Final exam Bio class

Name______________________________

Chlorophyll reflects (does not absorb) which color of light?

Question 1 options:

	A)	red
	B)	blue
	C)	violet
	D)	green

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Question 2 (2 points)

 

2

 The carbon source for organisms that derive their energy from photosynthesis is:

Question 2 options:

	A)	carbon monoxide
	B)	carbon dioxide
	C)	methane
	D)	hydrocarbons
	E)	glucose

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Question 3 (2 points)

 

3

What is the enzyme that fixes carbon dioxide or oxygen in the light independent reactions?

Question 3 options:

	A)	carbon dioxide kinase
	B)	glucose 1-phosphocarbonase
	C)	Rubisco
	D)	catalase

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Question 4 (2 points)

 

4

Plant cells that perform photosynthesis have the following organelles:

Question 4 options:

	A)	Golgi bodies
	B)	Chloroplasts
	C)	Mitochondria
	D)	Endoplasmic Reticula
	E)	all of these organelles

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Question 5 (2 points)

 

5

The three reactions or stages of aerobic cellular respiration are:

Question 5 options:

	A)	glycolysis, calvin cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
	B)	fermentation, glycolysis and krebs cycle
	C)	Photosystems 1 and 2, calvin cycle and electron transport
	D)	glycolysis, krebs cycle and electron transport

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Question 6 (2 points)

 

6

Which one of these ATP producing processes happens in the cytoplasm?

Question 6 options:

	A)	glycolysis
	B)	krebs cycle
	C)	citric acid cycle
	D)	electron transport
	E)	photosystem I,II

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Question 7 (2 points)

 

7

Which ATP making process creates the most ATP?

Question 7 options:

	A)	fermentation
	B)	glycolysi
	C)	krebs cycle
	D)	electron transport
	E)	all produce equal amounts of ATP

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Question 8 (2 points)

 

8

Which of the following happens to muscle cells in the absence of oxygen?

Question 8 options:

	alcohol fermentation
	glycolysis
	krebs cycle
	lactate fermentation

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Question 9 (2 points)

 

9

Aerobic organisms use what as a final electron acceptor in the electron transport?

Question 9 options:

	A)	hydrogen
	B)	water
	C)	oxygen
	D)	carbon dioxide

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Question 10 (2 points)

 

10

Unlike DNA, RNA contains:

Question 10 options:

	A)	adenine
	B)	uracil
	C)	phosphate groups
	D)	thymine

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Question 11 (2 points)

 

11

Which of the following is an enzyme that builds DNA?

Question 11 options:

	A)	DNA polymerase
	B)	DNA helicase
	C)	DNA protienase
	D)	DNAase

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Question 12 (2 points)

 

12

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?

Question 12 options:

	A)	ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
	B)	deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
	C)	phosphate groups, guanine, adenine and cytosine
	D)	phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine

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Question 13 (2 points)

 

13

What type of bond holds the two strands of DNA together?

Question 13 options:

	A)	Covalent bonds
	B)	Atom bonds
	C)	Hydrogen bonds
	D)	Helicase bonds

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Question 14 (2 points)

 

14

If you have the following template strand of DNA AATCCG, the correct complementary strand of DNA would be:

Question 14 options:

	A)	AATCCG
	B)	TTAGGC
	C)	TTAACC
	D)	TTACCG
	E)	GGCTTA

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Question 15 (2 points)

 

15

Which of the following are the rules for base pairing in RNA?

Question 15 options:

	A)	Thymine must bond to uracil and guanine to cytosine
	B)	Adenine must bond to uracil and cytosine to guanine
	C)	Adenine must bond to thymine and guanine to cytosine
	D)	Thymine must bond to cytosine and guanine to adenine

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Question 16 (2 points)

 

16

How many different types of RNA are there in protein synthesis?

Question 16 options:

	A)	1
	B)	20
	C)	3
	D)	100

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Question 17 (2 points)

 

17

What happens during the process of translation?

Question 17 options:

	A)	Messenger RNA is made from DNA
	B)	The cell uses information from mRNA to make protein
	C)	Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA
	D)	Copies of DNA molecules are made

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Question 18 (2 points)

 

18

What happens during the process of transcription?

Question 18 options:

	A)	Messenger RNA is made from DNA
	B)	The cell uses information from mRNA to make protein
	C)	Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA
	D)	Copies of DNA molecules are made

Which of the following is not true concerning the Phylum Porifera?

Question 19 options:

	A)	Reproduces asexually
	B)	Has spicules
	C)	Filter feeding
	D)	Three germ layers

Which of the following is not true concerning the Phylum Cnidaria?

Question 20 options:

	A)	Has three germ layers
	B)	Has one digestive opening
	C)	Has nematacysts
	D)	Has ability to move

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Question 21 (2 points)

 

21

In the Phylum Platyhelminthes they have all of the following except:

Question 21 options:

	Parasites
	Heterotrophs
	Flame Cells
	Bilateral symmetry
	coelom

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Question 22 (2 points)

 

22

In the Phylum Arthropoda they can do all of the following except:

Question 22 options:

	A)	Reproduce asexually
	B)	Regenerate legs
	C)	Fly
	D)	Walk
	E)	Feed parasitically

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Question 23 (2 points)

 

23

What two features do plants have that help them conserve water?

Question 23 options:

	A)	Waxy cuticle and stomata that open and close
	B)	Waxy stems that can close stomata
	C)	Guard cells and peptidoglycans
	D)	Oligolipids and wax sealers

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Question 24 (2 points)

 

24

What is the difference between a monocot and a dicot?

Question 24 options:

	A)	Monocots have a single stems and dicots two
	B)	Monocots have a single cotyledon and dicots two
	C)	Monocots have two cotyledons and dicots one
	D)	Monocots have one main root growth and dicots two

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Question 25 (2 points)

 

25

How do seedless vascular plants differ from moss?

Question 25 options:

	A)	There is no difference
	B)	Mosses do not have chlorophyll
	C)	Seedless vascular plants do not have chlorophyll
	D)	Mosses do not have veins

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Question 26 (2 points)

 

26

An example of a medusa stage in the phylum Cnidaria is the:

Question 26 options:

	A)	Cnidocyte
	B)	sponge
	C)	jellyfish
	D)	turbellaria

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Question 27 (2 points)

 

27

Which answer would be an example of the phylum Echinodermata?

Question 27 options:

	A)	earthworm
	B)	starfish
	C)	flatworm
	D)	zebrafish

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Question 28 (2 points)

 

28

A common characteristic of Annelids would be:

Question 28 options:

	A)	dorsal nerve chord
	B)	flame cells
	C)	setae
	D)	spicules

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Question 29 (2 points)

 

29

Which answer is an example of the phylum Nematoda?

Question 29 options:

	A)	tapeworm
	B)	roundworm
	C)	earthworm
	D)	bollworm

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Question 30 (2 points)

 

30

The gametophyte is which stage of a plant?

Question 30 options:

	A)	diploid
	B)	haploid
	C)	mobile
	D)	sessile

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Question 31 (2 points)

 

31

The sporophyte would be which stage of the plant?

Question 31 options:

	A)	diploid
	B)	haploid
	C)	mobile
	D)	sessile

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Question 32 (2 points)

 

32

What is the difference between gymnosperms and angiosperms?

Question 32 options:

	A)	gynosperms produce flowers and angiosperms produce seeds
	B)	gynosperms produce seeds and angiosperms only flowers
	C)	gynosperms are monocots while angiosperms are dicots
	D)	gynosperms produce seeds and angiosperms produce both flowers and seeds

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Question 33 (2 points)

 

33

What living organism gave rise to land plants?

Question 33 options:

	A)	cyanobacteria
	B)	algae
	C)	moss
	D)	lichens

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Question 34 (2 points)

 

34

Plants take up carbon dioxide through the:

Question 34 options:

	A)	cuticle
	B)	stem
	C)	leaf surface
	D)	stomata

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Question 35 (2 points)

 

35

The difference between Artificial Selection and Natural Selection is: 

Question 35 options:

	A)	There is no difference
	B)	Natural Selection chooses the characteristics naturally and Artificial Selection is chosen by humans
	C)	One is a natural disaster the other is not
	D)	Natural Selection is natural and Artificial Selection is done by predation

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Question 36 (2 points)

 

36

What are two ways that prokaryotes generate genetic diversity?

Question 36 options:

	A)	mitosis and meiosis
	B)	binary fission and meiosis
	C)	transformation and conjugation
	D)	crossing over and binary fission

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Question 37 (2 points)

 

37

Which of the following is not a reason why it is difficult to define a prokaryotic species.

Question 37 options:

	A)	the morpholgy of prokaryotes is similar
	B)	biochemistry differs among different strains within the same species
	C)	transformation occurs between different species of bacteria
	D)	some prokaryotes cause disease

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Question 38 (2 points)

 

38

Which of the following can not be part of a single celled Protistan?

Question 38 options:

	A)	DNA
	B)	RNA
	C)	Protein
	D)	tissue layers

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Question 39 (2 points)

 

39

What is an adaptation that some prokaryotes use to deal with a harsh environment.

Question 39 options:

	A)	flagella
	B)	multicellucellar extremophiles
	C)	bacterial spores
	D)	become extremophiles

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Question 40 (2 points)

 

40

An example of a symbiotic fungus that has this relationship with the root of a plant would be which of the following?

Question 40 options:

	A)	Zygomyces
	B)	Yeast
	C)	Mycorrhizae
	D)	Lichen

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Question 41 (2 points)

 

41

A saprophytic fungus gets its nutrition by:

Question 41 options:

	A)	dead matter
	B)	eating living tissue
	C)	parasitism
	D)	symbiotically

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Question 42 (2 points)

 

42

Fungi belong to the kingdom:

Question 42 options:

	A)	Plantae
	B)	Animalia
	C)	Monera
	D)	Fungi

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Question 43 (2 points)

 

43

The name of the reproductive structure of a fungal organism is:

Question 43 options:

	A)	haustoria
	B)	mycelium
	C)	mushroom
	D)	hyphae

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Question 44 (2 points)

 

44

An example of a disease caused by a protozoan would be:

Question 44 options:

	A)	tuberculosis
	B)	food poisoning
	C)	malaria
	D)	lyme disease

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Question 45 (2 points)

 

45

The number of species on the earth ranges from:

Question 45 options:

	A)	2-50 billion
	B)	20-300 million
	C)	2-50 million
	D)	1-2 billion

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Question 46 (2 points)

 

46

Which fungal structure is used for extracting nutrients from a host organism?

Question 46 options:

	A)	Haustorium
	B)	Hyphae
	C)	Mycelium
	D)	Isogamete

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Question 47 (2 points)

 

47

Which of the answers is an example of a disease vector?

Question 47 options:

	A)	Lichen
	B)	Mosquito
	C)	Plasmodium
	D)	biphenyl

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Question 48 (2 points)

 

48

An example of a disease caused by bacteria:

Question 48 options:

	A)	Lyme's disease
	B)	Creuzfeld Jacob disease
	C)	Malaria
	D)	corn smut

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Question 49 (2 points)

 

49

The digestive enzymes of fungal organisms are placed:

Question 49 options:

	A)	internally
	B)	intracellular
	C)	endocellular
	D)	outside the cell or extracellular

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Question 50 (2 points)

 

50

Basidiomycetes are known as:

Question 50 options:

	A)	bread mold
	B)	cup fungi
	C)	club fungi
	D)	yeast

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Question 51 (2 points)

 

51

Ascomycetes are known as:

Question 51 options:

	A)	cup fungi
	B)	bread mold
	C)	club fungi
	D)	yeast

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Question 52 (2 points)

 

52

Zygomycetes are known as:

Question 52 options:

	A)	cup fungi
	B)	bread mold
	C)	club fungi
	D)	yeast

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Question 53 (2 points)

 

53

Fungal organisms have the most in common with what other kingdom of living organisms?

Question 53 options:

	A)	Protista
	B)	Animalia
	C)	Plantae
	D)	Bacteria

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Question 54 (2 points)

 

54

A lichen is a symbiotic relationship between what two types of organisms?

Question 54 options:

	A)	algae and a fungus
	B)	protistan and a fungus
	C)	Plant and a fungus
	D)	a lichen is just symbiotic

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Question 55 (2 points)

 

55

What are some features that all animals have in common?

Question 55 options:

	A)	photosynthesis
	B)	multicellular
	C)	asexual and sexual reproduction
	D)	single-celled and multicellular forms

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Question 56 (2 points)

 

56

Which is the smallest unit of life that can exist as a separate entity?

Question 56 options:

	A)	Cell
	B)	Molecule
	C)	Organ
	D)	A population
	E)	An Ecosystem

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Question 57 (2 points)

 

57

Water is an example of a(n)

Question 57 options:

	A)	Atom
	B)	Ion
	C)	Molecule
	D)	Mixture
	E)	Element

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Question 58 (2 points)

 

58

The element carbon with a molecular weight of 12 has:

Question 58 options:

	A)	6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
	B)	4 protons, 6 neutrons and 2 electrons
	C)	12 protons 12 neutrons and 12 electrons
	D)	6 protons, 6 neutrons and 12 electrons

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Question 59 (2 points)

 

59

These are the "powerhouse" of the cell.

Question 59 options:

	A)	Golgi bodies
	B)	Ribosomes
	C)	Mitochondria
	D)	Central Vacuole
	E)	Endoplasmic Reticulum

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Question 60 (2 points)

 

60

What cell organelle is found in plant cells but NOT in animal cells?

Question 60 options:

	A)	Mitochondria
	B)	Chloroplast
	C)	Cell Membrane
	D)	Golgi Bodies

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Question 61 (2 points)

 

61

These are sometimes referred to as rough or smooth, depending on the structure.

Question 61 options:

	A)	Golgi bodies
	B)	Ribosomes
	C)	Mitochondria
	D)	Lysosomes
	E)	Endoplasmic Reticula

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Question 62 (2 points)

 

62

What reproductive feature is common to all mammals?

Question 62 options:

	A)	placenta
	B)	mammary glands
	C)	embryonic birth
	D)	live birth
	E)	DNA

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Question 63 (2 points)

 

63

The molecules used to provide the cell energy to do cellular “work” are:

Question 63 options:

	A)	Pigment Molecules
	B)	Unidentifiable Molecules
	C)	ATP Molecules
	D)	Carbohydrate Molecules
	E)	Lipid Molecules

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Question 64 (2 points)

 

64

Enzymes are what type of molecule?

Question 64 options:

	A)	lipids
	B)	carbohydrates
	C)	nucleic acids
	D)	proteins

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Question 65 (2 points)

 

65

Hormones communicate to the cell and are:

Question 65 options:

	A)	carbohydrates
	B)	nucleic acids
	C)	lipids
	D)	proteins
	E)	Both lipids and protein

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Question 66 (2 points)

 

66

Which of the following would be considered an inferential statistic?

Question 66 options:

	A)	Mean
	B)	Range
	C)	T-test
	D)	Standard deviation
	E)	All of these are inferential statistics

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Question 67 (2 points)

 

67

The type of lipid that most of the cell membrane is made of is: 

Question 67 options:

	A)	triglycerides
	B)	neutral fats
	C)	phospholipids
	D)	cholesterol

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Question 68 (2 points)

 

68

What kind of bond exists between two amino acids in a protein? 

Question 68 options:

	A)	hydrogen bond
	B)	peptide bond
	C)	ionic bond
	D)	adhesive bond

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Question 69 (2 points)

 

69

Carbon is capable of forming a bond with:

Question 69 options:

	A)	oxygen and hydrogen making hydrogen bonds
	B)	four other atoms
	C)	other carbons to make inorganic molecules
	D)	nitrogen to make carboxylic acids
	E)	hydrogen making double bonds

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Question 70 (2 points)

 

70

When using the scientific method which is the first step in the process?

Question 70 options:

	A)	Testing
	B)	Hypothesis
	C)	Inference
	D)	Observation of the phenomenon
	E)	Conclusion

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Question 71 (2 points)

 

71

An ionic bond forms when two:

Question 71 options:

	A)	neutral atoms form a bond
	B)	water molecules form a bond
	C)	like charged molecules form a bond
	D)	oxygen atoms form a bond
	E)	oppositely charged atoms form a bond

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Question 72 (2 points)

 

72

Enzymes can be denatured by all of the choices except:

Question 72 options:

	A)	extreme pH solutions
	B)	extreme saline solutions
	C)	extreme temperature
	D)	room temperatures

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Question 73 (2 points)

 

73

In simple diffusion molecules move:

Question 73 options:

	A)	from a lower concnentration to a higher concnentration
	B)	with the use of ATP
	C)	from a higher concnentration to a lower concentration
	D)	without direction regarding concentration

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Question 74 (2 points)

 

74

Active transport is different from passive transport because:

Question 74 options:

	A)	Active requires energy
	B)	Passive requires energy
	C)	Active is the same as facilitated diffusion
	D)	A concentration gradient is used

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Question 75 (2 points)

 

75

A monomer used to put DNA together would be:

Question 75 options:

	A)	glucose molecules
	B)	fatty acids
	C)	amino acids
	D)	nucleotides

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Question 76 (2 points)

 

76

Alleles are:

Question 76 options:

	A)	Different forms of the same gene
	B)	Two different genes on the same chromosome that interact
	C)	Chromosome pairs
	D)	Different forms of phenotypes
	E)	Two different loci on the same chromosome

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Question 77 (2 points)

 

77

A human genome has 46 chromosomes/autosomes and the sperm cell has:

Question 77 options:

	A)	44
	B)	46
	C)	23
	D)	38

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Question 78 (2 points)

 

78

How many different gametes will the parent AABBDd make?

Question 78 options:

	A)	eight
	B)	two
	C)	four
	D)	six

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Question 79 (2 points)

 

79

What term best describes you if you have two chromosomes with different alleles?

Question 79 options:

	A)	heterozygous dominant
	B)	homozygous recessive
	C)	homozygous dominant
	D)	heterozygous

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Question 80 (2 points)

 

80

What genotypes are produced in the punnett square example?

Question 80 options:

	A)	1 dominant, 2 heterozygous and 1 recessive
	B)	1 heterozygote, 2 homozygous recessive and 1 homozygous dominant
	C)	3 dominant and 1 recessive
	D)	3 recessive and 1 dominant

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Question 81 (2 points)

 

81

The punnett square has nine individuals with what phenotypes?

Question 81 options:

	A)	nine with the same genotype
	B)	nine with both dominant characterisitics
	C)	nine individuals with one recessive and one dominant phenotype
	D)	nine with both recessive characteristics.

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Question 82 (2 points)

 

82

Which individual would have the largest number of autosomes?

Question 82 options:

	A)	A person with Klinefelter syndrome
	B)	A person with Turner syndrome
	C)	A healthy woman
	D)	A healthy man
	E)	A person with Down syndrome

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Question 83 (2 points)

 

83

Which individual would have the largest number of sex chromosomes?

Question 83 options:

	A)	A person with Klinefelter syndrome
	B)	A person with Turner syndrome
	C)	A healthy woman
	D)	A healthy man
	E)	A person with Down syndrome

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Question 84 (2 points)

 

84

 If Albinism was a dominant X-sex-linked trait fathers having the trait would pass it to all of their:

Question 84 options:

	A)	Offspring regardless of gender
	B)	Male offspring
	C)	Albino offspring
	D)	Female offspring

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Question 85 (2 points)

 

85

An example of incomplete dominance would be:

Question 85 options:

	A)	Eye color
	B)	AB blood type
	C)	Red and white flowers producing pink offspring
	D)	all of the answers are correct

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Question 86 (2 points)

 

86

An example of codominance would be:

Question 86 options:

	A)	Eye color
	B)	AB blood type
	C)	Red and white flowers producing pink offspring
	D)	all of the answers are correct

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Question 87 (2 points)

 

87

 If a woman with blood type B had a child with blood type O you would expect the genotype of:

Question 87 options:

	A)	the father would only have blood type allele O
	B)	the mother would have the alleles B and O
	C)	the father would have the alleles A and B
	D)	The mother would have the alleles A and A

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Question 88 (2 points)

 

88

A person with blood type AB had a father that had blood type B.  What are the possible genotypes of that person’s mother?

Question 88 options:

	A)	Every blood type.
	B)	The blood types A, B or AB.
	C)	Genotypes AO, AA and AB.
	D)	Genotypes BO, BB and AB.

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Question 89 (2 points)

 

89

A population is represented by the equation p2+ 2pq + q2 and you need to know how many heterozygotes are in the population, which part of the equations represents them?

Question 89 options:

	A)	p2
	B)	2pq
	C)	q2
	D)	none of the answers

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Question 90 (2 points)

 

90

If the equation .25 + .5 + .25 were the numbers in the Hardy-Weinberg equation what is the frequency of heterozygotes?

Question 90 options:

	A)	100,000
	B)	25
	C)	25%
	D)	50%

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Question 91 (2 points)

 

91

The trait of interest displayed in the pedigree above is more than likely:

Question 91 options:

	A)	sex-linked dominant
	B)	sex-linked recessive
	C)	autosomal dominant
	D)	autosomal recessive

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Question 92 (2 points)

 

92

There are many genetically inherited diseases or conditions.  When the allele, causing the condition, is recessive the parents can be carriers of the allele but they are unaffected by the disease themselves.  The dominant allele protects them.  However, there are conditions caused by dominant alleles.  For example, the condition Achondroplasia, which causes dwarfism in humans, is the result of a dominant allele.  Therefore only one allele is required to have Achondroplasia. Achondroplasia is lethal for those that are homozygous dominant and no adult exists with that genotype.  Migraine headaches are another example of a dominant allele causing a deleterious condition.  In cases like this at least one parent is affected by the condition if it is passed to the offspring.  We will use A  and a to represent the dominant and recessive alleles for Achondroplasia.  In addition, M and m will be used for the dominant and recessive alleles for migraine headaches.  Consider the following problem.   A woman with Achondroplasia who has never had a migraine headache marries a man that has migraine headaches but does not have Achondroplasia.  The man’s father did not have migraine headaches.  The woman’s mother did not have Achondroplasia.  Based upon the following information what is the genotype of the woman?

Question 92 options:

	A)	You cannot determine this from the information given.
	B)	The AAMm would be her genotype.
	C)	The Aamm would have to be her genotype.
	D)	The aaMM would have to be her genotype.

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Question 93 (2 points)

 

93

There are many genetically inherited diseases or conditions.  When the allele, causing the condition, is recessive the parents can be carriers of the allele but they are unaffected by the disease themselves.  The dominant allele protects them.  However, there are conditions caused by dominant alleles.  For example, the condition Achondroplasia, which causes dwarfism in humans, is the result of a dominant allele.  Therefore only one allele is required to have Achondroplasia. Achondroplasia is lethal for those that are homozygous dominant and no adult exists with that genotype.  Migraine headaches are another example of a dominant allele causing a deleterious condition.  In cases like this at least one parent is affected by the condition if it is passed to the offspring.  We will use A  and a to represent the dominant and recessive alleles for Achondroplasia.  In addition, M and m will be used for the dominant and recessive alleles for migraine headaches.  Consider the following problem.   A woman with Achondroplasia who has never had a migraine headache marries a man that has migraine headaches but does not have Achondroplasia.  The man’s father did not have migraine headaches.  The woman’s mother did not have Achondroplasia.  Based on the information above what is the genotype of the man?

Question 93 options:

	A)	You could not determine this from the information given.
	B)	The aaMm would have to be his genotype.
	C)	The AaMm would have to be his genotype.
	D)	The aaMM would have to be his genotype.

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Question 94 (2 points)

 

94

Which stage of mitosis has DNA starting to condense into chromosomes?

Question 94 options:

	A)	Prophase
	B)	Metaphase
	C)	Anaphase
	D)	Telophase

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Question 95 (2 points)

 

95

In which stage of mitosis do separate sets of chromosomes exist and begin migrating away from each other?

Question 95 options:

	A)	Prophase
	B)	Metaphase
	C)	Anaphase
	D)	Telophase

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Question 96 (2 points)

 

96

After telophase is complete _____ will happen resulting in two daughter cells.

Question 96 options:

	A)	Anaphase
	B)	crossing over
	C)	cytokinesis
	D)	telokinesis

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Question 97 (2 points)

 

97

Someone with Klinefelter's syndrome would have what different about their karyotype?

Question 97 options:

	A)	They would not be able to express a karyotype because they are sterile.
	B)	They would express a trisomy on chromosome 23.
	C)	They would have three chromosomes for each loci rather than two.
	D)	They would have a karyotype with a missing X sex chromosome.

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Question 98 (2 points)

 

98

Andalusian chickens are an example of incomplete dominance. If you wanted to raise Andalusian Blue chickens, the way to produce the most would be:

Question 98 options:

	A)	to cross two Andalusian Blue chickens
	B)	to cross a homozygous black with a homozygous white
	C)	to cross two heterozygotes
	D)	to cross a white with a blue chicken

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Question 99 (2 points)

 

99

What syndrome is this karyotype displaying?

Question 99 options:

	A)	Turner's Syndrome
	B)	Klinefelter's Syndrome
	C)	Down Syndrome
	D)	Brown's Syndrome

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Question 100 (2 points)

 

100

What syndrome is the karyotype displaying?

Question 100 options:

	A)	Turner's Syndrome
	B)	Klinefelter's Syndrome
	C)	Down Syndrome
	D)	Brown's Syndrome

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