.
A. high
B. internal
C. external
D. absent
E. low
Employees with internal locus of control will probably resist close managerial
supervision. Hence, they should probably be placed in jobs requiring high
initiative and lower compliance.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
82. (p. 342) Aimee has an internal locus of control. Her manager should
A. give Aimee a lot of positive feedback.
B. ensure that Aimee has a highly structured job.
C. give Aimee a job with much social contact with coworkers and customers.
D. closely supervise Aimee's work.
E. provide an incentive structure to pay Aimee.
Since an employee with an internal locus of control seems to have a greater belief
that her actions have a direct effect on the consequences of that action, she likely
would prefer and respond more productively to incentives such as merit pay or
sales commissions.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
83. (p. 342) Belief in one's personal ability to do a task is called
A. self-esteem.
B. openness to experience.
C. self-efficacy.
D. locus of control.
E. self-monitoring.
Self-efficacy is a belief in one's personal ability to do a task.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
84. (p. 342) Complex, challenging, and autonomous jobs tend to enhance people's
perceptions of their
A. self-efficacy.
B. increased anxiety.
C. tolerance for pain.
D. learned helplessness.
E. self-esteem.
Complex, challenging, and autonomous jobs tend to enhance people's
perceptions of their self-efficacy. Boring, tedious jobs generally do the opposite.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
85. (p. 342) Tony is a manager of several subordinates that seem to be low in self-
efficacy. In an effort to improve this, he should
A. let them learn new tasks independently.
B. give them simplistic jobs.
C. immediately create very challenging goals for them.
D. provide guided experiences.
E. avoid giving positive feedback.
Self-efficacy is a quality that can be nurtured. Employees with low self-efficacy
need lots of constructive pointers and positive feedback. Goal difficulty needs to
match individuals' perceived self-efficacy, but goals can be made more
challenging as performance improves. Small successes need to be rewarded.
Employees' expectations can be improved through guided experiences,
mentoring, and role modeling.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
86. (p. 342) The extent to which people like or dislike themselves is called their
A. emotional stability.
B. self-esteem.
C. locus of control.
D. self-efficacy.
E. self-monitoring.
Self-esteem is the extent to which people like or dislike themselves, their overall
self-evaluation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
87. (p. 343) People with low self-esteem ______ than people with high self-esteem.
A. handle failure better
B. choose more unconventional jobs
C. focus more on their strengths
D. are more dependent on others
E. exhibit more aggressive behavior
Low-self-esteem people confronted with failure have been found to have focused
on their weaknesses and to have had primarily negative thoughts. Moreover, they
are more dependent on others and are more apt to be influenced by them and to
be less likely to take independent positions.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
88. (p. 343) If a manager knows one of her subordinates has low self-esteem and
wishes to enhance it, she should
A. provide frequent reminders about improving weaknesses.
B. avoid delegating work to this subordinate.
C. redesign the work so that it is routine and structured.
D. avoid giving feedback.
E. break larger projects into smaller tasks and projects.
Managers can build employee self-esteem by reinforcing employees' positive
attributes and skills, providing positive feedback whenever possible, breaking
larger projects into smaller tasks and projects, expressing confidence in
employees' abilities to complete their tasks, and providing coaching whenever
employees are seen to be struggling to complete tasks (see Table 11.2).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
89. (p. 343) People with high ______ are responsive to social and interpersonal cues
of others.
A. self-esteem
B. self-monitoring
C. locus of control
D. self-efficacy
E. agreeableness
Self-monitoring is the extent to which people are able to observe their own
behavior and adapt it to external situations. Those high in self-monitoring are
able to regulate self-presentation for desired public appearances, and be highly
responsive to social and interpersonal cues of others.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
90. (p. 343) Low self-monitors are often criticized for being ______ to others.
A. insincere
B. boastful
C. aggressive
D. unfair
E. insensitive
Whereas some high self-monitors are criticized for being chameleons, always
able to adapt their self-presentation to their surroundings, low self-monitors are
often criticized for being on their own planet and insensitive to others. Instead,
their behavior may reflect their own inner states, including their attitudes and
feelings.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
91. (p. 344) The ability to cope, empathize with others, and be self-motivated is
called
A. emotional intelligence.
B. self-awareness.
C. social awareness.
D. self-efficacy.
E. self-monitoring.
Emotional intelligence is the ability to cope, to empathize with others, and to be
self-motivated.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
92. (p. 344) Which of the following is a trait of emotional intelligence?
A. Situational awareness
B. Self-sufficiency
C. Self-monitoring
D. Social awareness
E. Self-efficacy
Traits of emotional intelligence are (1) self-awareness, (2) self-management, (3)
social awareness, and (4) relationship management (see Table 11.3).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
93. (p. 344) The ability to control your emotions and act with honesty and integrity
in reliable and adaptable ways is known as
A. self-awareness.
B. self-management.
C. social awareness.
D. situational awareness.
E. relationship management.
The self-management trait of EI is the ability to control your emotions and act
with honesty and integrity in reliable and adaptable ways. You can leave
occasional bad moods outside the office.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-01 In the hiring process; do employees care about one's personality and individual traits?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
94. (p. 345) Organizational ______ tries to explain and predict workplace behavior to
help managers better lead and motivate others.
A. behavior
B. development
C. culture
D. strategy
E. science
Organizational behavior (OB) is dedicated to better understanding and
management of people at work. In particular, OB tries to help managers not only
explain workplace behavior but also to predict it, so that they can better lead and
motivate their employees to perform productively.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
95. (p. 345) The abstract ideals that guide a person's thinking and behavior across
all situations are called
A. ethics.
B. culture.
C. values.
D. attitudes.
E. perceptions.
Values are abstract ideals that guide one's thinking and behavior across all
situations.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
96. (p. 345) According to the Society for Human Resource Management, employees
are more interested in ______ rather than just earning a paycheck.
A. advancement opportunity
B. recognition
C. benefits
D. work-life balance
E. status
According to a survey by the Society for Human Resource Management,
employees are more interested in striking a balance between work and family life
rather than just earning a paycheck.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
97. (p. 346) The three components of ______ are affective, cognitive, and behavioral.
A. value assessment
B. attitude
C. job satisfaction
D. personality
E. stress
Attitudes have three components: affective, cognitive, & behavioral (see Table
11.4).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
98. (p. 346) The ______ component of an attitude consists of the beliefs and
knowledge one has about a situation.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
The cognitive component of an attitude consists of the beliefs and knowledge one
has about a situation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
99. (p. 346) The statement, "I really don't like that Carlos came back from the
meeting very upset," reflects the ______ component of an attitude.
A. behavioral
B. emotion
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
The affective component of an attitude consists of the feelings or emotions one
has about a situation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
100. (p. 346) The statement, "I won't ask Eric to run that report again," reflects the
______ component of an attitude.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
The behavioral component of an attitude, also known as the intentional
component, refers to how one intends or expects to behave toward a situation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
101. (p. 346) The statement, "Claudia is never willing to help out," reflects the ______
component of an attitude.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
The cognitive component of an attitude consists of the beliefs and knowledge one
has about a situation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
102. (p. 347) Because people are uncomfortable with inconsistency, they will seek to
reduce
A. a self-fulfilling prophecy.
B. fundamental attribution.
C. a self-serving bias.
D. causal attribution.
E. cognitive dissonance.
In 1957, social psychologist Leon Festinger proposed the term cognitive
dissonance to describe the psychological discomfort a person experiences
between his or her cognitive attitude and incompatible behavior. Because people
are uncomfortable with inconsistency, Festinger theorized, they will seek to
reduce the "dissonance" or tension of the inconsistency.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
103. (p. 347) Under which of the following circumstances would the desire to
reduce cognitive dissonance be greatest?
A. When large amounts of money are on the line
B. When the individual has little control
C. When the elements seem like an inconsequential ambiguity
D. When there is little emotional investment in the situation
E. When the components of attitude have no inconsistency
You're apt to cling to old ideas in the face of new evidence (in other words,
reduce dissonance) if you have a lot invested emotionally or financially in those
ideas.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
104. (p. 347) Which of the following is NOT one of the main ways to reduce cognitive
dissonance?
A. Change your attitude
B. Change your behavior
C. Release control of the situation
D. Find consonant elements that outweigh the dissonant ones
E. Belittle the importance of the inconsistent behavior
Among the main ways to reduce cognitive dissonance are to change your attitude
and/or behavior, belittle the importance of the inconsistent behavior, or find
consonant elements that outweigh the dissonant ones (see Table 11.5).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
105. (p. 347) According to Festinger, which of the following factors is most relevant
as people deal with the discomfort of cognitive dissonance?
A. Personal ethics
B. Judgment of others
C. Personality differences
D. Control over the situation
E. Ease of decision
How people deal with the discomfort of cognitive dissonance depends on three
factors: importance, control, and rewards.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-02 How do the hidden aspects of individuals-- their values and attitudes-- affect employee behavior?
Topic: Values, Attitudes, & Behavior
106. (p. 350) The extent to which an employee has positive or negative feelings
about various aspects of his or her work refers to
A. job involvement.
B. job performance.
C. organizational commitment.
D. job enrichment.
E. job satisfaction.
Job satisfaction is the extent to which you feel positive or negative about various
aspects of your work.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-03 Is it important for managers to pay attention to employee attitudes?
Topic: Work-Related Attitudes & Behaviors Manager Need to Deal With
107. (p. 350) Franco really doesn't like his new boss and is not happy with the new
tasks he's been assigned and the long hours he's been working. Still, he really
believes in what the company is trying to accomplish. Franco has
A. poor job performance.
B. low job involvement.
C. low organizational commitment.
D. poor job enrichment.
E. low job satisfaction.
Job satisfaction is the extent to which you feel positive or negative about various
aspects of your work. Most people don't like everything about their jobs. Their
overall satisfaction depends on how they feel about several components, such as
work, pay, promotions, co-workers, and supervision.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-03 Is it important for managers to pay attention to employee attitudes?
Topic: Work-Related Attitudes & Behaviors Manager Need to Deal With
108. (p. 350) Which of the following factors is most relevant to a person's overall
satisfaction with his or her job?
A. Life outside of work
B. Co-workers
C. Locus of control
D. Industry
E. Self-efficacy
A person's overall satisfaction with work depends on how they feel about several
components, such as work, pay, promotions, co-workers, and supervision.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-03 Is it important for managers to pay attention to employee attitudes?
Topic: Work-Related Attitudes & Behaviors Manager Need to Deal With
109. (p. 350) Job satisfaction results in stronger ______ and lower levels of
A. job involvement; work-life balance.
B. motivation; life satisfaction.
C. organizational commitment; perceived stress.
D. perceived stress; life satisfaction.
E. perceived stress; absenteeism.
Among the key correlates of job satisfaction are stronger motivation, job
involvement, organizational commitment, and life satisfaction and less
absenteeism, tardiness, turnover, and perceived stress.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-03 Is it important for managers to pay attention to employee attitudes?
Topic: Work-Related Attitudes & Behaviors Manager Need to Deal With
110. (p. 350) The extent to which an employee identifies with an organization and is
committed to its goals is called
A. job involvement.
B. job performance.
C. organizational commitment.
D. job satisfaction.
E. job enrichment.
Organizational commitment reflects the extent to which an employee identifies
with an organization and is committed to its goals.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-03 Is it important for managers to pay attention to employee attitudes?
Topic: Work-Related Attitudes & Behaviors Manager Need to Deal With
111. (p. 351) Employee behaviors that exceed the work-role requirements for the
job are known as
A. organizational citizenship behaviors.
B. the halo effect.
C. counterproductive work behaviors.
D. self-efficacy behaviors.
E. proactive behaviors.
Organizational citizenship behaviors are those employee behaviors that are not
directly part of employees' job descriptions—that exceed their work-role
requirements.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-03 Is it important for managers to pay attention to employee attitudes?
Topic: Work-Related Attitudes & Behaviors Manager Need to Deal With
112. (p. 351) Miles impressed his boss by making lots of suggestions for department
improvements and by putting in many weekend hours to do extra tasks to
develop the new procedures. Miles is exhibiting
A. self-efficacy.
B. turnover.
C. organizational citizenship behaviors.
D. the halo effect.
E. counterproductive work behaviors.
Organizational citizenship behaviors are those employee behaviors that are not
directly part of employees' job descriptions—that exceed their work-role
requirements. Examples include suggestions for improvement, and attendance
well beyond standard or enforceable levels.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-03 Is it important for managers to pay attention to employee attitudes?
Topic: Work-Related Attitudes & Behaviors Manager Need to Deal With
113. (p. 352) Absenteeism, drug and alcohol abuse, and disciplinary problems are
examples of
A. organizational citizenship behaviors.
B. self-efficacy.
C. causal attribution.
D. counterproductive work behaviors.
E. self-serving bias.
Counterproductive work behaviors are types of behavior that harm employees
and the organization as a whole. Such behaviors may include absenteeism and
tardiness, drug and alcohol abuse, and disciplinary problems.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-03 Is it important for managers to pay attention to employee attitudes?
Topic: Work-Related Attitudes & Behaviors Manager Need to Deal With
114. (p. 353) The process of interpreting and understanding one's environment is
called
A. self-awareness.
B. perception.
C. cognition.
D. self-monitoring.
E. openness to experience.
Perception is the process of interpreting and understanding one's environment.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
115. (p. 353) Which of the following is NOT a step in the perceptual process?
A. Selective attention
B. Retrieving from memory to make judgments and decisions
C. Causal attribution
D. Interpretation & evaluation
E. Storing in memory
The process of perception is complex, but it can be boiled down to four steps:
selective attention, interpretation & evaluation, storing in memory, and retrieving
from memory to make judgments & decisions (see Figure 11.2).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
116. (p. 353) Which of the following is NOT a distortion in perception?
A. Pygmalion effect
B. Stereotyping
C. Halo effect
D. Selective perception
E. Causal attribution
Although there are other types of distortion in perception, the text describes the
following: (1) selective perception, (2) stereotyping, (3) the halo effect, and (4)
causal attribution.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
117. (p. 354) The tendency to filter out information that is discomforting, irrelevant,
or contradictory to one's beliefs is called
A. cognitive dissonance.
B. a fundamental attribution error.
C. the halo effect.
D. a self-fulfilling prophecy.
E. selective perception.
Selective perception is the tendency to filter out information that is
discomforting, that seems irrelevant, or that contradicts one's beliefs.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
118. (p. 354) The tendency to attribute to an individual the characteristics one
believes are typical of the group to which that individual belongs is called
A. generalization.
B. selective perception.
C. a fundamental attribution error.
D. stereotyping.
E. the halo effect.
Stereotyping is the tendency to attribute to an individual the characteristics one
believes are typical of the group to which that individual belongs.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
119. (p. 354) As employees' age increases, their
A. job involvement decreases.
B. absenteeism increases.
C. job satisfaction increases.
D. work motivation decreases.
E. organizational commitment decreases.
Research shows that as employees' age increases, so does their job involvement
and satisfaction, work motivation, and organizational commitment.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
120. (p. 354) Brad was hiring a new financial analyst, and he had several good
candidates. He was leaning towards hiring Kai, a Japanese-American woman,
since he thinks Asians are just better at math. Brad is exhibiting which distortion
in perception?
A. Racism.
B. Selective perception.
C. A fundamental attribution error.
D. Stereotyping.
E. The halo effect.
Stereotyping is the tendency to attribute to an individual the characteristics one
believes are typical of the group to which that individual belongs.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
121. (p. 355) The ______ occurs when we form an impression of an individual based
on a single trait.
A. halo effect
B. self-fulfilling prophecy
C. fundamental attribution error
D. self-serving bias effect
E. selective perception error
The halo effect occurs when we form an impression of an individual based on a
single trait.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
122. (p. 356) The tendency to attribute another person's behavior to his or her
personal characteristics rather than to the situational factors is called
A. the self-fulfilling prophecy.
B. a self-serving bias.
C. the fundamental attribution bias.
D. selective perception.
E. stereotyping.
In the In the fundamental attribution bias, people attribute another person's
behavior to his or her personal characteristics rather than to situational factors.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
123. (p. 356) Tori has been telling everyone in the sales department of her
incredible skill as a salesperson, since she beat her goal this year by nearly 30%.
But last year when she didn't even reach her goal, she said it was simply the
economy. This is an example of the
A. halo effect.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy.
C. fundamental attribution bias.
D. self-serving bias.
E. selective perception error.
In the self-serving bias, people tend to take more personal responsibility for
success than for failure.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
124. (p. 357) A waiter expects a group of poorly dressed customers to be stingy
tippers and gives them poor service, so he gets the result that he expects, a very
small tip. This is an example of the
A. halo effect.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy.
C. fundamental attribution bias.
D. self-serving bias.
E. selective perception error.
The self-fulfilling prophecy, also known as the Pygmalion effect, describes the
phenomenon in which people's expectations of themselves or others lead them to
behave in ways that make those expectations come true. An example is a waiter
who expects some poorly dressed customers to be stingy tippers, who therefore
gives them poor service and so gets the result he or she expected—a much lower
tip than usual.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-04 What are the distortions in perception that can cloud one's judgement?
Topic: Perception & Individual Behavior
125. (p. 358) ______ is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring
extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities and are uncertain about
their ability to handle them effectively.
A. Apprehension
B. Role conflict
C. Role overload
D. Stress
E. Anxiety
Stress is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring extraordinary
demands, constraints, or opportunities and are uncertain about their ability to
handle them effectively.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
126. (p. 358) Which of the following best describes the graph of stress (x-axis)
versus performance (y-axis)?
A. Line with a positive slope
B. Line with a negative slope
C. A horizontal line
D. U-shaped curve
E. Inverted u-shaped curve
Historically researchers have generally believed that there is an inverted U-
shaped relationship between stress and performance. That is, low levels of stress
lead to low performance (because people are not "charged up" to perform), but
high levels of stress also lead to an energy-sapping fight-or-flight response that
produces low performance. Optimal performance, according to this hypothesis,
results when people are subjected to moderate levels of stress.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
127. (p. 360) When others' expectations exceed one's ability, ______ has occurred.
A. burnout
B. role overload
C. learned helplessness
D. role conflict
E. role ambiguity
Role overload occurs when others' expectations exceed one's ability.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
128. (p. 360) You have important clients in town who want to have dinner with you,
but your mother has a plumbing leak and has asked you to come over and shut
off the water until she can get it fixed tomorrow. You are experiencing
A. role ambiguity.
B. burnout.
C. learned helplessness.
D. role overload.
E. role conflict.
Role conflict occurs when one feels torn by the different expectations of
important people in one's life.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
129. (p. 361) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of stress?
A. Slow speech
B. Insomnia
C. Hostility
D. Alcohol abuse
E. Heart attack
Negative stress reveals itself in three kinds of symptoms, including serious
physiological signs like heart attacks, psychological signs like hostility, and
behavioral signs like sleeplessness and alcohol abuse.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
130. (p. 361) ______ is a state of emotional, mental, and even physical exhaustion,
expressed as listlessness, indifference, or frustration.
A. Eustress
B. Distress
C. Role overload
D. Burnout
E. Breakdown
Burnout is a state of emotional, mental, and even physical exhaustion, expressed
as listlessness, indifference, or frustration.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
131. (p. 361) Which of the following is the most common drug of abuse?
A. Marijuana
B. Tranquilizers
C. Prescription pain medication
D. Cocaine
E. Alcohol
Alcohol is the most common drug of abuse.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
132. (p. 362) A(n) ______ program includes plans to help employees cope with stress,
burnout, substance abuse, health problems, and family issues that influence job
performance.
A. holistic wellness
B. employee engagement
C. counterproductive behavior
D. employee assistance
E. self-monitoring
Employee assistance programs (EAPs) include a host of programs aimed at
helping employees to cope with stress, burnout, substance abuse, health-related
problems, family and marital issues, and any general problem that negatively
influences job performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
133. (p. 362) Which of the following is NOT a suggested strategy for reducing
unhealthy stressors in organizations?
A. Rollout employee assistance programs
B. Recommend a holistic wellness approach
C. Develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision
D. Make jobs interesting
E. Make career counseling available
Job stress often results because employees work under poor supervision and lack
freedom. Wherever possible, it's better to keep the organizational environment
less formal, more personal, and more supportive of employees.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 11-05 What causes workplace stress; and how can it be reduced?
Topic: Understanding Stress & Individual Behavior
Chapter 13
Groups & Teams: Increasing Cooperation, Reducing Conflict
Multiple Choice Questions
61. Which of the following is the best way to manage virtual teams?
A. Focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations.
B. When beginning with a virtual team, set the final deadline and reprimand any
virtual team members who don't make the deadline.
C. Because you don't have face-to-face contact, relay instructions via phone.
D. Require each team member to keep their own personal record of the work
that's been done as a team.
E. Utilize employees on a global team around the clock.
62. In managing virtual workers, a manager should
A. give directions only by phone or in person.
B. make sure the worker is keeping to a fixed schedule of hours.
C. let employees work using their own expectations of how to do their jobs.
D. meet regularly, face to face.
E. initiate change quickly.
63. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of teamwork in an organization?
A. Increased speed
B. Decreased stress
C. Reduced costs
D. Improved workplace cohesiveness
E. Reduced destructive internal competition
64. Two or more freely interacting individuals who share collective norms, share
collective goals, and have a common identity are called a
A. cluster.
B. self-managing work team.
C. collaborative unit.
D. quality circle.
E. group.
65. A _______ is defined as a small group of people with complementary skills who
are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which
they hold themselves accountable.
A. cross-functional team
B. group
C. team
D. panel
E. formal group
66. A group that is created to do something productive for the organization and is
headed by a leader is called a(n)
A. dynamic group.
B. formal group.
C. normative group.
D. informal group.
E. network group.
67. Beth organized several teachers to discuss the school painting scheduled for
summer. They looked at several brands, and heard a presentation by a designer
who then helped them choose a color palette to recommend to school
administrators. In this instance, the teachers make up a(n)
A. self-managed team.
B. virtual team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. informal group.
E. formal group.
68. Which of the following is true of informal groups?
A. Informal groups can advance the plans of formal groups.
B. A temporary committee is an example of an informal group.
C. Members of an informal group are assigned to it by the skills they possess.
D. Informal groups have appointed leaders.
E. Informal groups are primarily created to solve an organization problem.
69. Almost every day at 11:30, Tara and four of her coworkers met to walk the
wilderness trail behind their office building. This is an example of a(n)
A. continuous improvement team.
B. informal group.
C. self-managed team.
D. virtual team.
E. formal group.
70. A team composed of people from different departments who are pursuing a
common objective is called a
A. quality circle.
B. problem-solving team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. virtual team.
E. work force.
71. Carlie, Clarke and Armando met once a week for several months in the fall to
decide how to reorganize their department work spaces when the organization
moved to a new building in January. This is an example of a
A. top management team.
B. problem-solving team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. virtual team.
E. continuous improvement team.
72. A team that consists of members who interact by computer network to
collaborate on projects is called a(n)
A. remote team.
B. problem-solving team.
C. self-managed team.
D. informal team.
E. virtual team.
73. A work team that works to accomplish tasks that require people with
specialized training and a high degree of coordination is called a(n)
A. production team.
B. project team.
C. development team.
D. action team.
E. advice team.
74. At Berk Architects, a group of designers are developing the first drawings for
a proposed multi-use development in a revitalizing section of a large city. What
type of work team is this group?
A. Project team
B. Production team
C. Product team
D. Action team
E. Advice team
75. A data processing group is an example of a(n)
A. routine team.
B. action team.
C. advice team.
D. production team.
E. project team.
76. Which of the following is a characteristic of a continuous improvement team?
A. A built-in part of any effective organizational group
B. A type of advice team
C. Requires assigned membership
D. Emerged from self-managed team concept
E. Encourages high empowerment
77. Who are typical members of continuous improvement teams?
A. Workers and supervisors
B. Supervisors and managers
C. Managers and agents representing competitors
D. Outside suppliers
E. Customers and suppliers
78. Which of the following is an important aspect when creating a self-managed
team?
A. Lessen the authority and autonomy that is granted
B. Require participation to be outside of normal working hours
C. Allow workers to simply do their own thing
D. Use team bonuses
E. Require voluntary only membership
79. Self-managed teams are groups of workers who have been given ______ for
their task domains.
A. individual incentives
B. administrative oversight
C. reduced responsibility
D. complete freedom
E. no technology
80. Administrative oversight given to self-managed teams does NOT include
A. planning
B. scheduling work
C. implementing change
D. monitoring performance
E. staffing
81. When using a self-managed team, a manager should
A. maintain detailed monitoring of its performance.
B. create the team within whatever structure currently exists.
C. offer lucrative individual bonuses.
D. allow members to hire their own co-workers.
E. provide elaborate retreats for team discussions.
82. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of group and team
development?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Reforming
D. Adjourning
E. Performing
83. The question the group is asking during the forming stage of group
development is
A. "Why are we here?"
B. "What's next?"
C. "Can we do the job properly?"
D. "Why are we fighting about who does what?"
E. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"
84. During the forming stage, the leader should
A. establish permanent control.
B. allow people to socialize.
C. empower team members.
D. encourage disagreement.
E. work through team conflicts.
85. The ______ stage of team development is characterized by the emergence of
individual personalities and roles and conflicts within the group.
A. norming
B. forming
C. adjourning
D. performing
E. storming
86. The group development stage in which individuals test the leader's policies
and assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power structure is
the ______ stage.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
87. Yuan's team was not making much progress on the development of a new
production process. Linnea was being very uncooperative; she did not agree with
the direction Yuan was taking, so she hadn't helped with her part. This team is in
what stage of group development?
A. Performing
B. Forming
C. Adjourning
D. Storming
E. Norming
88. During the ______ stage of team development, close relationships develop and
unity and harmony emerge.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
89. The question individuals ask during the norming stage of group development
is
A. "How do I fit in here?"
B. "What's next?"
C. "How can I best perform my role?"
D. "What do the others expect me to do?"
E. "What's my role here?"
90. The principal by-product of the norming stage of team development is
A. adjournment.
B. uncertainty.
C. group cohesiveness.
D. conflict.
E. empowerment.
91. Since hard feelings about group leadership and assignments had passed,
Phillip's group seemed to be relating much better. At the meeting tomorrow he
should
A. help the team identify group goals and values.
B. encourage members to voice disagreements.
C. help people get to know each other.
D. empower the members.
E. throw a party.
92. ______ is a "we" feeling that binds group members together.
A. Maintenance
B. Groupthink
C. Norming
D. Social loafing
E. Group cohesiveness
93. In the performing stage of group development, members
A. prepare for disbandment.
B. develop close relationships.
C. concentrate on solving problems.
D. test the leader's policies.
E. hold back to see what will happen.
94. During the performing stage of team development, the group answers the
question
A. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"
B. "Why are we here?"
C. "Why are we fighting?"
D. "Can we do the job properly?"
E. "Who's in charge?"
95. Andrea led a team that has just finished up a very challenging research
project that will assist management in developing long range plans. Despite the
stress of the past few months, a few people now seem sad it's over. Now Andrea
should
A. have an awards ceremony.
B. emphasize unity.
C. get the group disbanded quickly to free people up for new things.
D. provide opportunities for people to get to know each other better now.
E. allow members to work on similar tasks.
96. Groups that make it through storming generally do so because
A. they develop groupthink.
B. someone wins the political battle and dominates the group.
C. someone besides the leader challenges the group to resolve power struggles.
D. the work gets done.
E. the focus generally is on social loafing.
97. The stage during which a group sets guidelines about issues like attendance
and punctuality is the ______ stage.
A. norming
B. storming
C. forming
D. adjourning
E. performing
98. Which of the following is NOT a primary consideration in building a group
into an effective team?
A. Cohesiveness
B. Groupthink
C. Autocratic structure
D. Performance goals and feedback
E. Size
99. Which of the following is an advantage of smaller groups?
A. Fewer distractions
B. More formalized team leadership
C. More creativity and innovation
D. More division of labor
E. Better interaction and morale
100. Which of the following is a disadvantage of smaller groups?
A. Unfair work distribution
B. Autocratic leadership
C. Lower morale
D. Tendency to form cliques
E. Tendency to take unreasonable risk
101. Which of the following is an advantage of larger groups?
A. Higher morale
B. More effective interaction
C. Greater boldness
D. Can take advantage of division of labor
E. Less social loafing
102. Which of the following is a disadvantage of larger groups?
A. Less creativity and innovation
B. Less commitment
C. More division of labor
D. Fewer resources
E. Fewer cliques
103. There were 17 people on the grounds maintenance committee, and among
its responsibilities were monthly parking lot cleanup and weekly patio sweeping.
Alex was a part of the committee at his boss's request, but had never actually
helped with anything. This is likely an example of
A. storming.
B. devil's advocacy.
C. social loafing.
D. procrastinating.
E. adjourning.
104. Members of a team develop their ______ based on the expectations of the
team, of the organization, and of themselves.
A. roles
B. norms
C. groupthink
D. job descriptions
E. social fit
105. A ______ role is behavior that concentrates on getting the team's work done.
A. maintenance
B. performance
C. administrative
D. task
E. production
106. Vanita points out during the meeting that the group has fallen a half hour
behind schedule according to the agenda, and should get back to the important
work at hand. Vanita is performing a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
107. Someone at a team meeting who says, "Let's hear from those who oppose
this plan" is performing a ______ role.
A. maintenance
B. social
C. coordinator
D. reorientation
E. task
108. The atmosphere in the room was tense and somewhat negative as the
management team discussed changes to promotion requirements. But then
Eterio made a joke about Ryan's white-knuckled grip on his pen, and the laughter
seemed to improve the mood. Eterio was acting in a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
109. Which of the following is NOT a reason to enforce norms?
A. To clarify role expectations
B. To create a written document of behavioral guidelines for new employees
C. To help the group survive
D. To emphasize the group's important values
E. To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations
110. Nordstrom's department store chain emphasizes the great lengths to which
it goes in customer service, an example of which of these reasons to enforce
norms?
A. To clarify role expectations
B. To help the group survive
C. To create cohesiveness
D. To emphasize the group's important values
E. To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations
111. Which of the following is a way managers can enhance team cohesiveness?
A. Giving every group member a vital role
B. Providing team members precise instructions for their tasks
C. Creating a relatively large team
D. Assigning members randomly to teams
E. Allowing off-the-job social events
112. Building collaborative teams is aided by combining role clarity with
A. task ambiguity.
B. groupthink.
C. flexible performance standards.
D. challenges to norms.
E. devil's advocacy.
113. When members of a group are friendly and tight-knit but unable to disagree
enough to properly appraise alternatives, they are said to be experiencing
A. paradigm paralysis.
B. groupthink.
C. social loafing.
D. the dialectic method.
E. devil's advocacy.
114. Pam sat through the meeting feeling convinced her team was
misinterpreting recent marketing research, but she didn't say anything. The team
leader was a close friend. Plus, she didn't want to disrupt the team since she
thought she was the only one with reservations. Pam's team appears to be
experiencing
A. groupthink.
B. storming.
C. social loafing.
D. norming.
E. devil's advocacy.
115. Peer pressure which leads group members to question the loyalty of other
members who express dissent is a symptom of
A. social loafing.
B. norming.
C. devil's advocacy.
D. groupthink.
E. storming.
116. To prevent groupthink, a manager should
A. reinforce how capable the group is.
B. never admit errors to outsiders.
C. bring in outside experts for fresh perspectives.
D. encourage everyone to "get with the team."
E. express high confidence in the group's previous decisions.
117. Negative conflict is sometimes called ______ conflict.
A. dysfunctional
B. irregular
C. destructive
D. aggressive
E. apathetic
118. Which of the following is characteristic of work groups with too little
conflict?
A. Dissatisfaction
B. Indecision
C. Political infighting
D. Lack of teamwork
E. Turnover
119. Which of the following is a manifestation of excessive conflict in the
workplace?
A. Apathy
B. Lack of creativity
C. Missed deadlines
D. Violence
E. Indecision
120. Workplace performance is maximized when
A. conflict is absent.
B. conflict is at a very low level.
C. conflict is at a moderate level.
D. conflict is at a high level.
E. conflict occurs only at non-managerial levels.
121. Hannah is on a team with Carson, and they are often in conflict. Hannah
likes to begin her work with careful planning and she gets started immediately.
Carson, on the other hand, likes trying out several ideas, and tends to be working
frantically at the last minute. Their team conflict most likely stems from
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. ambiguous jurisdictions.
E. inconsistent goals.
122. Which of the following is a source of conflict in the workplace?
A. Excessive communication
B. Strict job boundaries
C. Too many resources
D. Lack of diversity
E. Inconsistent goals
123. Abel, whose primary job is supervising a small production group, is not
getting cooperation from all members on the cross-functional team he leads. In
particular, Samantha, a marketing manager, seems to resist his direction. The
source of conflict in this can be
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. status differences.
E. ambiguous jurisdictions.
124. The conflict-handling style in which a person allows the desires of another
to prevail is known as
A. forcing.
B. accommodating.
C. avoiding.
D. collaborating.
E. compromising.
125. When issues causing conflict are trivial, or when emotions are high and a
cooling-off period would be helpful, which conflict-handling style is preferable?
A. Collaborating
B. Forcing
C. Accommodating
D. Avoiding
E. Compromising
126. Kazimir has missed another deadline and his boss Carla is furious. She will
have to explain to the client again why the project is behind. Carla thinks she may
say something she'll regret if she talks to Kazimir about this now, so she decides
to wait awhile. Carla is using the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
127. Megan came to her boss with a proposal for a new Minolta copier. Daniel
tells her that he has always used and liked Xerox copiers, but when he thinks
about it later he realizes he does not feel really strongly about it. Daniel should
adopt a(n) ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
128. ______ strives to devise solutions that benefit both parties.
A. Avoiding
B. Collaborating
C. Compromising
D. Forcing
E. Accommodating
129. Sasha told her team that she is moving forward with a change to the bonus
structure, despite vocal objections from several team members. Sasha is using
the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
130. The disadvantage of the ______ conflict-handling style is that it is very time
consuming.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
131. In which of the following conditions should constructive conflict be
stimulated?
A. The group seems to be apathetic.
B. Managers want to achieve work objectives.
C. The group is adapting to change.
D. Managers are in charge of self-managed teams.
E. There is a lot of internal competition.
132. ______ is designed to elicit different opinions without inciting people's
personal feelings.
A. Groupthink
B. Programmed conflict
C. Social loafing
D. Storming
E. Dysfunctional conflict
133. Keith asked Becky, one of his team members, to purposefully think of and
voice criticisms as the group discussed a popular idea to open a branch office in
another state. This is an example of the use of
A. devil's advocacy.
B. groupthink.
C. the dialectic method.
D. storming.
E. dysfunctional conflict.
134. ______ is the process of having two people or groups play opposing roles in a
debate in order to better understand a proposal.
A. Storming
B. Positive conflict
C. Devil's advocacy
D. Groupthink
E. The dialectic method
Chapter 13 Groups & Teams: Increasing Cooperation, Reducing
Conflict Answer Key
Multiple Choice Questions
61. (p. 407) Which of the following is the best way to manage virtual teams?
A. Focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations.
B. When beginning with a virtual team, set the final deadline and reprimand any
virtual team members who don't make the deadline.
C. Because you don't have face-to-face contact, relay instructions via phone.
D. Require each team member to keep their own personal record of the work
that's been done as a team.
E. Utilize employees on a global team around the clock.
Of the choices given, the best way to manage virtual teams is to focus on what's
accomplished, not whether an employee is working from her patio or at 10 P.M.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
62. (p. 407) In managing virtual workers, a manager should
A. give directions only by phone or in person.
B. make sure the worker is keeping to a fixed schedule of hours.
C. let employees work using their own expectations of how to do their jobs.
D. meet regularly, face to face.
E. initiate change quickly.
Meeting regularly facilitates the social relationships and informal information
flow between team members.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
63. (p. 408) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of teamwork in an
organization?
A. Increased speed
B. Decreased stress
C. Reduced costs
D. Improved workplace cohesiveness
E. Reduced destructive internal competition
Teamwork is responsible for many improvements in the workplace, including
increased productivity, increased speed, reduced costs, improved quality,
reduced destructive internal competition, and improved workplace cohesiveness.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
64. (p. 409) Two or more freely interacting individuals who share collective norms,
share collective goals, and have a common identity are called a
A. cluster.
B. self-managing work team.
C. collaborative unit.
D. quality circle.
E. group.
A group is defined as two or more freely interacting individuals who share
collective norms, share collective goals, and have a common identity.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
65. (p. 409) A _______ is defined as a small group of people with complementary skills
who are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for
which they hold themselves accountable.
A. cross-functional team
B. group
C. team
D. panel
E. formal group
A team is defined as a small group of people with complementary skills who are
committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which
they hold themselves mutually accountable.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
66. (p. 409) A group that is created to do something productive for the organization
and is headed by a leader is called a(n)
A. dynamic group.
B. formal group.
C. normative group.
D. informal group.
E. network group.
A formal group is a group established to do something productive for the
organization and is headed by a leader.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
67. (p. 409) Beth organized several teachers to discuss the school painting
scheduled for summer. They looked at several brands, and heard a presentation
by a designer who then helped them choose a color palette to recommend to
school administrators. In this instance, the teachers make up a(n)
A. self-managed team.
B. virtual team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. informal group.
E. formal group.
A formal group is a group established to do something productive for the
organization and is headed by a leader.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
68. (p. 409) Which of the following is true of informal groups?
A. Informal groups can advance the plans of formal groups.
B. A temporary committee is an example of an informal group.
C. Members of an informal group are assigned to it by the skills they possess.
D. Informal groups have appointed leaders.
E. Informal groups are primarily created to solve an organization problem.
Informal groups can advance or undercut the plans of formal groups. The
attempts an organization may make to change can be supported or sabotaged by
an informal group.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
69. (p. 409) Almost every day at 11:30, Tara and four of her coworkers met to walk
the wilderness trail behind their office building. This is an example of a(n)
A. continuous improvement team.
B. informal group.
C. self-managed team.
D. virtual team.
E. formal group.
An informal group is a group formed by people seeking friendship and has no
officially appointed leader, although a leader may emerge from the membership.
An informal group may be a collection of friends who hang out with one another,
such as those who take coffee breaks together.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
70. (p. 411) A team composed of people from different departments who are
pursuing a common objective is called a
A. quality circle.
B. problem-solving team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. virtual team.
E. work force.
On a cross-functional team, members are composed of people from different
departments, such as sales and production, all of whom are pursuing a common
objective.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
71. (p. 411) Carlie, Clarke and Armando met once a week for several months in the
fall to decide how to reorganize their department work spaces when the
organization moved to a new building in January. This is an example of a
A. top management team.
B. problem-solving team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. virtual team.
E. continuous improvement team.
On a problem-solving team, knowledgeable workers meet as a temporary team to
solve a specific problem and then disband.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
72. (p. 411) A team that consists of members who interact by computer network to
collaborate on projects is called a(n)
A. remote team.
B. problem-solving team.
C. self-managed team.
D. informal team.
E. virtual team.
On a virtual team, members interact by computer network to collaborate on
projects.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
73. (p. 411) A work team that works to accomplish tasks that require people with
specialized training and a high degree of coordination is called a(n)
A. production team.
B. project team.
C. development team.
D. action team.
E. advice team.
Action teams work to accomplish tasks that require people with (1) specialized
training and (2) a high degree of coordination, as on a baseball team, with
specialized athletes acting in coordination.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
74. (p. 411) At Berk Architects, a group of designers are developing the first
drawings for a proposed multi-use development in a revitalizing section of a
large city. What type of work team is this group?
A. Project team
B. Production team
C. Product team
D. Action team
E. Advice team
Project teams work to do creative problem solving, often by applying the
specialized knowledge of members. Examples are task forces, research groups,
and architect teams.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
75. (p. 411) A data processing group is an example of a(n)
A. routine team.
B. action team.
C. advice team.
D. production team.
E. project team.
Production teams are responsible for performing day-to-day operations.
Examples are mining teams, flight-attendant crews, maintenance crews,
assembly teams, data processing groups, and manufacturing crews.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
76. (p. 411-412) Which of the following is a characteristic of a continuous
improvement team?
A. A built-in part of any effective organizational group
B. A type of advice team
C. Requires assigned membership
D. Emerged from self-managed team concept
E. Encourages high empowerment
Continuous improvement teams are a type of advice team that consist of small
groups of volunteers or workers and supervisors who meet intermittently to
discuss workplace- and quality-related problems.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
77. (p. 411-412) Who are typical members of continuous improvement teams?
A. Workers and supervisors
B. Supervisors and managers
C. Managers and agents representing competitors
D. Outside suppliers
E. Customers and suppliers
Continuous improvement teams are a type of advice team that consist of small
groups of volunteers or workers and supervisors who meet intermittently to
discuss workplace- and quality-related problems.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
78. (p. 412) Which of the following is an important aspect when creating a self-
managed team?
A. Lessen the authority and autonomy that is granted
B. Require participation to be outside of normal working hours
C. Allow workers to simply do their own thing
D. Use team bonuses
E. Require voluntary only membership
A self-managed team is defined as a group of workers who are given
administrative oversight for their task domains. Personnel and reward systems
need to be adapted to encourage teamwork. Individual bonuses must give way to
team bonuses.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
79. (p. 412) Self-managed teams are groups of workers who have been given ______
for their task domains.
A. individual incentives
B. administrative oversight
C. reduced responsibility
D. complete freedom
E. no technology
A self-managed team is defined as a group of workers who are given
administrative oversight for their task domains.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
80. (p. 412) Administrative oversight given to self-managed teams does NOT
include
A. planning
B. scheduling work
C. implementing change
D. monitoring performance
E. staffing
Administrative oversight involves delegated activities such as planning,
scheduling, monitoring, and staffing.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
81. (p. 412) When using a self-managed team, a manager should
A. maintain detailed monitoring of its performance.
B. create the team within whatever structure currently exists.
C. offer lucrative individual bonuses.
D. allow members to hire their own co-workers.
E. provide elaborate retreats for team discussions.
Self-managed teams are defined as groups of workers who are given
administrative oversight for their task domains. Administrative oversight
involves delegated activities such as planning, scheduling, monitoring, and
staffing.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-01 How is one collection of workers different from any other?
Topic: Groups versus Teams
82. (p. 413) Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of group and team
development?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Reforming
D. Adjourning
E. Performing
One theory proposes that groups and teams go through five stages of
development: forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
83. (p. 413) The question the group is asking during the forming stage of group
development is
A. "Why are we here?"
B. "What's next?"
C. "Can we do the job properly?"
D. "Why are we fighting about who does what?"
E. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"
For the group, the question in the forming stage is "Why are we here?"
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
84. (p. 413) During the forming stage, the leader should
A. establish permanent control.
B. allow people to socialize.
C. empower team members.
D. encourage disagreement.
E. work through team conflicts.
During the forming stage, leaders should allow time for people to become
acquainted and to socialize.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
85. (p. 413) The ______ stage of team development is characterized by the emergence
of individual personalities and roles and conflicts within the group.
A. norming
B. forming
C. adjourning
D. performing
E. storming
The second stage, storming, is characterized by the emergence of individual
personalities and roles and conflicts within the group.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
86. (p. 414) The group development stage in which individuals test the leader's
policies and assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power
structure is the ______ stage.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
The storming stage is a time of testing. Individuals test the leader's policies and
assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power structure.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
87. (p. 414) Yuan's team was not making much progress on the development of a
new production process. Linnea was being very uncooperative; she did not agree
with the direction Yuan was taking, so she hadn't helped with her part. This team
is in what stage of group development?
A. Performing
B. Forming
C. Adjourning
D. Storming
E. Norming
The storming stage is a time of testing. Individuals test the leader's policies and
assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power structure.
Subtle forms of rebellion, like procrastination, occur. Groups can stall here when
power politics erupt into open rebellion.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
88. (p. 414) During the ______ stage of team development, close relationships develop
and unity and harmony emerge.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
In the third stage, norming, conflicts are resolved, close relationships develop,
and unity and harmony emerge.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
89. (p. 414) The question individuals ask during the norming stage of group
development is
A. "How do I fit in here?"
B. "What's next?"
C. "How can I best perform my role?"
D. "What do the others expect me to do?"
E. "What's my role here?"
In the third stage, norming, conflicts are resolved, close relationships develop,
and unity and harmony emerge. For individuals, the main issue is "What do the
others expect me to do?"
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
90. (p. 414) The principal by-product of the norming stage of team development is
A. adjournment.
B. uncertainty.
C. group cohesiveness.
D. conflict.
E. empowerment.
Group cohesiveness, a "we" feeling binding group members together, is the
principal by-product of stage 3, norming.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
91. (p. 414) Since hard feelings about group leadership and assignments had passed,
Phillip's group seemed to be relating much better. At the meeting tomorrow he
should
A. help the team identify group goals and values.
B. encourage members to voice disagreements.
C. help people get to know each other.
D. empower the members.
E. throw a party.
In the third stage, norming, conflicts are resolved, close relationships develop,
and unity and harmony emerge. In the norming stage the leader should
emphasize unity and help identify team goals and values.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
92. (p. 414) ______ is a "we" feeling that binds group members together.
A. Maintenance
B. Groupthink
C. Norming
D. Social loafing
E. Group cohesiveness
Group cohesiveness, a "we" feeling binding group members together, is the
principal by-product of stage 3, norming.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
93. (p. 414) In the performing stage of group development, members
A. prepare for disbandment.
B. develop close relationships.
C. concentrate on solving problems.
D. test the leader's policies.
E. hold back to see what will happen.
In performing, members concentrate on solving problems and completing the
assigned task.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
94. (p. 414) During the performing stage of team development, the group answers
the question
A. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"
B. "Why are we here?"
C. "Why are we fighting?"
D. "Can we do the job properly?"
E. "Who's in charge?"
During the performing stage the group asks "Can we do the job properly?"
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
95. (p. 414) Andrea led a team that has just finished up a very challenging research
project that will assist management in developing long range plans. Despite the
stress of the past few months, a few people now seem sad it's over. Now Andrea
should
A. have an awards ceremony.
B. emphasize unity.
C. get the group disbanded quickly to free people up for new things.
D. provide opportunities for people to get to know each other better now.
E. allow members to work on similar tasks.
In the final stage, adjourning, members prepare for disbandment. Having worked
so hard to get along and get something done, many members feel a compelling
sense of loss. The leader can help ease the transition by rituals celebrating "the
end" and "new beginnings." Parties, award ceremonies, graduations, or mock
funerals can provide the needed punctuation at the end of a significant teamwork
project.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
96. (p. 414) Groups that make it through storming generally do so because
A. they develop groupthink.
B. someone wins the political battle and dominates the group.
C. someone besides the leader challenges the group to resolve power struggles.
D. the work gets done.
E. the focus generally is on social loafing.
Groups that make it through storming generally do so because a respected
member other than the leader challenges the group to resolve its power struggles
so something can be accomplished.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
97. (p. 414) The stage during which a group sets guidelines about issues like
attendance and punctuality is the ______ stage.
A. norming
B. storming
C. forming
D. adjourning
E. performing
In the norming stage teams set guidelines related to what members will do
together and how they will do it. The teams consider such matters as attendance
at meetings, being late, and missing assignments as well as how members treat
one another.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-02 How does a group evolve into a team?
Topic: Stages of Group & Team Development
98. (p. 414) Which of the following is NOT a primary consideration in building a
group into an effective team?
A. Cohesiveness
B. Groupthink
C. Autocratic structure
D. Performance goals and feedback
E. Size
The considerations in building a group into an effective team are (1)
performance goals and feedback, (2) motivation through mutual accountability,
(3) size, (4) roles, (5) norms, (6) cohesiveness, and (7) groupthink.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
99. (p. 416) Which of the following is an advantage of smaller groups?
A. Fewer distractions
B. More formalized team leadership
C. More creativity and innovation
D. More division of labor
E. Better interaction and morale
Smaller groups have two advantages: better interaction and better morale.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
100. (p. 416) Which of the following is a disadvantage of smaller groups?
A. Unfair work distribution
B. Autocratic leadership
C. Lower morale
D. Tendency to form cliques
E. Tendency to take unreasonable risk
Small teams have some disadvantages: fewer resources, possibly less innovation,
and unfair work distribution.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
101. (p. 416) Which of the following is an advantage of larger groups?
A. Higher morale
B. More effective interaction
C. Greater boldness
D. Can take advantage of division of labor
E. Less social loafing
Teams with 10-16 members (large) have different advantages over small teams:
more resources and the ability to take advantage of division of labor.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
102. (p. 416) Which of the following is a disadvantage of larger groups?
A. Less creativity and innovation
B. Less commitment
C. More division of labor
D. Fewer resources
E. Fewer cliques
Because people are less able to see the worth of their individual contributions in
large teams, they show less commitment and satisfaction and more turnover and
absenteeism.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
103. (p. 417) There were 17 people on the grounds maintenance committee, and
among its responsibilities were monthly parking lot cleanup and weekly patio
sweeping. Alex was a part of the committee at his boss's request, but had never
actually helped with anything. This is likely an example of
A. storming.
B. devil's advocacy.
C. social loafing.
D. procrastinating.
E. adjourning.
The larger the size of the team, the more likely performance is to drop, owing to
the phenomenon known as social loafing, the tendency of people to exert less
effort when working in groups than when working alone.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
104. (p. 417) Members of a team develop their ______ based on the expectations of
the team, of the organization, and of themselves.
A. roles
B. norms
C. groupthink
D. job descriptions
E. social fit
Roles are socially determined expectations of how individuals should behave in a
specific position. Members develop them based on expectations of the team, the
organization, and themselves.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
105. (p. 417) A ______ role is behavior that concentrates on getting the team's work
done.
A. maintenance
B. performance
C. administrative
D. task
E. production
A task role, or task-oriented role, consists of behavior that concentrates on
getting the team's tasks done.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
106. (p. 417) Vanita points out during the meeting that the group has fallen a half
hour behind schedule according to the agenda, and should get back to the
important work at hand. Vanita is performing a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
A task role, or task-oriented role, consists of behavior that concentrates on
getting the team's tasks done. Task roles keep the team on track and get the work
done. If you stand up in a team meeting and say, "What is the real issue here? We
don't seem to be getting anywhere," you are performing a task role.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
107. (p. 418) Someone at a team meeting who says, "Let's hear from those who
oppose this plan" is performing a ______ role.
A. maintenance
B. social
C. coordinator
D. reorientation
E. task
A maintenance role is behavior that fosters constructive relationships among
team members. Saying, "Let's hear from those who oppose this plan," is playing a
maintenance role.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
108. (p. 418) The atmosphere in the room was tense and somewhat negative as the
management team discussed changes to promotion requirements. But then
Eterio made a joke about Ryan's white-knuckled grip on his pen, and the laughter
seemed to improve the mood. Eterio was acting in a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
A maintenance role is behavior that fosters constructive relationships among
team members. Examples include harmonizers, those who mediate conflict
through reconciliation or humor.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
109. (p. 418-419) Which of the following is NOT a reason to enforce norms?
A. To clarify role expectations
B. To create a written document of behavioral guidelines for new employees
C. To help the group survive
D. To emphasize the group's important values
E. To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations
Norms tend to be enforced by group or team members for four reasons: to help
the group survive, to clarify role expectations, to help individuals avoid
embarrassing situations, and to emphasize the group's important values and
identity.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
110. (p. 419) Nordstrom's department store chain emphasizes the great lengths to
which it goes in customer service, an example of which of these reasons to
enforce norms?
A. To clarify role expectations
B. To help the group survive
C. To create cohesiveness
D. To emphasize the group's important values
E. To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations
Norms are enforced to emphasize the group, team, or organization's central
values, such as Nordstrom's great customer service.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
111. (p. 419) Which of the following is a way managers can enhance team
cohesiveness?
A. Giving every group member a vital role
B. Providing team members precise instructions for their tasks
C. Creating a relatively large team
D. Assigning members randomly to teams
E. Allowing off-the-job social events
Managers can stimulate cohesiveness by allowing people on work teams to pick
their own teammates, allowing off-the-job social events, and urging team
members to recognize and appreciate each other's contributions to the team
goal.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
112. (p. 420) Building collaborative teams is aided by combining role clarity with
A. task ambiguity.
B. groupthink.
C. flexible performance standards.
D. challenges to norms.
E. devil's advocacy.
Among the ways to build collaborative teams is to understand role clarity and
task ambiguity. Cooperation increases when the roles of individual team
members are sharply defined yet the team is given latitude on how to achieve the
task (see Table 13.3).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
113. (p. 420) When members of a group are friendly and tight-knit but unable to
disagree enough to properly appraise alternatives, they are said to be
experiencing
A. paradigm paralysis.
B. groupthink.
C. social loafing.
D. the dialectic method.
E. devil's advocacy.
Groupthink is a cohesive group's blind unwillingness to consider alternatives. In
this phenomenon, group or team members are friendly and tight-knit, but they
are unable to think "outside the box."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
114. (p. 420) Pam sat through the meeting feeling convinced her team was
misinterpreting recent marketing research, but she didn't say anything. The team
leader was a close friend. Plus, she didn't want to disrupt the team since she
thought she was the only one with reservations. Pam's team appears to be
experiencing
A. groupthink.
B. storming.
C. social loafing.
D. norming.
E. devil's advocacy.
Groupthink is a cohesive group's blind unwillingness to consider alternatives.
Here, team members are friendly and tight-knit, but they are unable to think
"outside the box."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
115. (p. 421) Peer pressure which leads group members to question the loyalty of
other members who express dissent is a symptom of
A. social loafing.
B. norming.
C. devil's advocacy.
D. groupthink.
E. storming.
Among the symptoms of groupthink are the illusion of unanimity and peer
pressure. The illusion of unanimity is another way of saying that silence by a
member is interpreted as consent. But if people do disagree, peer pressure leads
other members to question the loyalty of the dissenters.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
116. (p. 422) To prevent groupthink, a manager should
A. reinforce how capable the group is.
B. never admit errors to outsiders.
C. bring in outside experts for fresh perspectives.
D. encourage everyone to "get with the team."
E. express high confidence in the group's previous decisions.
Preventive measures for groupthink include allowing other perspectives. Outside
experts should be used to introduce fresh perspectives.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-03 How can I; as a manager; build an effective team?
Topic: Building Effective Teams
117. (p. 423) Negative conflict is sometimes called ______ conflict.
A. dysfunctional
B. irregular
C. destructive
D. aggressive
E. apathetic
Negative conflict is conflict that hinders the organization's performance or
threatens its interests. As a manager, you need to do what you can to remove
negative conflict, sometimes called dysfunctional conflict.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
118. (p. 425) Which of the following is characteristic of work groups with too little
conflict?
A. Dissatisfaction
B. Indecision
C. Political infighting
D. Lack of teamwork
E. Turnover
Excessive conflict can erode organizational performance because of political
infighting, dissatisfaction, lack of teamwork, and turnover. Work groups,
departments, or organizations that experience too little conflict tend to be
plagued by apathy, lack of creativity, indecision, and missed deadlines.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
119. (p. 425) Which of the following is a manifestation of excessive conflict in the
workplace?
A. Apathy
B. Lack of creativity
C. Missed deadlines
D. Violence
E. Indecision
Workplace aggression and violence are manifestations of excessive conflict.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
120. (p. 425) Workplace performance is maximized when
A. conflict is absent.
B. conflict is at a very low level.
C. conflict is at a moderate level.
D. conflict is at a high level.
E. conflict occurs only at non-managerial levels.
A moderate level of conflict can induce creativity and initiative, thereby raising
performance (see Figure 13.2). Too much or too little conflict has been shown to
reduce performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
121. (p. 425) Hannah is on a team with Carson, and they are often in conflict.
Hannah likes to begin her work with careful planning and she gets started
immediately. Carson, on the other hand, likes trying out several ideas, and tends
to be working frantically at the last minute. Their team conflict most likely stems
from
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. ambiguous jurisdictions.
E. inconsistent goals.
Personality, values, attitudes, and experience can be so disparate that sometimes
the only way to resolve individual differences—personality clashes—is to
separate two people. Hannah and Carson have two entirely different attitudes
toward meeting deadlines.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
122. (p. 426) Which of the following is a source of conflict in the workplace?
A. Excessive communication
B. Strict job boundaries
C. Too many resources
D. Lack of diversity
E. Inconsistent goals
A source of intergroup conflict is inconsistent goals or reward systems, when
people pursue different objectives.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
123. (p. 427) Abel, whose primary job is supervising a small production group, is
not getting cooperation from all members on the cross-functional team he leads.
In particular, Samantha, a marketing manager, seems to resist his direction. The
source of conflict in this can be
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. status differences.
E. ambiguous jurisdictions.
A source of intergroup conflict is status differences, when there are
inconsistencies in power and influence. It can happen that people who are lower
in status according to the organizational chart actually have disproportionate
power over those theoretically above them, which can lead to conflicts.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
124. (p. 427) The conflict-handling style in which a person allows the desires of
another to prevail is known as
A. forcing.
B. accommodating.
C. avoiding.
D. collaborating.
E. compromising.
Accommodating is allowing the desires of the other party to prevail. As one
writer describes it, "An obliging [accommodating] person neglects his or her own
concern to satisfy the concern of the other party."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
125. (p. 427) When issues causing conflict are trivial, or when emotions are high
and a cooling-off period would be helpful, which conflict-handling style is
preferable?
A. Collaborating
B. Forcing
C. Accommodating
D. Avoiding
E. Compromising
Avoiding involves ignoring or suppressing a conflict. Avoidance is appropriate for
trivial issues, when emotions are high and a cooling-off period is needed, or
when the cost of confrontation outweighs the benefits of resolving the conflict.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
126. (p. 427) Kazimir has missed another deadline and his boss Carla is furious. She
will have to explain to the client again why the project is behind. Carla thinks she
may say something she'll regret if she talks to Kazimir about this now, so she
decides to wait awhile. Carla is using the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
Avoiding involves ignoring or suppressing a conflict. Avoidance is appropriate for
trivial issues, when emotions are high and a cooling-off period is needed, or
when the cost of confrontation outweighs the benefits of resolving the conflict.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
127. (p. 427) Megan came to her boss with a proposal for a new Minolta copier.
Daniel tells her that he has always used and liked Xerox copiers, but when he
thinks about it later he realizes he does not feel really strongly about it. Daniel
should adopt a(n) ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
Accommodating is allowing the desires of the other party to prevail. It is
appropriate to let the other party have her way when the issue is not important
to you and it is not complex.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
128. (p. 428) ______ strives to devise solutions that benefit both parties.
A. Avoiding
B. Collaborating
C. Compromising
D. Forcing
E. Accommodating
Collaborating strives to devise solutions that benefit both parties.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
129. (p. 428) Sasha told her team that she is moving forward with a change to the
bonus structure, despite vocal objections from several team members. Sasha is
using the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
Forcing or dominating is simply ordering an outcome, when a manager relies on
his or her formal authority and power.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
130. (p. 428) The disadvantage of the ______ conflict-handling style is that it is very
time consuming.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
The strength of collaborating is its longer-lasting impact because it deals with the
underlying problem, not just its symptoms. Its weakness is that it's very time-
consuming.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
131. (p. 428) In which of the following conditions should constructive conflict be
stimulated?
A. The group seems to be apathetic.
B. Managers want to achieve work objectives.
C. The group is adapting to change.
D. Managers are in charge of self-managed teams.
E. There is a lot of internal competition.
Constructive conflict, if carefully monitored, can be very productive under a
number of circumstances, including when your work group seems afflicted with
inertia and apathy resulting in low performance, when there's a lack of new ideas
and resistance to change, and when there seem to be a lot of groupthink in the
work unit.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
132. (p. 429) ______ is designed to elicit different opinions without inciting people's
personal feelings.
A. Groupthink
B. Programmed conflict
C. Social loafing
D. Storming
E. Dysfunctional conflict
Programmed conflict is designed to elicit different opinions without inciting
people's personal feelings.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
133. (p. 429) Keith asked Becky, one of his team members, to purposefully think of
and voice criticisms as the group discussed a popular idea to open a branch office
in another state. This is an example of the use of
A. devil's advocacy.
B. groupthink.
C. the dialectic method.
D. storming.
E. dysfunctional conflict.
Devil's advocacy is the process of assigning someone to play the role of critic to
voice possible objections to a proposal and thereby generate critical thinking and
reality testing.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
134. (p. 429) ______ is the process of having two people or groups play opposing
roles in a debate in order to better understand a proposal.
A. Storming
B. Positive conflict
C. Devil's advocacy
D. Groupthink
E. The dialectic method
The dialectic method is the process of having two people or groups play opposing
roles in a debate in order to better understand a proposal.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 13-04 Since conflict is a part of life; what should a manager know about it in order to deal successfully
with it?
Topic: Managing Conflict
Chapter 14
Power, Influence, & Leadership: From Becoming a Manager to
Becoming a Leader
Multiple Choice Questions
59. Which of the following is NOT advice from career coach Richard Knowdell for
staying ahead in the workplace of tomorrow?
A. Develop new and diverse capacities
B. Anticipate, adapt to and embrace change
C. Focus on workplace learning rather than the classroom
D. When considering a job or industry, don't rely on reputation
E. Develop your communication skills
60. Leadership is the ability to ______ employees to pursue organizational goals.
A. force
B. reward
C. request
D. influence
E. compensate
61. _______ is about coping with complexity and ______ is about coping with
change.
A. Middle management; top management
B. Management; leadership
C. Attitude; perception
D. Leadership; management
E. Perception; attitude
62. According to Kotter, management and leadership are considered to be
A. opposing forces.
B. causal; here, management causes leadership.
C. equivalent to one another.
D. almost entirely unrelated.
E. complementary to each other.
63. According to Kotter, companies manage complexity in which of the following
ways?
A. Organizing resources
B. Motivating people
C. Lobbying the government
D. Innovating new products
E. Setting a direction
64. Of the following, which is the best way for leaders to cope with change?
A. Problem-solving
B. Lobbying the government
C. Aligning people
D. Virtual planning
E. Watching current trends
65. According to Frederick Smith, chairman and CEO of FedEx, the primary task
of leadership is to
A. ensure progressive control and problem solving.
B. align resources within the organization.
C. inspire trust among all levels of employees.
D. communicate the vision and values of an organization.
E. oversee the success of an organization.
66. The power that managers have resulting from their formal positions within
organizations is called ______ power.
A. referent
B. legitimate
C. reward
D. coercive
E. expert
67. April congratulated her staff when the team received an industry award for
their project, and also sent a company-wide email announcing it. Here, April is
using her ______ power.
A. personalized
B. referent
C. coercive
D. expert
E. reward
68. ______ power results from one's specialized information.
A. Legitimate
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward
E. Coercive
69. Trey was put on probation for a string of customer complaints about his
service and professionalism. His supervisor was using ______ power.
A. coercive
B. personalized
C. referent
D. reward
E. expert
70. Power deriving from one's personal attraction is called ______ power.
A. legitimate
B. referent
C. reward
D. coercive
E. personalized
71. Emily is outgoing, warm and truly inspirational when she talks about where
she wants to lead her division. Her employees seem eager to do anything she
asks. Emily has ______ power.
A. legitimate
B. referent
C. reward
D. coercive
E. expert
72. In recent studies, the generic influence tactic that employees cite as most
used in the workplace is
A. legitimating.
B. ingratiation.
C. coalition.
D. rational persuasion.
E. pressure.
73. The three least used influence tactics, according to a recent survey of
employees, are
A. legitimating, coalition tactics, and pressure tactics.
B. inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and consultation.
C. rational persuasion, pressure tactics, and exchange.
D. rational persuasion, coalition tactics, and upward appeals.
E. inspirational appeals, coalition tactics, and pressure tactics.
74. The influence tactic most likely to result in the enthusiastic commitment of
employees is
A. legitimating tactics.
B. consultation.
C. ingratiating tactics.
D. coalition tactics.
E. personal appeals.
75. Acting humble or friendly or making someone feel good or important before
making a request are influence tactics known as
A. coalition tactics.
B. inspirational appeals.
C. consultation.
D. ingratiating tactics.
E. personal appeals.
76. Brent brought his proposal to Allison even before the meeting saying, "I'm
sure you have some ideas on this and we could try to get them incorporated
upfront." Brent is using which influence tactic?
A. Legitimating tactics.
B. Inspirational appeals.
C. Ingratiating tactics.
D. Personal appeals.
E. Consultation.
77. Using threats or intimidation to persuade someone is which influence tactic?
A. Legitimating
B. Ingratiating
C. Pressure
D. Exchange
E. Personal appeals
78. When Melinda saw Carrie stuffing her purse with expensive printer
cartridges, Carrie was quick to say, "We've been friends since first grade, so I'm
sure you won't say anything about this." This is an example of using a(n)
A. personal appeal.
B. legitimating tactic.
C. pressure tactic.
D. coalition tactic.
E. exchange tactic.
79. The ______ approach to leadership attempts to identify distinctive
characteristics that account for the effectiveness of leaders.
A. attribute
B. trait
C. behavior
D. quality
E. contingency
80. Organizations may apply trait theory by
A. considering the relationships among employees.
B. using management development programs.
C. hiring only from top-ranked business schools.
D. doing a job audit.
E. empowering the HR department.
81. Which of the following is one of the traits of a credible leader identified by
Kouzes and Posner?
A. Honest
B. Relationship-oriented
C. Competitive
D. Extroverted
E. Driven
82. According to a BusinessWeek summary of management studies, men score
better than women do on
A. fostering communication.
B. producing high-quality work.
C. strategic planning.
D. motivating others.
E. listening to others.
83. ______ studies reveal that visionary and inspirational charismatic leaders who
are good team builders generally are most effective worldwide.
A. Servant leader
B. E-leadership
C. Contingency model
D. GLOBE project
E. Full-range approach
84. The ______ leadership approaches attempt to determine the distinctive styles
used by effective leaders.
A. behavioral
B. servant
C. shared
D. trait
E. contingency
85. Which of the following is a behavioral leadership approach?
A. Servant leadership model
B. University of Michigan leadership model
C. Path-goal leadership model
D. Transformational leadership
E. Leader-member exchange model
86. In the University of Michigan studies, leadership style is identified as
A. job-centered or employee-centered.
B. transactional or transformational.
C. initiating structure or consideration.
D. task-oriented or relationship-oriented.
E. telling, selling, participating, or delegating.
87. Erdem manages his employees through a careful monitoring of their
production, comparing what they do to predicted schedules and desired budgets.
Erdem can best be described as a(n) ______ leader.
A. production-oriented
B. charismatic
C. job-centered
D. transformational
E. employee-centered
88. The model that identifies leadership behavior as either "initiating structure"
or "consideration" is the ______ model.
A. leader-member exchange
B. path-goal leadership
C. University of Michigan leadership
D. University of Ohio leadership
E. situational leadership
89. Bonita apologized to one of her subordinates for an email that upset him. She
told him she may have chosen an unfortunate way of stating her idea, and that
she'd be happy to talk it through with him. Bonita is
A. using a personal appeal.
B. initiating structure.
C. practicing shared leadership.
D. exercising personalized power.
E. expressing consideration behavior.
90. From the University of Michigan and Ohio State studies, one management
expert concluded that effective leaders tend to do all of the following EXCEPT
which?
A. Change leadership styles according to the situation
B. Have supportive relationships with employees
C. Use group rather than individual methods of supervision
D. Set high performance goals
E. Have an employee-centered leadership style
91. The approach to leadership that suggests that effective leadership behavior
depends on the situation at hand is the ______ approach.
A. trait
B. transformational
C. circumstantial
D. behavioral
E. contingency
92. Which of the following is a contingency approach to leadership?
A. Michigan model
B. Path-goal leadership model
C. Servant leadership model
D. Ohio State model
E. Leader-member exchange model
93. Fiedler's contingency leadership model determines if a leader's style is
A. transactional or transformational.
B. directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented.
C. task-oriented or relationship-oriented.
D. telling, selling, participating, or delegating.
E. charismatic or non-charismatic.
94. The amount of influence a leader has in his immediate work environment is
called his
A. coercive power.
B. leadership style.
C. readiness.
D. situational control.
E. task structure.
95. The model that requires a manager to assess her own style and her
situational control is
A. Fiedler's contingency model.
B. shared leadership model.
C. Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership model.
D. House's path-goal theory.
E. charismatic leadership theory.
96. The questionnaire used in Fiedler's model to determine leadership
orientation is called the
A. Myers-Briggs type inventory.
B. least preferred coworker scale.
C. tolerance of ambiguity questionnaire.
D. Type A behavior scale.
E. path-goal survey.
97. Jay's peers were surprised when he received a promotion and suddenly
became their supervisor. They thought he was rather unreliable and weren't sure
he was up to the task. According to the contingency model, Jay has
A. poor leader-member relations.
B. weak position power.
C. poor worker facilitation.
D. low task structure.
E. unsuccessful leadership adaptation.
98. One of three dimensions of situational control in the contingency leadership
model, ______ is the extent to which tasks are routine, unambiguous, and easily
understood.
A. job mastery
B. task identity
C. position power
D. job design
E. task structure
99. Liz is trying to lead a cross-functional team, but she is having some issues.
Most members were other department managers at her level, and they saw no
reason to do what she told them to. Here, Liz has
A. low tolerance for ambiguity.
B. high task structure.
C. weak referent power.
D. poor leader-member relations.
E. weak position power.
100. According to the contingency model, a relationship-oriented leadership
style works best in ______ situations.
A. low control
B. high control
C. moderate control
D. uncontrolled
E. both high and low control
101. Tim leads a task force developing specifications for a new customer
database to be used by several departments. Tim is an IT supervisor, but most of
the others are directors of other departments. At the first meeting, a few of them
asked him questions he couldn't answer. According to the contingency model,
Tim's situational control likely
A. is low.
B. is moderate.
C. is high.
D. is extremely high.
E. cannot be determined from the information.
102. Amanda leads a task force charged with restructuring the order-processing
system in the organization. The task force is composed of her peers over whom
she has little control, and some of whom do not seem to respect her. According to
the contingency model, Amanda should adopt a(n) ___________ leadership style.
A. employee-centered
B. task-oriented
C. relationship-oriented
D. participatory
E. initiating structure
103. In assessing how much situational control he has, a manager should
consider which of the following?
A. Amount of socialized power
B. Subordinate readiness
C. Level of transformation
D. Amount of task structure
E. Ability of staff
104. Viviana supervises a group of customer service representatives. Viviana is
respected and well-liked by her staff, and she has worked hard to make sure all of
them know how to do the job very well. She is responsible for all staffing and
reward decisions in her department. In the contingency model, Viviana has
A. low task structure.
B. high situational control.
C. low leader-member relations.
D. low position power.
E. high expert power.
105. Lorenzo supervises the pool of word processors serving all the lawyers at
the firm. He gets along well with his people, and has worked hard to create
detailed procedures for every type of legal document the typists might encounter.
Lorenzo hires and fires, and gives work assignments, performance appraisals,
and promotions. According to the contingency model, the optimal leadership
style is
A. transformational.
B. team management.
C. task-oriented.
D. relationship-oriented.
E. consideration.
106. According to Fiedler's contingency model, ______ situation control favors a
leader who is ______ oriented.
A. low; relationship
B. low; transformational
C. moderate; task
D. high; transformational
E. moderate; relationship
107. In the contingency model, if your leadership orientation does not match the
situation in your workplace, Fiedler recommends that you
A. try to move to a more suitable situation.
B. alter your leadership style.
C. take management classes to improve your power.
D. get an assistant with the preferred orientation.
E. gradually change the makeup of your subordinates.
108. The model in which an effective leader clarifies how subordinates can
achieve personal and organizational objectives and provides them support in
doing so is
A. Greenleaf's servant leadership model.
B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model.
C. Leader-member exchange model.
D. Fiedler's contingency model.
E. House's path-goal model.
109. According to House's revised path-goal theory, a leader's style should vary
depending on which of the following?
A. Positional power
B. Environmental factors
C. Situational control
D. Organizational readiness
E. Leader-member relations
110. Faruk is something of a cheerleader around his team. He describes the great
things he knows the group can accomplish, is quick to complement the work of
his staff, and is so enthusiastic about their successes. According to revised path-
goal theory, Faruk is using a(n) ______ leadership style.
A. value-based
B. path-goal clarifying
C. interaction facilitation
D. achievement-oriented
E. relationship-oriented
111. Kojika supervises a customer service unit that receives stress-producing
calls from unhappy customers, and turnover has been high lately. Kojika is kind
and patient with the staff, and tells them she knows what they're going through
since it wasn't so long ago that she took those calls. According to revised path-
goal theory, Kojika is using a(n) ______ leadership style.
A. work facilitation
B. interaction facilitation
C. supportive
D. achievement-oriented
E. value-based
112. Michael runs a research and development department. He gets a lot out of
his employees by setting lofty goals and expressing his belief that each of them is
capable of doing his or her part. He expects their best work. According to revised
path-goal theory, Michael is using a(n) ______ leadership style.
A. representation & networking
B. interaction facilitation
C. supportive
D. achievement-oriented
E. work facilitation
113. House's revision of his theory puts more emphasis on the need for leaders
to foster
A. concrete rewards.
B. stress management techniques.
C. intrinsic motivation.
D. an external locus of control.
E. personal growth in management knowledge.
114. The leadership model that suggests that leaders should adjust their
leadership style according to the readiness of the followers is the
A. Greenleaf's servant leadership model.
B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model.
C. Leader-member exchange model.
D. Fiedler's contingency model.
E. House's path-goal model.
115. In the situational leadership model, ______ is defined as the extent to which a
follower possesses the ability and willingness to complete a task.
A. referent power
B. charisma
C. personalized power
D. readiness
E. task structure
116. In the situational leadership model, which of the following leadership styles
is recommended for employees with the highest levels of readiness?
A. Supporting
B. Telling
C. Participating
D. Delegating
E. Selling
117. In the situational leadership model, as follower readiness increases from
low to high, which of the following represents the order in which leaders' styles
should progress?
A. Telling, participating, delegating, selling
B. Telling, selling, delegating, participating
C. Selling, telling, delegating, participating
D. Selling, participating, delegating, telling
E. Telling, selling, participating, delegating
118. In Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership model, when a manager
encourages followers to solve problems on their own and uses shared decision
making, she is using the ______ style.
A. supporting
B. telling
C. participating
D. delegating
E. selling
119. One of Kurt's subordinates, Rosie, has never learned to run customized
reports and is insecure about learning. Nikko doesn't know how to do it either
but is eager to try and has a lot of confidence that he can figure it out. In the
situational model, Kurt should use a ______ style with Rosie, and a ______ style with
Nikko.
A. participating; selling
B. selling; telling
C. selling; participating
D. telling; selling
E. selling, delegating
120. According to the concept of full-range leadership, leadership behaviors vary
along a range from ______ leadership at one extreme to transformational
leadership at the other.
A. transactional
B. shared
C. laissez-faire
D. servant
E. charismatic
121. A transactional leader is most similar in focus to a
A. charismatic leader.
B. transformational leader.
C. servant leader.
D. situational leader.
E. manager.
122. Which of the following is a characteristic of transformational leaders?
A. They are better in stable situations.
B. They clarify employees' roles.
C. They set goals and monitor progress toward their achievement.
D. They encourage people to do exceptional things.
E. They provide rewards in exchange for subordinates doing the work.
123. Charismatic leadership is now considered part of ______ leadership.
A. transactional
B. shared
C. laissez-faire
D. servant
E. transformational
124. Employees at Kearns Seafood were really impressed with the new CEO, Jane.
She was the first person who had fully developed a vision for the company about
where it could go, and had energized everyone to try to get there. Jane is a ______
leader.
A. servant
B. transformational
C. transactional
D. shared
E. laissez-faire
125. Which of the following is NOT positively associated with transformational
leadership, according to research?
A. Employee job satisfaction
B. More employee identification with their immediate work groups
C. Lower levels of internal competition
D. Higher levels of group cohesion
E. More work engagement
126. The ______ model of leadership emphasizes that leaders have different sorts
of relationships with different subordinates.
A. servant
B. contingency
C. Michigan
D. LMX
E. trait
127. In the leadership-member exchange model, the relationship between leader
and follower that is characterized by mutual trust, respect, and liking is known
as
A. preferred coworker exchange
B. servant exchange
C. in-group exchange
D. special exchange
E. socialized exchange
128. ______ leadership is most likely to be needed when people work in teams, are
involved in complex projects, or are doing knowledge work.
A. Transformational
B. Shared
C. Transactional
D. Servant
E. Charismatic
129. MySpace founders Anderson and DeWolfe could best be described as which
type of leaders?
A. Leader-member exchange
B. Situational
C. Servant
D. Shared
E. Transactional
130. A leader who focuses on providing increased service to others is called a
A. charismatic leader.
B. transformational leader.
C. transactional leader.
D. servant leader.
E. situational leader.
131. Javier, the CEO of a small travel company, treated company resources as if
they were his own, and his employees even better. He cared about the staff
deeply and even organized international volunteering activities to promote their
growth. Javier could best be described as which type of leader?
A. Situational
B. Servant
C. Laissez-faire
D. Shared
E. Transactional
132. ______ have a global mind-set that recognizes that the Internet is opening
new markets and recharging existing ones.
A. Situational leaders
B. E-leaders
C. Shared leaders
D. Transactional leaders
E. Web-based leaders
133. Which of the following is a tip to be a successful e-leader?
A. Follow the strategy you set
B. Be a transactional leader
C. Minimize "off-line" time with team members
D. Use global English
E. Use videoconferencing as frequently as possible
Chapter 14 Power, Influence, & Leadership: From Becoming a
Manager to Becoming a Leader Answer Key
Multiple Choice Questions
59. (p. 437) Which of the following is NOT advice from career coach Richard
Knowdell for staying ahead in the workplace of tomorrow?
A. Develop new and diverse capacities
B. Anticipate, adapt to and embrace change
C. Focus on workplace learning rather than the classroom
D. When considering a job or industry, don't rely on reputation
E. Develop your communication skills
One tip is to keep learning. "You can take a one- or two-day course in a new
subject," says Knowdell, "just to get an idea of whether you want to use those
specific skills and to see if you would be good at it. Then, if there is a match, you
could seek out an extended course."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
60. (p. 438) Leadership is the ability to ______ employees to pursue organizational
goals.
A. force
B. reward
C. request
D. influence
E. compensate
Leadership is the ability to influence employees to voluntarily pursue
organizational goals.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
61. (p. 438) _______ is about coping with complexity and ______ is about coping with
change.
A. Middle management; top management
B. Management; leadership
C. Attitude; perception
D. Leadership; management
E. Perception; attitude
John Kotter suggests that management is about coping with complexity and
leadership is about coping with change.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
62. (p. 438) According to Kotter, management and leadership are considered to be
A. opposing forces.
B. causal; here, management causes leadership.
C. equivalent to one another.
D. almost entirely unrelated.
E. complementary to each other.
Kotter suggests that one is not better than the other, that in fact they are
complementary systems of action.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
63. (p. 438) According to Kotter, companies manage complexity in which of the
following ways?
A. Organizing resources
B. Motivating people
C. Lobbying the government
D. Innovating new products
E. Setting a direction
According to Kotter, companies manage complexity by planning and budgeting,
organizing and staffing, and controlling and problem solving.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
64. (p. 439) Of the following, which is the best way for leaders to cope with change?
A. Problem-solving
B. Lobbying the government
C. Aligning people
D. Virtual planning
E. Watching current trends
Leadership copes with change in three ways: setting a direction, aligning people,
and motivating and inspiring.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
65. (p. 439) According to Frederick Smith, chairman and CEO of FedEx, the primary
task of leadership is to
A. ensure progressive control and problem solving.
B. align resources within the organization.
C. inspire trust among all levels of employees.
D. communicate the vision and values of an organization.
E. oversee the success of an organization.
"The primary task of leadership is to communicate the vision and the values of an
organization," says Frederick Smith, chairman and CEO of FedEx.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
66. (p. 440) The power that managers have resulting from their formal positions
within organizations is called ______ power.
A. referent
B. legitimate
C. reward
D. coercive
E. expert
Legitimate power, which all managers have, is power that results from managers'
formal positions within the organization.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
67. (p. 440) April congratulated her staff when the team received an industry award
for their project, and also sent a company-wide email announcing it. Here, April
is using her ______ power.
A. personalized
B. referent
C. coercive
D. expert
E. reward
Reward power, which all managers have, is power that results from managers'
authority to reward their subordinates. Rewards can range from praise to pay
raises, from recognition to promotions.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
68. (p. 440) ______ power results from one's specialized information.
A. Legitimate
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward
E. Coercive
Expert power is power resulting from one's specialized information or expertise.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
69. (p. 440) Trey was put on probation for a string of customer complaints about his
service and professionalism. His supervisor was using ______ power.
A. coercive
B. personalized
C. referent
D. reward
E. expert
Coercive power, which all managers have, results from managers' authority to
punish their subordinates. Punishment can range from verbal or written
reprimands to demotions to terminations.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
70. (p. 440) Power deriving from one's personal attraction is called ______ power.
A. legitimate
B. referent
C. reward
D. coercive
E. personalized
Referent power is power deriving from one's personal attraction. This kind of
power characterizes strong, visionary leaders who are able to persuade their
followers by dint of their personality, attitudes, or background.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
71. (p. 440) Emily is outgoing, warm and truly inspirational when she talks about
where she wants to lead her division. Her employees seem eager to do anything
she asks. Emily has ______ power.
A. legitimate
B. referent
C. reward
D. coercive
E. expert
Referent power is power deriving from one's personal attraction. This kind of
power characterizes strong, visionary leaders who are able to persuade their
followers by dint of their personality, attitudes, or background.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
72. (p. 442) In recent studies, the generic influence tactic that employees cite as
most used in the workplace is
A. legitimating.
B. ingratiation.
C. coalition.
D. rational persuasion.
E. pressure.
There are nine tactics for trying to influence others. The most used is rational
persuasion, which is trying to convince someone by using reason, logic, or facts.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
73. (p. 442) The three least used influence tactics, according to a recent survey of
employees, are
A. legitimating, coalition tactics, and pressure tactics.
B. inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and consultation.
C. rational persuasion, pressure tactics, and exchange.
D. rational persuasion, coalition tactics, and upward appeals.
E. inspirational appeals, coalition tactics, and pressure tactics.
There are nine tactics for trying to influence others, the least used of which are
legitimating, pressure tactics, and coalition tactics.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
74. (p. 442-443) The influence tactic most likely to result in the enthusiastic
commitment of employees is
A. legitimating tactics.
B. consultation.
C. ingratiating tactics.
D. coalition tactics.
E. personal appeals.
Research shows that of the three possible responses to an influence tactic—
enthusiastic commitment, grudging compliance and outright resistance—
commitment is most apt to result when the tactics used are consultation, strong
rational persuasion, and inspirational appeals.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
75. (p. 442) Acting humble or friendly or making someone feel good or important
before making a request are influence tactics known as
A. coalition tactics.
B. inspirational appeals.
C. consultation.
D. ingratiating tactics.
E. personal appeals.
Ingratiating tactics include acting humble or friendly or making someone feel
good or feel important before making a request.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
76. (p. 442) Brent brought his proposal to Allison even before the meeting saying,
"I'm sure you have some ideas on this and we could try to get them incorporated
upfront." Brent is using which influence tactic?
A. Legitimating tactics.
B. Inspirational appeals.
C. Ingratiating tactics.
D. Personal appeals.
E. Consultation.
Consultation means trying to get others to participate in a decision or change.
Example: "Wonder if I could get your thoughts about this matter."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
77. (p. 442) Using threats or intimidation to persuade someone is which influence
tactic?
A. Legitimating
B. Ingratiating
C. Pressure
D. Exchange
E. Personal appeals
Pressure tactics are the use of demands, threats, or intimidation to gain
compliance. Example: "If this doesn't happen, you'd better think about cleaning
out your desk."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
78. (p. 442) When Melinda saw Carrie stuffing her purse with expensive printer
cartridges, Carrie was quick to say, "We've been friends since first grade, so I'm
sure you won't say anything about this." This is an example of using a(n)
A. personal appeal.
B. legitimating tactic.
C. pressure tactic.
D. coalition tactic.
E. exchange tactic.
Personal appeals occur when on refers to friendship and loyalty when making a
request. Example: "We've known each other a long time, and I'm sure I can count
on you."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-01 I don't want to be just a manager; I want to be a leader. What's the difference between the two?
Topic: The Nature of Leadership: Wielding Influence
79. (p. 444) The ______ approach to leadership attempts to identify distinctive
characteristics that account for the effectiveness of leaders.
A. attribute
B. trait
C. behavior
D. quality
E. contingency
Trait approaches to leadership attempt to identify distinctive characteristics that
account for the effectiveness of leaders.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-02 What does it take to be a successful leader?
Topic: Trait Approaches: Do Leaders Have Distinctive Personality Characteristics?
80. (p. 445) Organizations may apply trait theory by
A. considering the relationships among employees.
B. using management development programs.
C. hiring only from top-ranked business schools.
D. doing a job audit.
E. empowering the HR department.
Organizations may apply trait theory by using personality & trait assessments
and by using management development programs.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-02 What does it take to be a successful leader?
Topic: Trait Approaches: Do Leaders Have Distinctive Personality Characteristics?
81. (p. 445) Which of the following is one of the traits of a credible leader identified
by Kouzes and Posner?
A. Honest
B. Relationship-oriented
C. Competitive
D. Extroverted
E. Driven
James Kouzes and Barry Posner surveyed more than 7,500 managers throughout
the United States as to what personal traits they looked for and admired in their
superiors. The respondents suggested that a credible leader should have five
traits. He or she should be (1) honest, (2) competent, (3) forward-looking, (4)
inspiring, and (5) intelligent.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-02 What does it take to be a successful leader?
Topic: Trait Approaches: Do Leaders Have Distinctive Personality Characteristics?
82. (p. 446) According to a BusinessWeek summary of management studies, men
score better than women do on
A. fostering communication.
B. producing high-quality work.
C. strategic planning.
D. motivating others.
E. listening to others.
According to Table 14.3, the summary indicates that men score better than
women on strategic planning and analyzing issues in several of the studies. On
the other traits, women uniformly scored higher.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-02 What does it take to be a successful leader?
Topic: Trait Approaches: Do Leaders Have Distinctive Personality Characteristics?
83. (p. 447) ______ studies reveal that visionary and inspirational charismatic leaders
who are good team builders generally are most effective worldwide.
A. Servant leader
B. E-leadership
C. Contingency model
D. GLOBE project
E. Full-range approach
Project GLOBE (Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness),
surveyed 17,000 middle managers working for 951 organizations across 62
countries, and the researchers determined that certain attributes of leadership
were universally liked or disliked. Visionary and inspirational charismatic
leaders who are good team builders generally do the best.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-02 What does it take to be a successful leader?
Topic: Trait Approaches: Do Leaders Have Distinctive Personality Characteristics?
84. (p. 448) The ______ leadership approaches attempt to determine the distinctive
styles used by effective leaders.
A. behavioral
B. servant
C. shared
D. trait
E. contingency
Behavioral leadership approaches attempt to determine the distinctive styles
used by effective leaders.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-03 Do effective leaders behave in similar ways?
Topic: Behavioral Approaches: Do Leaders Show Distinctive Patterns of Behavior?
85. (p. 448) Which of the following is a behavioral leadership approach?
A. Servant leadership model
B. University of Michigan leadership model
C. Path-goal leadership model
D. Transformational leadership
E. Leader-member exchange model
What all models of leadership behavior have in common is the consideration of
task orientation versus people orientation. Two classic studies came out of the
universities of Michigan and Ohio State.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-03 Do effective leaders behave in similar ways?
Topic: Behavioral Approaches: Do Leaders Show Distinctive Patterns of Behavior?
86. (p. 448) In the University of Michigan studies, leadership style is identified as
A. job-centered or employee-centered.
B. transactional or transformational.
C. initiating structure or consideration.
D. task-oriented or relationship-oriented.
E. telling, selling, participating, or delegating.
Researchers at the University of Michigan identified two forms of leadership
styles: job-centered and employee-centered.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-03 Do effective leaders behave in similar ways?
Topic: Behavioral Approaches: Do Leaders Show Distinctive Patterns of Behavior?
87. (p. 448) Erdem manages his employees through a careful monitoring of their
production, comparing what they do to predicted schedules and desired budgets.
Erdem can best be described as a(n) ______ leader.
A. production-oriented
B. charismatic
C. job-centered
D. transformational
E. employee-centered
In job-centered behavior, managers pay more attention to the job and work
procedures. Their principal concerns are with achieving production efficiency,
keeping costs down, and meeting schedules.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-03 Do effective leaders behave in similar ways?
Topic: Behavioral Approaches: Do Leaders Show Distinctive Patterns of Behavior?
88. (p. 448-449) The model that identifies leadership behavior as either "initiating
structure" or "consideration" is the ______ model.
A. leader-member exchange
B. path-goal leadership
C. University of Michigan leadership
D. University of Ohio leadership
E. situational leadership
From surveys of leadership behavior for the Ohio State Leadership Model, two
major dimensions of leader behavior were identified: initiating structure and
consideration.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-03 Do effective leaders behave in similar ways?
Topic: Behavioral Approaches: Do Leaders Show Distinctive Patterns of Behavior?
89. (p. 449) Bonita apologized to one of her subordinates for an email that upset
him. She told him she may have chosen an unfortunate way of stating her idea,
and that she'd be happy to talk it through with him. Bonita is
A. using a personal appeal.
B. initiating structure.
C. practicing shared leadership.
D. exercising personalized power.
E. expressing consideration behavior.
Consideration is leadership behavior that expresses concern for employees by
establishing a warm, friendly, supportive climate. This behavior, which resembles
Likert's "employee-centered behavior," is sensitive to subordinates' ideas and
feelings and establishes mutual trust.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-03 Do effective leaders behave in similar ways?
Topic: Behavioral Approaches: Do Leaders Show Distinctive Patterns of Behavior?
90. (p. 449) From the University of Michigan and Ohio State studies, one
management expert concluded that effective leaders tend to do all of the
following EXCEPT which?
A. Change leadership styles according to the situation
B. Have supportive relationships with employees
C. Use group rather than individual methods of supervision
D. Set high performance goals
E. Have an employee-centered leadership style
One management expert concluded that effective leaders (1) tend to have
supportive or employee-centered relationships with employees, (2) use group
rather than individual methods of supervision, and (3) set high performance
goals.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-03 Do effective leaders behave in similar ways?
Topic: Behavioral Approaches: Do Leaders Show Distinctive Patterns of Behavior?
91. (p. 449) The approach to leadership that suggests that effective leadership
behavior depends on the situation at hand is the ______ approach.
A. trait
B. transformational
C. circumstantial
D. behavioral
E. contingency
Proponents of the contingency approach to leadership believe that effective
leadership behavior depends on the situation at hand.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-03 Do effective leaders behave in similar ways?
Topic: Behavioral Approaches: Do Leaders Show Distinctive Patterns of Behavior?
92. (p. 450) Which of the following is a contingency approach to leadership?
A. Michigan model
B. Path-goal leadership model
C. Servant leadership model
D. Ohio State model
E. Leader-member exchange model
Three contingency approaches to leadership are: (1) the contingency leadership
model by Fiedler, (2) the path-goal leadership model by House, and (3) the
situational leadership model by Hersey and Blanchard.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
93. (p. 450) Fiedler's contingency leadership model determines if a leader's style is
A. transactional or transformational.
B. directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented.
C. task-oriented or relationship-oriented.
D. telling, selling, participating, or delegating.
E. charismatic or non-charismatic.
The contingency leadership model determines if a leader's style is (1) task-
oriented or (2) relationship-oriented and if that style is effective for the situation
at hand.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
94. (p. 450) The amount of influence a leader has in his immediate work
environment is called his
A. coercive power.
B. leadership style.
C. readiness.
D. situational control.
E. task structure.
Situational control is how much control and influence a leader has in the
immediate work environment.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
95. (p. 450) The model that requires a manager to assess her own style and her
situational control is
A. Fiedler's contingency model.
B. shared leadership model.
C. Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership model.
D. House's path-goal theory.
E. charismatic leadership theory.
The contingency leadership model determines if a leader's style is (1) task-
oriented or (2) relationship-oriented and if that style is effective for the situation
at hand.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
96. (p. 450) The questionnaire used in Fiedler's model to determine leadership
orientation is called the
A. Myers-Briggs type inventory.
B. least preferred coworker scale.
C. tolerance of ambiguity questionnaire.
D. Type A behavior scale.
E. path-goal survey.
To find out if you are task-oriented or relationship-oriented, you or your
employees would fill out a questionnaire (known as the least preferred co-
worker, or LPC, scale), in which you think of the co-worker you least enjoyed
working with and rate him or her according to an eight-point scale.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
97. (p. 450) Jay's peers were surprised when he received a promotion and suddenly
became their supervisor. They thought he was rather unreliable and weren't sure
he was up to the task. According to the contingency model, Jay has
A. poor leader-member relations.
B. weak position power.
C. poor worker facilitation.
D. low task structure.
E. unsuccessful leadership adaptation.
The leader-member relations dimension of the contingency model, the most
important component of situational control, reflects the extent to which a leader
has or doesn't have the support, loyalty, and trust of the work group.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
98. (p. 450-451) One of three dimensions of situational control in the contingency
leadership model, ______ is the extent to which tasks are routine, unambiguous,
and easily understood.
A. job mastery
B. task identity
C. position power
D. job design
E. task structure
Task structure is the dimension referring to the extent to which tasks are routine,
unambiguous, and easily understood. The more structured the jobs, the more
influence a leader has.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
99. (p. 451) Liz is trying to lead a cross-functional team, but she is having some
issues. Most members were other department managers at her level, and they
saw no reason to do what she told them to. Here, Liz has
A. low tolerance for ambiguity.
B. high task structure.
C. weak referent power.
D. poor leader-member relations.
E. weak position power.
Position power is the dimension of the contingency model that refers to how
much power a leader has to make work assignments and reward and punish.
More power equals more control and influence.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
100. (p. 452) According to the contingency model, a relationship-oriented
leadership style works best in ______ situations.
A. low control
B. high control
C. moderate control
D. uncontrolled
E. both high and low control
In the contingency model, the relationship-oriented style works best in situations
of moderate control.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
101. (p. 451) Tim leads a task force developing specifications for a new customer
database to be used by several departments. Tim is an IT supervisor, but most of
the others are directors of other departments. At the first meeting, a few of them
asked him questions he couldn't answer. According to the contingency model,
Tim's situational control likely
A. is low.
B. is moderate.
C. is high.
D. is extremely high.
E. cannot be determined from the information.
Leader-member relations are likely poor because he can't always answer
questions. The task is relatively unstructured because it is new and complex. Tim
has little position power. These lead to a low-control situation.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
102. (p. 451) Amanda leads a task force charged with restructuring the order-
processing system in the organization. The task force is composed of her peers
over whom she has little control, and some of whom do not seem to respect her.
According to the contingency model, Amanda should adopt a(n) ___________
leadership style.
A. employee-centered
B. task-oriented
C. relationship-oriented
D. participatory
E. initiating structure
The situational control is very low, and Fiedler's model suggests a task-oriented
style will be more effective.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
103. (p. 451) In assessing how much situational control he has, a manager should
consider which of the following?
A. Amount of socialized power
B. Subordinate readiness
C. Level of transformation
D. Amount of task structure
E. Ability of staff
There are three dimensions of situational control: leader-member relations, task
structure, and position power.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
104. (p. 451) Viviana supervises a group of customer service representatives.
Viviana is respected and well-liked by her staff, and she has worked hard to make
sure all of them know how to do the job very well. She is responsible for all
staffing and reward decisions in her department. In the contingency model,
Viviana has
A. low task structure.
B. high situational control.
C. low leader-member relations.
D. low position power.
E. high expert power.
Viviana's leader-member relations are high because she and her people get along
well. The task structure is high because the job is routine and unambiguous. The
position power is high because she holds a lot of legitimate power.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
105. (p. 451) Lorenzo supervises the pool of word processors serving all the lawyers
at the firm. He gets along well with his people, and has worked hard to create
detailed procedures for every type of legal document the typists might encounter.
Lorenzo hires and fires, and gives work assignments, performance appraisals,
and promotions. According to the contingency model, the optimal leadership
style is
A. transformational.
B. team management.
C. task-oriented.
D. relationship-oriented.
E. consideration.
The situational control is high, which, according to Fiedler, suggests that a task-
oriented style would be more effective.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
106. (p. 451) According to Fiedler's contingency model, ______ situation control
favors a leader who is ______ oriented.
A. low; relationship
B. low; transformational
C. moderate; task
D. high; transformational
E. moderate; relationship
According to Fiedler's model, the relationship-oriented style works best in
situations of moderate control.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
107. (p. 452) In the contingency model, if your leadership orientation does not
match the situation in your workplace, Fiedler recommends that you
A. try to move to a more suitable situation.
B. alter your leadership style.
C. take management classes to improve your power.
D. get an assistant with the preferred orientation.
E. gradually change the makeup of your subordinates.
What do you do if your leadership orientation does not match the situation?
Then, says Fiedler, it's better to try to move leaders into suitable situations rather
than try to alter their personalities to fit the situations.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
108. (p. 452) The model in which an effective leader clarifies how subordinates can
achieve personal and organizational objectives and provides them support in
doing so is
A. Greenleaf's servant leadership model.
B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model.
C. Leader-member exchange model.
D. Fiedler's contingency model.
E. House's path-goal model.
The path-goal leadership model holds that the effective leader makes available to
followers desirable rewards in the workplace and increases their motivation by
clarifying the paths, or behavior, that will help them achieve those goals and
providing them with support.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
109. (p. 453) According to House's revised path-goal theory, a leader's style should
vary depending on which of the following?
A. Positional power
B. Environmental factors
C. Situational control
D. Organizational readiness
E. Leader-member relations
According to House's revised path-goal theory, a leader's style should vary
depending on employee characteristics and environmental factors.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
110. (p. 453) Faruk is something of a cheerleader around his team. He describes the
great things he knows the group can accomplish, is quick to complement the
work of his staff, and is so enthusiastic about their successes. According to
revised path-goal theory, Faruk is using a(n) ______ leadership style.
A. value-based
B. path-goal clarifying
C. interaction facilitation
D. achievement-oriented
E. relationship-oriented
According to House's revised path-goal theory, those with a value-based
leadership style establish a vision, display passion for it, and support its
accomplishment. They communicate high performance expectations and
confidence in others' abilities to meet their goals. They give frequent positive
feedback and demonstrate self-confidence.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
111. (p. 453) Kojika supervises a customer service unit that receives stress-
producing calls from unhappy customers, and turnover has been high lately.
Kojika is kind and patient with the staff, and tells them she knows what they're
going through since it wasn't so long ago that she took those calls. According to
revised path-goal theory, Kojika is using a(n) ______ leadership style.
A. work facilitation
B. interaction facilitation
C. supportive
D. achievement-oriented
E. value-based
According to House's revised path-goal theory, those with a supportive
leadership style treat others as equals, show concern for well-being and needs,
and are friendly and approachable.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
112. (p. 453) Michael runs a research and development department. He gets a lot
out of his employees by setting lofty goals and expressing his belief that each of
them is capable of doing his or her part. He expects their best work. According to
revised path-goal theory, Michael is using a(n) ______ leadership style.
A. representation & networking
B. interaction facilitation
C. supportive
D. achievement-oriented
E. work facilitation
According to revised path-goal theory, those with an achievement-oriented
leadership style set challenging goals, emphasize excellence, and demonstrate
confidence in employee abilities.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
113. (p. 454) House's revision of his theory puts more emphasis on the need for
leaders to foster
A. concrete rewards.
B. stress management techniques.
C. intrinsic motivation.
D. an external locus of control.
E. personal growth in management knowledge.
Besides expanding the number of leader behavior styles, House's revision of his
theory also puts more emphasis on the need for leaders to foster intrinsic
motivation through empowerment.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
114. (p. 454-455) The leadership model that suggests that leaders should adjust their
leadership style according to the readiness of the followers is the
A. Greenleaf's servant leadership model.
B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model.
C. Leader-member exchange model.
D. Fiedler's contingency model.
E. House's path-goal model.
In situational leadership theory, leadership behavior reflects how leaders should
adjust their leadership style according to the readiness of the followers.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
115. (p. 455) In the situational leadership model, ______ is defined as the extent to
which a follower possesses the ability and willingness to complete a task.
A. referent power
B. charisma
C. personalized power
D. readiness
E. task structure
Readiness is defined as the extent to which a follower possesses the ability and
willingness to complete a task. Subordinates with high readiness (with high
ability, skills, and willingness to work) require a different leadership style than
do those with low readiness (low ability, training, and willingness).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
116. (p. 455) In the situational leadership model, which of the following leadership
styles is recommended for employees with the highest levels of readiness?
A. Supporting
B. Telling
C. Participating
D. Delegating
E. Selling
The highest level of follower readiness, R4, corresponds with the delegating
leadership style (see Figure 14.3).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
117. (p. 456) In the situational leadership model, as follower readiness increases
from low to high, which of the following represents the order in which leaders'
styles should progress?
A. Telling, participating, delegating, selling
B. Telling, selling, delegating, participating
C. Selling, telling, delegating, participating
D. Selling, participating, delegating, telling
E. Telling, selling, participating, delegating
The leadership style of telling works best for followers with a low level of
readiness, followed by selling, participating and delegating at progressively
higher levels of readiness.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
118. (p. 456) In Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership model, when a manager
encourages followers to solve problems on their own and uses shared decision
making, she is using the ______ style.
A. supporting
B. telling
C. participating
D. delegating
E. selling
Participating involves encouraging followers to solve problems on their own.
Because it shares decision making, this leadership style encourages subordinates
in performing tasks. Thus, it is most appropriate for followers whose readiness is
in the moderate to high range.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
119. (p. 456) One of Kurt's subordinates, Rosie, has never learned to run customized
reports and is insecure about learning. Nikko doesn't know how to do it either
but is eager to try and has a lot of confidence that he can figure it out. In the
situational model, Kurt should use a ______ style with Rosie, and a ______ style with
Nikko.
A. participating; selling
B. selling; telling
C. selling; participating
D. telling; selling
E. selling, delegating
Rosie is R1, and would be best managed with telling; Nikko is R2, and would be
best managed with selling (see Figure 14.3).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-04 How might effective leadership vary according to the situation at hand?
Topic: Contingency Approaches: Does Leadership Vary with the Situation?
120. (p. 458) According to the concept of full-range leadership, leadership behaviors
vary along a range from ______ leadership at one extreme to transformational
leadership at the other.
A. transactional
B. shared
C. laissez-faire
D. servant
E. charismatic
Full-range leadership suggests that leadership behavior varies along a full range
of leadership styles, from take-no-responsibility ( laissez-faire ) "leadership" at
one extreme, through transactional leadership, to transformational leadership at
the other extreme.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-05 What does it take to truly inspire people to perform beyond their normal levels?
Topic: The Full-Range Model: Uses of Transactional & Transformational Leadership
121. (p. 458) A transactional leader is most similar in focus to a
A. charismatic leader.
B. transformational leader.
C. servant leader.
D. situational leader.
E. manager.
Transactional leadership encompasses the fundamental managerial activities of
setting goals and monitoring progress toward their achievement, and focuses on
clarifying employees' roles and task requirements and providing rewards and
punishments contingent on performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-05 What does it take to truly inspire people to perform beyond their normal levels?
Topic: The Full-Range Model: Uses of Transactional & Transformational Leadership
122. (p. 459) Which of the following is a characteristic of transformational leaders?
A. They are better in stable situations.
B. They clarify employees' roles.
C. They set goals and monitor progress toward their achievement.
D. They encourage people to do exceptional things.
E. They provide rewards in exchange for subordinates doing the work.
Whereas transactional leaders try to get people to do ordinary things,
transformational leaders encourage their people to do exceptional things—
significantly higher levels of intrinsic motivation, trust, commitment, and loyalty
—that can produce significant organizational change and results.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-05 What does it take to truly inspire people to perform beyond their normal levels?
Topic: The Full-Range Model: Uses of Transactional & Transformational Leadership
123. (p. 460) Charismatic leadership is now considered part of ______ leadership.
A. transactional
B. shared
C. laissez-faire
D. servant
E. transformational
Charismatic leadership—which was assumed to be an individual inspirational
and motivational characteristic of particular leaders, much like other trait-theory
characteristics—was viewed as a category of its own, but now it is considered
part of transformational leadership.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-05 What does it take to truly inspire people to perform beyond their normal levels?
Topic: The Full-Range Model: Uses of Transactional & Transformational Leadership
124. (p. 460) Employees at Kearns Seafood were really impressed with the new CEO,
Jane. She was the first person who had fully developed a vision for the company
about where it could go, and had energized everyone to try to get there. Jane is a
______ leader.
A. servant
B. transformational
C. transactional
D. shared
E. laissez-faire
A transformational leader inspires motivation by offering an agenda, a grand
design, an ultimate goal—in short, a vision.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-05 What does it take to truly inspire people to perform beyond their normal levels?
Topic: The Full-Range Model: Uses of Transactional & Transformational Leadership
125. (p. 461) Which of the following is NOT positively associated with
transformational leadership, according to research?
A. Employee job satisfaction
B. More employee identification with their immediate work groups
C. Lower levels of internal competition
D. Higher levels of group cohesion
E. More work engagement
The research shows that transformational leadership yields several positive
results. For example, it is positively associated with (1) measures of
organizational effectiveness; (2) measures of leadership effectiveness and
employee job satisfaction; (3) more employee identification with their leaders
and with their immediate workgroups; and (4) higher levels of intrinsic
motivation, group cohesion, work engagement, and setting of goals consistent
with those of the leader.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-05 What does it take to truly inspire people to perform beyond their normal levels?
Topic: The Full-Range Model: Uses of Transactional & Transformational Leadership
126. (p. 462) The ______ model of leadership emphasizes that leaders have different
sorts of relationships with different subordinates.
A. servant
B. contingency
C. Michigan
D. LMX
E. trait
The leader-member exchange (LMX) model of leadership emphasizes that
leaders have different sorts of relationships with different subordinates.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-06 If there are many ways to be a leader; which one would describe me best?
Topic: Four Additional Perspectives
127. (p. 462) In the leadership-member exchange model, the relationship between
leader and follower that is characterized by mutual trust, respect, and liking is
known as
A. preferred coworker exchange
B. servant exchange
C. in-group exchange
D. special exchange
E. socialized exchange
In the in-group exchange, the relationship between leader and follower becomes
a partnership characterized by mutual trust, respect and liking, and a sense of
common fates.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-06 If there are many ways to be a leader; which one would describe me best?
Topic: Four Additional Perspectives
128. (p. 463) ______ leadership is most likely to be needed when people work in
teams, are involved in complex projects, or are doing knowledge work.
A. Transformational
B. Shared
C. Transactional
D. Servant
E. Charismatic
Shared leadership is a simultaneous, ongoing, mutual influence process in which
people share responsibility for leading. This kind of leadership is most likely to
be needed when people work in teams, are involved in complex projects, or are
doing knowledge work—work requiring voluntary contributions of intellectual
capital by skilled professionals.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-06 If there are many ways to be a leader; which one would describe me best?
Topic: Four Additional Perspectives
129. (p. 463) MySpace founders Anderson and DeWolfe could best be described as
which type of leaders?
A. Leader-member exchange
B. Situational
C. Servant
D. Shared
E. Transactional
Shared leadership is a simultaneous, ongoing, mutual influence process in which
people share responsibility for leading. Some famous technical companies are
headed by leaders who share power, such as MySpace.com founders, Tom
Anderson and Chris DeWolfe.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-06 If there are many ways to be a leader; which one would describe me best?
Topic: Four Additional Perspectives
130. (p. 463) A leader who focuses on providing increased service to others is called
a
A. charismatic leader.
B. transformational leader.
C. transactional leader.
D. servant leader.
E. situational leader.
Servant leaders focus on providing increased service to others—meeting the
goals of both followers and the organization—rather than to themselves.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 14-06 If there are many ways to be a leader; which one would describe me best?
Topic: Four Additional Perspectives
131. (p. 463-464) Javier, the CEO of a small travel company, treated company
resources as if they were his own, and his employees even better. He cared about
the staff deeply and even organized international volunteering activities to
promote their growth. Javier could best be described as which type of leader?
A. Situational
B. Servant
C. Laissez-faire
D. Shared
E. Transactional
Servant leaders focus on providing increased service to others. Characteristics
include belief they are stewards of their employees and resources and
commitment to the growth of people.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 14-06 If there are many ways to be a leader; which one would describe me best?
Topic: Four Additional Perspectives
132. (p. 464) ______ have a global mind-set that recognizes that the Internet is
opening new markets and recharging existing ones.
A. Situational leaders
B. E-leaders
C. Shared leaders
D. Transactional leaders
E. Web-based leaders
E-leaders, says one writer, "have a global mind-set that recognizes that the
Internet is opening new markets and recharging existing ones. They don't bother
fighting mere battles with competitors because they're too busy creating
businesses that will surround and destroy them."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-06 If there are many ways to be a leader; which one would describe me best?
Topic: Four Additional Perspectives
133. (p. 464) Which of the following is a tip to be a successful e-leader?
A. Follow the strategy you set
B. Be a transactional leader
C. Minimize "off-line" time with team members
D. Use global English
E. Use videoconferencing as frequently as possible
Tips on e-leadership offered by Dan McCarthy, Manager of Leadership and
Management Development for a Fortune 500 company, include using global
English.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 14-06 If there are many ways to be a leader; which one would describe me best?
Topic: Four Additional Perspectives
E. Personality
The stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes that give a person her identity are known as
her...
A. Character
B. Values
C. Attitudes
D. Attributions
E. Personality
C. Openness to experience
________ is the personality dimension that describes how intellectual, imaginative, curios, and broad-
minded a person is.
A. Inquisitiveness
B. Emotional stability
C. Openness to experience
D. Extroversion
E. Inventiveness
A. Emotional stability
Michael is frequently nervous, tense, and worried, both at work and at home. He likely scores low on
which of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A. Emotional stability
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extroversion
D. Openness to experience
E. Self-monitoring
A. Extroversion
______ has been associated with success for managers and salespeople.
A. Extroversion
B. Agreeableness
C. Openness to experience
D. Emotional stability
E. Conscientiousness
B. Proactive
A person who is apt to take initiative and persevere to influence the environment is said to have a(n)
______ personality.
A. emotionally stable
B. proactive
C. extroverted
D. emotionally intelligent
E. self-efficacious
C. internal locus of control
People with ______ exhibit less anxiety, greater motivation, and stronger expectations that effort leads
to performance.
A. high self-efficacy
B. high self-monitoring
C. internal locus of control
D. high tolerance for ambiguity
E. high self-esteem
E. provide an incentive structure to pay Cara
Cara's manager notices that she exhibits an internal locus of control when she speaks about her work.
Her manager should
A. give Cara a lot of positive feedback.
B. ensure that Cara has a highly structured job.
C. give Cara a job with much social contact with coworkers and customers.
D. closely supervise Cara's work.
E. provide an incentive structure to pay Cara.
A. Self-efficancy
Complex, challenging, and autonomous jobs tend to enhance people's perceptions of their
A. self-efficacy.
B. increased anxiety.
C. tolerance for pain.
D. learned helplessness.
E. self-esteem.
B. self-esteem
The extent to which people like or dislike themselves is called their
A. emotional stability.
B. self-esteem.
C. locus of control.
D. self-efficacy.
E. self-monitoring.
E. express confidence in the employee's abilities to complete given tasks
If a manager knows one of her subordinates has low self-esteem and wishes to enhance it, she should
A. provide frequent reminders about improving weaknesses.
B. avoid delegating work to this subordinate.
C. redesign the work so that it is routine and structured.
D. avoid giving feedback.
E. express confidence in the employee's abilities to complete given tasks.
E. insensitive
Low self-monitors are often criticized for being ______ to others.
A. insincere
B. boastful
C. aggressive
D. unfair
E. insensitive
D. Social awareness
Which of the following is a trait of emotional intelligence?
A. situational awareness
B. self-sufficiency
C. self-monitoring
D. social awareness
E. self-efficacy
A. behavior
Organizational ______ tries to explain and predict workplace behavior to help managers better lead and
motivate others.
A. behavior
B. development
C. culture
D. strategy
E. science
D. work-life balance
Surveys show that employees are more interested in ______ rather than just earning a paycheck.
A. advancement opportunity
B. recognition
C. benefits
D. work-life balance
E. status
C. cognitive
The ______ component of an attitude consists of the beliefs and knowledge one has about a situation.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. factual
A. behavioral
The statement, "I won't give Kim such a tight deadline again," reflects the ______ component of an
attitude.
A. behavioral
B. decisional
C. cognitive
D. affective
E. value
E. cognitive dissonance
Because people are uncomfortable with inconsistency between their attitudes and behaviors, they will
seek to reduce
A. a self-fulfilling prophecy.
B. fundamental attribution.
C. a self-serving bias.
D. causal attribution.
E. cognitive dissonance.
C. eliminate the self-serving bias
Which of the following is not one of the main ways to reduce cognitive dissonance?
A. Change your attitude.
B. Change your behavior.
C. Eliminate the self-serving bias.
D. Find consonant elements that outweigh the dissonant ones.
E. Belittle the importance of the inconsistent behavior.
B. perception
The process of interpreting and understanding one's environment is called
A. self-awareness.
B. perception.
C. cognition.
D. self-monitoring.
E. openness to experience.
A. cognitive dissonance
Which of the following is not a distortion in perception?
A. Cognitive dissonance
B. Stereotyping
C. Halo effect
D. The recency effect
E. Causal attribution
C. job satisfaction increases
As an employee's age increases, his or her
A. job involvement decreases.
B. absenteeism increases.
C. job satisfaction increases.
D. work motivation decreases.
E. organizational commitment decreases.
A. halo effect
The ______ occurs when we form an impression of an individual based on a single trait.
A. halo effect
B. self-fulfilling prophecy
C. fundamental attribution error
D. self-serving bias effect
E. selective perception error
C. the fundamental attribution bias
The tendency to attribute another person's behavior to his or her personal characteristics rather than to
the situation the person is in is called
A. the halo effect.
B. a self-serving bias.
C. the fundamental attribution bias.
D. selective perception.
E. stereotyping.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy
A waiter expects a group of poorly dressed customers to be stingy tippers and gives them poor service,
so he gets the result that he expects, a very small tip. This is an example of the
A. halo effect.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy.
C. fundamental attribution bias.
D. self-serving bias.
E. selective perception error.
E. low job satisfaction
Julia really doesn't like her new boss and is not happy with the new tasks she's been assigned and the
long hours she's been working. Still, she truly believes in what the company is trying to accomplish.
Julia has
A. poor job performance.
B. low job involvement.
C. low organizational commitment.
D. poor job enrichment.
E. low job satisfaction.
C. organizational commitment; perceived stress
Job satisfaction results in stronger ______ and lower levels of ______
A. job involvement; work-life balance.
B. motivation; life satisfaction.
C. organizational commitment; perceived stress.
D. perceived stress; life satisfaction.
E. perceived stress; absenteeism.
C. onboarding
________ programs help employees to integrate and transition to a new job.
A. Organizational citizenship
B. Employee assistance
C. Onboarding
D. Self-efficacy
E. Proactive
C. organizational citizenship behaviors
Miles impressed his boss by making lots of suggestions for department improvements and by putting in
many weekend hours to do extra tasks to develop the new procedures. Miles is exhibiting
A. self-efficacy.
B. onboarding traits.
C. organizational citizenship behaviors.
D. the halo effect.
E. counterproductive work behaviors.
E. Diversity
______ represent(s) all the ways people are unlike and alike.
A. Lifestyle
B. Dimensions
C. Background
D. Conditions
E. Diversity
B. Personality
______ is at the center of the diversity wheel.
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Psychometrics
D. Philanthropy
E. Psychology
A. Income
Which of the following dimensions is an example of a secondary dimension on the diversity wheel?
A. Income
B. Race
C. Sexual orientation
D. Physical abilities
E. Age
C. the median age of the american worker is increasing
Which of the following diversity issues is true in the U.S. workforce?
A. Unemployment among the disabled has dropped sharply since the introduction of the Americans
with Disabilities Act.
B. Literacy has ceased to be an issue among American workers.
C. The median age of the American worker is increasing.
D. White households continue to have higher median incomes than Asian ones.
E. Among the top 500 U.S. companies, most currently do not yet offer domestic partner benefits for
same-sex couples.
B. reasonably accommodate an individual's disability
The Americans with Disabilities Act requires employers to
A. hire all qualified disabled persons who apply
B. reasonably accommodate an individual's disability.
C. hire quotas of qualified disabled persons.
D. actively solicit job applications from disabled persons.
E. hire disabled persons to qualify for tax breaks.
E. Ethnocentrism
______ is the belief that one's native country, culture, language, abilities, or behavior is superior to
those of another culture.
A. Reverse discrimination
B. Stereotyping
C. An ethical dilemma
D. Diversity
E. Ethnocentrism
D. stress
______ is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring extraordinary demands, constraints,
or opportunities and are uncertain about their ability to handle them effectively.
A. Apprehension
B. Role conflict
C. Role overload
D. Stress
E. Anxiety
B. Role overload
When others' expectations exceed one's ability, ______ has occurred.
A. Burnout
B. Role overload
C. Learned helplessness
D. Role conflict
E. Role ambiguity
A. slurred speech
Which of the following is not a symptom of stress?
A. Slurred speech
B. Insomnia
C. Hostility
D. Alcohol abuse
E. Heart attack
E. Alcohol
Which of the following is the most common drug of abuse?
A. Marijuana
B. Tranquilizers
C. Prescription pain medication
D. Methamphetamine
E. Alcohol
C. develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision
Which of the following is not a suggested strategy for reducing unhealthy stressors in organizations?
A. Rollout employee assistance programs.
B. Recommend a holistic wellness approach.
C. Develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision.
D. Make jobs interesting.
E. Make career counseling available.
D. Motivation
______ is defined as the psychological processes that arouse and direct goal-directed behavior.
A. Stimulus
B. Productivity
C. Enticement
D. Motivation
E. Incented action
D. extrinsic reward
Craig's sales manager has just told the group that all sales in the month of September will earn an extra
5% commission. The team gets right to work, being motivated by a(n)
A. intrinsic reward.
B. physiological need.
C. high need for power.
D. extrinsic reward.
E. hygiene factor.
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
Which of the following is a need-based perspective on motivation?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
C. Job characteristics model
D. Goal-setting theory
E. Equity theory
B. esteem
The need for status, reputation, and recognition are part of
A. self-actualization.
B. esteem.
C. love.
D. safety.
E. physiological.
A. self-actualization
An accounting firm provides employees with educational reimbursements if they complete job-related
coursework with a B or better, which helps them meet which of Maslow's levels of needs?
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Love
D. Safety
E. Physiological
B. existence
Which of the following is a need in Alderfer's ERG theory?
A. Esteem
B. Existence
C. Realization
D. Rating
E. Generalization
B. power
According to the acquired needs theory, the desire to influence others is part of the need for
A. affiliation.
B. power.
C. self-actualization.
D. relatedness.
E. achievement
C. high need for power
Even when he started his first job, Galen was not content to be just one of the employees. His boss
noticed that he often coached his coworkers about ways to improve their work, even when it wasn't his
job. Galen probably has a
A. high need for achievement.
B. high need for affiliation.
C. high need for power.
D. low need for achievement.
E. high need for leadership.
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs
McClelland's need for achievement corresponds most closely to
A. Herzberg's hygiene factors.
B. Maslow's esteem needs.
C. extrinsic rewards.
D. Alderfer's relatedness needs.
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.
D. relationships
According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a hygiene factor?
A. Responsibility
B. Advancement
C. The work itself
D. Relationships
E. Recognition
A. motivating
According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, only ______ factors can make employees satisfied with
their jobs.
A. motivating
B. self-actualization
C. growth
D. hygiene
E. achievement
B. hygiene factors
Anders is manager for a large freight company. He has noticed low morale lately, perhaps because of
the cramped quarters and lack of raises this year among workers on his shift. According to Herzberg,
Anders should first concentrate on
A. needs for achievement.
B. hygiene factors.
C. esteem needs.
D. motivating factors.
E. growth needs.
E. process perspectives
Theories that try to understand the thought processes by which people decide how to act are called
A. needs-based perspectives.
B. reinforcement perspectives.
C. job design perspectives.
D. cognitive perspectives.
E. process perspectives.
B. resolve feelings of injustice
In equity theory, employees are motivated to
A. work harder when they have more freedom.
B. resolve feelings of injustice.
C. correct themselves when they aren't working hard enough.
D. blame others when they miss work or fail at tasks.
E. work just hard enough to get what they want.
C. expect that brady will reduce his hours
Brady went to his boss Lynn to complain that he got the same bonus this quarter as everyone else,
despite the longer hours he's been putting in and his higher level of experience and efficiency. If Lynn
can't change the bonuses, she should
A. tell Brady "That's just the way bonuses are given."
B. suggest that Brady take this up with her boss.
C. expect that Brady will reduce his hours.
D. start documenting Brady's complaints for future disciplinary action.
E. expect that Brady's performance will improve.
B. expectancy
After struggling with the training, Sachin is unsure whether he can complete the end-of-year financial
reporting with minimal errors in the time allotted at his new job. In this case, Sachin is low on the
______ element of expectancy theory.
A. valence
B. expectancy
C. outcomes
D. instrumentality
E. performance
A. instrumentality; low
At his review last year, Ryan was promised a big raise if he met his production goals. Raises were
included in today's paychecks, and despite that Ryan has met all of his goals, he only received a cost-
of-living raise. In the future, Ryan's ______ will probably be
A. instrumentality; low.
B. valence; low.
C. expectancy; low.
D. instrumentality; high.
E. expectancy; high.
B. help workers understand and accept the goals
When using goal-setting theory to motivate employees, managers should
A. set targets that are just out of employees' reach.
B. help workers understand and accept the goals.
C. set general goals that are emotionally appealing.
D. hold employees responsible for getting their own feedback.
E. set goals that are easily achievable.
E. setting goals linked to an action plan
According to goal-setting theory, which of the following is necessary for goals to create high
motivation and performance?
A. Setting general goals that will work for multiple employees.
B. Predetermining acceptable rewards for meeting goals.
C. Setting goals that fulfill self-actualization needs.
D. Reinforcing of desired behaviors.
E. Setting goals linked to an action plan.
B. job design
______ involves division of an organization's work and applies motivational theories to jobs to increase
satisfaction and performance.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job design
C. Job simplification
D. Job development
E. Job enrichment
B. poor mental health
Research shows that simplified jobs lead to
A. job satisfaction.
B. poor mental health.
C. a sense of accomplishment.
D. a sense of personal growth.
E. decreased worker productivity.
C. job enrichment
The process of building into a job such motivating factors as recognition and achievement is called
A. MBO.
B. job design.
C. job enrichment.
D. job enlargement.
E. horizontal loading.
C. task significance
Of the following, which is a core job characteristic?
A. Meaningfulness
B. Skill specificity
C. Task significance
D. Teamwork
E. Task variety
E. autonomy
The extent to which a job allows an employee to make decisions about scheduling different tasks and
deciding how to perform them is called
A. horizontal loading.
B. skill variety.
C. task identity.
D. task significance.
E. autonomy.
D. task significance
As a maintenance person for the Air Force, Craig services aircraft engines, which protects the lives and
safety of military personnel and their ability to conduct missions. Craig's job has a high level of
A. autonomy.
B. task identity.
C. skill variety.
D. task significance.
E. context satisfactions.
C. the job characteristics model
The motivating potential score is calculated as part of using
A. reinforcement theory.
B. McClelland's acquired needs theory.
C. the job characteristics model.
D. goal-setting theory.
E. equity theory.
D. positive reinforcement
The use of desirable consequences to strengthen a particular behavior is called
A. constructive feedback.
B. extinction.
C. intrinsic motivation.
D. positive reinforcement.
E. valence.
B. negative reinforcement
Estefan tells one of his staff that he is taking her off of probation since she has corrected her tardiness
problem. Estefan is using
A. instrumentality.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. punishment.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. positive reinforcement.
C. extinction
It has been seven quarters since any employee has received a bonus at R & G Mills, so now the
possibility of getting one does not seem to be motivating the workers any longer. In this case,
management has inadvertently applied
A. expectancy.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. intrinsic motivation.
E. punishment.
E.clearly communicate the desired behavior
In using reinforcement, a manager should
A. avoid using punishment.
B. reward both desired and undesired behavior.
C. give all subordinates the same rewards to ensure fairness.
D. save rewards for weekly or monthly celebrations.
E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.
D. the rewards require rarely attainable performance
Which of the following is not an advisable criterion for an effective incentive plan?
A. The rewards are believable.
B. The rewards are linked to performance.
C. The rewards satisfy individual needs.
D. The rewards require rarely attainable performance.
E. The rewards are agreed on by the manager and employees.
A. pay-for-performance
Gabe has a summer job hand-dying shirts that will be sold on the boardwalk. He is paid $3.50 per shirt.
This is an example of a ______ compensation plan.
A. pay-for-performance
B. pay-for-knowledge
C. bonus
D. profit-sharing
E. gainsharing
B. gainsharing
A Scanlon plan is a type of ______ compensation plan.
A. pay-for-knowledge
B. gainsharing
C. benchmarking
D. pay-for-performance
E. profit-sharing
B. pay for knowledge
Erica teaches fourth grade at a local elementary school. She significantly increased her salary by
earning a master's degree in education. This is an example of
A. pay for performance.
B. pay for knowledge.
C. a bonus.
D. profit sharing.
E. gainsharing.
A. focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations
Which of the following is the best way to manage virtual teams?
A. Focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations.
B. When beginning with a virtual team, set the final deadline and reprimand any virtual team members
who don't make the deadline.
C. Because you don't have face-to-face contact, relay instructions via phone.
D. Require each team member to keep their own personal record of the work that's been done as a
team.
E. Utilize employees on a global team around the clock
B. decreased stress
Which of the following is not a benefit of teamwork in an organization?
A. Increased speed
B. Decreased stress
C. Reduced costs
D. Improved workplace cohesiveness
E. Reduced destructive internal competition
C. team
A _______ is defined as a small group of people with complementary skills who are committed to a
common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves accountable.
A. cross-functional team
B. group
C. team
D. panel
E. formal group
E. formal group
Jane organized several teachers to discuss the school's interior painting scheduled for summer. They
looked at several brands, and heard a presentation by a designer who then helped them choose a color
palette to recommend to school administrators. In this instance, the teachers make up a(n)
A. self-managed team.
B. virtual team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. informal group.
E. formal group.
B. informal group
In all but the worst weather, Laura and four of her coworkers met each day at 12:15 to walk the
wilderness trail behind their office building. This is an example of a(n)
A. continuous improvement team.
B. informal group.
C. self-managed team.
D. virtual team.
E. formal group
C. Cross-functional team
A team composed of people from different departments who are pursuing a common objective is called
a
A. quality circle.
B. problem-solving team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. virtual team.
E. work force.
E. virtual team
A team that consists of members who interact by computer network to collaborate on projects is called
a(n)
A. remote team.
B. e-team.
C. self-managed team.
D. informal team.
E. virtual team.
D. Action team
A work team that works to accomplish tasks that require people with specialized training and a high
degree of coordination is called a(n)
A. production team.
B. project team.
C. development team.
D. action team.
E. advice team
B. a type of advice team
Which of the following is a characteristic of a continuous improvement team?
A. A built-in part of any effective organizational group.
B. A type of advice team.
C. Requires assigned membership.
D. Emerged from self-managed team concept.
E. Encourages high empowerment
B. administrative oversight
Self-managed teams are groups of workers who have been given ______ for their task domains.
A. individual incentives
B. administrative oversight
C. reduced responsibility
D. complete freedom
E. no technology
D. allow members to hire their own coworkers
When using a self-managed team, a manager should
A. maintain detailed monitoring of its performance.
B. create the team within whatever structure currently exists.
C. offer lucrative individual bonuses.
D. allow members to hire their own coworkers.
E. provide elaborate retreats for team discussions.
C. reforming
Which of the following is not one of the stages of group and team development?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Reforming
D. Adjourning
E. Performing
B. allow people to socialize
During the forming stage, the leader should
A. establish permanent control.
B. allow people to socialize.
C. empower team members.
D. encourage disagreement.
E. work through team conflicts
A. storming
The group development stage in which individuals test the leader's policies and assumptions as they try
to determine how they fit into the power structure is the ______ stage.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
B. norming
During the ______ stage of team development, close relationships develop and unity and harmony
emerge.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
A. norming
The stage during which a group sets guidelines about issues like attendance and punctuality is the
______ stage.
A. norming
B. storming
C. forming
D. adjourning
E. performing
C. group cohesiveness
The principal by-product of the norming stage of team development is
A. adjournment.
B. uncertainty.
C. group cohesiveness.
D. conflict.
E. empowerment.
A. helping the team identify group goals and values
Since hard feelings about group leadership and assignments had passed, Elena's group recently seemed
to be relating much better. At the meeting tomorrow she should take advantage of this moment by
A. helping the team identify group goals and values.
B. encouraging members to voice disagreements.
C. helping people get to know each other.
D. empowering the members.
E. throwing a thank-you party.
D. "Can we do the job properly?"
During the performing stage of team development, the group answers the question
A. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"
B. "Why are we here?"
C. "Why are we fighting?"
D. "Can we do the job properly?"
E. "Who's in charge?"
A. trust
Which of the following is considered one of the most essential considerations in building a group into
an effective team?
A. Trust
B. Promoting groupthink
C. Organizational structure
D. Market stability
E. Size
B. trust
________ is defined as reciprocal faith in others' intentions and behaviors.
A. Cooperation
B. Trust
C. Cohesiveness
D. Unity
E. Fairness
E. emphasizing members' common characteristics
Which of the following is a way managers can enhance team cohesiveness?
A. Isolating the group from the actions of competitors or other threats.
B. Providing team members precise instructions for their tasks.
C. Creating a relatively large team.
D. Assigning members randomly to teams.
E. Emphasizing members' common characteristics.
A. unfair work distribution
Which of the following is a disadvantage of smaller groups?
A. Unfair work distribution
B. Autocratic leadership
C. Lower morale
D. Tendency to form cliques
E. Tendency to take unreasonable risk
B. less commitment
Which of the following is a disadvantage of larger groups?
A. Less creativity and innovation
B. Less commitment
C. More division of labor
D. Fewer resources
E. Fewer cliques
A. roles
Members of a team develop their ______ based on the expectations of the team, of the organization,
and of themselves.
A. roles
B. norms
C. groupthink
D. job descriptions
E. social fit
B. task
Marielle points out during the meeting that the group has fallen a half hour behind schedule according
to the agenda, and should get back to the important work at hand. She is performing a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
C. maintenance
Tension was thick in the room as the management team discussed changes to promotion requirements.
But then Chris made a joke about Jake's white-knuckled grip on his pen, and the laughter seemed to
improve the mood. Chris was acting in a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
D. to emphasize the group's important values
Nordstrom's department store chain emphasizes the great lengths to which it goes in customer service,
an example of which of these reasons to enforce norms?
A. To clarify role expectations.
B. To help the group survive.
C. To create cohesiveness.
D. To emphasize the group's important values.
E. To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations.
A. groupthink
Dave sat through the meeting feeling convinced his team was misinterpreting recent marketing
research, but he didn't say anything. The team leader was a close friend. Plus, he didn't want to disrupt
the team since he perceived himself to be the only one with reservations. Dave's team appears to be
experiencing
A. groupthink.
B. storming.
C. social loafing.
D. norming.
E. devil's advocacy.
C. bring in outside experts for fresh perspectives
To prevent groupthink, a manager should
A. reinforce how capable the group is.
B. never admit errors to outsiders.
C. bring in outside experts for fresh perspectives.
D. encourage everyone to "get with the team."
E. express high confidence in the group's previous decisions.
B. indecision
Which of the following is characteristic of workgroups with too little conflict?
A. Dissatisfaction
B. Indecision
C. Political infighting
D. Lack of teamwork
E. Turnover
C. conflict is at a moderate level
Workplace performance is maximized when
A. conflict is absent.
B. conflict is at a very low level.
C. conflict is at a moderate level.
D. conflict is at a high level.
E. conflict occurs only at nonmanagerial levels.
B. a personality clash
Hannah is on a team with Carson, and they are often in conflict. Hannah likes to begin her work with
careful planning and she gets started immediately. Carson, on the other hand, likes trying out several
ideas, and tends to be working frantically at the last minute. Their team conflict most likely stems from
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. ambiguous jurisdictions.
E. inconsistent goals.
D. status differences
Ken, whose primary job is supervising a small production group, is not getting cooperation from all
members on the cross-functional team he leads. In particular, Bethany, a marketing manager, seems to
resist his direction. The source of conflict in this cause may be
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. status differences.
E. ambiguous jurisdictions.
B. accommodationg
The conflict-handling style in which a person allows the desires of another to prevail is known as
A. forcing.
B. accommodating.
C. avoiding.
D. collaborating.
E. compromising.
A. avoiding
Rachel missed another deadline and her boss Keri is very upset. She will have to explain to the client
again why the project is behind. Keri thinks she may say something she'll regret if she talks to Rachel
about this now, so she decides to wait awhile. Keri is using the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
D. forcing
Malia told her team that she is moving forward with a change to the bonus structure, despite vocal
objections from several team members. Malia is using the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
B. collaborating
The disadvantage of the ______ conflict-handling style is that it is very time consuming.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
B. programmed conflict
______ is designed to elicit different opinions without inciting people's personal feelings.
A. Groupthink
B. Programmed conflict
C. Social loafing
D. Storming
E. Dysfunctional conflict
E. the dialectic method
______ is the process of having two people or groups play opposing roles in a debate in order to better
understand a proposal.
A. Storming
B. Positive conflict
C. Devil's advocacy
D. Groupthink
E. The dialectic method
D. Influence
Leadership is the ability to _____ employees to pursue organizational goals
A. Force
B. Reward
C. Request
D. Influence
E. Compensate
E. Complementary to each other
According to Kotter, management and leadership are considered to be
A. opposing forces.
B. causal; here, management causes leadership.
C. equivalent to one another.
D. almost entirely unrelated.
E. complementary to each other.
A. solving problems
According to Kotter, companies manage complexity in which of the following ways?
A. Solving problems
B. Motivating people
C. Lobbying the government
D. Innovating new products
E. Setting a direction
E. reward
Jennifer congratulated her staff when the team received an industry award for their project, and also
sent a companywide e-mail announcing it. Here, Jennifer is using her ______ power.
A. personalized
B. referent
C. coercive
D. expert
E. reward
C. expert
______ power results from one's specialized knowledge.
A. Legitimate
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward
E. Coercive
B. referent
Tracy is outgoing, warm, and truly inspirational when she talks about where she wants to lead her
division. Her employees seem eager to do anything she asks. Because of her personality and not her
position, Tracy has ______ power.
A. legitimate
B. referent
C. reward
D. coercive
E. expert
E. consultation
Jesse brought his proposal to Erica even before the meeting saying, "I'm sure you have some ideas on
this and we could try to get them incorporated upfront." Jesse is using which influence tactic?
A. Legitimating tactics
B. Inspirational appeals
C. Ingratiating tactics
D. Personal appeals
E. Consultation
A. personal appeal
When Nielle saw Laura in the stockroom stuffing her purse with expensive printer cartridges, Laura
was quick to say, "We've been friends since first grade, so I'm sure you won't say anything about this."
This is an example of using a(n)
A. personal appeal.
B. legitimating tactic.
C. pressure tactic.
D. coalition tactic.
E. exchange tactic.
B. trait
The ______ approach to leadership attempts to identify distinctive characteristics that account for the
effectiveness of leaders.
A. attribute
B. trait
C. behavior
D. quality
E. contingency
D. project GLOBE
______ studies reveal that visionary and inspirational charismatic leaders who are good team builders
generally are most desirable worldwide.
A. Servant leader
B. E-leadership
C. Contingency model
D. Project GLOBE
E. Full-range approach
C. job-centered
Peizhi manages his employees through a careful monitoring of their production, comparing what they
do to predicted schedules and desired budgets. Peizhi can best be described as a(n) ______ leader.
A. production-oriented
B. charismatic
C. job-centered
D. transformational
E. employee-centered
E. contingency
The approach to leadership that suggests that effective leadership behavior depends on the situation at
hand is the ______ approach.
A. trait
B. transformational
C. circumstantial
D. behavioral
E. contingency
A. poor leader-member relations
Craig's peers were surprised when he received a promotion and suddenly became their supervisor.
They thought he was rather unreliable and weren't sure he was up to the task. According to the
contingency model, Craig has
A. poor leader-member relations.
B. weak position power.
C. poor worker facilitation.
D. low task structure.
E. unsuccessful leadership adaptation.
E. weak position power
Liz is trying to lead a cross-functional team, but she is having some issues. Most members were other
department managers at her level, and they saw no reason to do what she told them to. Here, Liz has
A. low tolerance for ambiguity.
B. high task structure.
C. weak referent power.
D. poor leader-member relations.
E. weak position power.
A. is low
DeAndre leads a task force developing specifications for a new customer database to be used by
several departments. DeAndre is an IT supervisor, but most of the others are directors of other
departments. At the first meeting, a few of them asked him questions he couldn't answer. According to
the contingency model, DeAndre's situational control likely
A. is low.
B. is moderate.
C. is high.
D. is extremely high.
E. cannot be determined from the information.
C. task-oriented
Marco supervises the pool of word processors serving the firm's lawyers. He gets along well with his
people, and has created detailed procedures for all types of legal document they encounter. Marco hires
and fires, and gives work assignments, performance appraisals, and promotions. According to the
contingency model, the optimal leadership style is
A. transformational.
B. team management.
C. task-oriented.
D. relationship-oriented.
E. consideration.
A. try to move to a more suitable situation
In the contingency model, if your leadership orientation does not match the situation in your
workplace, Fiedler recommends that you
A. try to move to a more suitable situation.
B. alter your leadership style.
C. take management classes to improve your power.
D. get an assistant with the preferred orientation.
E. gradually change the makeup of your subordinates.
C. laissez-faire
According to the concept of full-range leadership, leadership behaviors vary along a range from
______ leadership at one extreme to transformational leadership at the other.
A. transactional
B. shared
C. laissez-faire
D. servant
E. charismatic
D. They encourage people to do exceptional things
Which of the following is a characteristic of transformational leaders?
A. They are better in stable situations.
B. They clarify employees' roles.
C. They set goals and monitor progress toward their achievement.
D. They encourage people to do exceptional things.
E. They provide rewards in exchange for subordinates doing the work.
D. servant leader
A leader who focuses on providing increased service to others is called a
A. charismatic leader.
B. transformational leader.
C. transactional leader.
D. servant leader.
E. situational leader
B. servant
Karen, the manager of a branch location of a large travel firm, treated company resources as if they
were her own and her employees even better. She cared about the staff deeply and even organized
international volunteering activities to promote their growth. Karen could best be described as which
type of leader?
A. Situational
B. Servant
C. Laissez-faire
D. Shared
E. Transactional
D. significance
Research shows that followers seek and admire leaders who create feelings of
A. anticipation.
B. individualism.
C. clarity.
D. significance.
E. freedom.
B. efficient communicator
When your intended message is sent accurately in the least amount of time, you are a(n)
A. economical communicator.
B. efficient communicator.
C. formal communicator.
D. collaborative communicator.
E. effective communicator.
A. encoding
The process of translating a message into understandable symbols or language is called
A. encoding.
B. transforming.
C. mediating.
D. decoding.
E. enriching.
B. rich
A(n) ______ form of media allows receivers to observe multiple cues, such as body language and tone
of voice, and allows senders to get feedback.
A. encoded
B. rich
C. dense
D. complex
E. formal
E. videoconferencing
Of the following, which medium is the richest?
A. Company newsletter
B. Telephone
C. E-mail
D. Memos
E. Videoconferencing
E. newsletter
A manager wants to tell employees that the quarterly project management training will start on April
12, about two months from now. Generally, which of the following should the manager use?
A. Videoconferencing
B. Telephone
C. Personal notes
D. Face-to-face meeting
E. Newsletter
A. sender barrier
Claire wanted to tell her employee about the seminar, but she put the flier in a stack of papers and
forgot about it until after the deadline to sign up. This is an example of what type of barrier to
communication?
A. Sender barrier
B. Encoding barrier
C. Medium barrier
D. Feedback barrier
E. Receiver barrier
D. receiver barrier
Rodrigo was in meetings all day and didn't get a chance to check his e-mail before he had to pick up his
children from daycare, so he missed an important message from a client. This is an example of what
type of barrier to communication?
A. Medium barrier
B. Decoding barrier
C. Feedback barrier
D. Receiver barrier
E. Encoding barrier
A. jargon
______ is likely to cause a semantic barrier to communication.
A. Jargon
B. Technology
C. Gossip
D. The grapevine
E. Rhetoric
C. oversized ego
Kelly was recently promoted to manager. Though he used to take advice from his peers, he seems no
longer willing to listen to even his superiors and is really running the project how he thinks best. This is
an example of which personal barrier to communication?
A. Tendency to judge others' messages.
B. Variable skills in communicating effectively.
C. Oversized ego.
D. Inability to listen with understanding.
E. Variation in interpreting information.
A. writing a thank-you note
Which of the following is not a way in which nonverbal communication is expressed?
A. Writing a thank-you note.
B. Making someone wait an hour in the lobby.
C. Looking away while talking to someone.
D. Grimacing.
E. Touching someone's shoulder.
E. close your eyes
Which of the following is a "don't" when attempting to improve communication?
A. Occasionally nod in agreement.
B. Lean toward the speaker.
C. Speak in a quiet, reassuring tone.
D. Smile and show animation.
E. Close your eyes.
E. externally
Shortly after the end of the fiscal year, Stavanger Investments released an earnings report to clients.
This is an example of communicating
A. vertically.
B. upward.
C. horizontally.
D. downward.
E. externally.
E. grapevine; informal
Gossip and rumor in an organization are part of the _____, which itself is a type of ______
communication channel.
A. organization chart; horizontal
B. culture; horizontal
C. organization chart; informal
D. grapevine; horizontal
E. grapevine; informal
C. videoconferencing
Using video and audio links along with computers to allow people at different locations to see, hear,
and talk with each other is called
A. telecommuting.
B. collaborative computing.
C. videoconferencing.
D. telecollaborating.
E. using the extranet.
Which of the following is NOT advice from career coach Richard
Knowdell for staying ahead in the workplace of tomorrow?
A. Develop new and diverse capacities
B. Anticipate, adapt to and embrace change
C. Focus on workplace learning rather than the classroom
D. When considering a job or industry, don't rely on reputation
E. Develop your communication skills
C. Focus on workplace learning rather than the classroom
Leadership is the ability to ______ employees to pursue organizational
goals.
A. force
B. reward
C. request
D. influence
E. compensate
D. influence
_______ is about coping with complexity and ______ is about coping
with change.
A. Middle management; top management
B. Management; leadership
C. Attitude; perception
D. Leadership; management
E. Perception; attitude
B. Management; leadership
According to Kotter, management and leadership are considered to be
A. opposing forces.
B. causal; here, management causes leadership.
C. equivalent to one another.
D. almost entirely unrelated.
E. complementary to each other.
E. complementary to each other.
According to Kotter, companies manage complexity in which of the
following ways?
A. Organizing resources
B. Motivating people
C. Lobbying the government
D. Innovating new products
E. Setting a direction
A. Organizing resources
Of the following, which is the best way for leaders to cope with change?
A. Problem-solving
B. Lobbying the government
C. Aligning people
D. Virtual planning
E. Watching current trends
C. Aligning people
According to Frederick Smith, chairman and CEO of FedEx, the
primary task of leadership is to
A. ensure progressive control and problem solving.
B. align resources within the organization.
C. inspire trust among all levels of employees.
D. communicate the vision and values of an organization.
E. oversee the success of an organization.
D. communicate the vision and values of an organization.
The power that managers have resulting from their formal positions
within organizations is called ______ power.
A. referent
B. legitimate
C. reward
D. coercive
E. expert
B. legitimate
April congratulated her staff when the team received an industry award
for their project, and also sent a company-wide email announcing it.
Here, April is using her ______ power.
A. personalized
B. referent
C. coercive
D. expert
E. reward
E. reward
______ power results from one's specialized information.
A. Legitimate
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward
E. Coercive
C. Expert
Trey was put on probation for a string of customer complaints about
his service and professionalism. His supervisor was using ______ power.
A. coercive
B. personalized
C. referent
D. reward
E. expert
A. coercive
Power deriving from one's personal attraction is called ______ power.
A. legitimate
B. referent
C. reward
D. coercive
E. personalized
B. referent
Emily is outgoing, warm and truly inspirational when she talks about
where she wants to lead her division. Her employees seem eager to do
anything she asks. Emily has ______ power.
A. legitimate
B. referent
C. reward
D. coercive
E. expert
B. referent
In recent studies, the generic influence tactic that employees cite as
most used in the workplace is
A. legitimating.
B. ingratiation.
C. coalition.
D. rational persuasion.
E. pressure.
D. rational persuasion.
The three least used influence tactics, according to a recent survey of
employees, are
A. legitimating, coalition tactics, and pressure tactics.
B. inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and consultation.
C. rational persuasion, pressure tactics, and exchange.
D. rational persuasion, coalition tactics, and upward appeals.
E. inspirational appeals, coalition tactics, and pressure tactics.
A. legitimating, coalition tactics, and pressure tactics.
The influence tactic most likely to result in the enthusiastic commitment
of employees is
A. legitimating tactics.
B. consultation.
C. ingratiating tactics.
D. coalition tactics.
E. personal appeals.
B. consultation.
Acting humble or friendly or making someone feel good or important
before making a request are influence tactics known as
A. coalition tactics.
B. inspirational appeals.
C. consultation.
D. ingratiating tactics.
E. personal appeals.
D. ingratiating tactics.
Brent brought his proposal to Allison even before the meeting saying,
"I'm sure you have some ideas on this and we could try to get them
incorporated upfront." Brent is using which influence tactic?
A. Legitimating tactics.
B. Inspirational appeals.
C. Ingratiating tactics.
D. Personal appeals.
E. Consultation.
E. Consultation.
Using threats or intimidation to persuade someone is which influence
tactic?
A. Legitimating
B. Ingratiating
C. Pressure
D. Exchange
E. Personal appeals
C. Pressure
When Melinda saw Carrie stuffing her purse with expensive printer
cartridges, Carrie was quick to say, "We've been friends since first
grade, so I'm sure you won't say anything about this." This is an
example of using a(n)
A. personal appeal.
B. legitimating tactic.
C. pressure tactic.
D. coalition tactic.
E. exchange tactic.
A. personal appeal.
The ______ approach to leadership attempts to identify distinctive
characteristics that account for the effectiveness of leaders.
A. attribute
B. trait
C. behavior
D. quality
E. contingency
B. trait
Organizations may apply trait theory by
A. considering the relationships among employees.
B. using management development programs.
C. hiring only from top-ranked business schools.
D. doing a job audit.
E. empowering the HR department.
B. using management development programs.
Which of the following is one of the traits of a credible leader identified
by Kouzes and Posner?
A. Honest
B. Relationship-oriented
C. Competitive
D. Extroverted
E. Driven
A. Honest
According to a BusinessWeek summary of management studies, men
score better than women do on
A. fostering communication.
B. producing high-quality work.
C. strategic planning.
D. motivating others.
E. listening to others
C. strategic planning.
______ studies reveal that visionary and inspirational charismatic
leaders who are good team builders generally are most effective
worldwide.
A. Servant leader
B. E-leadership
C. Contingency model
D. GLOBE project
E. Full-range approach
D. GLOBE project
The ______ leadership approaches attempt to determine the distinctive
styles used by effective leaders.
A. behavioral
B. servant
C. shared
D. trait
E. contingency
A. behavioral
Which of the following is a behavioral leadership approach?
A. Servant leadership model
B. University of Michigan leadership model
C. Path-goal leadership model
D. Transformational leadership
E. Leader-member exchange model
B. University of Michigan leadership model
In the University of Michigan studies, leadership style is identified as
A. job-centered or employee-centered.
B. transactional or transformational.
C. initiating structure or consideration.
D. task-oriented or relationship-oriented.
E. telling, selling, participating, or delegating.
A. job-centered or employee-centered.
Erdem manages his employees through a careful monitoring of their
production, comparing what they do to predicted schedules and desired
budgets. Erdem can best be described as a(n) ______ leader.
A. production-oriented
B. charismatic
C. job-centered
D. transformational
E. employee-centered
C. job-centered
The model that identifies leadership behavior as either "initiating
structure" or "consideration" is the ______ model.
A. leader-member exchange
B. path-goal leadership
C. University of Michigan leadership
D. University of Ohio leadership
E. situational leadership
D. University of Ohio leadership
Bonita apologized to one of her subordinates for an email that upset
him. She told him she may have chosen an unfortunate way of stating
her idea, and that she'd be happy to talk it through with him. Bonita is
A. using a personal appeal.
B. initiating structure.
C. practicing shared leadership.
D. exercising personalized power.
E. expressing consideration behavior.
E. expressing consideration behavior.
From the University of Michigan and Ohio State studies, one
management expert concluded that effective leaders tend to do all of the
following EXCEPT which?
A. Change leadership styles according to the situation
B. Have supportive relationships with employees
C. Use group rather than individual methods of supervision
D. Set high performance goals
E. Have an employee-centered leadership style
A. Change leadership styles according to the situation
The approach to leadership that suggests that effective leadership
behavior depends on the situation at hand is the ______ approach.
A. trait
B. transformational
C. circumstantial
D. behavioral
E. contingency
E. contingency
Which of the following is a contingency approach to leadership?
A. Michigan model
B. Path-goal leadership model
C. Servant leadership model
D. Ohio State model
E. Leader-member exchange model
B. Path-goal leadership model
Fiedler's contingency leadership model determines if a leader's style is
A. transactional or transformational.
B. directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented.
C. task-oriented or relationship-oriented.
D. telling, selling, participating, or delegating.
E. charismatic or non-charismatic.
C. task-oriented or relationship-oriented.
The amount of influence a leader has in his immediate work
environment is called his
A. coercive power.
B. leadership style.
C. readiness.
D. situational control.
E. task structure.
D. situational control.
The model that requires a manager to assess her own style and her
situational control is
A. Fiedler's contingency model.
B. shared leadership model.
C. Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership model.
D. House's path-goal theory.
E. charismatic leadership theory.
E. charismatic leadership theory.
The questionnaire used in Fiedler's model to determine leadership
orientation is called the
A. Myers-Briggs type inventory.
B. least preferred coworker scale.
C. tolerance of ambiguity questionnaire.
D. Type A behavior scale.
E. path-goal survey.
B. least preferred coworker scale.
Jay's peers were surprised when he received a promotion and suddenly
became their supervisor. They thought he was rather unreliable and
weren't sure he was up to the task. According to the contingency model,
Jay has
A. poor leader-member relations.
B. weak position power.
C. poor worker facilitation.
D. low task structure.
E. unsuccessful leadership adaptation.
A. poor leader-member relations.
One of three dimensions of situational control in the contingency
leadership model, ______ is the extent to which tasks are routine,
unambiguous, and easily understood.
A. job mastery
B. task identity
C. position power
D. job design
E. task structure
E. task structure
Liz is trying to lead a cross-functional team, but she is having some
issues. Most members were other department managers at her level,
and they saw no reason to do what she told them to. Here, Liz has
A. low tolerance for ambiguity.
B. high task structure.
C. weak referent power.
D. poor leader-member relations.
E. weak position power.
E. weak position power.
According to the contingency model, a relationship-oriented leadership
style works best in ______ situations.
A. low control
B. high control
C. moderate control
D. uncontrolled
E. both high and low control
C. moderate control
Tim leads a task force developing specifications for a new customer
database to be used by several departments. Tim is an IT supervisor,
but most of the others are directors of other departments. At the first
meeting, a few of them asked him questions he couldn't answer.
According to the contingency model, Tim's situational control likely
A. is low.
B. is moderate.
C. is high.
D. is extremely high.
E. cannot be determined from the information.
A. is low.
Amanda leads a task force charged with restructuring the order-
processing system in the organization. The task force is composed of her
peers over whom she has little control, and some of whom do not seem
to respect her. According to the contingency model, Amanda should
adopt a(n) ___________ leadership style.
A. employee-centered
B. task-oriented
C. relationship-oriented
D. participatory
E. initiating structure
B. task-oriented
In assessing how much situational control he has, a manager should
consider which of the following?
A. Amount of socialized power
B. Subordinate readiness
C. Level of transformation
D. Amount of task structure
E. Ability of staff
D. Amount of task structure
Viviana supervises a group of customer service representatives. Viviana
is respected and well-liked by her staff, and she has worked hard to
make sure all of them know how to do the job very well. She is
responsible for all staffing and reward decisions in her department. In
the contingency model, Viviana has
A. low task structure.
B. high situational control.
C. low leader-member relations.
D. low position power.
E. high expert power.
B. high situational control.
Lorenzo supervises the pool of word processors serving all the lawyers
at the firm. He gets along well with his people, and has worked hard to
create detailed procedures for every type of legal document the typists
might encounter. Lorenzo hires and fires, and gives work assignments,
performance appraisals, and promotions. According to the contingency
model, the optimal leadership style is
A. transformational.
B. team management.
C. task-oriented.
D. relationship-oriented.
E. consideration.
C. task-oriented.
According to Fiedler's contingency model, ______ situation control
favors a leader who is ______ oriented.
A. low; relationship
B. low; transformational
C. moderate; task
D. high; transformational
E. moderate; relationship
E. moderate; relationship
In the contingency model, if your leadership orientation does not match
the situation in your workplace, Fiedler recommends that you
A. try to move to a more suitable situation.
B. alter your leadership style.
C. take management classes to improve your power.
D. get an assistant with the preferred orientation.
E. gradually change the makeup of your subordinates.
A. try to move to a more suitable situation.
The model in which an effective leader clarifies how subordinates can
achieve personal and organizational objectives and provides them
support in doing so is
A. Greenleaf's servant leadership model.
B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model.
C. Leader-member exchange model.
D. Fiedler's contingency model.
E. House's path-goal model.
E. House's path-goal model.
According to House's revised path-goal theory, a leader's style should
vary depending on which of the following?
A. Positional power
B. Environmental factors
C. Situational control
D. Organizational readiness
E. Leader-member relations
B. Environmental factors
Faruk is something of a cheerleader around his team. He describes the
great things he knows the group can accomplish, is quick to
complement the work of his staff, and is so enthusiastic about their
successes. According to revised path-goal theory, Faruk is using a(n)
______ leadership style.
A. value-based
B. path-goal clarifying
C. interaction facilitation
D. achievement-oriented
E. relationship-oriented
A. value-based
Kojika supervises a customer service unit that receives stress-producing
calls from unhappy customers, and turnover has been high lately.
Kojika is kind and patient with the staff, and tells them she knows what
they're going through since it wasn't so long ago that she took those
calls. According to revised path-goal theory, Kojika is using a(n) ______
leadership style.
A. work facilitation
B. interaction facilitation
C. supportive
D. achievement-oriented
E. value-based
C. supportive
Michael runs a research and development department. He gets a lot out
of his employees by setting lofty goals and expressing his belief that
each of them is capable of doing his or her part. He expects their best
work. According to revised path-goal theory, Michael is using a(n)
______ leadership style.
A. representation & networking
B. interaction facilitation
C. supportive
D. achievement-oriented
E. work facilitation
D. achievement-oriented
House's revision of his theory puts more emphasis on the need for
leaders to foster
A. concrete rewards.
B. stress management techniques.
C. intrinsic motivation.
D. an external locus of control.
E. personal growth in management knowledge.
C. intrinsic motivation.
The leadership model that suggests that leaders should adjust their
leadership style according to the readiness of the followers is the
A. Greenleaf's servant leadership model.
B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model.
C. Leader-member exchange model.
D. Fiedler's contingency model.
E. House's path-goal model.
B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model.
In the situational leadership model, ______ is defined as the extent to
which a follower possesses the ability and willingness to complete a task.
A. referent power
B. charisma
C. personalized power
D. readiness
E. task structure
D. readiness
In the situational leadership model, which of the following leadership
styles is recommended for employees with the highest levels of
readiness?
A. Supporting
B. Telling
C. Participating
D. Delegating
E. Selling
D. Delegating
In the situational leadership model, as follower readiness increases from
low to high, which of the following represents the order in which
leaders' styles should progress?
A. Telling, participating, delegating, selling
B. Telling, selling, delegating, participating
C. Selling, telling, delegating, participating
D. Selling, participating, delegating, telling
E. Telling, selling, participating, delegating
E. Telling, selling, participating, delegating
In Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership model, when a manager
encourages followers to solve problems on their own and uses shared
decision making, she is using the ______ style.
A. supporting
B. telling
C. participating
D. delegating
E. selling
C. participating
One of Kurt's subordinates, Rosie, has never learned to run customized
reports and is insecure about learning. Nikko doesn't know how to do it
either but is eager to try and has a lot of confidence that he can figure it
out. In the situational model, Kurt should use a ______ style with Rosie,
and a ______ style with Nikko.
A. participating; selling
B. selling; telling
C. selling; participating
D. telling; selling
E. selling, delegating
D. telling; selling
According to the concept of full-range leadership, leadership behaviors
vary along a range from ______ leadership at one extreme to
transformational leadership at the other.
A. transactional
B. shared
C. laissez-faire
D. servant
E. charismatic
C. laissez-faire
A transactional leader is most similar in focus to a
A. charismatic leader.
B. transformational leader.
C. servant leader.
D. situational leader.
E. manager.
E. manager.
Which of the following is a characteristic of transformational leaders?
A. They are better in stable situations.
B. They clarify employees' roles.
C. They set goals and monitor progress toward their achievement.
D. They encourage people to do exceptional things.
E. They provide rewards in exchange for subordinates doing the work
D. They encourage people to do exceptional things.
Charismatic leadership is now considered part of ______ leadership.
A. transactional
B. shared
C. laissez-faire
D. servant
E. transformational
E. transformational
Employees at Kearns Seafood were really impressed with the new CEO,
Jane. She was the first person who had fully developed a vision for the
company about where it could go, and had energized everyone to try to
get there. Jane is a ______ leader.
A. servant
B. transformational
C. transactional
D. shared
E. laissez-faire
B. transformational
Which of the following is NOT positively associated with
transformational leadership, according to research?
A. Employee job satisfaction
B. More employee identification with their immediate work groups
C. Lower levels of internal competition
D. Higher levels of group cohesion
E. More work engagement
C. Lower levels of internal competition
The ______ model of leadership emphasizes that leaders have different
sorts of relationships with different subordinates.
A. servant
B. contingency
C. Michigan
D. LMX
E. trait
D. LMX
In the leadership-member exchange model, the relationship between
leader and follower that is characterized by mutual trust, respect, and
liking is known as
A. preferred coworker exchange
B. servant exchange
C. in-group exchange
D. special exchange
E. socialized exchange
C. in-group exchange
______ leadership is most likely to be needed when people work in
teams, are involved in complex projects, or are doing knowledge work.
A. Transformational
B. Shared
C. Transactional
D. Servant
E. Charismatic
B. Shared
MySpace founders Anderson and DeWolfe could best be described as
which type of leaders?
A. Leader-member exchange
B. Situational
C. Servant
D. Shared
E. Transactional
D. Shared
A leader who focuses on providing increased service to others is called a
A. charismatic leader.
B. transformational leader.
C. transactional leader.
D. servant leader.
E. situational leader.
D. servant leader.
Javier, the CEO of a small travel company, treated company resources
as if they were his own, and his employees even better. He cared about
the staff deeply and even organized international volunteering activities
to promote their growth. Javier could best be described as which type of
leader?
A. Situational
B. Servant
C. Laissez-faire
D. Shared
E. Transactional
B. Servant
______ have a global mind-set that recognizes that the Internet is
opening new markets and recharging existing ones.
A. Situational leaders
B. E-leaders
C. Shared leaders
D. Transactional leaders
E. Web-based leaders
B. E-leaders
Which of the following is a tip to be a successful e-leader?
A. Follow the strategy you set
B. Be a transactional leader
C. Minimize "off-line" time with team members
D. Use global English
E. Use videoconferencing as frequently as possible
D. Use global English
Which of the following is the best way to manage virtual teams?
A. Focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations.
B. When beginning with a virtual team, set the final deadline and
reprimand any virtual team members who don't make the deadline.
C. Because you don't have face-to-face contact, relay instructions via
phone.
D. Require each team member to keep their own personal record of the
work that's been done as a team.
E. Utilize employees on a global team around the clock.
A. Focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations.
In managing virtual workers, a manager should
A. give directions only by phone or in person.
B. make sure the worker is keeping to a fixed schedule of hours.
C. let employees work using their own expectations of how to do their
jobs.
D. meet regularly, face to face.
E. initiate change quickly.
D. meet regularly, face to face.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of teamwork in an
organization?
A. Increased speed
B. Decreased stress
C. Reduced costs
D. Improved workplace cohesiveness
E. Reduced destructive internal competition
B. Decreased stress
Two or more freely interacting individuals who share collective norms,
share collective goals, and have a common identity are called a
A. cluster.
B. self-managing work team.
C. collaborative unit.
D. quality circle.
E. group.
E. group.
A _______ is defined as a small group of people with complementary
skills who are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and
approach for which they hold themselves accountable.
A. cross-functional team
B. group
C. team
D. panel
E. formal group
C. team
A group that is created to do something productive for the organization
and is headed by a leader is called a(n)
A. dynamic group.
B. formal group.
C. normative group.
D. informal group.
E. network group.
B. formal group.
Beth organized several teachers to discuss the school painting scheduled
for summer. They looked at several brands, and heard a presentation
by a designer who then helped them choose a color palette to
recommend to school administrators. In this instance, the teachers
make up a(n)
A. self-managed team.
B. virtual team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. informal group.
E. formal group.
E. formal group.
Which of the following is true of informal groups?
A. Informal groups can advance the plans of formal groups.
B. A temporary committee is an example of an informal group.
C. Members of an informal group are assigned to it by the skills they
possess.
D. Informal groups have appointed leaders.
E. Informal groups are primarily created to solve an organization
problem
A. Informal groups can advance the plans of formal groups.
Almost every day at 11:30, Tara and four of her coworkers met to walk
the wilderness trail behind their office building. This is an example of
a(n)
A. continuous improvement team.
B. informal group.
C. self-managed team.
D. virtual team.
E. formal group.
B. informal group.
A team composed of people from different departments who are
pursuing a common objective is called a
A. quality circle.
B. problem-solving team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. virtual team.
E. work force.
C. cross-functional team.
Carlie, Clarke and Armando met once a week for several months in the
fall to decide how to reorganize their department work spaces when the
organization moved to a new building in January. This is an example of
a
A. top management team.
B. problem-solving team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. virtual team.
E. continuous improvement team.
B. problem-solving team.
A team that consists of members who interact by computer network to
collaborate on projects is called a(n)
A. remote team.
B. problem-solving team.
C. self-managed team.
D. informal team.
E. virtual team.
E. virtual team.
A work team that works to accomplish tasks that require people with
specialized training and a high degree of coordination is called a(n)
A. production team.
B. project team.
C. development team.
D. action team.
E. advice team.
D. action team.
At Berk Architects, a group of designers are developing the first
drawings for a proposed multi-use development in a revitalizing section
of a large city. What type of work team is this group?
A. Project team
B. Production team
C. Product team
D. Action team
E. Advice team
A. Project team
A data processing group is an example of a(n)
A. routine team.
B. action team.
C. advice team.
D. production team.
E. project team.
D. production team.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a continuous improvement
team?
A. A built-in part of any effective organizational group
B. A type of advice team
C. Requires assigned membership
D. Emerged from self-managed team concept
E. Encourages high empowerment
B. A type of advice team
Who are typical members of continuous improvement teams?
A. Workers and supervisors
B. Supervisors and managers
C. Managers and agents representing competitors
D. Outside suppliers
E. Customers and suppliers
A. Workers and supervisors
Which of the following is an important aspect when creating a self-
managed team?
A. Lessen the authority and autonomy that is granted
B. Require participation to be outside of normal working hours
C. Allow workers to simply do their own thing
D. Use team bonuses
E. Require voluntary only membership
D. Use team bonuses
Self-managed teams are groups of workers who have been given ______
for their task domains.
A. individual incentives
B. administrative oversight
C. reduced responsibility
D. complete freedom
E. no technology
B. administrative oversight
Administrative oversight given to self-managed teams does NOT
include
A. planning
B. scheduling work
C. implementing change
D. monitoring performance
E. staffing
C. implementing change
When using a self-managed team, a manager should
A. maintain detailed monitoring of its performance.
B. create the team within whatever structure currently exists.
C. offer lucrative individual bonuses.
D. allow members to hire their own co-workers.
E. provide elaborate retreats for team discussions.
D. allow members to hire their own co-workers.
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of group and team
development?
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Reforming
D. Adjourning
E. Performing
C. Reforming
The question the group is asking during the forming stage of group
development is
A. "Why are we here?"
B. "What's next?"
C. "Can we do the job properly?"
D. "Why are we fighting about who does what?"
E. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"
A. "Why are we here?"
During the forming stage, the leader should
A. establish permanent control.
B. allow people to socialize.
C. empower team members.
D. encourage disagreement.
E. work through team conflicts.
B. allow people to socialize.
The ______ stage of team development is characterized by the
emergence of individual personalities and roles and conflicts within the
group.
A. norming
B. forming
C. adjourning
D. performing
E. storming
E. storming
The group development stage in which individuals test the leader's
policies and assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the
power structure is the ______ stage.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
A. storming
Yuan's team was not making much progress on the development of a
new production process. Linnea was being very uncooperative; she did
not agree with the direction Yuan was taking, so she hadn't helped with
her part. This team is in what stage of group development?
A. Performing
B. Forming
C. Adjourning
D. Storming
E. Norming
D. Storming
During the ______ stage of team development, close relationships
develop and unity and harmony emerge.
A. storming
B. norming
C. performing
D. forming
E. adjourning
B. norming
The question individuals ask during the norming stage of group
development is
A. "How do I fit in here?"
B. "What's next?"
C. "How can I best perform my role?"
D. "What do the others expect me to do?"
E. "What's my role here?"
D. "What do the others expect me to do?"
The principal by-product of the norming stage of team development is
A. adjournment.
B. uncertainty.
C. group cohesiveness.
D. conflict.
E. empowerment
C. group cohesiveness.
Since hard feelings about group leadership and assignments had passed,
Phillip's group seemed to be relating much better. At the meeting
tomorrow he should
A. help the team identify group goals and values.
B. encourage members to voice disagreements.
C. help people get to know each other.
D. empower the members.
E. throw a party.
A. help the team identify group goals and values.
______ is a "we" feeling that binds group members together.
A. Maintenance
B. Groupthink
C. Norming
D. Social loafing
E. Group cohesiveness
E. Group cohesiveness
In the performing stage of group development, members
A. prepare for disbandment.
B. develop close relationships.
C. concentrate on solving problems.
D. test the leader's policies.
E. hold back to see what will happen.
C. concentrate on solving problems.
During the performing stage of team development, the group answers
the question
A. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"
B. "Why are we here?"
C. "Why are we fighting?"
D. "Can we do the job properly?"
E. "Who's in charge?"
D. "Can we do the job properly?"
Andrea led a team that has just finished up a very challenging research
project that will assist management in developing long range plans.
Despite the stress of the past few months, a few people now seem sad it's
over. Now Andrea should
A. have an awards ceremony.
B. emphasize unity.
C. get the group disbanded quickly to free people up for new things.
D. provide opportunities for people to get to know each other better
now.
E. allow members to work on similar tasks.
A. have an awards ceremony.
Groups that make it through storming generally do so because
A. they develop groupthink.
B. someone wins the political battle and dominates the group.
C. someone besides the leader challenges the group to resolve power
struggles.
D. the work gets done.
E. the focus generally is on social loafing.
C. someone besides the leader challenges the group to resolve power struggles.
The stage during which a group sets guidelines about issues like
attendance and punctuality is the ______ stage.
A. norming
B. storming
C. forming
D. adjourning
E. performing
A. norming
Which of the following is NOT a primary consideration in building a
group into an effective team?
A. Cohesiveness
B. Groupthink
C. Autocratic structure
D. Performance goals and feedback
E. Size
C. Autocratic structure
Which of the following is an advantage of smaller groups?
A. Fewer distractions
B. More formalized team leadership
C. More creativity and innovation
D. More division of labor
E. Better interaction and morale
E. Better interaction and morale
Which of the following is a disadvantage of smaller groups?
A. Unfair work distribution
B. Autocratic leadership
C. Lower morale
D. Tendency to form cliques
E. Tendency to take unreasonable risk
A. Unfair work distribution
Which of the following is an advantage of larger groups?
A. Higher morale
B. More effective interaction
C. Greater boldness
D. Can take advantage of division of labor
E. Less social loafing
D. Can take advantage of division of labor
Which of the following is a disadvantage of larger groups?
A. Less creativity and innovation
B. Less commitment
C. More division of labor
D. Fewer resources
E. Fewer cliques
B. Less commitment
There were 17 people on the grounds maintenance committee, and
among its responsibilities were monthly parking lot cleanup and weekly
patio sweeping. Alex was a part of the committee at his boss's request,
but had never actually helped with anything. This is likely an example
of
A. storming.
B. devil's advocacy.
C. social loafing.
D. procrastinating.
E. adjourning.
C. social loafing.
Members of a team develop their ______ based on the expectations of
the team, of the organization, and of themselves.
A. roles
B. norms
C. groupthink
D. job descriptions
E. social fit
A. roles
A ______ role is behavior that concentrates on getting the team's work
done.
A. maintenance
B. performance
C. administrative
D. task
E. production
D. task
Vanita points out during the meeting that the group has fallen a half
hour behind schedule according to the agenda, and should get back to
the important work at hand. Vanita is performing a ______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
B. task
Someone at a team meeting who says, "Let's hear from those who
oppose this plan" is performing a ______ role.
A. maintenance
B. social
C. coordinator
D. reorientation
E. task
A. maintenance
The atmosphere in the room was tense and somewhat negative as the
management team discussed changes to promotion requirements. But
then Eterio made a joke about Ryan's white-knuckled grip on his pen,
and the laughter seemed to improve the mood. Eterio was acting in a
______ role.
A. relational
B. task
C. maintenance
D. social
E. production
C. maintenance
Which of the following is NOT a reason to enforce norms?
A. To clarify role expectations
B. To create a written document of behavioral guidelines for new
employees
C. To help the group survive
D. To emphasize the group's important values
E. To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations
B. To create a written document of behavioral guidelines for new employees
Nordstrom's department store chain emphasizes the great lengths to
which it goes in customer service, an example of which of these reasons
to enforce norms?
A. To clarify role expectations
B. To help the group survive
C. To create cohesiveness
D. To emphasize the group's important values
E. To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations
D. To emphasize the group's important values
Which of the following is a way managers can enhance team
cohesiveness?
A. Giving every group member a vital role
B. Providing team members precise instructions for their tasks
C. Creating a relatively large team
D. Assigning members randomly to teams
E. Allowing off-the-job social events
E. Allowing off-the-job social events
Building collaborative teams is aided by combining role clarity with
A. task ambiguity.
B. groupthink.
C. flexible performance standards.
D. challenges to norms.
E. devil's advocacy.
A. task ambiguity.
When members of a group are friendly and tight-knit but unable to
disagree enough to properly appraise alternatives, they are said to be
experiencing
A. paradigm paralysis.
B. groupthink.
C. social loafing.
D. the dialectic method.
E. devil's advocacy.
B. groupthink.
Pam sat through the meeting feeling convinced her team was
misinterpreting recent marketing research, but she didn't say anything.
The team leader was a close friend. Plus, she didn't want to disrupt the
team since she thought she was the only one with reservations. Pam's
team appears to be experiencing
A. groupthink.
B. storming.
C. social loafing.
D. norming.
E. devil's advocacy.
A. groupthink.
Peer pressure which leads group members to question the loyalty of
other members who express dissent is a symptom of
A. social loafing.
B. norming.
C. devil's advocacy.
D. groupthink.
E. storming.
D. groupthink.
To prevent groupthink, a manager should
A. reinforce how capable the group is.
B. never admit errors to outsiders.
C. bring in outside experts for fresh perspectives.
D. encourage everyone to "get with the team."
E. express high confidence in the group's previous decisions.
C. bring in outside experts for fresh perspectives.
Negative conflict is sometimes called ______ conflict.
A. dysfunctional
B. irregular
C. destructive
D. aggressive
E. apathetic
A. dysfunctional
Which of the following is characteristic of work groups with too little
conflict?
A. Dissatisfaction
B. Indecision
C. Political infighting
D. Lack of teamwork
E. Turnover
B. Indecision
Which of the following is a manifestation of excessive conflict in the
workplace?
A. Apathy
B. Lack of creativity
C. Missed deadlines
D. Violence
E. Indecision
D. Violence
Workplace performance is maximized when
A. conflict is absent.
B. conflict is at a very low level.
C. conflict is at a moderate level.
D. conflict is at a high level.
E. conflict occurs only at non-managerial levels.
C. conflict is at a moderate level.
Hannah is on a team with Carson, and they are often in conflict.
Hannah likes to begin her work with careful planning and she gets
started immediately. Carson, on the other hand, likes trying out several
ideas, and tends to be working frantically at the last minute. Their team
conflict most likely stems from
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. ambiguous jurisdictions.
E. inconsistent goals.
B. a personality clash.
Which of the following is a source of conflict in the workplace?
A. Excessive communication
B. Strict job boundaries
C. Too many resources
D. Lack of diversity
E. Inconsistent goals
E. Inconsistent goals
Abel, whose primary job is supervising a small production group, is not
getting cooperation from all members on the cross-functional team he
leads. In particular, Samantha, a marketing manager, seems to resist
his direction. The source of conflict in this can be
A. time pressure.
B. a personality clash.
C. communication failure.
D. status differences.
E. ambiguous jurisdictions.
D. status differences.
The conflict-handling style in which a person allows the desires of
another to prevail is known as
A. forcing.
B. accommodating.
C. avoiding.
D. collaborating.
E. compromising.
B. accommodating.
When issues causing conflict are trivial, or when emotions are high and
a cooling-off period would be helpful, which conflict-handling style is
preferable?
A. Collaborating
B. Forcing
C. Accommodating
D. Avoiding
E. Compromising
D. Avoiding
Kazimir has missed another deadline and his boss Carla is furious. She
will have to explain to the client again why the project is behind. Carla
thinks she may say something she'll regret if she talks to Kazimir about
this now, so she decides to wait awhile. Carla is using the ______
conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
A. avoiding
Megan came to her boss with a proposal for a new Minolta copier.
Daniel tells her that he has always used and liked Xerox copiers, but
when he thinks about it later he realizes he does not feel really strongly
about it. Daniel should adopt a(n) ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
E. accommodating
______ strives to devise solutions that benefit both parties.
A. Avoiding
B. Collaborating
C. Compromising
D. Forcing
E. Accommodating
B. Collaborating
Sasha told her team that she is moving forward with a change to the
bonus structure, despite vocal objections from several team members.
Sasha is using the ______ conflict-handling style.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
D. forcing
The disadvantage of the ______ conflict-handling style is that it is very
time consuming.
A. avoiding
B. collaborating
C. compromising
D. forcing
E. accommodating
B. collaborating
In which of the following conditions should constructive conflict be
stimulated?
A. The group seems to be apathetic.
B. Managers want to achieve work objectives.
C. The group is adapting to change.
D. Managers are in charge of self-managed teams.
E. There is a lot of internal competition.
A. The group seems to be apathetic.
______ is designed to elicit different opinions without inciting people's
personal feelings.
A. Groupthink
B. Programmed conflict
C. Social loafing
D. Storming
E. Dysfunctional conflict
B. Programmed conflict
Keith asked Becky, one of his team members, to purposefully think of
and voice criticisms as the group discussed a popular idea to open a
branch office in another state. This is an example of the use of
A. devil's advocacy.
B. groupthink.
C. the dialectic method.
D. storming.
E. dysfunctional conflict.
A. devil's advocacy.
______ is the process of having two people or groups play opposing
roles in a debate in order to better understand a proposal.
A. Storming
B. Positive conflict
C. Devil's advocacy
D. Groupthink
E. The dialectic method
E. The dialectic method
Chapter 15
Interpersonal & Organizational Communication: Mastering the
Exchange of Information
Multiple Choice Questions
68. Which of the following is NOT part of listening-centered communication?
A. Summarize what you believe the other person has said.
B. Pay attention to the words spoken.
C. Ask the other person to stop speaking when you disagree so that you may
provide your counterargument.
D. Ask questions to try to better understand.
E. Only offer answers after the other person agrees that you understand her
point of view.
69. Communication is
A. speaking or writing so that another is able to comprehend the meaning.
B. interpretation of messages sent via any media.
C. the combined activities of speaking and listening.
D. the transfer of information and understanding from one person to another.
E. a process involving only the sender, message, and receiver.
70. When your intended message is sent accurately in the least amount of time,
you are a(n)
A. economical communicator.
B. efficient communicator.
C. formal communicator.
D. collaborative communicator.
E. effective communicator.
71. Which of the following is NOT an element of the communication model?
A. Sender
B. Feedback
C. Decoder
D. Noise
E. Message
72. The process of translating a message into understandable symbols or
language is called
A. encoding.
B. transforming.
C. mediating.
D. decoding.
E. enriching.
73. When the band came out on stage and the lead singer shouted, "Hello,
Orlando!" the crowd roared with applause. This is an example of
A. decoding.
B. medium selection.
C. noise.
D. encoding.
E. feedback.
74. Which of the following is NOT an example of noise in the communication
process in a typical classroom?
A. A student in the back of the classroom texting a friend
B. Groundskeepers mowing the lawn outside the classroom window
C. A student responding to a professor's request for questions
D. Uncomfortable classroom desks
E. An attractive person walking by the open classroom door
75. Which of the following is a step in the communication process?
A. Noise is eliminated from the message
B. The sender decodes the message
C. Possible receivers are considered
D. The message is transmitted through a medium
E. The receiver selects medium
76. A(n) ______ form of media allows receivers to observe multiple cues, such as
body language and tone of voice, and allows senders to get feedback.
A. encoded
B. rich
C. dense
D. complex
E. formal
77. Which of the following is the most appropriate media for a manager advising
employees of a revision to the company's bonus structure?
A. E-mail to all those affected
B. Telephone call to each
C. Posting an announcement near the office coffee machine
D. Face-to-face meeting
E. Personal note to each
78. Of the following, which medium is the richest?
A. Company newsletter
B. Telephone
C. E-mail
D. Memos
E. Videoconferencing
79. Of the following, which medium is the least rich?
A. Flier on a bulletin board
B. Instant messaging on the Internet
C. E-mail
D. Handwritten notes
E. Conference telephone calls
80. A manager wants to tell employees that the quarterly project management
training will start on April 12th, about two months from now. Generally, which of
the following should the manager use?
A. Videoconferencing
B. Telephone
C. Personal notes
D. Face-to-face meeting
E. Newsletter
81. Executives at Raytron Industries want to let middle managers know that the
company is going to be acquired by its largest competitor. Assuming any of the
following are possible, how should executives communicate this?
A. Send a memo to all managers
B. Call a meeting of managers
C. Post a notice on all bulletin boards
D. Send an e-mail to all managers
E. Schedule a conference phone call
82. Samantha wanted to tell her employee about the seminar, but she put the flier
in a stack of papers and forgot about it until after the deadline to sign up. This is
an example of what type of barrier to communication?
A. Sender barrier
B. Encoding barrier
C. Medium barrier
D. Feedback barrier
E. Receiver barrier
83. Yelena worked on a global team for an American company, and all her work
had to be completed in her second language, English. Sometimes her teammates
misinterpreted her meaning. This is an example of a(n) ______ barrier to
communication.
A. decoding
B. sender
C. feedback
D. receiver
E. encoding
84. Rolando was in meetings all day and didn't get a chance to check his email
before he had to pick up his children from daycare, so he missed an important
message from a client. This is an example of what type of barrier to
communication?
A. Medium barrier
B. Decoding barrier
C. Feedback barrier
D. Receiver barrier
E. Encoding barrier
85. Odiche works part-time in a smoothie shop. With all the blenders, sometimes
the noise prevents him from correctly hearing the customer orders. This is an
example of a(n) ______ barrier to communication.
A. feedback
B. semantic
C. personal
D. encoding
E. physical
86. Dianne, located in Michigan, needs to communicate with Henning, who is in
Oslo, Norway, about a project they are working on. Henning has perfect command
of English, but they are still facing a(n) ______ barrier to communication.
A. semantic
B. personal
C. encoding
D. medium
E. physical
87. The study of the meaning of words is called
A. jargon.
B. lexicography.
C. rhetoric.
D. semantics.
E. cartology.
88. ______ is likely to cause a semantic barrier to communication.
A. Jargon
B. Technology
C. Gossip
D. The grapevine
E. Rhetoric
89. Which of the following is NOT a personal barrier to communication?
A. A small vocabulary
B. Obsolete technology
C. Lack of credibility
D. Different frame of reference
E. Large ego
90. Andrew was so mad that his boss Beth brought up an idea he gave her earlier
that he couldn't even think about what his colleagues were now saying in the
meeting. This is an example of which personal barrier to communication?
A. Tendency to judge others' messages
B. Variable skills in communicating effectively
C. Oversized ego
D. Inability to listen with understanding
E. Variation in interpreting information
91. The statement, "Single old ladies are cat people," reflects a(n)
A. accepted generalization.
B. stereotype.
C. finding of the grapevine.
D. type of jargon.
E. statement of fact.
92. Which of the following is NOT a way in which nonverbal communication is
expressed?
A. Writing a thank you note
B. Making someone wait an hour in the lobby
C. Looking away while talking to someone
D. Grimacing
E. Touching someone's shoulder
93. Most people tend to ______ when conveying bad news or negative feedback.
A. smile
B. avoid eye contact
C. nod their heads
D. lean forward
E. yawn
94. Which of the following is a "don't" when attempting to improve
communication?
A. Occasionally nod in agreement
B. Lean toward the speaker
C. Speak in a quiet, reassuring tone
D. Smile and show animation
E. Close your eyes
95. Which of the following is a "do" when attempting to improve
communication?
A. Close your eyes
B. Smile
C. Look away from the speaker
D. Speak very slowly
E. Turn away from the speaker
96. Compared to women, men tend to
A. give more tactful feedback.
B. indicate their uncertainties.
C. be indirect when admitting fault.
D. pay more compliments.
E. make more apologies.
97. According to Deborah Tannen, men are more likely than women to
A. pay more compliments.
B. temper criticism with praise.
C. ask more questions.
D. apologize frequently.
E. boast about achievements.
98. Ginger, a marketing manager, uses a sports car metaphor to explain a concept
to her male counterpart in accounting. She is said to be
A. emasculating.
B. wordsmithing.
C. genderflexing.
D. miscommunicating.
E. ingratiating.
99. Channels of communications that follow the chain of command and are
considered as official are termed
A. formal.
B. prescribed.
C. vertical.
D. horizontal.
E. external.
100. Which of the following indicates how official communications should be
routed?
A. Grapevine
B. Organization chart
C. Lateral networks
D. Corporate culture
E. Personnel files
101. A manager who is directing her subordinate about work tasks is
communicating
A. vertically.
B. horizontally.
C. externally.
D. through the grapevine.
E. informally.
102. The more management levels through which a message passes
A. the more important the message is.
B. the higher the chance the message will become external.
C. the more informal the organization.
D. the more distorted the message may become.
E. the more disorganized the organization.
103. Executives at Absolute Measurements, Inc. disseminated a new five-year
strategic plan to managers. This is an example of
A. external communication.
B. downward communication.
C. corporate communication.
D. horizontal communication.
E. informal communication.
104. Kyung, a marketing manager, shares some of the market research his
department has analyzed with the research and development group. Kyung is
communicating
A. by wandering around.
B. upward.
C. horizontally.
D. through the grapevine.
E. externally.
105. Shortly after the end of the fiscal year, Zion Specialties released an earnings
report to shareholders. This is an example of communicating
A. vertically.
B. upward.
C. horizontally.
D. downward.
E. externally.
106. ______ communication channels develop outside the organizational structure
and do not follow the chain of command.
A. Customary
B. Vertical
C. Horizontal
D. Informal
E. External
107. Gossip and rumor in an organization are part of the ______, which itself is a
type of ______ communication channel.
A. organization chart; horizontal
B. culture; horizontal
C. organization chart; informal
D. grapevine; horizontal
E. grapevine; informal
108. The grapevine is
A. a horizontal communication channel.
B. almost wholly inaccurate.
C. slower than formal channels.
D. used by employees to acquire most of their on-the-job information.
E. a morale enhancer.
109. A manager who literally wanders around her organization and talks with
people across all lines of authority is doing
A. COO.
B. MBWA.
C. MBO.
D. TQM.
E. JIT.
110. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the Millennial generation?
A. Desire to accept facts and authority at face value
B. Desire to experience new and different things
C. Desire to have personalized products and choice
D. Desire to keep things moving and interesting
E. Desire to have instant feedback
111. Using video and audio links along with computers to allow people at
different locations to see, hear, and talk with each other is called
A. telecommuting.
B. collaborative computing.
C. videoconferencing.
D. telecollaborating.
E. using the extranet.
112. Which of the following is true of telecommuting?
A. Increased capital costs
B. Attractive to people with high social needs
C. Makes recruiting more difficult
D. Increased turnover
E. Increased ability to hire nontraditional workers, such as prisoner inmates
113. ______ can be quite expensive, requiring a specially designed room with
multiple cameras and high-definition video screens.
A. Telepresence technology
B. Telecommuting
C. Videoconferencing
D. Teleworking
E. Netconferencing
114. The key to protecting digital communication systems against fraud, hackers,
identity theft, and other threats is
A. using file-sharing services.
B. hiring ethical employees.
C. creating a well-funded IT department.
D. using prevention techniques like strong passwords.
E. minimizing turnover.
115. When thieves use your name and good credit rating to get cash or buy
things, it is known as
A. personal data theft.
B. credit mishandling.
C. identity theft.
D. credit exploitation.
E. misuse of standing.
116. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of e-mail?
A. The sheer number that must be handled by the average worker
B. Decrease in other forms of communication, like greetings
C. Emotions are often poorly communicated
D. Considered rude to use in crowded places
E. The greater the use of email, the less connected coworkers feel
117. Which of the following is appropriate for workplace e-mail?
A. Editing another's e-mail when replying
B. Complicated topics
C. Jokes
D. Informality and grammar errors
E. Sensitive personal issues
118. Generally, people comprehend about ______ of a typical verbal message.
A. 5%
B. a third
C. half
D. two thirds
E. all
119. The average speaker communicates about ______ as many words as the
average listener can process.
A. one fourth
B. half
C. about
D. twice
E. four times
120. What do good listeners do during the information gap between what
someone says and how fast we process?
A. Daydream
B. Decide what they will say next
C. Think about other things
D. Mentally summarize what's been said
E. Make a convincing argument against what is being said
121. Which of the following is NOT a suggestion that may help you be a good
listener?
A. Memorize the details
B. Ask questions
C. Summarize remarks
D. Judge content, not delivery
E. Give a fair hearing
122. Speed reading works well for material that is
A. jargon-laden.
B. unfamiliar.
C. easy.
D. dense.
E. complicated.
123. Top-down reading strategies include which of the following?
A. Read everything you can that is related to your industry.
B. Formulate specific questions you want the reading to answer.
C. Summarize findings for your subordinates.
D. Get deeply into the details, where the meat of most writing is.
E. Test yourself on what you've read.
124. If you want your writing to establish a common ground with the reader and
make your overall argument stronger, you should order your arguments from
A. negative to positive.
B. most important to least important.
C. least controversial to most controversial.
D. least important to most important.
E. positive to negative.
125. When you want your reader to take a logical and fairly nonpolitical action,
you should order ideas in your writing from
A. least controversial to most controversial.
B. least important to most important.
C. negative to positive.
D. positive to negative.
E. most important to least important.
126. Carter wants to change the CEO's mind about seeking an outside firm to
which they could outsource the customer service function. He decides to write a
proposal, including a variety of arguments to support his idea. Here, Carter
should order his ideas from
A. most important to least important.
B. least controversial to most controversial.
C. negative to positive.
D. positive to negative.
E. least important to most important.
127. Which of the following is a tip for writing more effectively?
A. Use passive voice.
B. Construct interesting, complex sentences.
C. Don't use italics or bolding in business writing.
D. Start by telling what you expect of the reader.
E. Use narrow margins.
128. A study conducted by AT&T and Stanford University found that the top
predictor of success and professional upward mobility was
A. intelligence.
B. writing ability.
C. integrity.
D. interpersonal skills.
E. public speaking ability.
129. The introduction to a business speech should
A. contain at least one joke.
B. get right to the point.
C. contain a phrase like, "I'm honored to be here."
D. contain significant details of the presentation.
E. contain an unrelated story to catch the interest of the audience.
130. Which of the following is NOT appropriate to include in the conclusion of a
speech?
A. A signal phrase to cue listeners about the wind-up
B. Details you forgot from earlier
C. A call to action
D. "Thank you"
E. A little upbeat story
Multiple Choice Questions
68. (p. 473) Which of the following is NOT part of listening-centered
communication?
A. Summarize what you believe the other person has said.
B. Pay attention to the words spoken.
C. Ask the other person to stop speaking when you disagree so that you may
provide your counterargument.
D. Ask questions to try to better understand.
E. Only offer answers after the other person agrees that you understand her
point of view.
Effective communication begins with listening; paying attention to the words
being spoken. This means that you will ask more questions to try to understand
the situation from the other person's perspective. When you think you've got it,
make a statement to the speaker summarizing what you believe they have told
you. Only when they agree that indeed you do ‘get it' should you begin to offer
potential solutions or answers.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
69. (p. 474) Communication is
A. speaking or writing so that another is able to comprehend the meaning.
B. interpretation of messages sent via any media.
C. the combined activities of speaking and listening.
D. the transfer of information and understanding from one person to another.
E. a process involving only the sender, message, and receiver.
Communication is the transfer of information and understanding from one
person to another.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
70. (p. 475) When your intended message is sent accurately in the least amount of
time, you are a(n)
A. economical communicator.
B. efficient communicator.
C. formal communicator.
D. collaborative communicator.
E. effective communicator.
You are an efficient communicator when you can transmit your message
accurately in the least time.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
71. (p. 475) Which of the following is NOT an element of the communication model?
A. Sender
B. Feedback
C. Decoder
D. Noise
E. Message
The elements of the communication model are sender, receiver, message, noise,
and feedback (see Figure 15.1).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
72. (p. 475) The process of translating a message into understandable symbols or
language is called
A. encoding.
B. transforming.
C. mediating.
D. decoding.
E. enriching.
Encoding is translating a message into understandable symbols or language.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
73. (p. 475) When the band came out on stage and the lead singer shouted, "Hello,
Orlando!" the crowd roared with applause. This is an example of
A. decoding.
B. medium selection.
C. noise.
D. encoding.
E. feedback.
Feedback is when the receiver (the audience members) expresses his or her
reaction (applause) to the sender's (the lead singer's) message (the greeting).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
74. (p. 475) Which of the following is NOT an example of noise in the
communication process in a typical classroom?
A. A student in the back of the classroom texting a friend
B. Groundskeepers mowing the lawn outside the classroom window
C. A student responding to a professor's request for questions
D. Uncomfortable classroom desks
E. An attractive person walking by the open classroom door
Noise is any disturbance that interferes with the transmission of a message.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
75. (p. 476) Which of the following is a step in the communication process?
A. Noise is eliminated from the message
B. The sender decodes the message
C. Possible receivers are considered
D. The message is transmitted through a medium
E. The receiver selects medium
The communication process includes (1) sender encodes message, selects
medium, (2) message is transmitted through a medium, (3) receiver decodes the
message, (4) receiver expresses reaction (see Figure 15.1).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
76. (p. 477) A(n) ______ form of media allows receivers to observe multiple cues, such
as body language and tone of voice, and allows senders to get feedback.
A. encoded
B. rich
C. dense
D. complex
E. formal
Face-to-face communication, also the most personal form of communication, is
the richest. It allows the receiver of the message to observe multiple cues, such as
body language and tone of voice. It allows the sender to get immediate feedback,
to see how well the receiver comprehended the message.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
77. (p. 477) Which of the following is the most appropriate media for a manager
advising employees of a revision to the company's bonus structure?
A. E-mail to all those affected
B. Telephone call to each
C. Posting an announcement near the office coffee machine
D. Face-to-face meeting
E. Personal note to each
A rich medium like a face-to-face meeting is more effective with nonroutine
situations. This provides an opportunity for feedback and prevents information
oversimplification in which the receiver does not get enough information.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
78. (p. 477) Of the following, which medium is the richest?
A. Company newsletter
B. Telephone
C. E-mail
D. Memos
E. Videoconferencing
In order from high to low media richness: face-to-face presence, video-
conferencing, telephone, personal written media (e-mail, memos), impersonal
written media (newsletter).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
79. (p. 477) Of the following, which medium is the least rich?
A. Flier on a bulletin board
B. Instant messaging on the Internet
C. E-mail
D. Handwritten notes
E. Conference telephone calls
In order from high to low media richness: face-to-face presence, video-
conferencing, telephone, personal written media (e-mail, notes), impersonal
written media (fliers).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
80. (p. 477) A manager wants to tell employees that the quarterly project
management training will start on April 12th, about two months from now.
Generally, which of the following should the manager use?
A. Videoconferencing
B. Telephone
C. Personal notes
D. Face-to-face meeting
E. Newsletter
Lean media is generally best for routine situations. Here, there is no urgency or
need for feedback, so using a newsletter would suffice.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
81. (p. 477) Executives at Raytron Industries want to let middle managers know that
the company is going to be acquired by its largest competitor. Assuming any of
the following are possible, how should executives communicate this?
A. Send a memo to all managers
B. Call a meeting of managers
C. Post a notice on all bulletin boards
D. Send an e-mail to all managers
E. Schedule a conference phone call
This is a nonroutine, unusual event that requires the richest type of
communication such as a face-to-face meeting.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-01 What do I need to know about the communication process to be an effective communicator?
Topic: The Communication Process: What It Is, How It Works
82. (p. 479) Samantha wanted to tell her employee about the seminar, but she put
the flier in a stack of papers and forgot about it until after the deadline to sign up.
This is an example of what type of barrier to communication?
A. Sender barrier
B. Encoding barrier
C. Medium barrier
D. Feedback barrier
E. Receiver barrier
A sender barrier is one in which no message gets sent. Example: If a manager has
an idea but is afraid to voice it because he or she fears criticism, then obviously
no message gets sent.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
83. (p. 479) Yelena worked on a global team for an American company, and all her
work had to be completed in her second language, English. Sometimes her
teammates misinterpreted her meaning. This is an example of a(n) ______ barrier
to communication.
A. decoding
B. sender
C. feedback
D. receiver
E. encoding
An encoding barrier is one in which the message is not expressed correctly.
Example: If your vocabulary is lacking or English is not your first language, you
may have difficulty expressing to a supervisor, co-worker, or subordinate what it
is you mean to say.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
84. (p. 479) Rolando was in meetings all day and didn't get a chance to check his
email before he had to pick up his children from daycare, so he missed an
important message from a client. This is an example of what type of barrier to
communication?
A. Medium barrier
B. Decoding barrier
C. Feedback barrier
D. Receiver barrier
E. Encoding barrier
A receiver barrier is one in which no message gets received. Example: Because
you were talking to a co-worker, you weren't listening when your supervisor
announced work assignments.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
85. (p. 479) Odiche works part-time in a smoothie shop. With all the blenders,
sometimes the noise prevents him from correctly hearing the customer orders.
This is an example of a(n) ______ barrier to communication.
A. feedback
B. semantic
C. personal
D. encoding
E. physical
Physical barriers to communication include sound (the blenders), space, and
time.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
86. (p. 479) Dianne, located in Michigan, needs to communicate with Henning, who
is in Oslo, Norway, about a project they are working on. Henning has perfect
command of English, but they are still facing a(n) ______ barrier to
communication.
A. semantic
B. personal
C. encoding
D. medium
E. physical
Physical barriers include sound, time, space, and the like. In this example, time
and space may be a barrier because these people are several time-zones apart.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
87. (p. 479) The study of the meaning of words is called
A. jargon.
B. lexicography.
C. rhetoric.
D. semantics.
E. cartology.
Semantics is the study of the meaning of words.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
88. (p. 479) ______ is likely to cause a semantic barrier to communication.
A. Jargon
B. Technology
C. Gossip
D. The grapevine
E. Rhetoric
In addition, as our society becomes more technically oriented, semantic meaning
becomes a problem because jargon develops. Jargon is terminology specific to a
particular profession or group.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
89. (p. 479) Which of the following is NOT a personal barrier to communication?
A. A small vocabulary
B. Obsolete technology
C. Lack of credibility
D. Different frame of reference
E. Large ego
Personal barriers to communication are individual attributes that hinder
communication. Technology is not a barrier of this type.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
90. (p. 480) Andrew was so mad that his boss Beth brought up an idea he gave her
earlier that he couldn't even think about what his colleagues were now saying in
the meeting. This is an example of which personal barrier to communication?
A. Tendency to judge others' messages
B. Variable skills in communicating effectively
C. Oversized ego
D. Inability to listen with understanding
E. Variation in interpreting information
Our egos—our pride, our self-esteem, even arrogance—are a personal barrier to
communication. Egos can cause political battles, turf wars, and the passionate
pursuit of power, credit, and resources.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
91. (p. 480) The statement, "Single old ladies are cat people," reflects a(n)
A. accepted generalization.
B. stereotype.
C. finding of the grapevine.
D. type of jargon.
E. statement of fact.
A stereotype consists of oversimplified beliefs about a certain group of people.
There are, for instance, common stereotypes about old people, young people,
males, and females. Examples include, "Young men are reckless," and "Old women
are scolds."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
92. (p. 481) Which of the following is NOT a way in which nonverbal communication
is expressed?
A. Writing a thank you note
B. Making someone wait an hour in the lobby
C. Looking away while talking to someone
D. Grimacing
E. Touching someone's shoulder
Nonverbal communication consists of messages sent outside of the written or
spoken word. Six ways in which nonverbal communication is expressed are
through (1) eye contact, (2) facial expressions, (3) body movements and
gestures, (4) touch, (5) setting, and (6) time.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
93. (p. 481) Most people tend to ______ when conveying bad news or negative
feedback.
A. smile
B. avoid eye contact
C. nod their heads
D. lean forward
E. yawn
Eye contact expresses emotion; for instance, most people tend to avoid eye
contact when conveying bad news or negative feedback.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
94. (p. 483) Which of the following is a "don't" when attempting to improve
communication?
A. Occasionally nod in agreement
B. Lean toward the speaker
C. Speak in a quiet, reassuring tone
D. Smile and show animation
E. Close your eyes
According to Table 15.2, you should not close your eyes when communicating.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
95. (p. 483) Which of the following is a "do" when attempting to improve
communication?
A. Close your eyes
B. Smile
C. Look away from the speaker
D. Speak very slowly
E. Turn away from the speaker
According to Table 15.2, you should smile and show animation when
communicating.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
96. (p. 483) Compared to women, men tend to
A. give more tactful feedback.
B. indicate their uncertainties.
C. be indirect when admitting fault.
D. pay more compliments.
E. make more apologies.
According to Deborah Tannen, men are more likely than women to be indirect
when it comes to admitting fault or when they don't know something.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
97. (p. 483) According to Deborah Tannen, men are more likely than women to
A. pay more compliments.
B. temper criticism with praise.
C. ask more questions.
D. apologize frequently.
E. boast about achievements.
According to Deborah Tannen, men are more likely than women to use "I"
statements and are more likely to boast about their achievements.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
98. (p. 483) Ginger, a marketing manager, uses a sports car metaphor to explain a
concept to her male counterpart in accounting. She is said to be
A. emasculating.
B. wordsmithing.
C. genderflexing.
D. miscommunicating.
E. ingratiating.
Genderflexing refers to temporarily using communication behaviors typical of
the other gender to increase the potential for influence. For example, a female
manager might use sports analogies to motivate a group of males.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-02 What are the important barriers I need to be aware of; so I can imporve my communication skills?
Topic: Barriers to Communication
99. (p. 486) Channels of communications that follow the chain of command and are
considered as official are termed
A. formal.
B. prescribed.
C. vertical.
D. horizontal.
E. external.
Formal communication channels follow the chain of command and are
recognized as official.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
100. (p. 486) Which of the following indicates how official communications should
be routed?
A. Grapevine
B. Organization chart
C. Lateral networks
D. Corporate culture
E. Personnel files
The organizational chart indicates how official communications—memos, letters,
reports, announcements—are supposed to be routed.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
101. (p. 486) A manager who is directing her subordinate about work tasks is
communicating
A. vertically.
B. horizontally.
C. externally.
D. through the grapevine.
E. informally.
Vertical communication is the flow of messages up and down the hierarchy
within the organization: bosses communicating with subordinates, subordinates
communicating with bosses.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
102. (p. 486) The more management levels through which a message passes
A. the more important the message is.
B. the higher the chance the message will become external.
C. the more informal the organization.
D. the more distorted the message may become.
E. the more disorganized the organization.
The more management levels through which a message passes, the more it is
prone to distortion.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
103. (p. 487) Executives at Absolute Measurements, Inc. disseminated a new five-
year strategic plan to managers. This is an example of
A. external communication.
B. downward communication.
C. corporate communication.
D. horizontal communication.
E. informal communication.
Downward communication flows from a higher level to a lower level (or levels).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
104. (p. 487) Kyung, a marketing manager, shares some of the market research his
department has analyzed with the research and development group. Kyung is
communicating
A. by wandering around.
B. upward.
C. horizontally.
D. through the grapevine.
E. externally.
Horizontal communication flows within and between work units; its main
purpose is coordination.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
105. (p. 488) Shortly after the end of the fiscal year, Zion Specialties released an
earnings report to shareholders. This is an example of communicating
A. vertically.
B. upward.
C. horizontally.
D. downward.
E. externally.
External communication flows between people inside and outside the
organization. These are other stakeholders: customers, suppliers, shareholders
or other owners, and so on.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
106. (p. 488) ______ communication channels develop outside the organizational
structure and do not follow the chain of command.
A. Customary
B. Vertical
C. Horizontal
D. Informal
E. External
Informal communication channels develop outside the formal structure and do
not follow the chain of command—they skip management levels and cut across
lines of authority.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
107. (p. 488) Gossip and rumor in an organization are part of the ______, which itself
is a type of ______ communication channel.
A. organization chart; horizontal
B. culture; horizontal
C. organization chart; informal
D. grapevine; horizontal
E. grapevine; informal
Two types of informal communication channels are (1) the grapevine and (2)
management by wandering around. The grapevine is the unofficial
communication system of the informal organization, a network of gossip and
rumor of what is called "employee language."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
108. (p. 488) The grapevine is
A. a horizontal communication channel.
B. almost wholly inaccurate.
C. slower than formal channels.
D. used by employees to acquire most of their on-the-job information.
E. a morale enhancer.
The grapevine is the unofficial communication system of the informal
organization, a network of gossip and rumor. Research shows that the grapevine
is faster than formal channels, is about 75% accurate, and is used by employees
to acquire the majority of their on-the-job information. Gossip can be notoriously
misleading and a great reducer of morale in a dysfunctional company.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
109. (p. 488) A manager who literally wanders around her organization and talks
with people across all lines of authority is doing
A. COO.
B. MBWA.
C. MBO.
D. TQM.
E. JIT.
Management by wandering around (MBWA) is the term used to describe a
manager's literally wandering around his or her organization and talking with
people across all lines of authority.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-03 How can I use the different channels and patterns of communication to my advantage?
Topic: How Managers Fit into the Communication Process
110. (p. 490) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the Millennial
generation?
A. Desire to accept facts and authority at face value
B. Desire to experience new and different things
C. Desire to have personalized products and choice
D. Desire to keep things moving and interesting
E. Desire to have instant feedback
According to Table 15.5, the eight norms of the millennials or Internet generation
are: 1. Freedom—the desire to experience new and different things. 2.
Customization—the desire to have personalized products and choices. 3. Scrutiny
—not taking "facts" and authority figures at face value. 4. Integrity—trust in
people, products, and employers is important. 5. Collaboration—relationships
are of key importance. 6. Entertainment—keep things moving and interesting. 7.
Speed—instant feedback is expected. 8. Innovation—impatience for new and
different user experiences.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-04 How do contemporary managers use information technology to communicate more effectively?
Topic: Communication in the Information Age
111. (p. 490-491) Using video and audio links along with computers to allow people
at different locations to see, hear, and talk with each other is called
A. telecommuting.
B. collaborative computing.
C. videoconferencing.
D. telecollaborating.
E. using the extranet.
Videoconferencing, also known as teleconferencing, using video and audio links
along with computers to allow people in different locations to see, hear, and talk
with one another.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-04 How do contemporary managers use information technology to communicate more effectively?
Topic: Communication in the Information Age
112. (p. 490-491) Which of the following is true of telecommuting?
A. Increased capital costs
B. Attractive to people with high social needs
C. Makes recruiting more difficult
D. Increased turnover
E. Increased ability to hire nontraditional workers, such as prisoner inmates
Among the benefits of telecommuting is the increased ability to hire
nontraditional workers, such as prisoners.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-04 How do contemporary managers use information technology to communicate more effectively?
Topic: Communication in the Information Age
113. (p. 491) ______ can be quite expensive, requiring a specially designed room with
multiple cameras and high-definition video screens.
A. Telepresence technology
B. Telecommuting
C. Videoconferencing
D. Teleworking
E. Netconferencing
Telepresence systems require a specially designed room with multiple cameras
and high-definition video screens, simulating "the sensation of two groups of
people at identical tables facing each other through windows," according to a
report. Telepresence technology can be quite expensive.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-04 How do contemporary managers use information technology to communicate more effectively?
Topic: Communication in the Information Age
114. (p. 492) The key to protecting digital communication systems against fraud,
hackers, identity theft, and other threats is
A. using file-sharing services.
B. hiring ethical employees.
C. creating a well-funded IT department.
D. using prevention techniques like strong passwords.
E. minimizing turnover.
The key to protecting digital communication systems against fraud, hackers,
identity theft, and other threats is prevention. One technique is to pick strong
passwords with a mix of letters, symbols, and numbers (see Table 15.6).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-04 How do contemporary managers use information technology to communicate more effectively?
Topic: Communication in the Information Age
115. (p. 492) When thieves use your name and good credit rating to get cash or buy
things, it is known as
A. personal data theft.
B. credit mishandling.
C. identity theft.
D. credit exploitation.
E. misuse of standing.
A particularly aggravating violation of privacy is identity theft, in which thieves
hijack your name and identity and use your good credit rating to get cash or buy
things.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 15-04 How do contemporary managers use information technology to communicate more effectively?
Topic: Communication in the Information Age
116. (p. 493) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of e-mail?
A. The sheer number that must be handled by the average worker
B. Decrease in other forms of communication, like greetings
C. Emotions are often poorly communicated
D. Considered rude to use in crowded places
E. The greater the use of email, the less connected coworkers feel
We hate the fact that the average worker receives 200 e-mails a day, according to
some research. Some other disadvantages of e-mail are that (1) there has been a
decrease in all other forms of communication among co-workers—including
greetings and informal conversations; (2) emotions often are poorly
communicated or miscommunicated via e-mail messages; and (3) the greater the
use of e-mail, the less connected coworkers reportedly feel.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-04 How do contemporary managers use information technology to communicate more effectively?
Topic: Communication in the Information Age
117. (p. 493) Which of the following is appropriate for workplace e-mail?
A. Editing another's e-mail when replying
B. Complicated topics
C. Jokes
D. Informality and grammar errors
E. Sensitive personal issues
Tips for better e-mail handling include (1) Treat all e-mail as confidential.
Supervisors may legally read employee e-mail. (2) Be careful with jokes and
informality. (3) Avoid sloppiness, but avoid criticizing others' sloppiness. (4)
When replying, quote only the relevant portion. Edit long e-mail messages you've
received down to the relevant paragraph and put your response immediately
following. (5) Not every topic belongs on e-mail (see Table 15.7).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-04 How do contemporary managers use information technology to communicate more effectively?
Topic: Communication in the Information Age
118. (p. 494) Generally, people comprehend about ______ of a typical verbal message.
A. 5%
B. a third
C. half
D. two thirds
E. all
Generally, people comprehend only about 35% of a typical verbal message,
experts say.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
119. (p. 494) The average speaker communicates about ______ as many words as the
average listener can process.
A. one fourth
B. half
C. about
D. twice
E. four times
The average speaker communicates 125 words per minute, while we can process
500 words per minute. Poor listeners use this information-processing gap to
daydream. They think about other things, thus missing the important parts of
what's being communicated.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
120. (p. 494) What do good listeners do during the information gap between what
someone says and how fast we process?
A. Daydream
B. Decide what they will say next
C. Think about other things
D. Mentally summarize what's been said
E. Make a convincing argument against what is being said
Good listeners know how to use these gaps effectively, mentally summarizing the
speaker's remarks, weighing the evidence, and listening between the lines.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
121. (p. 494) Which of the following is NOT a suggestion that may help you be a
good listener?
A. Memorize the details
B. Ask questions
C. Summarize remarks
D. Judge content, not delivery
E. Give a fair hearing
Good listeners should listen for ideas. Don't get diverted by the details; try to
concentrate on the main ideas.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
122. (p. 495) Speed reading works well for material that is
A. jargon-laden.
B. unfamiliar.
C. easy.
D. dense.
E. complicated.
Psychologists have found that speed reading or skimming may work well with
easy or familiar reading material.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
123. (p. 495) Top-down reading strategies include which of the following?
A. Read everything you can that is related to your industry.
B. Formulate specific questions you want the reading to answer.
C. Summarize findings for your subordinates.
D. Get deeply into the details, where the meat of most writing is.
E. Test yourself on what you've read.
The top-down reading system has five steps. One of them is to question and
predict answers. Formulate specific questions you want the reading to answer.
This will give you reasons for reading—to get answers to your questions.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
124. (p. 496) If you want your writing to establish a common ground with the
reader and make your overall argument stronger, you should order your
arguments from
A. negative to positive.
B. most important to least important.
C. least controversial to most controversial.
D. least important to most important.
E. positive to negative.
Ordering arguments from negative to positive is a strategy that establishes a
common ground with your reader and puts the positive argument last, which
makes it stronger.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
125. (p. 496) When you want your reader to take a logical and fairly nonpolitical
action, you should order ideas in your writing from
A. least controversial to most controversial.
B. least important to most important.
C. negative to positive.
D. positive to negative.
E. most important to least important.
Ordering arguments from most important to least important is a good strategy
when the action you want your reader to take is logical and not highly political.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
126. (p. 496) Carter wants to change the CEO's mind about seeking an outside firm
to which they could outsource the customer service function. He decides to write
a proposal, including a variety of arguments to support his idea. Here, Carter
should order his ideas from
A. most important to least important.
B. least controversial to most controversial.
C. negative to positive.
D. positive to negative.
E. least important to most important.
Ordering arguments from least controversial to most controversial is the most
effective when the reader is attached to a particular solution different from the
one you're proposing.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
127. (p. 496) Which of the following is a tip for writing more effectively?
A. Use passive voice.
B. Construct interesting, complex sentences.
C. Don't use italics or bolding in business writing.
D. Start by telling what you expect of the reader.
E. Use narrow margins.
Often people organize their messages backward, putting their real purpose last.
You should start your writing by telling your purpose and what you expect of the
reader.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
128. (p. 497) A study conducted by AT&T and Stanford University found that the top
predictor of success and professional upward mobility was
A. intelligence.
B. writing ability.
C. integrity.
D. interpersonal skills.
E. public speaking ability.
A study conducted by AT & T and Stanford University found that the top
predictor of success and professional upward mobility is how much you enjoy
public speaking and how effective you are at it.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
129. (p. 497) The introduction to a business speech should
A. contain at least one joke.
B. get right to the point.
C. contain a phrase like, "I'm honored to be here."
D. contain significant details of the presentation.
E. contain an unrelated story to catch the interest of the audience.
The introduction should prepare the audience for the rest of the speech. Avoid
jokes and such phrases as "I'm honored to be with you here today . . ." Because
everything in your speech should be relevant, try to go right to the point.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
130. (p. 498) Which of the following is NOT appropriate to include in the conclusion
of a speech?
A. A signal phrase to cue listeners about the wind-up
B. Details you forgot from earlier
C. A call to action
D. "Thank you"
E. A little upbeat story
In the conclusion, you should use some sort of signal phrase that cues your
listeners that you are heading into your wind-up. Give some thought to the last
thing you will say. It should be strongly upbeat, a call to action, a thought for the
day, a little story, a quotation. Then say "Thank you" and stop talking.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 15-05 How can I be a better listener; reader; writer; and speaker?
Topic: Improving Communication Effectiveness
Chapter 16
Control: Techniques for Enhancing Organizational Effectiveness
Multiple Choice Questions
71. Soo Jin was recently hired as a facilities director at Star Bottling. Which of the
following should she do immediately as she tries to improve productivity?
A. Use the established technology with which her employees are most familiar.
B. Rotate all personnel so that each has an opportunity to try something new.
C. Hire new employees such that they are similar to those already on the team.
D. Immediately cut costs.
E. Establish a system of measurement.
72. Which of the following is a challenge a manager will deal with in the 21st century?
A. Sustainability
B. Employee revolts
C. Economic instability
D. Leadership vacuums
E. Religious issues
73. Which of the following is a primary function of management?
A. Communicating
B. Organizing
C. Cooperating
D. Globalizing
E. Influencing
74. Productivity equals
A. labor, capital, energy, and materials, divided by goods and services.
B. goods and services and energy and materials, divided by labor and capital.
C. labor, energy, and capital, divided by goods, services, and materials.
D. goods and services, divided by labor, capital, energy, and materials.
E. energy and materials, divided by labor and capital.
75. Managers can increase overall productivity by
A. decreasing efficiency of capital.
B. increasing energy.
C. increasing the efficiency of materials.
D. decreasing the efficiency of labor.
E. decreasing outputs.
76. Which of the following has been a primary source of productivity gains in the years
1995 to 2001?
A. Reduced standards of living
B. Recessionary spending
C. Reemphasis on ethical business behaviors
D. Enterprise resource planning software systems
E. Reduced costs of raw materials through globalization
77. ______ is defined as monitoring performance, comparing it with goals, and taking
corrective action as needed.
A. Measuring
B. Controlling
C. Organizing
D. Leading
E. Planning
78. Manuel, a manager, tracks monthly customer complaints and has been trying over
the past six months to reduce them to a goal of less than 0.5%. He is engaged in
A. controlling.
B. organizing.
C. measuring.
D. leading.
E. planning.
79. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that control is needed in an
organization?
A. To adapt to change & uncertainty
B. To eliminate the need for teamwork
C. To detect opportunities
D. To deal with complexity
E. To decentralize decision making
80. Ferris Insurance has effective control processes, allowing its managers to discover
______ in bookkeeping right away, before a would-be embezzler could seriously affect its
business.
A. team problems
B. a potential merger
C. competence
D. a tax break
E. irregularities
81. Which of the following is a step in the control process?
A. Complete a job redesign
B. Evaluate opportunities
C. Establish standards
D. Implement TQM
E. Compare work units to one another
82. Standards are best measured when they are
A. broad.
B. efficient.
C. narrow.
D. quantifiable.
E. green.
83. Which of the following standards is the most difficult to measure directly?
A. An increase in insurance policies sales month to month
B. Stable material costs
C. More effective teamwork
D. 0.5% of products rejected for poor quality
E. Reduced energy costs compared to the same month last year
84. The amount of acceptable deviation from a standard, determined when the standard
was established, is called the
A. span of exception.
B. range of variation.
C. breadth control.
D. benchmark.
E. zero-based control.
85. Which of the following may be done as corrective action in the control process?
A. Evaluate performance
B. Revise standards
C. Compare performance to standards
D. Align processes with goals
E. Establish standards
86. Benny's supervisor noticed that he was struggling with the computerized set-up for
production runs at his new job. The supervisor sat next to him while he tried it again and
gave suggestions for improvement. The supervisor is doing which step of the control
process?
A. Compare performance to standards
B. Establish standards
C. Take corrective action
D. Measure performance
E. Control productivity
87. At UPS, delivery ______ vary according to whether a route is urban, suburban, or rural
in nature.
A. RATER scales
B. ratio analyses
C. standards
D. PDCA cycles
E. strategy maps
88. Monitoring performance to ensure that day-to-day goals are being implemented and
taking corrective action as needed is known as ______ control.
A. strategic
B. functional
C. tactical
D. operational
E. managerial
89. Tactical control is performed mainly by
A. middle managers.
B. top managers.
C. the CEO.
D. first level managers.
E. team leaders.
90. Typically, strategic control is accomplished through reports issued
A. daily.
B. weekly.
C. monthly.
D. quarterly or less frequently.
E. randomly.
91. An organization might request more frequent strategic control reports than normal if
the organization is
A. affected by the news media.
B. very large.
C. formal in organizational structure.
D. decentralized.
E. operating in an uncertain environment.
92. A sales forecast is an example of an organizational control from the ______ area.
A. physical
B. informational
C. human resources
D. financial
E. capital
93. Which of the following is one of the areas of control for organizations?
A. External
B. Decentralized
C. Ethical
D. Cultural
E. Competitive
94. Aurelia was required to take a word processing test as part of her application for an
executive assistant position. This control is part of the ______ area.
A. human resources
B. physical
C. financial
D. informational
E. structural
95. Which of the following is an example of an informational resource control?
A. A personality test
B. A delivery-tracking system
C. A debt-repayment schedule
D. A leadership survey
E. A competition analysis
96. ______ control is an approach to organizational control that is characterized by
informal and organic structural arrangements.
A. Decentralized
B. Functional
C. Relational
D. Bureaucratic
E. Market
97. Which of the following is the best example of bureaucratic control?
A. Southwest Airlines
B. U.S. Army
C. General Electric
D. Levi Strauss
E. Ritz Carlton
98. Tanya manages employees at Anchorage Transport. She has noticed that one of her
employees submits via the computer system the same suggestions for continuous
improvement multiple times, knowing that performance is evaluated on the number of
suggestions only. This problem is typical of ______ control.
A. clan
B. market
C. decentralized
D. bureaucratic
E. functional
99. Some managers use ______, which provides four indicators with which organizations
can set goals and measure performance.
A. the balanced scorecard
B. a strategic map
C. measurement management
D. a strategic scorecard
E. evidence-based management
100. Which of the following is a perspective of the balanced scorecard?
A. Internal weaknesses
B. Innovation and learning
C. External processes
D. Stakeholder satisfaction
E. Collaboration and teamwork
101. Examining how the organization looks to shareholders is part of which balanced
scorecard perspectives?
A. External perspective
B. Customer perspective
C. Financial perspective
D. Internal business perspective
E. Innovation & learning perspective
102. Which balanced scorecard perspectives helps top management's judgment to be
better linked to measures of employee actions at lower levels?
A. External perspective
B. Financial perspective
C. Customer perspective
D. Internal business perspective
E. Innovation & learning perspective
103. According to Kaplan and Norton, "______ show the cause-and-effect links by which
specific improvements create desired outcomes."
A. Positioning maps
B. Strategy maps
C. Multi-dimensional maps
D. Customer maps
E. Graphical interface maps
104. Which of the following is a mechanism that contributes to a measurement-managed
company's success?
A. Using mostly "soft" objectives that are not quantifiable
B. Measuring activities of all types
C. Developing the measurement systems without interference from employees
D. Trusting in informal feedback systems
E. Developing alignment between individual, unit, and strategic performance
105. Which of the following is a frequent barrier to effective measurement?
A. Communication is bureaucratic.
B. Top executives create the organization's strategy.
C. The organizational culture overemphasizes teamwork.
D. Employees resist new measurement systems.
E. The organizational culture allows too much risk taking.
106. A budget that allocates increased or decreased funds to a department by using the
last budget period as a reference point is called a(n)
A. standardized budget.
B. incremental budget.
C. zero-based budget.
D. fixed budget.
E. tactical budget.
107. One characteristic of incremental budgeting is that it
A. allows comparison between multiple units, like labor hours and dollars.
B. is flexible to changing environmental demands.
C. locks managers into stable spending arrangements.
D. allows easy comparison of different departments doing different activities.
E. requires more time from managers than zero-based budgeting.
108. A budget that allocates resources on the basis of a single estimate of costs is called
a(n) ______ budget.
A. unitary
B. zero-based
C. cash
D. fixed
E. incremental
109. The type of budget that can be adjusted over time for changing environmental
conditions is known as a(n) ______ budget.
A. variable
B. incremental
C. zero-based
D. operating
E. cash
110. At Aurora Fencing, orders have significantly exceeded projections, and Samraj, the
operations director, has decided to hire for a third shift in the plant. Samraj is clearly
operating with the use of a(n) ______ budget.
A. zero-based
B. incremental
C. variable
D. fixed
E. cash
111. A(n) ______ budget projects what an organization will create in goods and services,
what financial resources are needed, and what income is expected.
A. expense
B. revenue
C. cash
D. operating
E. cash flow
112. Current assets, fixed assets, and liabilities are all part of an organization's
A. capital expenditures budget.
B. balance sheet.
C. income statement.
D. expense budget.
E. cash flow statement.
113. Profits or losses incurred by an organization are represented in its
A. income statement.
B. expense budget.
C. ratio analysis.
D. capital expenditures budget.
E. balance sheet.
114. ______ ratios can help an organization to detect if it has obsolete or excessive
inventory on hand.
A. Return
B. Liquidity
C. Debt management
D. Asset management
E. Activity
115. ROI is a(n)
A. liquidity ratio.
B. return ratio.
C. cash ratio.
D. asset management ratio.
E. debt management ratio.
116. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an external audit?
A. Primarily used when management suspects embezzlement
B. Performed by CPAs
C. Performed by an independent organization
D. Verifies that generally accepted accounting principles have been followed
E. Verifies the accuracy and fairness of financial statements
117. Which of the following is NOT a principle of Deming management?
A. Quality should be aimed at the needs of the consumer.
B. Companies should aim at improving the system.
C. Improved quality leads to increased market share.
D. Quality can be improved on the basis of hard data.
E. Companies should determine which workers are to blame for problems.
118. Which of the following is part of Deming's PDCA cycle?
A. Protect
B. Drive
C. Apply
D. Check
E. Decide
119. TQM has two core principles:
A. employee commitment and customer satisfaction.
B. financial health and financial stability.
C. people orientation and improvement orientation.
D. management and leadership.
E. radical innovation and continuous improvement.
120. A team that meets temporarily to solve a particular problem is called a
A. continuous improvement team.
B. work group.
C. self-managed team.
D. special-purpose team.
E. department.
121. The process of instituting ongoing small, incremental improvements in all parts of
an organization is called
A. MBO.
B. reengineering.
C. radical innovation.
D. MBWA.
E. continuous improvement.
122. Chablis Mechanical convened a team to help the organization determine a course of
action in the wake of a forest fire that temporarily closed access to its mountain satellite
office. This is an example of a
A. cross-functional team.
B. special-purpose team.
C. JIT team.
D. self-managed team.
E. continuous improvement team.
123. Employees' knowledge, courtesy, and ability to convey trust and confidence make
up which dimension of the RATER scale?
A. Reliability
B. Assurance
C. Tangibles
D. Empathy
E. Responsiveness
124. At Pittsburgh Packaging, Melanie pulls six samples an hour from the assembly line
to examine them for quality defects. If she finds any, she makes adjustments to various
pieces of equipment in her area. Melanie's job involves
A. statistical process control.
B. benchmarking.
C. reduced cycle time.
D. feedforward control.
E. strategic control.
125. Installing quality-control procedures that can be audited by independent quality-
control experts is fundamental to
A. ISO 14000.
B. restructuring.
C. reduced cycle time.
D. ISO 9000.
E. statistical process control.
126. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of successful control
systems?
A. Results-oriented
B. Realistic
C. Encouragement of self-control
D. Flexible
E. Emphasis on punishment
127. Which kind of organization is most likely to try to exert too much control?
A. Clan
B. Market
C. Bureaucratic
D. Decentralized
E. Matrix
128. Before the fall term began, the professors at Littleton University were required to
complete a variety of documents, ranging from performance objectives to lists of
summer contacts with prospective students. Many professors complained that they
would rather spend the time getting ready for their courses. This is an example of which
barrier to successful control?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too much flexibility
129. At Bertram Development, employees were asked how the quality of its customer
service could best be measured, and management then implemented a survey system
based on the feedback. Bertram has overcome which of the following barriers to success
of control systems?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too little employee participation
130. Recruiters for Alperton University were under extreme pressure to meet their
objective of a 10% increase in the size of the freshman class. As a result, they admitted
many students that were not qualified and who failed to perform in classes. This is an
example of which problem associated with control systems?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too little participation
131. Grandview Casino & Resort requires its casino dealers to have licenses, observes
them using closed circuit TV, and requires detailed reports at the end of each shift. This
organization has overcome the control system barrier of
A. overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches.
B. overemphasis on paperwork.
C. overemphasis on means instead of ends.
D. too much control.
E. too little participation.
Multiple Choice Questions
71. (p. 507) Soo Jin was recently hired as a facilities director at Star Bottling. Which of
the following should she do immediately as she tries to improve productivity?
A. Use the established technology with which her employees are most familiar.
B. Rotate all personnel so that each has an opportunity to try something new.
C. Hire new employees such that they are similar to those already on the team.
D. Immediately cut costs.
E. Establish a system of measurement.
One suggestion for improving productivity is to establish base points, set goals, and
measure results. To be able to tell whether your work unit is becoming more productive,
you need to establish systems of measurement.
AACSB: Analytics
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-01 How do managers influence productivity?
Topic: Managing for Productivity
72. (p. 508) Which of the following is a challenge a manager will deal with in the 21st
century?
A. Sustainability
B. Employee revolts
C. Economic instability
D. Leadership vacuums
E. Religious issues
A manager in the 21st century will operate in a complex environment in which he or she
will need to deal with seven challenges—managing for (1) competitive advantage, (2)
diversity, (3) globalization, (4) information technology, (5) ethical standards, (6)
sustainability, and (7) your own happiness and life goals.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-01 How do managers influence productivity?
Topic: Managing for Productivity
73. (p. 508) Which of the following is a primary function of management?
A. Communicating
B. Organizing
C. Cooperating
D. Globalizing
E. Influencing
The four management functions are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-01 How do managers influence productivity?
Topic: Managing for Productivity
74. (p. 508-509) Productivity equals
A. labor, capital, energy, and materials, divided by goods and services.
B. goods and services and energy and materials, divided by labor and capital.
C. labor, energy, and capital, divided by goods, services, and materials.
D. goods and services, divided by labor, capital, energy, and materials.
E. energy and materials, divided by labor and capital.
Productivity is defined by the formula of outputs divided by inputs for a specified period
of time. Outputs are all the goods and services produced. Inputs are not only labor but
also capital, materials, and energy.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-01 How do managers influence productivity?
Topic: Managing for Productivity
75. (p. 509) Managers can increase overall productivity by
A. decreasing efficiency of capital.
B. increasing energy.
C. increasing the efficiency of materials.
D. decreasing the efficiency of labor.
E. decreasing outputs.
Managers can increase overall productivity by making substitutions or increasing the
efficiency of any one element: labor, capital, materials, or energy.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-01 How do managers influence productivity?
Topic: Managing for Productivity
76. (p. 509) Which of the following has been a primary source of productivity gains in the
years 1995 to 2001?
A. Reduced standards of living
B. Recessionary spending
C. Reemphasis on ethical business behaviors
D. Enterprise resource planning software systems
E. Reduced costs of raw materials through globalization
From 1995 to 2001, for example, labor productivity in services grew at a 2.6% rate
(outpacing the 2.3% for goods-producing sectors), the result, economists think, of
information technology. In particular, many companies have implemented enterprise
resource planning (ERP) software systems, information systems for integrating virtually
all aspects of a business, helping managers stay on top of the latest developments.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-01 How do managers influence productivity?
Topic: Managing for Productivity
77. (p. 510) ______ is defined as monitoring performance, comparing it with goals, and
taking corrective action as needed.
A. Measuring
B. Controlling
C. Organizing
D. Leading
E. Planning
Controlling is defined as monitoring performance, comparing it with goals, and taking
corrective action as needed.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
78. (p. 510) Manuel, a manager, tracks monthly customer complaints and has been trying
over the past six months to reduce them to a goal of less than 0.5%. He is engaged in
A. controlling.
B. organizing.
C. measuring.
D. leading.
E. planning.
Controlling is defined as monitoring performance, comparing it with goals, and taking
corrective action as needed. Manuel is undertaking this process with customer
complaints, one measure of performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
79. (p. 511-512) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that control is needed
in an organization?
A. To adapt to change & uncertainty
B. To eliminate the need for teamwork
C. To detect opportunities
D. To deal with complexity
E. To decentralize decision making
Figure 16.3 shows the six reasons for control in an organization, one of which is to
decentralize decision making and facilitate teamwork.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
80. (p. 511) Ferris Insurance has effective control processes, allowing its managers to
discover ______ in bookkeeping right away, before a would-be embezzler could seriously
affect its business.
A. team problems
B. a potential merger
C. competence
D. a tax break
E. irregularities
One reason control is needed because it helps you to discover irregularities and errors.
Cost overruns, manufacturing defects, employee turnover, bookkeeping errors, and
customer dissatisfaction may be tolerable in the short run. But in the long run, they can
bring about even the downfall of an organization.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
81. (p. 512) Which of the following is a step in the control process?
A. Complete a job redesign
B. Evaluate opportunities
C. Establish standards
D. Implement TQM
E. Compare work units to one another
The four control process steps are (1) establish standards; (2) measure performance; (3)
compare performance to standards; and (4) take corrective action, if necessary (see
Figure 16.4).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
82. (p. 512) Standards are best measured when they are
A. broad.
B. efficient.
C. narrow.
D. quantifiable.
E. green.
A control standard, or performance standard or simply standard, is the desired
performance level for a given goal. Standards may be narrow or broad, and they can be
set for almost anything, although they are best measured when they can be made
quantifiable.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
83. (p. 513) Which of the following standards is the most difficult to measure directly?
A. An increase in insurance policies sales month to month
B. Stable material costs
C. More effective teamwork
D. 0.5% of products rejected for poor quality
E. Reduced energy costs compared to the same month last year
More subjective standards, such as level of employee morale, can also be set, although
they may have to be expressed more quantifiably as reduced absenteeism and sick days
and increased job applications.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
84. (p. 513) The amount of acceptable deviation from a standard, determined when the
standard was established, is called the
A. span of exception.
B. range of variation.
C. breadth control.
D. benchmark.
E. zero-based control.
How much deviation is acceptable depends on the range of variation built in to the
standards in the establishment of those standards.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
85. (p. 513) Which of the following may be done as corrective action in the control
process?
A. Evaluate performance
B. Revise standards
C. Compare performance to standards
D. Align processes with goals
E. Establish standards
In the corrective action step, when performance falls short of the standard, managers
should examine the reasons why and take appropriate action. Sometimes it may turn out
the standards themselves were unrealistic, owing to changing conditions, in which case
the standards need to be altered.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
86. (p. 513) Benny's supervisor noticed that he was struggling with the computerized
set-up for production runs at his new job. The supervisor sat next to him while he tried
it again and gave suggestions for improvement. The supervisor is doing which step of the
control process?
A. Compare performance to standards
B. Establish standards
C. Take corrective action
D. Measure performance
E. Control productivity
In the corrective action step, when performance falls short of the standard, managers
should examine the reasons why and take appropriate action.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
87. (p. 514) At UPS, delivery ______ vary according to whether a route is urban, suburban,
or rural in nature.
A. RATER scales
B. ratio analyses
C. standards
D. PDCA cycles
E. strategy maps
UPS establishes certain standards for its drivers that set projections for the number of
miles driven, deliveries, and pickups. However, because conditions vary depending on
whether routes are urban, suburban, or rural, standards vary for different routes.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-02 Why is control such an important managerial function?
Topic: Control: When Managers Monitor Performance
88. (p. 515) Monitoring performance to ensure that day-to-day goals are being
implemented and taking corrective action as needed is known as ______ control.
A. strategic
B. functional
C. tactical
D. operational
E. managerial
Operational control is monitoring performance to ensure that operational plans—day-
to-day goals—are being implemented and taking corrective action as needed.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
89. (p. 515) Tactical control is performed mainly by
A. middle managers.
B. top managers.
C. the CEO.
D. first level managers.
E. team leaders.
Tactical control is done mainly by middle managers, those with such titles as "division
head," "plant manager," and "branch sales manager."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
90. (p. 515) Typically, strategic control is accomplished through reports issued
A. daily.
B. weekly.
C. monthly.
D. quarterly or less frequently.
E. randomly.
In strategic control, monitoring is accomplished by reports issued every 3, 6, 12, or more
months, although more frequent reports may be requested if the organization is
operating in an uncertain environment.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
91. (p. 515) An organization might request more frequent strategic control reports than
normal if the organization is
A. affected by the news media.
B. very large.
C. formal in organizational structure.
D. decentralized.
E. operating in an uncertain environment.
In strategic control, monitoring is accomplished by reports issued every 3, 6, 12, or more
months, although more frequent reports may be requested if the organization is
operating in an uncertain environment.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
92. (p. 516) A sales forecast is an example of an organizational control from the ______
area.
A. physical
B. informational
C. human resources
D. financial
E. capital
Production schedules, sales forecasts, environmental impact statements, analyses of
competition, and public relations briefings are all controls on an organization's various
information resources.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
93. (p. 516) Which of the following is one of the areas of control for organizations?
A. External
B. Decentralized
C. Ethical
D. Cultural
E. Competitive
The cultural area is an informal method of control. It influences the work process and
levels of performance through the set of norms that develop as a result of the values and
beliefs that constitute an organization's culture.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
94. (p. 516) Aurelia was required to take a word processing test as part of her application
for an executive assistant position. This control is part of the ______ area.
A. human resources
B. physical
C. financial
D. informational
E. structural
The human resources area controls used to monitor employees include personality tests
and drug testing for hiring, performance tests during training, performance evaluations
to measure work productivity, and employee surveys to assess job satisfaction and
leadership.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
95. (p. 516) Which of the following is an example of an informational resource control?
A. A personality test
B. A delivery-tracking system
C. A debt-repayment schedule
D. A leadership survey
E. A competition analysis
Production schedules, sales forecasts, environmental impact statements, analyses of
competition, and public relations briefings are all controls on an organization's various
information resources.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
96. (p. 516) ______ control is an approach to organizational control that is characterized
by informal and organic structural arrangements.
A. Decentralized
B. Functional
C. Relational
D. Bureaucratic
E. Market
Decentralized control is an approach to organizational control that is characterized by
informal and organic structural arrangements.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
97. (p. 516) Which of the following is the best example of bureaucratic control?
A. Southwest Airlines
B. U.S. Army
C. General Electric
D. Levi Strauss
E. Ritz Carlton
The foremost example of use of bureaucratic control is perhaps the traditional military
organization.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
98. (p. 516) Tanya manages employees at Anchorage Transport. She has noticed that one
of her employees submits via the computer system the same suggestions for continuous
improvement multiple times, knowing that performance is evaluated on the number of
suggestions only. This problem is typical of ______ control.
A. clan
B. market
C. decentralized
D. bureaucratic
E. functional
Bureaucratic control may not be effective if people are looking for ways to stay out of
trouble by simply following the rules, or if they try to beat the system by manipulating
performance reports, or if they try to actively resist bureaucratic constraints.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-03 How do successful companies implement controls?
Topic: Levels & Areas of Control
99. (p. 517) Some managers use ______, which provides four indicators with which
organizations can set goals and measure performance.
A. the balanced scorecard
B. a strategic map
C. measurement management
D. a strategic scorecard
E. evidence-based management
The balanced scorecard establishes (a) goals and (b) performance measures according
to four "perspectives" or areas— financial, customer, internal business, and innovation
and learning (see Figure 16.5).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-04 How can three techniques-- balanced scorecard; strategy maps;
and measurement management-- help me establish standards and measure performance?
Topic: The Balanced Scorecard, Strategy Maps, & Measurement Management
100. (p. 517) Which of the following is a perspective of the balanced scorecard?
A. Internal weaknesses
B. Innovation and learning
C. External processes
D. Stakeholder satisfaction
E. Collaboration and teamwork
The balanced scorecard establishes (a) goals and (b) performance measures according
to four "perspectives" or areas— financial, customer, internal business, and innovation
and learning (see Figure 16.5).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-04 How can three techniques-- balanced scorecard; strategy maps;
and measurement management-- help me establish standards and measure performance?
Topic: The Balanced Scorecard, Strategy Maps, & Measurement Management
101. (p. 518) Examining how the organization looks to shareholders is part of which
balanced scorecard perspectives?
A. External perspective
B. Customer perspective
C. Financial perspective
D. Internal business perspective
E. Innovation & learning perspective
The financial perspective asks the question, "How Do We Look to Shareholders?" Typical
financial goals have to do with profitability, growth, and shareholder values.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-04 How can three techniques-- balanced scorecard; strategy maps;
and measurement management-- help me establish standards and measure performance?
Topic: The Balanced Scorecard, Strategy Maps, & Measurement Management
102. (p. 519) Which balanced scorecard perspectives helps top management's judgment
to be better linked to measures of employee actions at lower levels?
A. External perspective
B. Financial perspective
C. Customer perspective
D. Internal business perspective
E. Innovation & learning perspective
The internal business perspective translates what the company must do internally to
meet its customers' expectations. These are business processes such as quality,
employee skills, and productivity. Top management's judgment about key internal
processes must be linked to measures of employee actions at the lower levels, such as
time to process customer orders, get materials from suppliers, produce products, and
deliver them to customers.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-04 How can three techniques-- balanced scorecard; strategy maps;
and measurement management-- help me establish standards and measure performance?
Topic: The Balanced Scorecard, Strategy Maps, & Measurement Management
103. (p. 519) According to Kaplan and Norton, "______ show the cause-and-effect links by
which specific improvements create desired outcomes."
A. Positioning maps
B. Strategy maps
C. Multi-dimensional maps
D. Customer maps
E. Graphical interface maps
As Kaplan and Norton state, "Strategy maps show the cause-and-effect links by which
specific improvements create desired outcomes," such as objectives for revenue growth,
targeted customer markets, the role of excellence and innovation in products, and so on.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-04 How can three techniques-- balanced scorecard; strategy maps;
and measurement management-- help me establish standards and measure performance?
Topic: The Balanced Scorecard, Strategy Maps, & Measurement Management
104. (p. 521) Which of the following is a mechanism that contributes to a measurement-
managed company's success?
A. Using mostly "soft" objectives that are not quantifiable
B. Measuring activities of all types
C. Developing the measurement systems without interference from employees
D. Trusting in informal feedback systems
E. Developing alignment between individual, unit, and strategic performance
One of the four mechanisms that contributes to the success of measurement-managed
firms is better focus and alignments. Measurement-managed companies reported more
frequently that unit (division or department) performance measures were linked to
strategic company measures and that individual performance measures were linked to
unit measures.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-04 How can three techniques-- balanced scorecard; strategy maps;
and measurement management-- help me establish standards and measure performance?
Topic: The Balanced Scorecard, Strategy Maps, & Measurement Management
105. (p. 521) Which of the following is a frequent barrier to effective measurement?
A. Communication is bureaucratic.
B. Top executives create the organization's strategy.
C. The organizational culture overemphasizes teamwork.
D. Employees resist new measurement systems.
E. The organizational culture allows too much risk taking.
One barrier to effective measurement is that employees resist new measurement
systems. Employees want to see how well measures work before they are willing to tie
their financial futures to them. Measurement-managed companies involve the workforce
in developing measures.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-04 How can three techniques-- balanced scorecard; strategy maps;
and measurement management-- help me establish standards and measure performance?
Topic: The Balanced Scorecard, Strategy Maps, & Measurement Management
106. (p. 522) A budget that allocates increased or decreased funds to a department by
using the last budget period as a reference point is called a(n)
A. standardized budget.
B. incremental budget.
C. zero-based budget.
D. fixed budget.
E. tactical budget.
Incremental budgeting allocates increased or decreased funds to a department by using
the last budget period as a reference point; only incremental changes are reviewed.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
107. (p. 522-523) One characteristic of incremental budgeting is that it
A. allows comparison between multiple units, like labor hours and dollars.
B. is flexible to changing environmental demands.
C. locks managers into stable spending arrangements.
D. allows easy comparison of different departments doing different activities.
E. requires more time from managers than zero-based budgeting.
One difficulty of incremental budgeting is that incremental budgets tend to lock
departments into stable spending arrangements; they are not flexible in meeting
environmental demands.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
108. (p. 523) A budget that allocates resources on the basis of a single estimate of costs is
called a(n) ______ budget.
A. unitary
B. zero-based
C. cash
D. fixed
E. incremental
Also known as a static budget, a fixed budget allocates resources on the basis of a single
estimate of costs.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
109. (p. 523) The type of budget that can be adjusted over time for changing
environmental conditions is known as a(n) ______ budget.
A. variable
B. incremental
C. zero-based
D. operating
E. cash
Also known as a flexible budget, a variable budget allows the allocation of resources to
vary in proportion with various levels of activity. That is, the budget can be adjusted over
time to accommodate pertinent changes in the environment.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
110. (p. 523) At Aurora Fencing, orders have significantly exceeded projections, and
Samraj, the operations director, has decided to hire for a third shift in the plant. Samraj is
clearly operating with the use of a(n) ______ budget.
A. zero-based
B. incremental
C. variable
D. fixed
E. cash
Also known as a flexible budget, a variable budget allows the allocation of resources to
vary in proportion with various levels of activity. That is, the budget can be adjusted over
time to accommodate pertinent changes in the environment.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
111. (p. 523) A(n) ______ budget projects what an organization will create in goods and
services, what financial resources are needed, and what income is expected.
A. expense
B. revenue
C. cash
D. operating
E. cash flow
An operating budget projects what an organization will create in goods or services, what
financial resources are needed, and what income is expected.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
112. (p. 524) Current assets, fixed assets, and liabilities are all part of an organization's
A. capital expenditures budget.
B. balance sheet.
C. income statement.
D. expense budget.
E. cash flow statement.
A balance sheet summarizes an organization's overall financial worth—that is, assets
and liabilities—at a specific point in time.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
113. (p. 524) Profits or losses incurred by an organization are represented in its
A. income statement.
B. expense budget.
C. ratio analysis.
D. capital expenditures budget.
E. balance sheet.
The income statement summarizes an organization's financial results—revenues and
expenses—over a specified period of time, such as a quarter or a year. The difference
between revenues and expenses, called the bottom line, represents the profits or losses
incurred over the specified period of time.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
114. (p. 524) ______ ratios can help an organization to detect if it has obsolete or excessive
inventory on hand.
A. Return
B. Liquidity
C. Debt management
D. Asset management
E. Activity
Asset management ratios indicate how effectively an organization is managing its assets,
such as whether it has obsolete or excess inventory on hand.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
115. (p. 524) ROI is a(n)
A. liquidity ratio.
B. return ratio.
C. cash ratio.
D. asset management ratio.
E. debt management ratio.
Return ratios—often called return on investment (ROI) or return on assets (ROA)—
indicate how effective management is in generating a return, or profits, on its assets.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
116. (p. 524) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an external audit?
A. Primarily used when management suspects embezzlement
B. Performed by CPAs
C. Performed by an independent organization
D. Verifies that generally accepted accounting principles have been followed
E. Verifies the accuracy and fairness of financial statements
A function of auditing is verifying the accuracy and fairness of financial statements, but
is also a tool for management decision making. An external audit is a formal verification
of a firm's financial accounts and statements by outside experts. The auditors are
certified public accountants (CPAs) who work for an accounting firm that is independent
of the organization being audited. Their task is to verify that the organization, in
preparing its financial statements and in determining its assets and liabilities, followed
generally accepted accounting principles.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-05 Financial performance is important to most organizations.
What are the finanacial tools I need to know about?
Topic: Some Financial Tools for Control
117. (p. 527) Which of the following is NOT a principle of Deming management?
A. Quality should be aimed at the needs of the consumer.
B. Companies should aim at improving the system.
C. Improved quality leads to increased market share.
D. Quality can be improved on the basis of hard data.
E. Companies should determine which workers are to blame for problems.
Deming management proposed these ideas: 1. Quality should be aimed at the needs of
the consumer. 2. Companies should aim at improving the system, not blaming workers.
3. Improved quality leads to increased market share, company prospects, & employment.
4. Quality can be improved on the basis of hard data, using the PDCA cycle.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
118. (p. 527) Which of the following is part of Deming's PDCA cycle?
A. Protect
B. Drive
C. Apply
D. Check
E. Decide
The PDCA cycle is a plan-do-check-act cycle using observed data for continuous
improvement of operations (see Figure 16.7).
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
119. (p. 528) TQM has two core principles:
A. employee commitment and customer satisfaction.
B. financial health and financial stability.
C. people orientation and improvement orientation.
D. management and leadership.
E. radical innovation and continuous improvement.
The two core principles of TQM are: (1) people orientation—everyone involved with the
organization should focus on delivering value to customers—and (2) improvement
orientation—everyone should work on continuously improving the work processes.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
120. (p. 529) A team that meets temporarily to solve a particular problem is called a
A. continuous improvement team.
B. work group.
C. self-managed team.
D. special-purpose team.
E. department.
Sometimes an organization needs a special-purpose team to meet to solve a special or
onetime problem. The team then disbands after the problem is solved.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
121. (p. 529) The process of instituting ongoing small, incremental improvements in all
parts of an organization is called
A. MBO.
B. reengineering.
C. radical innovation.
D. MBWA.
E. continuous improvement.
Continuous improvement is defined as ongoing small, incremental improvements in all
parts of an organization—all products, services, functional areas, and work processes.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
122. (p. 529) Chablis Mechanical convened a team to help the organization determine a
course of action in the wake of a forest fire that temporarily closed access to its
mountain satellite office. This is an example of a
A. cross-functional team.
B. special-purpose team.
C. JIT team.
D. self-managed team.
E. continuous improvement team.
Sometimes an organization needs a special-purpose team to meet to solve a special or
onetime problem. The team then disbands after the problem is solved.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
123. (p. 530) Employees' knowledge, courtesy, and ability to convey trust and confidence
make up which dimension of the RATER scale?
A. Reliability
B. Assurance
C. Tangibles
D. Empathy
E. Responsiveness
The meaning of the RATER dimensions of assurance is the employees' knowledge,
courtesy, and ability to convey trust and confidence.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
124. (p. 533) At Pittsburgh Packaging, Melanie pulls six samples an hour from the
assembly line to examine them for quality defects. If she finds any, she makes
adjustments to various pieces of equipment in her area. Melanie's job involves
A. statistical process control.
B. benchmarking.
C. reduced cycle time.
D. feedforward control.
E. strategic control.
Statistical process control uses periodic random samples from production runs (like
those Melanie takes) to see if quality is being maintained within a standard range of
acceptability.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
125. (p. 534) Installing quality-control procedures that can be audited by independent
quality-control experts is fundamental to
A. ISO 14000.
B. restructuring.
C. reduced cycle time.
D. ISO 9000.
E. statistical process control.
The ISO 9000 series consists of quality-control procedures companies must install—
from purchasing to manufacturing to inventory to shipping—that can be audited by
independent quality-control experts, or "registrars."
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Remember
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 16-06 How do top companies improve the quality of their products or
services?
Topic: Total Quality Management
126. (p. 535-536) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of successful
control systems?
A. Results-oriented
B. Realistic
C. Encouragement of self-control
D. Flexible
E. Emphasis on punishment
Successful control systems have a number of common characteristics: (1) They are
strategic and results oriented. (2) They are timely, accurate, and objective. (3) They are
realistic, positive, and understandable and they encourage self-control. (4) They are
flexible.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-07 What are the keys to successful control; and what are the
barriers to control success?
Topic: Managing Control Effectively
127. (p. 536) Which kind of organization is most likely to try to exert too much control?
A. Clan
B. Market
C. Bureaucratic
D. Decentralized
E. Matrix
Some organizations, particularly bureaucratic ones, try to exert too much control. They
may try to regulate employee behavior in everything from dress code to coffee breaks.
Allowing employees too little discretion for analysis and interpretation may lead to
employee frustration.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Understand
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: 16-07 What are the keys to successful control; and what are the
barriers to control success?
Topic: Managing Control Effectively
128. (p. 537) Before the fall term began, the professors at Littleton University were
required to complete a variety of documents, ranging from performance objectives to
lists of summer contacts with prospective students. Many professors complained that
they would rather spend the time getting ready for their courses. This is an example of
which barrier to successful control?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too much flexibility
One barrier to successful control systems is overemphasis on paperwork. A specific kind
of misdirection of effort is management emphasis on getting reports done, to the
exclusion of other performance activity. Reports are not the be-all and end-all. Undue
emphasis on reports can lead to too much focus on quantification of results and even to
falsification of data.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-07 What are the keys to successful control; and what are the
barriers to control success?
Topic: Managing Control Effectively
129. (p. 537) At Bertram Development, employees were asked how the quality of its
customer service could best be measured, and management then implemented a survey
system based on the feedback. Bertram has overcome which of the following barriers to
success of control systems?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too little employee participation
One barrier to successful control systems is too little employee participation. Involving
employees in both the planning and execution of control systems as Bertram did, can
bring legitimacy to the process and heighten employee morale.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-07 What are the keys to successful control; and what are the
barriers to control success?
Topic: Managing Control Effectively
130. (p. 537) Recruiters for Alperton University were under extreme pressure to meet
their objective of a 10% increase in the size of the freshman class. As a result, they
admitted many students that were not qualified and who failed to perform in classes.
This is an example of which problem associated with control systems?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too little participation
One barrier to successful control systems is overemphasis on means instead of ends.
Control activities are not ends in themselves but the means to eliminating problems. Too
much emphasis on means can lead to game playing—"beating the system"—as managers
and employees manipulate data to seem to fulfill short-run goals instead of the
organization's strategic plan.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-07 What are the keys to successful control; and what are the
barriers to control success?
Topic: Managing Control Effectively
131. (p. 537) Grandview Casino & Resort requires its casino dealers to have licenses,
observes them using closed circuit TV, and requires detailed reports at the end of each
shift. This organization has overcome the control system barrier of
A. overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches.
B. overemphasis on paperwork.
C. overemphasis on means instead of ends.
D. too much control.
E. too little participation.
One control may not be enough especially in those cases when large amounts of cash are
handled by employees as in the case of casinos. Using multiple controls overcomes the
barrier of overemphasizing one rather than multiple approaches.
AACSB: Analytic
Bloom's: Apply
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: 16-07 What are the keys to successful control; and what are the
barriers to control success?
Topic: Managing Control Effectively
Which of the following is NOT part of listening-centered
communication?
A. Summarize what you believe the other person has said.
B. Pay attention to the words spoken.
C. Ask the other person to stop speaking when you disagree so that you
may provide your counterargument.
D. Ask questions to try to better understand.
E. Only offer answers after the other person agrees that you understand
her point of view.
C. Ask the other person to stop speaking when you disagree so that you may provide your
counterargument.
Communication is
A. speaking or writing so that another is able to comprehend the
meaning.
B. interpretation of messages sent via any media.
C. the combined activities of speaking and listening.
D. the transfer of information and understanding from one person to
another.
E. a process involving only the sender, message, and receiver.
D. the transfer of information and understanding from one person to another.
When your intended message is sent accurately in the least amount of
time, you are a(n)
A. economical communicator.
B. efficient communicator.
C. formal communicator.
D. collaborative communicator.
E. effective communicator.
B. efficient communicator.
Which of the following is NOT an element of the communication
model?
A. Sender
B. Feedback
C. Decoder
D. Noise
E. Message
C. Decoder
The process of translating a message into understandable symbols or
language is called
A. encoding.
B. transforming.
C. mediating.
D. decoding.
E. enriching.
A. encoding
When the band came out on stage and the lead singer shouted, "Hello,
Orlando!" the crowd roared with applause. This is an example of
A. decoding.
B. medium selection.
C. noise.
D. encoding.
E. feedback.
E. feedback.
Which of the following is NOT an example of noise in the
communication process in a typical classroom?
A. A student in the back of the classroom texting a friend
B. Groundskeepers mowing the lawn outside the classroom window
C. A student responding to a professor's request for questions
D. Uncomfortable classroom desks
E. An attractive person walking by the open classroom door
C. A student responding to a professor's request for questions
Which of the following is a step in the communication process?
A. Noise is eliminated from the message
B. The sender decodes the message
C. Possible receivers are considered
D. The message is transmitted through a medium
E. The receiver selects medium
D. The message is transmitted through a medium
A(n) ______ form of media allows receivers to observe multiple cues,
such as body language and tone of voice, and allows senders to get
feedback.
A. encoded
B. rich
C. dense
D. complex
E. formal
B. rich
Which of the following is the most appropriate media for a manager
advising employees of a revision to the company's bonus structure?
A. E-mail to all those affected
B. Telephone call to each
C. Posting an announcement near the office coffee machine
D. Face-to-face meeting
E. Personal note to each
D. Face-to-face meeting
Of the following, which medium is the richest?
A. Company newsletter
B. Telephone
C. E-mail
D. Memos
E. Videoconferencing
E. Videoconferencing
Of the following, which medium is the least rich?
A. Flier on a bulletin board
B. Instant messaging on the Internet
C. E-mail
D. Handwritten notes
E. Conference telephone calls
A. Flier on a bulletin board
A manager wants to tell employees that the quarterly project
management training will start on April 12th, about two months from
now. Generally, which of the following should the manager use?
A. Videoconferencing
B. Telephone
C. Personal notes
D. Face-to-face meeting
E. Newsletter
E. Newsletter
Executives at Raytron Industries want to let middle managers know
that the company is going to be acquired by its largest competitor.
Assuming any of the following are possible, how should executives
communicate this?
A. Send a memo to all managers
B. Call a meeting of managers
C. Post a notice on all bulletin boards
D. Send an e-mail to all managers
E. Schedule a conference phone call
B. Call a meeting of managers
Samantha wanted to tell her employee about the seminar, but she put
the flier in a stack of papers and forgot about it until after the deadline
to sign up. This is an example of what type of barrier to
communication?
A. Sender barrier
B. Encoding barrier
C. Medium barrier
D. Feedback barrier
E. Receiver barrier
A. Sender barrier
Yelena worked on a global team for an American company, and all her
work had to be completed in her second language, English. Sometimes
her teammates misinterpreted her meaning. This is an example of a(n)
______ barrier to communication.
A. decoding
B. sender
C. feedback
D. receiver
E. encoding
E. encoding
Rolando was in meetings all day and didn't get a chance to check his
email before he had to pick up his children from daycare, so he missed
an important message from a client. This is an example of what type of
barrier to communication?
A. Medium barrier
B. Decoding barrier
C. Feedback barrier
D. Receiver barrier
E. Encoding barrier
D. Receiver barrier
Odiche works part-time in a smoothie shop. With all the blenders,
sometimes the noise prevents him from correctly hearing the customer
orders. This is an example of a(n) ______ barrier to communication.
A. feedback
B. semantic
C. personal
D. encoding
E. physical
E. physical
Dianne, located in Michigan, needs to communicate with Henning, who
is in Oslo, Norway, about a project they are working on. Henning has
perfect command of English, but they are still facing a(n) ______
barrier to communication.
A. semantic
B. personal
C. encoding
D. medium
E. physical
E. physical
The study of the meaning of words is called
A. jargon.
B. lexicography.
C. rhetoric.
D. semantics.
E. cartology.
D. semantics.
______ is likely to cause a semantic barrier to communication.
A. Jargon
B. Technology
C. Gossip
D. The grapevine
E. Rhetoric
A. Jargon
Which of the following is NOT a personal barrier to communication?
A. A small vocabulary
B. Obsolete technology
C. Lack of credibility
D. Different frame of reference
E. Large ego
B. Obsolete technology
Andrew was so mad that his boss Beth brought up an idea he gave her
earlier that he couldn't even think about what his colleagues were now
saying in the meeting. This is an example of which personal barrier to
communication?
A. Tendency to judge others' messages
B. Variable skills in communicating effectively
C. Oversized ego
D. Inability to listen with understanding
E. Variation in interpreting information
C. Oversized ego
The statement, "Single old ladies are cat people," reflects a(n)
A. accepted generalization.
B. stereotype.
C. finding of the grapevine.
D. type of jargon.
E. statement of fact.
B. stereotype.
Which of the following is NOT a way in which nonverbal
communication is expressed?
A. Writing a thank you note
B. Making someone wait an hour in the lobby
C. Looking away while talking to someone
D. Grimacing
E. Touching someone's shoulder
A. Writing a thank you note
Most people tend to ______ when conveying bad news or negative
feedback.
A. smile
B. avoid eye contact
C. nod their heads
D. lean forward
E. yawn
B. avoid eye contact
Which of the following is a "don't" when attempting to improve
communication?
A. Occasionally nod in agreement
B. Lean toward the speaker
C. Speak in a quiet, reassuring tone
D. Smile and show animation
E. Close your eyes
E. Close your eyes
Which of the following is a "do" when attempting to improve
communication?
A. Close your eyes
B. Smile
C. Look away from the speaker
D. Speak very slowly
E. Turn away from the speaker
B. Smile
Compared to women, men tend to
A. give more tactful feedback.
B. indicate their uncertainties.
C. be indirect when admitting fault.
D. pay more compliments.
E. make more apologies.
C. be indirect when admitting fault.
According to Deborah Tannen, men are more likely than women to
A. pay more compliments.
B. temper criticism with praise.
C. ask more questions.
D. apologize frequently.
E. boast about achievements.
E. boast about achievements.
Ginger, a marketing manager, uses a sports car metaphor to explain a
concept to her male counterpart in accounting. She is said to be
A. emasculating.
B. wordsmithing.
C. genderflexing.
D. miscommunicating.
E. ingratiating.
C. genderflexing.
Channels of communications that follow the chain of command and are
considered as official are termed
A. formal.
B. prescribed.
C. vertical.
D. horizontal.
E. external.
A. formal.
Which of the following indicates how official communications should be
routed?
A. Grapevine
B. Organization chart
C. Lateral networks
D. Corporate culture
E. Personnel files
B. Organization chart
A manager who is directing her subordinate about work tasks is
communicating
A. vertically.
B. horizontally.
C. externally.
D. through the grapevine.
E. informally.
A. vertically
The more management levels through which a message passes
A. the more important the message is.
B. the higher the chance the message will become external.
C. the more informal the organization.
D. the more distorted the message may become.
E. the more disorganized the organization.
D. the more distorted the message may become.
Executives at Absolute Measurements, Inc. disseminated a new five-
year strategic plan to managers. This is an example of
A. external communication.
B. downward communication.
C. corporate communication.
D. horizontal communication.
E. informal communication.
B. downward communication.
Kyung, a marketing manager, shares some of the market research his
department has analyzed with the research and development group.
Kyung is communicating
A. by wandering around.
B. upward.
C. horizontally.
D. through the grapevine.
E. externally.
C. horizontally.
Shortly after the end of the fiscal year, Zion Specialties released an
earnings report to shareholders. This is an example of communicating
A. vertically.
B. upward.
C. horizontally.
D. downward.
E. externally.
E. externally.
______ communication channels develop outside the organizational
structure and do not follow the chain of command.
A. Customary
B. Vertical
C. Horizontal
D. Informal
E. External
D. Informal
Gossip and rumor in an organization are part of the ______, which
itself is a type of ______ communication channel.
A. organization chart; horizontal
B. culture; horizontal
C. organization chart; informal
D. grapevine; horizontal
E. grapevine; informal
E. grapevine; informal
The grapevine is
A. a horizontal communication channel.
B. almost wholly inaccurate.
C. slower than formal channels.
D. used by employees to acquire most of their on-the-job information.
E. a morale enhancer.
D. used by employees to acquire most of their on-the-job information.
A manager who literally wanders around her organization and talks
with people across all lines of authority is doing
A. COO.
B. MBWA.
C. MBO.
D. TQM.
E. JIT.
B. MBWA.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the Millennial
generation?
A. Desire to accept facts and authority at face value
B. Desire to experience new and different things
C. Desire to have personalized products and choice
D. Desire to keep things moving and interesting
E. Desire to have instant feedback
A. Desire to accept facts and authority at face value
Using video and audio links along with computers to allow people at
different locations to see, hear, and talk with each other is called
A. telecommuting.
B. collaborative computing.
C. videoconferencing.
D. telecollaborating.
E. using the extranet.
C. videoconferencing.
Which of the following is true of telecommuting?
A. Increased capital costs
B. Attractive to people with high social needs
C. Makes recruiting more difficult
D. Increased turnover
E. Increased ability to hire nontraditional workers, such as prisoner
inmates
E. Increased ability to hire nontraditional workers, such as prisoner inmates
______ can be quite expensive, requiring a specially designed room with
multiple cameras and high-definition video screens.
A. Telepresence technology
B. Telecommuting
C. Videoconferencing
D. Teleworking
E. Netconferencing
A. Telepresence technology
The key to protecting digital communication systems against fraud,
hackers, identity theft, and other threats is
A. using file-sharing services.
B. hiring ethical employees.
C. creating a well-funded IT department.
D. using prevention techniques like strong passwords.
E. minimizing turnover.
D. using prevention techniques like strong passwords.
When thieves use your name and good credit rating to get cash or buy
things, it is known as
A. personal data theft.
B. credit mishandling.
C. identity theft.
D. credit exploitation.
E. misuse of standing.
C. identity theft.
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of e-mail?
A. The sheer number that must be handled by the average worker
B. Decrease in other forms of communication, like greetings
C. Emotions are often poorly communicated
D. Considered rude to use in crowded places
E. The greater the use of email, the less connected coworkers feel
D. Considered rude to use in crowded places
Which of the following is appropriate for workplace e-mail?
A. Editing another's e-mail when replying
B. Complicated topics
C. Jokes
D. Informality and grammar errors
E. Sensitive personal issues
A. Editing another's e-mail when replying
Generally, people comprehend about ______ of a typical verbal
message.
A. 5%
B. a third
C. half
D. two thirds
E. all
B. a third
The average speaker communicates about ______ as many words as the
average listener can process.
A. one fourth
B. half
C. about
D. twice
E. four times
A. one fourth
What do good listeners do during the information gap between what
someone says and how fast we process?
A. Daydream
B. Decide what they will say next
C. Think about other things
D. Mentally summarize what's been said
E. Make a convincing argument against what is being said
D. Mentally summarize what's been said
Which of the following is NOT a suggestion that may help you be a good
listener?
A. Memorize the details
B. Ask questions
C. Summarize remarks
D. Judge content, not delivery
E. Give a fair hearing
A. Memorize the details
Speed reading works well for material that is
A. jargon-laden.
B. unfamiliar.
C. easy.
D. dense.
E. complicated
C. easy.
Top-down reading strategies include which of the following?
A. Read everything you can that is related to your industry.
B. Formulate specific questions you want the reading to answer.
C. Summarize findings for your subordinates.
D. Get deeply into the details, where the meat of most writing is.
E. Test yourself on what you've read.
B. Formulate specific questions you want the reading to answer.
If you want your writing to establish a common ground with the reader
and make your overall argument stronger, you should order your
arguments from
A. negative to positive.
B. most important to least important.
C. least controversial to most controversial.
D. least important to most important.
E. positive to negative.
A. negative to positive.
When you want your reader to take a logical and fairly nonpolitical
action, you should order ideas in your writing from
A. least controversial to most controversial.
B. least important to most important.
C. negative to positive.
D. positive to negative.
E. most important to least important.
E. most important to least important.
Carter wants to change the CEO's mind about seeking an outside firm
to which they could outsource the customer service function. He decides
to write a proposal, including a variety of arguments to support his
idea. Here, Carter should order his ideas from
A. most important to least important.
B. least controversial to most controversial.
C. negative to positive.
D. positive to negative.
E. least important to most important.
B. least controversial to most controversial.
Which of the following is a tip for writing more effectively?
A. Use passive voice.
B. Construct interesting, complex sentences.
C. Don't use italics or bolding in business writing.
D. Start by telling what you expect of the reader.
E. Use narrow margins.
D. Start by telling what you expect of the reader.
A study conducted by AT&T and Stanford University found that the
top predictor of success and professional upward mobility was
A. intelligence.
B. writing ability.
C. integrity.
D. interpersonal skills.
E. public speaking ability.
E. public speaking ability.
The introduction to a business speech should
A. contain at least one joke.
B. get right to the point.
C. contain a phrase like, "I'm honored to be here."
D. contain significant details of the presentation.
E. contain an unrelated story to catch the interest of the audience.
B. get right to the point.
Which of the following is NOT appropriate to include in the conclusion
of a speech?
A. A signal phrase to cue listeners about the wind-up
B. Details you forgot from earlier
C. A call to action
D. "Thank you"
E. A little upbeat story
B. Details you forgot from earlier
Soo Jin was recently hired as a facilities director at Star Bottling.
Which of the following should she do immediately as she tries to
improve productivity?
A. Use the established technology with which her employees are most
familiar.
B. Rotate all personnel so that each has an opportunity to try something
new.
C. Hire new employees such that they are similar to those already on
the team.
D. Immediately cut costs.
E. Establish a system of measurement.
E. Establish a system of measurement.
Which of the following is a challenge a manager will deal with in the
21st century?
A. Sustainability
B. Employee revolts
C. Economic instability
D. Leadership vacuums
E. Religious issues
A. Sustainability
Which of the following is a primary function of management?
A. Communicating
B. Organizing
C. Cooperating
D. Globalizing
E. Influencing
B. Organizing
Productivity equals
A. labor, capital, energy, and materials, divided by goods and services.
B. goods and services and energy and materials, divided by labor and
capital.
C. labor, energy, and capital, divided by goods, services, and materials.
D. goods and services, divided by labor, capital, energy, and materials.
E. energy and materials, divided by labor and capital.
D. goods and services, divided by labor, capital, energy, and materials.
Managers can increase overall productivity by
A. decreasing efficiency of capital.
B. increasing energy.
C. increasing the efficiency of materials.
D. decreasing the efficiency of labor.
E. decreasing outputs.
C. increasing the efficiency of materials.
Which of the following has been a primary source of productivity gains
in the years 1995 to 2001?
A. Reduced standards of living
B. Recessionary spending
C. Reemphasis on ethical business behaviors
D. Enterprise resource planning software systems
E. Reduced costs of raw materials through globalization
D. Enterprise resource planning software systems
______ is defined as monitoring performance, comparing it with goals,
and taking corrective action as needed.
A. Measuring
B. Controlling
C. Organizing
D. Leading
E. Planning
B. Controlling
Manuel, a manager, tracks monthly customer complaints and has been
trying over the past six months to reduce them to a goal of less than
0.5%. He is engaged in
A. controlling.
B. organizing.
C. measuring.
D. leading.
E. planning.
A. controlling.
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that control is needed
in an organization?
A. To adapt to change & uncertainty
B. To eliminate the need for teamwork
C. To detect opportunities
D. To deal with complexity
E. To decentralize decision making
B. To eliminate the need for teamwork
Ferris Insurance has effective control processes, allowing its managers
to discover ______ in bookkeeping right away, before a would-be
embezzler could seriously affect its business.
A. team problems
B. a potential merger
C. competence
D. a tax break
E. irregularities
E. irregularities
Which of the following is a step in the control process?
A. Complete a job redesign
B. Evaluate opportunities
C. Establish standards
D. Implement TQM
E. Compare work units to one another
C. Establish standards
Standards are best measured when they are
A. broad.
B. efficient.
C. narrow.
D. quantifiable.
E. green.
D. quantifiable.
Which of the following standards is the most difficult to measure
directly?
A. An increase in insurance policies sales month to month
B. Stable material costs
C. More effective teamwork
D. 0.5% of products rejected for poor quality
E. Reduced energy costs compared to the same month last year
C. More effective teamwork
The amount of acceptable deviation from a standard, determined when
the standard was established, is called the
A. span of exception.
B. range of variation.
C. breadth control.
D. benchmark.
E. zero-based control.
B. range of variation.
Which of the following may be done as corrective action in the control
process?
A. Evaluate performance
B. Revise standards
C. Compare performance to standards
D. Align processes with goals
E. Establish standards
B. Revise standards
Benny's supervisor noticed that he was struggling with the
computerized set-up for production runs at his new job. The supervisor
sat next to him while he tried it again and gave suggestions for
improvement. The supervisor is doing which step of the control
process?
A. Compare performance to standards
B. Establish standards
C. Take corrective action
D. Measure performance
E. Control productivity
C. Take corrective action
At UPS, delivery ______ vary according to whether a route is urban,
suburban, or rural in nature.
A. RATER scales
B. ratio analyses
C. standards
D. PDCA cycles
E. strategy maps
C. standards
Monitoring performance to ensure that day-to-day goals are being
implemented and taking corrective action as needed is known as ______
control.
A. strategic
B. functional
C. tactical
D. operational
E. managerial
D. operational
Tactical control is performed mainly by
A. middle managers.
B. top managers.
C. the CEO.
D. first level managers.
E. team leaders.
A. middle managers.
Typically, strategic control is accomplished through reports issued
A. daily.
B. weekly.
C. monthly.
D. quarterly or less frequently.
E. randomly.
D. quarterly or less frequently.
An organization might request more frequent strategic control reports
than normal if the organization is
A. affected by the news media.
B. very large.
C. formal in organizational structure.
D. decentralized.
E. operating in an uncertain environment
E. operating in an uncertain environment.
A sales forecast is an example of an organizational control from the
______ area.
A. physical
B. informational
C. human resources
D. financial
E. capital
B. informational
Which of the following is one of the areas of control for organizations?
A. External
B. Decentralized
C. Ethical
D. Cultural
E. Competitive
D. Cultural
Aurelia was required to take a word processing test as part of her
application for an executive assistant position. This control is part of the
______ area.
A. human resources
B. physical
C. financial
D. informational
E. structural
A. human resources
Which of the following is an example of an informational resource
control?
A. A personality test
B. A delivery-tracking system
C. A debt-repayment schedule
D. A leadership survey
E. A competition analysis
E. A competition analysis
______ control is an approach to organizational control that is
characterized by informal and organic structural arrangements.
A. Decentralized
B. Functional
C. Relational
D. Bureaucratic
E. Market
A. Decentralized
Which of the following is the best example of bureaucratic control?
A. Southwest Airlines
B. U.S. Army
C. General Electric
D. Levi Strauss
E. Ritz Carlton
B. U.S. Army
Tanya manages employees at Anchorage Transport. She has noticed
that one of her employees submits via the computer system the same
suggestions for continuous improvement multiple times, knowing that
performance is evaluated on the number of suggestions only. This
problem is typical of ______ control.
A. clan
B. market
C. decentralized
D. bureaucratic
E. functional
D. bureaucratic
Some managers use ______, which provides four indicators with which
organizations can set goals and measure performance.
A. the balanced scorecard
B. a strategic map
C. measurement management
D. a strategic scorecard
E. evidence-based management
A. the balanced scorecard
Which of the following is a perspective of the balanced scorecard?
A. Internal weaknesses
B. Innovation and learning
C. External processes
D. Stakeholder satisfaction
E. Collaboration and teamwork
B. Innovation and learning
Examining how the organization looks to shareholders is part of which
balanced scorecard perspectives?
A. External perspective
B. Customer perspective
C. Financial perspective
D. Internal business perspective
E. Innovation & learning perspective
C. Financial perspective
Which balanced scorecard perspectives helps top management's
judgment to be better linked to measures of employee actions at lower
levels?
A. External perspective
B. Financial perspective
C. Customer perspective
D. Internal business perspective
E. Innovation & learning perspective
D. Internal business perspective
According to Kaplan and Norton, "______ show the cause-and-effect
links by which specific improvements create desired outcomes."
A. Positioning maps
B. Strategy maps
C. Multi-dimensional maps
D. Customer maps
E. Graphical interface maps
B. Strategy maps
Which of the following is a mechanism that contributes to a
measurement-managed company's success?
A. Using mostly "soft" objectives that are not quantifiable
B. Measuring activities of all types
C. Developing the measurement systems without interference from
employees
D. Trusting in informal feedback systems
E. Developing alignment between individual, unit, and strategic
performance
E. Developing alignment between individual, unit, and strategic performance
Which of the following is a frequent barrier to effective measurement?
A. Communication is bureaucratic.
B. Top executives create the organization's strategy.
C. The organizational culture overemphasizes teamwork.
D. Employees resist new measurement systems.
E. The organizational culture allows too much risk taking.
D. Employees resist new measurement systems.
A budget that allocates increased or decreased funds to a department
by using the last budget period as a reference point is called a(n)
A. standardized budget.
B. incremental budget.
C. zero-based budget.
D. fixed budget.
E. tactical budget.
B. incremental budget.
One characteristic of incremental budgeting is that it
A. allows comparison between multiple units, like labor hours and
dollars.
B. is flexible to changing environmental demands.
C. locks managers into stable spending arrangements.
D. allows easy comparison of different departments doing different
activities.
E. requires more time from managers than zero-based budgeting.
C. locks managers into stable spending arrangements.
A budget that allocates resources on the basis of a single estimate of
costs is called a(n) ______ budget.
A. unitary
B. zero-based
C. cash
D. fixed
E. incremental
D. fixed
The type of budget that can be adjusted over time for changing
environmental conditions is known as a(n) ______ budget.
A. variable
B. incremental
C. zero-based
D. operating
E. cash
A. variable
At Aurora Fencing, orders have significantly exceeded projections, and
Samraj, the operations director, has decided to hire for a third shift in
the plant. Samraj is clearly operating with the use of a(n) ______
budget.
A. zero-based
B. incremental
C. variable
D. fixed
E. cash
C. variable
A(n) ______ budget projects what an organization will create in goods
and services, what financial resources are needed, and what income is
expected.
A. expense
B. revenue
C. cash
D. operating
E. cash flow
D. operating
Current assets, fixed assets, and liabilities are all part of an
organization's
A. capital expenditures budget.
B. balance sheet.
C. income statement.
D. expense budget.
E. cash flow statement.
B. balance sheet.
Profits or losses incurred by an organization are represented in its
A. income statement.
B. expense budget.
C. ratio analysis.
D. capital expenditures budget.
E. balance sheet.
A. income statement.
______ ratios can help an organization to detect if it has obsolete or
excessive inventory on hand.
A. Return
B. Liquidity
C. Debt management
D. Asset management
E. Activity
D. Asset management
ROI is a(n)
A. liquidity ratio.
B. return ratio.
C. cash ratio.
D. asset management ratio.
E. debt management ratio.
B. return ratio.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an external audit?
A. Primarily used when management suspects embezzlement
B. Performed by CPAs
C. Performed by an independent organization
D. Verifies that generally accepted accounting principles have been
followed
E. Verifies the accuracy and fairness of financial statements
A. Primarily used when management suspects embezzlement
Which of the following is NOT a principle of Deming management?
A. Quality should be aimed at the needs of the consumer.
B. Companies should aim at improving the system.
C. Improved quality leads to increased market share.
D. Quality can be improved on the basis of hard data.
E. Companies should determine which workers are to blame for
problems.
E. Companies should determine which workers are to blame for problems.
Which of the following is part of Deming's PDCA cycle?
A. Protect
B. Drive
C. Apply
D. Check
E. Decide
D. Check
TQM has two core principles:
A. employee commitment and customer satisfaction.
B. financial health and financial stability.
C. people orientation and improvement orientation.
D. management and leadership.
E. radical innovation and continuous improvement.
C. people orientation and improvement orientation.
A team that meets temporarily to solve a particular problem is called a
A. continuous improvement team.
B. work group.
C. self-managed team.
D. special-purpose team.
E. department.
D. special-purpose team.
The process of instituting ongoing small, incremental improvements in
all parts of an organization is called
A. MBO.
B. reengineering.
C. radical innovation.
D. MBWA.
E. continuous improvement.
E. continuous improvement.
Chablis Mechanical convened a team to help the organization
determine a course of action in the wake of a forest fire that
temporarily closed access to its mountain satellite office. This is an
example of a
A. cross-functional team.
B. special-purpose team.
C. JIT team.
D. self-managed team.
E. continuous improvement team.
B. special-purpose team.
Employees' knowledge, courtesy, and ability to convey trust and
confidence make up which dimension of the RATER scale?
A. Reliability
B. Assurance
C. Tangibles
D. Empathy
E. Responsiveness
B. Assurance
At Pittsburgh Packaging, Melanie pulls six samples an hour from the
assembly line to examine them for quality defects. If she finds any, she
makes adjustments to various pieces of equipment in her area.
Melanie's job involves
A. statistical process control.
B. benchmarking.
C. reduced cycle time.
D. feedforward control.
E. strategic control.
A. statistical process control.
Installing quality-control procedures that can be audited by
independent quality-control experts is fundamental to
A. ISO 14000.
B. restructuring.
C. reduced cycle time.
D. ISO 9000.
E. statistical process control.
D. ISO 9000.
Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of successful
control systems?
A. Results-oriented
B. Realistic
C. Encouragement of self-control
D. Flexible
E. Emphasis on punishment
E. Emphasis on punishment
Which kind of organization is most likely to try to exert too much
control?
A. Clan
B. Market
C. Bureaucratic
D. Decentralized
E. Matrix
C. Bureaucratic
Before the fall term began, the professors at Littleton University were
required to complete a variety of documents, ranging from
performance objectives to lists of summer contacts with prospective
students. Many professors complained that they would rather spend the
time getting ready for their courses. This is an example of which barrier
to successful control?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too much flexibility
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
At Bertram Development, employees were asked how the quality of its
customer service could best be measured, and management then
implemented a survey system based on the feedback. Bertram has
overcome which of the following barriers to success of control systems?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too little employee participation
E. Too little employee participation
Recruiters for Alperton University were under extreme pressure to
meet their objective of a 10% increase in the size of the freshman class.
As a result, they admitted many students that were not qualified and
who failed to perform in classes. This is an example of which problem
associated with control systems?
A. Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches
B. Overemphasis on paperwork
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
D. Too much control
E. Too little participation
C. Overemphasis on means instead of ends
Grandview Casino & Resort requires its casino dealers to have licenses,
observes them using closed circuit TV, and requires detailed reports at
the end of each shift. This organization has overcome the control system
barrier of
A. overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches.
B. overemphasis on paperwork.
C. overemphasis on means instead of ends.
D. too much control.
E. too little participation.
A. overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches.
