Exam

exam_for_practice.docx

Exam for Practice & Professionalism in the Healthcare

QUESTION 1

1. The principal diagnosis is that diagnosis which:

	A.	The patient was admitted for, regardless of subsequent findings
	B.	After study, was determined to be responsible for occasioning the admission to the hospital.
	C.	The attending physician believes is the most severe
	D.	Upon discharge, is determined to have consumed the most hospital resources.

1 points

QUESTION 2

1. The most important advantage of consumer education is that

	A.	More consumers are going into health related occupations
	B.	Americans have become more aware of the importance of good health care
	C.	Insurance companies are evaluating patient’s knowledge of healthcare
	D.	The need for medical care has been eliminated

1 points

QUESTION 3

1. In which of the following examples if the main term correctly identified?

	A.	intracranial abscess
	B.	second degree uterine prolapse
	C.	gastric ulcer with perforation
	D.	chronic conjunctivitis

1 points

QUESTION 4

1. Which is the correct plural form of diverticulum?

	A.	Diverticule
	B.	Diverticula
	C.	Diverticuli
	D.	Diverticulae

1 points

QUESTION 5

1. Standard punctuation consists of a colon after the salutation and a comma after the

	A.	Complimentary close
	B.	Never
	C.	Writer’s identification
	D.	Date line

1 points

QUESTION 6

1. The complimentary closing of a letter is usually followed by a

	A.	Apostrophe
	B.	Colon
	C.	The letter “s”
	D.	Comma

1 points

QUESTION 7

1. The main part or foundation of a medical term is the

	A.	Prefix
	B.	Combining vowel
	C.	Suffix
	D.	Word root

1 points

QUESTION 8

1. Visual acuity is transcribed as ___.

	A.	20/20
	B.	20-20
	C.	20
	D.	20,20

1 points

QUESTION 9

1. The abbreviation ORIF means

	A.	open reduction internal fixation
	B.	operative reduction of inferior fixation
	C.	open repair of infected fracture
	D.	operative repair of inferior fracture

1 points

QUESTION 10

1. Determining how long to keep patient records in the office after they have become inactive or closed is called:

	A.	An alphabetical filing system
	B.	A numeric filing system
	C.	Record management
	D.	A retention schedule

1 points

QUESTION 11

1. Important information about a patient’s history and medical condition is found in the:

	A.	medical transcription
	B.	problem-oriented medical record system
	C.	medical office record book
	D.	patient’s chart

1 points

QUESTION 12

1. “Use additional code” means that

	A.	The additional code must be used if the condition is present
	B.	The attending physician should be consulted before using additional code
	C.	Policies should be developed by each hospital on whether to use additional code
	D.	The coder may use the additional code at his/her discretion

1 points

QUESTION 13

1. A policy that documents who is responsible for the various types of calls in the office and how the calls are to be handled is called the

	A.	Procedure manual
	B.	Telephone directory
	C.	Routing list
	D.	Policy manual

1 points

QUESTION 14

1. Respondeat superior means that

	A.	A health care employee can act independently of the employer
	B.	Health care employees have a duty to carry out the orders of their employers without question
	C.	The health care employee is never found negligent by the courts
	D.	The employer is liable for the actions of the employee

1 points

QUESTION 15

1. A reference book that provides up to date information on both prescription and non-prescription drugs is:

	A.	a standard dictionary
	B.	a medical dictionary
	C.	the Physician’s Desk Reference
	D.	an OCR

1 points

QUESTION 16

1. An acute episode of a chronic disease is called:

	A.	A complication
	B.	An exacerbation
	C.	A sequelae
	D.	A prodromal period

1 points

QUESTION 17

1. Indications refers to:

	A.	Approved uses or diseases for which a drug has been proven effective
	B.	Unexpected reactions to a drug
	C.	The reason a drug is prescribed for a specific patient
	D.	The chemical structure of drugs

1 points

QUESTION 18

1. The difference between a new patient and an established patient is whether the patient received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice

	A.	Within the past three years
	B.	Within the past two years
	C.	Within the past four years
	D.	Within the past year

1 points

QUESTION 19

1. A court order that requires a witness to appear in court with certain records is called

	A.	Discovery
	B.	Subpoena duces tecum
	C.	Res judicata
	D.	Deposition

1 points

QUESTION 20

1. Record security is enhanced by using a numeric filing system

True

False

1 points

QUESTION 21

1. When implementing HIPAA physicians and physician groups should

	A.	All answers are correct
	B.	Implement a notice of privacy practices
	C.	Hire a privacy office
	D.	Retain signed authorizations for at least six years

1 points

QUESTION 22

1. Public law deals with relationships between individuals and the government, and includes

	A.	Contracts and regulations
	B.	Criminal law and regulations
	C.	Contracts and torts
	D.	Criminal law and torts

1 points

QUESTION 23

1. Which of the following radiologic terms means resisting penetration by x-rays?

	A.	Sonolucent
	B.	Opacification
	C.	Radio-Opaque
	D.	Radiolucent

1 points

QUESTION 24

1. The patient

	A.	Cannot have any portion of the medical record
	B.	All answers are correct
	C.	Owns the medical record
	D.	Has the legal right of “privileged communication”

1 points

QUESTION 25

1. The document that allows patients to set forth their intentions as to treatment is known as

	A.	Living will
	B.	Uniform anatomical gift act
	C.	Durable power of attorney
	D.	Implied consent

1 points

QUESTION 26

1. A document the provides a summary of a patient’s hospitalization is

	A.	History
	B.	Physical examination report
	C.	Operative report
	D.	Clinical resume or discharge summary

1 points

QUESTION 27

1. Influenza commonly has all of the following symptoms except:

	A.	Aching pains in the body
	B.	Nausea and vomiting
	C.	Fatigue
	D.	Sudden, acute onset with fever

1 points

QUESTION 28

1. The appointment scheduling system that is based on the reality that some patients will arrive late and others will require more or less time than expected with the physician is called:

	A.	Double-booking
	B.	Cluster scheduling
	C.	Time-specific scheduling
	D.	Wave scheduling

1 points

QUESTION 29

1. If a person with Type B blood was given Type AB blood, which of the following would occur and why?

	A.	They would have a transfusion reaction because their antigens would react with the antigens in type AB.
	B.	They would have a transfusion reaction because their antibodies would attack the antigens in type AB.
	C.	Nothing because Type B is the universal receiver.
	D.	Nothing because Type AB is the universal donor

1 points

QUESTION 30

1. An example of a clearinghouse is

	A.	PHI
	B.	A government regulation
	C.	Skilled-nursing facility
	D.	A billing service

1 points

QUESTION 31

1. Using a third person to help settle a dispute in a nonbinding decision is called

	A.	Civil lawsuit
	B.	Malpractice lawsuit
	C.	Mediation
	D.	Arbitration

1 points

QUESTION 32

1. How does an automated menu system save time and effort in a medical office?

	A.	Calls do not have to be answered as they come in because a block of time is reserved to listen and respond to messages.
	B.	The message is automatically given to the physician
	C.	Telephone calls are screened to determine which messages can wait until the physician returns to the office
	D.	It provides an immediate response to each and every phone call

1 points

QUESTION 33

1. This abbreviation commonly occurs within the physical exam and refers to an action a provider takes examining the heart and lungs. The abbreviation is:

	A.	DTRs
	B.	JVD
	C.	P & A
	D.	CHF

1 points

QUESTION 34

1. Level II codes of the HCPCS coding system are maintained by the

	A.	CPT Editorial Panel
	B.	Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services
	C.	American Medical Association
	D.	Local fiscal intermediary

1 points

QUESTION 35

1. The abbreviation that means nothing by mouth is

	A.	NG
	B.	DRE
	C.	FBS
	D.	NPO

1 points

QUESTION 36

1. The statute of limitations starts running

	A.	When the problem is discovered or should have been discovered
	B.	But does not apply to medical practitioners
	C.	One to two years after the treatment, according to the state
	D.	On a case by case basis

1 points

QUESTION 37

1. Which of the following are examples of hazardous medical wastes?

	A.	leftover food in a patient’s room after the patient has been discharged
	B.	used eating utensils and dishes
	C.	blood products, body fluids and sharps
	D.	a patient’s gown and linen stained with medication

1 points

QUESTION 38

1. A coroner or health office will have to sign a death certificate in the case of:

	A.	A death as a result of a criminal action
	B.	Unexplained or unexpected death
	C.	All answers are correct
	D.	An unlawful death such as assisted suicide

1 points

QUESTION 39

1. The discharge summary final diagnostic statement reads: “Chest pain due to hypertensive cardiomyopathy versus hiatal hernia.” Select the principal diagnosis.

	A.	hiatal hernia
	B.	chest pain
	C.	cardiomyopathy
	D.	hypertension

1 points

QUESTION 40

1. The way patient records are created, filed and maintained is called:

	A.	Numeric filing system
	B.	Records filing
	C.	Records management system
	D.	Sequential order

1 points

QUESTION 41

1. Nonessential modifiers are punctuated with

	A.	parentheses
	B.	square brackets
	C.	colons
	D.	braces

1 points

QUESTION 42

1. Which system is used when a patient receives a number on his first admission and retains that umber for all subsequent admissions?

	A.	Phonetic
	B.	Unit
	C.	Serial-unit
	D.	Serial

1 points

QUESTION 43

1. The most common skin cancer is:

	A.	Lipoma
	B.	Malignant melanoma
	C.	Chondrosarcoma
	D.	Basal cell carcinoma

1 points

QUESTION 44

1. In a terminal-digit filing system, if the number is 59 04 82, the tertiary number is

	A.	04
	B.	59
	C.	82
	D.	2

1 points

QUESTION 45

1. Principles of ICD-9-CM coding for ambulatory care encounters include:

	A.	Ambulatory care diagnoses should be coded to the physician’s highest degree of certainty at the conclusion of the encounter
	B.	Conditions previously treated and no longer existing are coded
	C.	Only the most significant diagnosis should be coded
	D.	Code “suspected” diagnoses as if the injury or disease existed

1 points

QUESTION 46

1. Which of the following is not a method of control of a communicable disease?

	A.	Block portal of exit
	B.	Know the resistance of the host
	C.	Isolation of the infected person
	D.	Hand washing

1 points

QUESTION 47

1. When there are many cases of an infectious disease in several regions and perhaps worldwide, it is termed:

	A.	Epidemic
	B.	Endemic
	C.	Problematic
	D.	Pandemic

1 points

QUESTION 48

1. Polydipsia means

	A.	Too much calcium in the blood
	B.	State of too much urine
	C.	Excessive pain
	D.	Excessive thirst

1 points

QUESTION 49

1. A violation of HIPAA

	A.	Does not affect a physician’s reputation, since it is just a document
	B.	Does not carry any financial penalty at present
	C.	Is a criminal offense
	D.	Is not reportable

1 points

QUESTION 50

1. What constitutes an active, instead of an inactive, file?

	A.	A patient who has not been seen for six months.
	B.	The criteria are established by each individual practice
	C.	A patient has died
	D.	A patient must be called and asked if they want their file closed

1 points

QUESTION 51

1. The three key components used in defining the levels of E/M services are:

	A.	examination, medical decision making, nature of presenting problem
	B.	history, medical decision making, time
	C.	medical decision making, counseling, coordination of care
	D.	history, examination, medical decision making

1 points

QUESTION 52

1. A type to prevent carpal tunnel syndrome is to:

	A.	stretch the fingers to reach difficult-to-reach keys
	B.	keep wrists straight
	C.	get all of your typing done in one setting
	D.	position the keyboard lower than the elbows

1 points

QUESTION 53

1. Which diagnosis is sequenced first in the following case: “second degree burn of leg, third degree burn of foot, first degree burn of arm?”

	A.	The burn covering the greatest area
	B.	Second degree burn of leg
	C.	First degree burn of arm
	D.	Third degree burn of foot

1 points

QUESTION 54

1. The judgment, opinion, or evaluation made by a health care professional is documented in which part of a SOAP progress note?

	A.	Objective
	B.	Assessment
	C.	Subjective
	D.	Plan

1 points

QUESTION 55

1. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:

	A.	Predisposing factor
	B.	Latent stage
	C.	Precipitating factor
	D.	Incidence

1 points

QUESTION 56

1. Which of the following is not included in the code 650 “Delivery in a completely normal case?”

	A.	Full term gestation
	B.	Stillborn
	C.	Normal spontaneous delivery
	D.	Vertex presentation

1 points

QUESTION 57

1. Which abbreviation would be found under the “GENERAL” heading in an emergency medicine report?

	A.	EOMI
	B.	WNWD
	C.	TBI
	D.	PERRLA

1 points

QUESTION 58

1. The primary purpose of color-coding the file system is to

	A.	Guide files
	B.	Indicate missing records
	C.	Reduce misfiles
	D.	Flag deficiencies

1 points

QUESTION 59

1. The recommended procedure for handling billing inquiries is to:

	A.	Insist the patient pay the current charges
	B.	Pull the patient’s chart and billing information
	C.	Tell the patient to pay the charges but that the charges will be reviewed at a later date
	D.	Notify the patient that the physician will not see him again until the bill is paid.

1 points

QUESTION 60

1. An elective surgery is scheduled

	A.	Any day or time that the patient requests
	B.	When the office schedule is not busy
	C.	On certain days when the doctor is scheduled to be in the operating room
	D.	When the hospital has an operating room available

1 points