midterm exam

Question 1 (1 point)

 

What factor is medical necessity based on?

Question 1 options:

	A)  The beneficial effects of a service for the patient’s physical needs and quality of life
	B)  The cost of a service compared with the beneficial effects on the patient’s health
	C)  The availability of a service at the facility
	D)  The reimbursement available for a given service

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Question 2 (1 point)

 

The first prospective payment system (PPS) for inpatient care was developed in 1983. The newest PPS is used to manage the costs for

Question 2 options:

	A)  medical homes.
	B)  assisted living facilities.
	C)  home health care
	D)  inpatient psychiatric facilities

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Question 3 (1 point)

 

The category “Commercial payers” includes private health information and

Question 3 options:

	A)  employer-based group health insurers.
	B)  Medicare/Medicaid.
	C)  TriCare
	D)  Blue Cross and Blue Shield

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Question 4 (1 point)

 

LCDs and NCDs are review policies that describe the circumstances of coverage for various types of medical treatment. They advise physicians which services Medicare considers reasonable and necessary and may indicate the need for an advance beneficiary notice. They are developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Medicare Administrative Contractors. LCD and NCD are acronyms that stand for

Question 4 options:

	A)  local contractor's decisions and national contractor's decisions.
	B)  list of covered decisions and noncovered decisions.
	C)  local covered determinations and noncovered determinations.
	D)  local coverage determinations and national coverage determinations.

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Question 5 (1 point)

 

A Medicare patient was seen by Dr. Zachary, who is a nonparticipating physician. The charge for the office visit was $125. The Medicare beneficiary had already met his deductible. The Medicare Fee Schedule amount is $100. Dr. Zachary does not accept assignment. The office manager will apply a practice termed as "balance billing," which means that the patient is

Question 5 options:

	A)  financially liable for charges in excess of the Medicare Fee Schedule, up to a limit.
	B)  financially liable for the Medicare Fee Schedule amount.
	C)  financially liable for only the deductible.
	D)  not financially liable for any amount.

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Question 6 (1 point)

 

CMS adjusts the Medicare Severity DRGs and the reimbursement rates every

Question 6 options:

	A)  quarter
	B)  calendar year beginning January 1
	C)  month
	D)  fiscal year beginning October 1

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Question 7 (1 point)

 

The prospective payment system used to reimburse hospitals for Medicare hospital outpatients is called

Question 7 options:

	A)  MS-DRGs
	B)  APGs
	C)  RBRVS
	D)  APCs.

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Question 8 (1 point)

 

An Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) is a document signed by the

Question 8 options:

	A)  physician advisor indicating that the patient's stay is denied. .
	B)  provider indicating that Medicare will not pay for certain services.
	C)  patient indicating whether he/she wants to receive services that Medicare probably will not pay for.
	D)  utilization review coordinator indicating that the patient stay is not medically necessary

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Question 9 (1 point)

 

In a global payment methodology, which is sometimes applied to radiological and similar types of procedures that involve professional and technical components, all of the following are part of the "technical" components EXCEPT

Question 9 options:

	A)  radiological supplies.
	B)  physician services.
	C)  radiologic technicians.
	D)  radiological equipment.

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Question 10 (1 point)

 

The standard claim form used by hospitals to request reimbursement for inpatient and outpatient procedures performed or services provided is called the

Question 10 options:

	A)  UB-04
	B)  CMS-1491
	C)  CMS-1500
	D)  CMS-1600

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Question 11 (1 point)

 

A Medicare Summary Notice (MSN) is sent to ________ as their EOB.

Question 11 options:

	A)  patients (beneficiaries)
	B)  skilled nursing facilities
	C)  physicians
	D)  hospitals

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Question 12 (1 point)

 

When a provider, knowingly or unknowingly, uses practices that are inconsistent with accepted medical practice and that directly or indirectly result in unnecessary costs to the Medicare program, this is called

Question 12 options:

	A)  abuse
	B)  fraud
	C)  economic shift
	D)  unbundling

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Question 13 (1 point)

 

In calculating the fee for a physician's reimbursement, the three relative value units are each multiplied by the

Question 13 options:

	A)  cost of living index for the particular region.
	B)  national conversion factor.
	C)  usual and customary fees for the service.
	D)  geographic practice cost indices.

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Question 14 (1 point)

 

Which of the following helps the organization prioritize investment opportunities?

Question 14 options:

	A)  profitability index
	B)  return on investment
	C)  internal rate of return
	D)  net present value

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Question 15 (1 point)

 

Your organization's employees consist of a mixture of women and men. The women are of all ages, some are single mothers, others are married women with no children, and still others are women who care for older parents at home. The men also have varying personal lifestyles. Human Resources have designed a new benefit program that allows employees to choose from an array of benefits based on their own needs or lifestyle. The new benefit program is called a(n)

Question 15 options:

	A)  flexible benefit plan.
	B)  employee-driven benefit plan.
	C)  prepaid benefit plan.
	D)  cafeteria benefit plan.

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Question 16 (1 point)

 

Under APCs, the payment status indicator "N" means that the payment

Question 16 options:

	A)  is packaged into the payment for other services.
	B)  is for ancillary services.
	C)  is discounted at 50%.
	D)  is for a clinic or an emergency visit.

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Question 17 (1 point)

 

Assume the patient has already met his or her deductible and that the physician is a Medicare participating (PAR) provider. The physician's standard fee for the services provided is $120.00. Medicare's PAR fee is $60.00. How much reimbursement will the physician receive from Medicare?

Question 17 options:

	A)  $60.00
	B)  $48.00
	C)  $96.00
	D)  $120.00

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Question 18 (1 point)

 

This information is published by the Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) to describe when and under what circumstances Medicare will cover a service. The ICD-10-CM, ICD-10-PCS, and CPT/HCPCS codes are listed in the memoranda.

Question 18 options:

	A)  SI/IS (Severity of llness/Intensity of Service Criteria)
	B)  PEPP (Payment Error Prevention Program)
	C)  OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
	D)  LCD (Local Coverage Determinations)

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Question 19 (1 point)

 

____ are errors in medical care that are clearly identifiable, preventable, and serious in their consequences for patients.

Question 19 options:

	A)  Misadventures
	B)  Never events or Sentinel events
	C)  Potential compensable events
	D)  Adverse preventable events

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Question 20 (1 point)

 

The term used to indicate that the service or procedure is reasonable and necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of illness or injury consistent with generally accepted standards of care is

Question 20 options:

	A)  appropriateness
	B)  evidence-based medicine
	C)  medical neccessity
	D)  benchmarking

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Question 21 (1 point)

 

This is the amount the facility actually bills for the services it provides.

Question 21 options:

	A)  costs
	B)  reimbursement
	C)  charges
	D)  contractual allowance

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Question 22 (1 point)

 

When the third-party payer refuses to grant payment to the provider, this is called a

Question 22 options:

	A)  clean claim
	B)  denied claim
	C)  unprocessed claim
	D)  rejected claim

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Question 23 (1 point)

 

Under the APC methodology, discounted payments occur when

Question 23 options:

	A)  there are two or more (multiple) procedures that are assigned to status indicator "S."
	B)  there are two or more (multiple) procedures that are assigned to status indicator "T."
	C)  modifier-78 is used to indicate a procedure is terminated after the patient is prepared but before anesthesia is started.
	D)  pass-through drugs are assigned to status indicator "K."

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Question 24 (1 point)

 

Use the following table to answer the question.  

			HCPCS	Code
Charge Service Code	Item Service Description	General Ledger Key	Medicare	Medicaid	Charges	Revenue Code	Activity Date
49683105	CT scan; head; w/out contrast	3	70450	70450	500.00	0351	1/1/2013
49683106	CT scan; head; with contrast	3	70460	70460	675.00	0351	1/1/2013

 

Under ASC-PPS, the patient is responsible for paying the coinsurance amount based upon ____ of the national median charge for the services rendered.

 

Question 24 options:

	A)  15%
	B)  20%
	C)  80%
	D)  50%

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Question 25 (1 point)

 

A lump-sum payment distributed among the physicians who performed the procedure or interpreted its results and the health care facility that provided equipment, supplies, and technical support is known as

Question 25 options:

	A)  an economic stimulus
	B)  a global payment
	C)  a fee-for-service
	D)  capitation

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Question 26 (1 point)

 

Use the following case scenario to answer the question. 

A patient with Medicare is seen in the physician's office.

The total charge for this office visit is $250.00.

The patient has previously paid his deductible under Medicare Part B.

The PAR Medicare fee schedule amount for this service is $200.00.

The nonPAR Medicare fee schedule amount for this service is $190.00.

If this physician is a nonparticipating physician who does NOT accept assignment for this claim, the total amount the physician will receive is

Question 26 options:

	A)  $218.50
	B)  $200.00
	C)  $190.00
	D)  $250.00

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Question 27 (1 point)

 

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) will make an adjustment to the MS-DRG payment for certain conditions that the patient was not admitted with, but were acquired during the hospital stay. Therefore, hospitals are required to report an indicator for each diagnosis. This indicator is referred to as

Question 27 options:

	A)  present on admission.
	B)  a hospital acquired condition.
	C)  a payment status indicator.
	D)  risk assessment.

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Question 28 (1 point)

 

What prospective payment system reimburses the provider according to prospectively determined rates for a 60-day episode of care?

Question 28 options:

	A)  long-term care Medicare severity diagnosis-related groups
	B)  home health resource groups
	C)  inpatient rehabilitation facility
	D)  the skilled nursing facility prospective payment system

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Question 29 (1 point)

 

The following type of hospital is considered excluded when it applies for and receives a waiver from CMS. This means that the hospital does not participate in the inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS)

Question 29 options:

	A)  long-term care hospital
	B)  rehabilitation hospital
	C)  cancer hospital
	D)  psychiatric hospital

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Question 30 (1 point)

 

Based on CMS’s DRG system, other systems have been developed for payment purposes. The one that classifies the non-Medicare population, such as HIV patients, neonates, and pediatric patients, is known as

Question 30 options:

	A)  APR-DRGs.
	B)  RDRGs.
	C)  AP-DRGs.
	D)  IR-DRGs.

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Question 31 (1 point)

 

This initiative was instituted by the government to eliminate fraud and abuse and recover overpayments, and involves the use of ______________. Charts are audited to identify Medicare overpayments and underpayments. These entities are paid based on a percentage of money they identify and collect on behalf of the government.

Question 31 options:

	A)  Medicare Code Editors (MCE)
	B)  Clinical Data Abstraction Centers (CDAC)
	C)  Quality Improvement Organizations (QIO)
	D)  Recovery Audit Contractors (RAC)

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Question 32 (1 point)

 

The Hospital Value-Based Purchasing (Hospital VBP) Program adjusts a hospital's payments based on their performance in all of these domains except

Question 32 options:

	A)  tthe Outcomes Domain
	B)  the Patient Experience of Care Domain
	C)  the Clinical Process of Care Domain
	D)  the Patient Safety Domain

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Question 33 (1 point)

 

These are financial protections to ensure that certain types of facilities (e.g., children's hospitals) recoup all of their losses due to the differences in their APC payments and the pre-APC payments.

Question 33 options:

	A)  limiting change
	B)  pass through
	C)  indemnity insurance
	D)  hold harmless

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Question 34 (1 point)

 

Under the inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS), there is a 3-day payment window (formerly referred to as the 72-hour rule). This rule requires that outpatient preadmission services that are provided by a hospital up to three calendar days prior to a patient's inpatient admission be covered by the IPPS MS-DRG payment for

Question 34 options:

	A)  diganostic services and therapeutic (or nondiagnostic) services whereby the inpatient principal diagnosis code (ICD-10-CM) exactly matches the code used for preadmission services.
	B)  diagnostic services.
	C)  therapeutic (or nondiagnostic) services whereby the inpatient principal diagnosis code (ICD-10-CM) does not match the code used for preadmission services.
	D)  therapeutic (or nondiagnostic) services whereby the inpatient principal diagnosis code (ICD-10-CM) exactly matches the code used for preadmission services.

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Question 35 (1 point)

 

Under APCs, payment status indicator "T" means

Question 35 options:

	A)  significant procedure, multiple procedure reduction applies.
	B)  significant procedure, not discounted when multiple.
	C)  clinic or emergency department visit (medical visits).
	D)  ancillary services.

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Question 36 (1 point)

 

_______________________ offers voluntary, supplemental medical insurance to help pay for physician's services, outpatient hospital services, medical services, and medical-surgical supplies not covered by the hospitalization plan.

Question 36 options:

	A)  Medicare A
	B)  Medicare B
	C)  Medicare C
	D)  Medicare D

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Question 37 (1 point)

 

The process by which health care facilities and providers ensure their financial viability by increasing revenue, improving cash flow and enhancing the patient’s experience is called

Question 37 options:

	A)  patient orientation.
	B)  revenue cycle management.
	C)  accounts receivable.
	D)  accounting.

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Question 38 (1 point)

 

To monitor timely claims processing in a hospital, a summary report of "patient receivables" is generated frequently. Aged receivables can negatively affect a facility's cash flow; therefore, to maintain the facility's fiscal integrity, the HIM manager must routinely analyze this report. Though this report has no standard title, it is often called the

Question 38 options:

	A)  DNFB (discharged, no final bill).
	B)  chargemaster.
	C)  remittance advice.
	D)  periodic interim payments.

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Question 39 (1 point)

 

A three-digit code that describes a classification of a product or service provided to a patient is a

Question 39 options:

	A)  Revenue code.
	B)  CPT code.
	C)  ICD-10-CM code.
	D)  HCPCS Level II code.

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Question 40 (1 point)

 

This is the difference between what is charged and what is paid.

Question 40 options:

	A)  costs
	B)  customary
	C)  reimbursement
	D)  contractual allowance

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Question 41 (1 point)

 

Under APCs, payment status indicator "C" means

Question 41 options:

	A)  significant procedure, not discounted when multiple.
	B)  inpatient procedures/services.
	C)  ancillary services.
	D)  significant procedure, multiple procedure reduction applies.

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Question 42 (1 point)

 

The prospective payment system based on resource utilization groups (RUGs) is used for reimbursement to ____________________ for patients with Medicare.

Question 42 options:

	A)  intermediate care facilities
	B)  freestanding ambulatory surgery centers
	C)  hospital-based outpatients
	D)  skilled nursing facilities

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Question 43 (1 point)

 

Most of the children who are seen at MMBC will have a well child visit and two immunizations. If you add the reimbursement for two immunizations to the reimbursement for each well child visit, which insurance company benefits MMBC most?

Question 43 options:

	A)  SureHealth
	B)  Getwell
	C)  Lifecare
	D)  BeHealthy

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Question 44 (1 point)

 

The _______________ is a statement sent to the provider to explain payments made by third-party payers.

Question 44 options:

	A)  remittance advice
	B)  advance beneficiary notice
	C)  attestation statement
	D)  acknowledgment notice

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Question 45 (1 point)

 

APCs are groups of services that the OPPS will reimburse. Which one of the following services is not included in APCs?

Question 45 options:

	A)  screening exams
	B)  preventative services
	C)  organ transplantation
	D)  radiation therapy

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Question 46 (1 point)

 

The ________________________ refers to a statement sent to the patient to show how much the provider billed, how much Medicare reimbursed the provider, and what the patient must pay the provider.

Question 46 options:

	A)  Medicare summary notice
	B)  remittance advice
	C)  coordination of benefits
	D)  advance beneficiary notice

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Question 47 (1 point)

 

When health care providers are found guilty under any of the civil false claims statutes, the Office of Inspector General is responsible for negotiating these settlements and the provider is placed under a

Question 47 options:

	A)  Recovery Audit Contract.
	B)  Noncompliance Agreement.
	C)  Fraud Prevention Memorandum of Understanding.
	D)  Corporate Integrity Agreement.

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Question 48 (1 point)

 

As part of a team responsible for revenue analysis at your facility, you recommend a yearly review of which of the following?

Question 48 options:

	A)  CAHO requirements
	B)  the CMS Scope of Work
	C)  Blue Cross-Blue Shield beneficiary notices
	D)  OIG workplan

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Question 49 (1 point)

 

Commercial insurance plans usually reimburse health care providers under some type of __________ payment system, whereas the federal Medicare program uses some type of _________ payment system.

Question 49 options:

	A)  prospective, concurrent
	B)  retrospective, concurrent
	C)  prospective, retrospective
	D)  retrospective, prospective

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Question 50 (1 point)

 

The prospective payment system used to reimburse home health agencies for patients with Medicare utilizes data from the:

Question 50 options:

	A)  UACDS (Uniform Ambulatory Core Data Set).
	B)  MDS (Minimum Data Set).
	C)  UHDDS (Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set).
	D)  OASIS (Outcome and Assessment Information Set).

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