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Chapter 13

Performance Evaluation and Risk Management

 

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following assesses the ability of a money manager to balance high returns with an acceptable level of risk?   

A. 

probability analysis

B. 

raw return ratio

C. 

risk assessment

D. 

performance evaluation

E. 

market analysis

 

2.

The unadjusted total percentage return on a security that has not been compared to any benchmark is referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

raw return

B. 

indexed return

C. 

real return

D. 

marginal return

E. 

absolute return

 

3.

The risk premium of a portfolio divided by the portfolio's standard deviation defines which one of the following performance measures?   

A. 

raw return

B. 

Value at Risk

C. 

Jensen's alpha

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

 

4.

Which one of the following is computed by dividing a portfolio's risk premium by the portfolio beta?   

A. 

raw return

B. 

Value at Risk

C. 

Jensen's alpha

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

 

5.

Which one of the following measures a portfolio's raw return against the expected return based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model?   

A. 

Sharpe ratio

B. 

Treynor ratio

C. 

Jensen's alpha

D. 

beta

E. 

Value at Risk

 

6.

Which one of the following concerns a money manager's control over investment risks, particularly potential short-run losses?   

A. 

Alpha management

B. 

Normal distribution management

C. 

Investment risk management

D. 

Raw return distributions

E. 

Volatility performance measures

 

7.

Which one of the following assesses risk by stating the probability of a loss a portfolio might incur within a stated time period given a specific probability?   

A. 

Sharpe ratio

B. 

Jensen's alpha

C. 

Treynor ratio

D. 

raw return measurement

E. 

Value-at-Risk

 

8.

Which one of the following is a statistical model, defined by its mean and standard deviation, that is used to assess probabilities?   

A. 

variance

B. 

normal distribution

C. 

efficient frontier

D. 

Value at Risk

E. 

Jensen's alpha

 

9.

Which one of the following measures a security's return in relation to the total risk associated with that security?   

A. 

beta

B. 

Jensen's alpha

C. 

Sharpe ratio

D. 

Treynor ratio

E. 

Value at Risk

 

10.

The Sharpe ratio measures a security's return relative to which one of the following?   

A. 

total risk

B. 

diversifiable risk

C. 

market rate of return

D. 

risk-free rate

E. 

systematic risk

 

11.

The Sharpe ratio is best used to evaluate which one of the following?   

A. 

corporate bonds

B. 

government bonds

C. 

Treasury bills

D. 

individual stocks

E. 

diversified portfolios

 

12.

Which one of the following measures returns in relation to total risk?   

A. 

Treynor ratio

B. 

Sharpe ratio

C. 

Jensen's alpha

D. 

Value at Risk

E. 

beta

 

13.

Which one of the following values would be the most preferable as a Sharpe ratio?   

A. 

-1.11

B. 

-0.89

C. 

0.00

D. 

.10

E. 

1.02

 

14.

Which one of the following measures risk premium in relation to systematic risk?   

A. 

Value at Risk

B. 

Jensen's alpha

C. 

beta

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

 

15.

You are comparing three securities and discover they all have identical Treynor ratios. Given this information, which one of the following must be true regarding these three securities?   

A. 

They have identical betas.

B. 

They have the same rates of return.

C. 

They earn identical rewards per unit of total risk.

D. 

They earn identical rewards per unit of systematic risk.

E. 

They have identical Sharpe ratios also.

 

16.

You are comparing three assets which have differing Treynor ratios. Given this, which one of the following must be true?   

A. 

The assets may all be correctly priced if they have differing betas.

B. 

The assets have differing rates of return.

C. 

The assets have differing levels of market risk but equal amounts of total risk.

D. 

The assets are all mispriced according to CAPM.

E. 

The preferred investment is the asset with the highest Treynor ratio.

 

17.

You are considering the purchase of a mutual fund. You have found three funds that meet your basic criteria. Each fund has a different alpha. Which alpha indicates the preferred investment?   

A. 

the most negative alpha

B. 

the least negative alpha

C. 

the zero alpha

D. 

the lowest positive alpha

E. 

the highest positive alpha

 

18.

Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to a security that has a negative Jensen's alpha?   

A. 

The security is overpriced and will plot below the security market line.

B. 

The security is overpriced and will plot above the security market line.

C. 

The security is underpriced and will plot below the security market line.

D. 

The security is underpriced and will plot above the security market line.

E. 

The security is incorrectly priced but you cannot tell if it is underpriced or overpriced based on the information provided.

 

19.

Which one of the following is the best indication that a security is correctly priced according to the Capital Asset Pricing Model?   

A. 

beta of zero

B. 

beta of 1.0

C. 

alpha of zero

D. 

alpha of 1.0

E. 

alpha of -1.0

 

20.

Tony brags that his portfolio's rate of return is "beating the market". Which one of the following would best substantiate his claim?   

A. 

positive Sharpe ratio

B. 

negative Treynor ratio

C. 

positive Jensen's alpha

D. 

zero Value at Risk

E. 

beta greater than 1.0

 

21.

Which of the following should generally only be used to evaluate relatively diversified portfolios rather than individual securities? I. Sharpe ratio II. Treynor ratio III. Jensen's alpha   

A. 

I only

B. 

II only

C. 

III only

D. 

I and II only

E. 

I, II, and III

 

22.

Which of the following measures are dependent upon the accuracy of a security's beta? I. Sharpe ratio II. Treynor ratio III. Jensen's alpha   

A. 

I only

B. 

II only

C. 

I and II only

D. 

II and III only

E. 

I, II, and III

 

23.

Which one of the following is probably the best measure of the performance of a well-diversified portfolio?   

A. 

Jensen's alpha

B. 

Value at Risk

C. 

Jensen-Treynor alpha

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

 

24.

Which of the following measures should be used to determine if a security should be included in a master portfolio? I. Sharpe ratio II. Treynor ratio III. Jensen's alpha   

A. 

I only

B. 

II only

C. 

III only

D. 

I and II only

E. 

II and III only

 

25.

The Jensen-Treynor alpha is equal to:   

A. 

the Treynor ratio divided by Jensen's alpha.

B. 

the Treynor ratio multiplied by Jensen's alpha.

C. 

Jensen's alpha divided by beta.

D. 

Jensen's alpha divided by the standard deviation.

E. 

Jensen's alpha divided by the Treynor ratio.

 

26.

Which one of the following is measured by the Jensen-Treynor alpha?   

A. 

total return relative to systematic risk

B. 

risk premium relative to systematic

C. 

risk premium relative to total risk

D. 

excess return relative to systematic risk

E. 

excess return relative to total risk

 

27.

The Sharpe-optimal portfolio will be the investment opportunity set which lies on a straight line that has which of the following characteristics?   

A. 

the flattest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the risk-free rate

B. 

the steepest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the risk-free rate

C. 

the steepest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the origin

D. 

the flattest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the market rate

E. 

the steepest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the market rate

 

28.

A Sharpe-optimal portfolio provides which one of the following for a given set of securities?   

A. 

Jensen's Alpha

B. 

highest possible level of risk

C. 

highest level of return for a market-equivalent level of risk

D. 

highest excess return per unit of systematic risk

E. 

highest risk premium per unit of total risk

 

29.

You want to create the best portfolio that can be derived from two assets. Which one of the following will help you identify that portfolio?   

A. 

highest portfolio beta

B. 

market equivalent level of risk

C. 

highest possible rate of return

D. 

Treynor-minimal portfolio

E. 

Sharpe-optimal portfolio

 

30.

Which measure would you use to know whether alpha is truly significant or just the result of random chance?   

A. 

Jensen's alpha

B. 

Information ratio

C. 

Jensen-Treynor alpha

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

 

31.

Which metric measures how volatile a fund's returns are relative to its benchmark?   

A. 

Jensen's alpha

B. 

Information ratio

C. 

Tracking error

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

 

32.

Which metric describes the percentage of a fund's movement which can be explained by movements in the market?   

A. 

Jensen's alpha

B. 

Information ratio

C. 

Tracking error

D. 

R Squared

E. 

Treynor ratio

 

33.

Which one of the following is the primary purpose of the Value-at-Risk computation?   

A. 

determine the 99 percent probability range given an abnormal distribution

B. 

evaluate the risk-return tradeoff for a given mix of securities

C. 

evaluate the probability of a significant loss

D. 

determine the portfolio that maximizes the risk premium per unit of total risk

E. 

determine the portfolio that maximizes the excess return per unit of systematic risk

 

34.

Which one of the following is the best interpretation of this VaR statistic: Prob (Rp ≤ -.15) = 37%?   

A. 

If your portfolio declines by 15 percent or more, that decline is expected to be followed by a 37 percent increase in value.

B. 

Your portfolio is expected to lose at least 15 percent, but not more than 37 percent in any given year.

C. 

There is a 37 percent chance that your portfolio will decline in value by at least 15 percent over the next year.

D. 

Sometime in the future, your portfolio is expected to lose 15 percent or more in a single year, but have an overall average rate of return of 37 percent.

E. 

There is a 37 percent chance that your portfolio will lose at least 15 percent of its value over the next 10 years.

 

35.

The Value-at-Risk measure assumes which one of the following?   

A. 

returns are normally distributed

B. 

portfolios lie on the efficient frontier

C. 

all portfolios are fully diversified

D. 

returns tend to follow repetitive patterns

E. 

the risk premium is constant over time

 

36.

Which one of the following Value-at-Risk measures would be most appropriate for a portfolio designed for a very risk-adverse investor?   

A. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .20) = 100%

B. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .15) = 50%

C. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .10) = 25%

D. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .10) = 10%

E. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .05) = 1%

 

37.

Which one of the following statements is true concerning VaR?   

A. 

VaR ignores time.

B. 

VaR only applies to time periods of one year.

C. 

VaR applies only to time periods equal to or greater than one year.

D. 

VaR values can be computed for monthly time periods.

E. 

VaR is accurate only for time periods less than one year.

 

38.

Which of the following are related to VaR analysis? I. beta II. standard deviation III. expected return IV. time   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

39.

You have computed the expected return using VaR with a 2.5 percent probability for a one-year period of time. How would this expected return be expressed on a normal distribution curve?   

A. 

lower tail starting at the point that is 2.5 standard deviations below the mean

B. 

lower tail of a 95 percent probability range

C. 

the point that corresponds to 2.5 standard deviations below the mean

D. 

the point that represents the lower end of the 90 percent probability range

E. 

the negative range that lies within 2.5 standard deviations of the mean

 

40.

Which one of the following correctly states the VaR for a 3-year period with a 2.5 percent probability?   

A. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × 3 - 1.645 × σp √3]

B. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × √3 - 1.645 × σp 3]

C. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × √3 - 1.645 × σp √3]

D. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × 3 - 1.960 × σp √3]

E. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × √3 - 1.960 × σp 3]

 

41.

A portfolio has a 2.5 percent chance of losing 16 percent or more according to the VaR when T = 1. This can be interpreted to mean that the portfolio is expected to have an annual loss of 16 percent or more once in every how many years?   

A. 

1.0

B. 

2.5

C. 

25

D. 

40

E. 

100

 

42.

A portfolio has an average return of 12.4 percent, a standard deviation of 15.8 percent, and a beta of 1.35. The risk-free rate is 2.6 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio?   

A. 

.49

B. 

.52

C. 

.62

D. 

.71

E. 

.75

 

43.

A portfolio has a beta of 1.26, a standard deviation of 15.9 percent, and an average return of 15.07 percent. The market rate is 12.7 percent and the risk-free rate is 3.6 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio?   

A. 

.61

B. 

.68

C. 

.72

D. 

.84

E. 

.88

 

44.

The U.S. Treasury bill is yielding 2.25 percent and the market has an expected return of 9.8 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio of a portfolio that has a beta of 1.32 and a variance of .027556?   

A. 

.55

B. 

.60

C. 

.69

D. 

.74

E. 

.82

 

45.

A portfolio has a beta of 1.23 and a standard deviation of 11.6 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio if the market return is 12.4 percent and the market risk premium is 7.9 percent?   

A. 

.07

B. 

.11

C. 

.65

D. 

.84

E. 

.90

 

46.

A portfolio has a variance of .0165, a beta of 1.05, and an expected return of 12.65 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio if the expected risk-free rate is 3.4 percent?   

A. 

.66

B. 

.70

C. 

.72

D. 

.82

E. 

.86

 

47.

A portfolio has a Sharpe ratio of .80, a standard deviation of 17.4 percent, and an expected return of 15.9 percent. What is the risk-free rate?   

A. 

1.98 percent

B. 

2.36 percent

C. 

2.48 percent

D. 

3.09 percent

E. 

3.15 percent

 

48.

Your portfolio has an expected return of 14.2 percent, a beta of 1.31, and a standard deviation of 15.3 percent. The U.S. Treasury bill rate is 3.48 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio of your portfolio?   

A. 

.65

B. 

.67

C. 

.70

D. 

.77

E. 

.83

 

49.

A portfolio has a beta of 1.16, a standard deviation of 12.2 percent, and an expected return of 11.55 percent. The market return is 10.4 percent and the risk-free rate is 3.2 percent. What is the portfolio's Sharpe ratio?   

A. 

.57

B. 

.68

C. 

.73

D. 

.77

E. 

.85

 

50.

Your portfolio has a beta of 1.17, a standard deviation of 14.3 percent, and an expected return of 12.5 percent. The market return is 11.3 percent and the risk-free rate is 3.1 percent. What is the Treynor ratio?   

A. 

.015

B. 

.080

C. 

.109

D. 

.482

E. 

.510

 

51.

A portfolio has an expected return of 13.8 percent, a beta of 1.14, and a standard deviation of 12.7 percent. The U.S. Treasury bill rate is 3.2 percent. What is the Treynor ratio?   

A. 

.093

B. 

.138

C. 

.146

D. 

.835

E. 

.951

 

52.

A portfolio has a Treynor ratio of .070, a standard deviation of 16.40 percent, a beta of 1.16, and an expected return of 14.3 percent. What is the risk-free rate?   

A. 

1.32 percent

B. 

5.21 percent

C. 

5.39 percent

D. 

6.18 percent

E. 

6.41 percent

 

53.

A portfolio has a variance of .027556, a beta of 1.54, and an expected return of 11.2 percent. What is the Treynor ratio if the expected risk-free rate is 2.7 percent?   

A. 

.055

B. 

.063

C. 

.367

D. 

.498

E. 

.512

 

54.

The U.S. Treasury bill is yielding 3.0 percent and the market has an expected return of 11.6 percent. What is the Treynor ratio of a correctly-valued portfolio that has a beta of 1.02, and a standard deviation of 12.2 percent?   

A. 

.074

B. 

.086

C. 

.102

D. 

.619

E. 

.628

 

55.

A portfolio has an average return of 9.7 percent, a standard deviation of 8.6 percent, and a beta of .72. The risk-free rate is 2.1 percent. What is the Treynor ratio?   

A. 

.098

B. 

.106

C. 

.121

D. 

.636

E. 

.884

 

56.

A portfolio has a standard deviation of 14.1 percent, a beta of 1.30 and a Treynor ratio of .094. The risk-free rate is 3.2 percent. What is the portfolio's expected rate of return?   

A. 

14.83 percent

B. 

15.25 percent

C. 

15.42 percent

D. 

16.41 percent

E. 

16.56 percent

 

57.

The U.S. Treasury bill is yielding 1.85 percent and the market has an expected return of 7.48 percent. What is the Treynor ratio of a correctly-valued portfolio that has a beta of 1.33 and a variance of .0045?   

A. 

.056

B. 

.064

C. 

.069

D. 

.082

E. 

.087

 

58.

Your portfolio actually earned 6.2 percent for the year. You were expecting to earn 8.6 percent based on the CAPM formula. What is Jensen's alpha if the portfolio standard deviation is 12.1 percent and the beta is .93?   

A. 

-3.91 percent

B. 

-3.40 percent

C. 

-2.96 percent

D. 

-2.40 percent

E. 

-1.87 percent

 

59.

A portfolio has a beta of 1.52 and an actual return of 13.7 percent. The risk-free rate is 2.7 percent and the market risk premium is 7.8 percent. What is the value of Jensen's alpha?   

A. 

-0.86 percent

B. 

1.01 percent

C. 

1.14 percent

D. 

1.23 percent

E. 

1.37 percent

 

60.

The U.S. Treasury bill has a return of 2.84 percent while the S&P 500 is returning 10.84 percent. Your portfolio has an actual return of 14.76 percent and a beta of 1.31. What is the portfolio's Jensen's alpha?   

A. 

-0.47 percent

B. 

-0.92 percent

C. 

1.37 percent

D. 

1.44 percent

E. 

1.57 percent

 

61.

A diversified portfolio has a beta of 1.47 and a raw return of 14.28 percent. The market return is 11.74 percent and the market risk premium is 7.85 percent. What is Jensen's alpha of the portfolio?   

A. 

-1.15 percent

B. 

-0.86 percent

C. 

-0.29 percent

D. 

0.48 percent

E. 

0.62 percent

 

62.

A portfolio has an actual return of 15.17 percent, a beta of .85, and a standard deviation of 7.2 percent. The market return is 13.4 percent and the risk-free rate is 2.8 percent. What is the portfolio's Jensen's alpha?   

A. 

2.25 percent

B. 

2.51 percent

C. 

2.67 percent

D. 

3.36 percent

E. 

4.04 percent

 

63.

A portfolio has a Jensen's alpha of 0.82 percent, a beta of 1.40, and a CAPM expected return of 13.7 percent. The risk-free rate is 2.5 percent. What is the actual return of the portfolio?   

A. 

15.5 percent

B. 

16.1 percent

C. 

16.8 percent

D. 

19.6 percent

E. 

21.9 percent

 

64.

What is the Treynor ratio of a portfolio comprised of 45 percent portfolio A and 55 percent portfolio B?    The risk-free rate is 3.12 percent and the market risk premium is 8.5 percent.   

A. 

.041

B. 

.058

C. 

.069

D. 

.114

E. 

.136

 

65.

What is the Treynor ratio of a portfolio comprised of 25 percent portfolio A, 35 percent portfolio B, and 40 percent portfolio C?    The risk-free rate is 3.6 percent and the market risk premium is 8.2 percent.   

A. 

.054

B. 

.062

C. 

.070

D. 

.081

E. 

.102

 

66.

What is Jensen's alpha of a portfolio comprised of 45 percent portfolio A and 55 percent of portfolio B?    The risk-free rate is 3.1 percent and the market risk premium is 6.8 percent.   

A. 

-1.25 percent

B. 

0.47 percent

C. 

1.08 percent

D. 

1.46 percent

E. 

2.04 percent

 

67.

A stock has a return of 16.18 percent and a beta of 1.47. The market return is 10.65 percent and the risk-free rate is 3.20 percent. What is the Jensen-Treynor alpha of this stock?   

A. 

-1.12 percent

B. 

-0.17 percent

C. 

0.66 percent

D. 

1.38 percent

E. 

1.59 percent

 

68.

A stock has a return of 16.9 percent, a standard deviation of 11.7 percent, and a beta of 1.50. The risk-free rate is 2.65 percent and the market risk premium is 8.45 percent. What is the Jensen-Treynor alpha of this stock?   

A. 

-1.37 percent

B. 

-1.09 percent

C. 

-0.48 percent

D. 

0.89 percent

E. 

1.05 percent

 

69.

A portfolio consists of the following two funds.    What is the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio?   

A. 

.39

B. 

.45

C. 

.52

D. 

.60

E. 

.64

 

70.

A portfolio consists of the following two funds.    What is the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio?   

A. 

0.422

B. 

0.547

C. 

0.645

D. 

0.721

E. 

0.798

 

71.

A portfolio consists of the following two funds.    What is the expected return on fund A?   

A. 

12.0 percent

B. 

13.3 percent

C. 

13.7 percent

D. 

14.5 percent

E. 

15.7 percent

 

72.

A fund has an alpha of 0.73 percent and a tracking error of 4.9 percent. What is the fund's information ratio?   

A. 

0.112

B. 

0.135

C. 

0.149

D. 

0.208

E. 

0.229

 

73.

The Miller Fund's correlation with the market is .648. What percentage of the fund's movement can be explained by movements in the overall market?   

A. 

35 percent

B. 

42 percent

C. 

51 percent

D. 

65 percent

E. 

71 percent

 

74.

A portfolio has an average return of 14.2 percent and a standard deviation of 14.5 percent. Given this, you should expect to lose at least _____ percent on an annual basis once every century.      

A. 

-19.53

B. 

-17.24

C. 

-15.68

D. 

-1.710

E. 

-1.550

 

75.

A portfolio has a standard deviation of 15.8 percent and an average return of 14.2 percent. What loss is associated with a 2.5 percent probability?      

A. 

-12.03 percent

B. 

-14.87 percent

C. 

-16.77 percent

D. 

-17.38 percent

E. 

-19.36 percent

 

76.

Your portfolio has a standard deviation of 12.3 percent and an average return of 9.6 percent. You have a 5 percent probability of losing _____ percent or more in any given year.      

A. 

-33.79

B. 

-31.54

C. 

-12.59

D. 

-10.63

E. 

-3.34

 

77.

Lester has a portfolio with an average return of 12.8 percent and a standard deviation of 9.1 percent. He has a one percent probability of losing _____ percent or more in any given year.      

A. 

-33.97

B. 

-38.87

C. 

-20.67

D. 

-5.04

E. 

-8.37

 

78.

You have a portfolio which has an average return of 10.3 percent. In any given year, you have a 2.5 percent probability of earning either a zero or a negative annual return. What is the approximate standard deviation of your portfolio?      

A. 

5.26 percent

B. 

6.43 percent

C. 

6.94 percent

D. 

7.60 percent

E. 

8.14 percent

 

79.

Your portfolio has an expected annual return of 11.6 percent. What is the two-year expected return?   

A. 

11.60 percent

B. 

14.65 percent

C. 

16.40 percent

D. 

21.60 percent

E. 

23.20 percent

 

80.

Angie owns a portfolio which has an expected annual return of 11.70 percent. What is the two-year expected return on her portfolio?   

A. 

13.80 percent

B. 

19.52 percent

C. 

23.40 percent

D. 

27.60 percent

E. 

29.10 percent

 

81.

Mike's portfolio has a two-year expected return of 21.70 percent. What is the expected return for one year?   

A. 

10.85 percent

B. 

12.50 percent

C. 

13.33 percent

D. 

14.22 percent

E. 

15.34 percent

 

82.

The one-year standard deviation of your portfolio is 14.8 percent. What is the two-year standard deviation?   

A. 

16.47 percent

B. 

18.23 percent

C. 

20.93 percent

D. 

25.41 percent

E. 

27.20 percent

 

83.

Your portfolio has a standard deviation of 11.7 percent. What is the two-year standard deviation?   

A. 

14.87 percent

B. 

15.80 percent

C. 

16.55 percent

D. 

23.40 percent

E. 

24.15 percent

 

84.

A portfolio has a 3-year standard deviation of 18.1 percent. What is the one-year standard deviation?   

A. 

6.39 percent

B. 

8.69 percent

C. 

10.45 percent

D. 

11.80 percent

E. 

12.33 percent

 

85.

A stock has an annual standard deviation of 14.1 percent and an expected annual return of 11.5 percent. What is the smallest expected loss for the next 6 months given a probability of 2.5 percent?   

A. 

-8.90 percent

B. 

-13.79 percent

C. 

-14.57 percent

D. 

-15.38 percent

E. 

-16.67 percent

 

86.

Trailer Co. stock has an expected return of 12.2 percent and a standard deviation of 11.8 percent. What is the smallest expected loss over the next month given a probability of 5 percent?   

A. 

-4.59 percent

B. 

-6.09 percent

C. 

-7.27 percent

D. 

-11.49 percent

E. 

-13.77 percent

 

87.

A portfolio has an expected annual return of 15.7 percent and a standard deviation of 19.6 percent. What is the smallest expected loss over the next calendar quarter given a probability of 1 percent?   

A. 

-15.11 percent

B. 

-16.23 percent

C. 

-16.49 percent

D. 

-18.08 percent

E. 

-18.87 percent

 

88.

High Mountain Homes has an expected annual return of 16.1 percent and a standard deviation of 20.3 percent. What is the smallest expected loss over the next month given a probability of 2.5 percent?   

A. 

-6.64 percent

B. 

-8.67 percent

C. 

-10.14 percent

D. 

-12.12 percent

E. 

-15.13 percent

 

 

Essay Questions  

89.

Explain the similarities and differences between the Sharpe and Treynor ratios. Also, explain the most appropriate application for each.   

 

 

 

 

90.

Explain a key advantage and a key disadvantage of Jensen's alpha.   

 

 

 

 

91.

A conservative investor has a well-diversified portfolio but is still concerned about two things. First, he is concerned about the downside risk and secondly, he is concerned whether he is earning a sufficient rate of return to compensate for the total risk he is assuming. How could you quantify these concerns for this investor?   

 

 

 

 

Chapter 13 Performance Evaluation and Risk Management Answer Key  

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following assesses the ability of a money manager to balance high returns with an acceptable level of risk?   

A. 

probability analysis

B. 

raw return ratio

C. 

risk assessment

D.  

performance evaluation

E. 

market analysis

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Performance Evaluation  

2.

The unadjusted total percentage return on a security that has not been compared to any benchmark is referred to as which one of the following?   

A.  

raw return

B. 

indexed return

C. 

real return

D. 

marginal return

E. 

absolute return

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Raw Return  

3.

The risk premium of a portfolio divided by the portfolio's standard deviation defines which one of the following performance measures?   

A. 

raw return

B. 

Value at Risk

C. 

Jensen's alpha

D.  

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

4.

Which one of the following is computed by dividing a portfolio's risk premium by the portfolio beta?   

A. 

raw return

B. 

Value at Risk

C. 

Jensen's alpha

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E.  

Treynor ratio

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

5.

Which one of the following measures a portfolio's raw return against the expected return based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model?   

A. 

Sharpe ratio

B. 

Treynor ratio

C.  

Jensen's alpha

D. 

beta

E. 

Value at Risk

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

6.

Which one of the following concerns a money manager's control over investment risks, particularly potential short-run losses?   

A. 

Alpha management

B. 

Normal distribution management

C.  

Investment risk management

D. 

Raw return distributions

E. 

Volatility performance measures

See Section 13.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Investment Risk Management  

7.

Which one of the following assesses risk by stating the probability of a loss a portfolio might incur within a stated time period given a specific probability?   

A. 

Sharpe ratio

B. 

Jensen's alpha

C. 

Treynor ratio

D. 

raw return measurement

E.  

Value-at-Risk

See Section 13.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

8.

Which one of the following is a statistical model, defined by its mean and standard deviation, that is used to assess probabilities?   

A. 

variance

B.  

normal distribution

C. 

efficient frontier

D. 

Value at Risk

E. 

Jensen's alpha

See Section 13.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Normal Distribution  

9.

Which one of the following measures a security's return in relation to the total risk associated with that security?   

A. 

beta

B. 

Jensen's alpha

C.  

Sharpe ratio

D. 

Treynor ratio

E. 

Value at Risk

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

10.

The Sharpe ratio measures a security's return relative to which one of the following?   

A.  

total risk

B. 

diversifiable risk

C. 

market rate of return

D. 

risk-free rate

E. 

systematic risk

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

11.

The Sharpe ratio is best used to evaluate which one of the following?   

A. 

corporate bonds

B. 

government bonds

C. 

Treasury bills

D. 

individual stocks

E.  

diversified portfolios

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

12.

Which one of the following measures returns in relation to total risk?   

A. 

Treynor ratio

B.  

Sharpe ratio

C. 

Jensen's alpha

D. 

Value at Risk

E. 

beta

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

13.

Which one of the following values would be the most preferable as a Sharpe ratio?   

A. 

-1.11

B. 

-0.89

C. 

0.00

D. 

.10

E.  

1.02

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

14.

Which one of the following measures risk premium in relation to systematic risk?   

A. 

Value at Risk

B. 

Jensen's alpha

C. 

beta

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E.  

Treynor ratio

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

15.

You are comparing three securities and discover they all have identical Treynor ratios. Given this information, which one of the following must be true regarding these three securities?   

A. 

They have identical betas.

B. 

They have the same rates of return.

C. 

They earn identical rewards per unit of total risk.

D.  

They earn identical rewards per unit of systematic risk.

E. 

They have identical Sharpe ratios also.

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

16.

You are comparing three assets which have differing Treynor ratios. Given this, which one of the following must be true?   

A. 

The assets may all be correctly priced if they have differing betas.

B. 

The assets have differing rates of return.

C. 

The assets have differing levels of market risk but equal amounts of total risk.

D. 

The assets are all mispriced according to CAPM.

E.  

The preferred investment is the asset with the highest Treynor ratio.

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

17.

You are considering the purchase of a mutual fund. You have found three funds that meet your basic criteria. Each fund has a different alpha. Which alpha indicates the preferred investment?   

A. 

the most negative alpha

B. 

the least negative alpha

C. 

the zero alpha

D. 

the lowest positive alpha

E.  

the highest positive alpha

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

18.

Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to a security that has a negative Jensen's alpha?   

A.  

The security is overpriced and will plot below the security market line.

B. 

The security is overpriced and will plot above the security market line.

C. 

The security is underpriced and will plot below the security market line.

D. 

The security is underpriced and will plot above the security market line.

E. 

The security is incorrectly priced but you cannot tell if it is underpriced or overpriced based on the information provided.

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

19.

Which one of the following is the best indication that a security is correctly priced according to the Capital Asset Pricing Model?   

A. 

beta of zero

B. 

beta of 1.0

C.  

alpha of zero

D. 

alpha of 1.0

E. 

alpha of -1.0

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

20.

Tony brags that his portfolio's rate of return is "beating the market". Which one of the following would best substantiate his claim?   

A. 

positive Sharpe ratio

B. 

negative Treynor ratio

C.  

positive Jensen's alpha

D. 

zero Value at Risk

E. 

beta greater than 1.0

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

21.

Which of the following should generally only be used to evaluate relatively diversified portfolios rather than individual securities? I. Sharpe ratio II. Treynor ratio III. Jensen's alpha   

A.  

I only

B. 

II only

C. 

III only

D. 

I and II only

E. 

I, II, and III

See Section 13.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe  

22.

Which of the following measures are dependent upon the accuracy of a security's beta? I. Sharpe ratio II. Treynor ratio III. Jensen's alpha   

A. 

I only

B. 

II only

C. 

I and II only

D.  

II and III only

E. 

I, II, and III

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Treynor and Jensen  

23.

Which one of the following is probably the best measure of the performance of a well-diversified portfolio?   

A. 

Jensen's alpha

B. 

Value at Risk

C. 

Jensen-Treynor alpha

D.  

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Sharpe  

24.

Which of the following measures should be used to determine if a security should be included in a master portfolio? I. Sharpe ratio II. Treynor ratio III. Jensen's alpha   

A. 

I only

B. 

II only

C. 

III only

D. 

I and II only

E.  

II and III only

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Sharpe, Treynor, Jensen  

25.

The Jensen-Treynor alpha is equal to:   

A. 

the Treynor ratio divided by Jensen's alpha.

B. 

the Treynor ratio multiplied by Jensen's alpha.

C.  

Jensen's alpha divided by beta.

D. 

Jensen's alpha divided by the standard deviation.

E. 

Jensen's alpha divided by the Treynor ratio.

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Jensen-Treynor Alpha  

26.

Which one of the following is measured by the Jensen-Treynor alpha?   

A. 

total return relative to systematic risk

B. 

risk premium relative to systematic

C. 

risk premium relative to total risk

D.  

excess return relative to systematic risk

E. 

excess return relative to total risk

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Jensen-Treynor Alpha  

27.

The Sharpe-optimal portfolio will be the investment opportunity set which lies on a straight line that has which of the following characteristics?   

A. 

the flattest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the risk-free rate

B.  

the steepest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the risk-free rate

C. 

the steepest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the origin

D. 

the flattest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the market rate

E. 

the steepest slope when the line intersects the vertical axis at the market rate

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-03 How to calculate a Sharpe-optimal portfolio. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Sharpe-Optimal Portfolio  

28.

A Sharpe-optimal portfolio provides which one of the following for a given set of securities?   

A. 

Jensen's Alpha

B. 

highest possible level of risk

C. 

highest level of return for a market-equivalent level of risk

D. 

highest excess return per unit of systematic risk

E.  

highest risk premium per unit of total risk

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-03 How to calculate a Sharpe-optimal portfolio. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Sharpe-Optimal Portfolio  

29.

You want to create the best portfolio that can be derived from two assets. Which one of the following will help you identify that portfolio?   

A. 

highest portfolio beta

B. 

market equivalent level of risk

C. 

highest possible rate of return

D. 

Treynor-minimal portfolio

E.  

Sharpe-optimal portfolio

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-03 How to calculate a Sharpe-optimal portfolio. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Sharpe-Optimal Portfolio  

30.

Which measure would you use to know whether alpha is truly significant or just the result of random chance?   

A. 

Jensen's alpha

B.  

Information ratio

C. 

Jensen-Treynor alpha

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Information Ratio  

31.

Which metric measures how volatile a fund's returns are relative to its benchmark?   

A. 

Jensen's alpha

B. 

Information ratio

C.  

Tracking error

D. 

Sharpe ratio

E. 

Treynor ratio

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Tracking Error  

32.

Which metric describes the percentage of a fund's movement which can be explained by movements in the market?   

A. 

Jensen's alpha

B. 

Information ratio

C. 

Tracking error

D.  

R Squared

E. 

Treynor ratio

See Section 13.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: R Squared  

33.

Which one of the following is the primary purpose of the Value-at-Risk computation?   

A. 

determine the 99 percent probability range given an abnormal distribution

B. 

evaluate the risk-return tradeoff for a given mix of securities

C.  

evaluate the probability of a significant loss

D. 

determine the portfolio that maximizes the risk premium per unit of total risk

E. 

determine the portfolio that maximizes the excess return per unit of systematic risk

See Section 13.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

34.

Which one of the following is the best interpretation of this VaR statistic: Prob (Rp ≤ -.15) = 37%?   

A. 

If your portfolio declines by 15 percent or more, that decline is expected to be followed by a 37 percent increase in value.

B. 

Your portfolio is expected to lose at least 15 percent, but not more than 37 percent in any given year.

C.  

There is a 37 percent chance that your portfolio will decline in value by at least 15 percent over the next year.

D. 

Sometime in the future, your portfolio is expected to lose 15 percent or more in a single year, but have an overall average rate of return of 37 percent.

E. 

There is a 37 percent chance that your portfolio will lose at least 15 percent of its value over the next 10 years.

See Section 13.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

35.

The Value-at-Risk measure assumes which one of the following?   

A.  

returns are normally distributed

B. 

portfolios lie on the efficient frontier

C. 

all portfolios are fully diversified

D. 

returns tend to follow repetitive patterns

E. 

the risk premium is constant over time

See Section 13.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

36.

Which one of the following Value-at-Risk measures would be most appropriate for a portfolio designed for a very risk-adverse investor?   

A. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .20) = 100%

B. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .15) = 50%

C. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .10) = 25%

D. 

Prob (Rp ≤ - .10) = 10%

E.  

Prob (Rp ≤ - .05) = 1%

See Section 13.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

37.

Which one of the following statements is true concerning VaR?   

A. 

VaR ignores time.

B. 

VaR only applies to time periods of one year.

C. 

VaR applies only to time periods equal to or greater than one year.

D.  

VaR values can be computed for monthly time periods.

E. 

VaR is accurate only for time periods less than one year.

See Section 13.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

38.

Which of the following are related to VaR analysis? I. beta II. standard deviation III. expected return IV. time   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D.  

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 13.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

39.

You have computed the expected return using VaR with a 2.5 percent probability for a one-year period of time. How would this expected return be expressed on a normal distribution curve?   

A. 

lower tail starting at the point that is 2.5 standard deviations below the mean

B.  

lower tail of a 95 percent probability range

C. 

the point that corresponds to 2.5 standard deviations below the mean

D. 

the point that represents the lower end of the 90 percent probability range

E. 

the negative range that lies within 2.5 standard deviations of the mean

See Section 13.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

40.

Which one of the following correctly states the VaR for a 3-year period with a 2.5 percent probability?   

A. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × 3 - 1.645 × σp √3]

B. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × √3 - 1.645 × σp 3]

C. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × √3 - 1.645 × σp √3]

D.  

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × 3 - 1.960 × σp √3]

E. 

Prob[Rp,T ≤ E(Rp) × √3 - 1.960 × σp 3]

See Section 13.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Multi-Year Return  

41.

A portfolio has a 2.5 percent chance of losing 16 percent or more according to the VaR when T = 1. This can be interpreted to mean that the portfolio is expected to have an annual loss of 16 percent or more once in every how many years?   

A. 

1.0

B. 

2.5

C. 

25

D.  

40

E. 

100

See Section 13.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

42.

A portfolio has an average return of 12.4 percent, a standard deviation of 15.8 percent, and a beta of 1.35. The risk-free rate is 2.6 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio?   

A. 

.49

B. 

.52

C.  

.62

D. 

.71

E. 

.75

Sharpe ratio = (.124 - .026)/.158 = .62

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

43.

A portfolio has a beta of 1.26, a standard deviation of 15.9 percent, and an average return of 15.07 percent. The market rate is 12.7 percent and the risk-free rate is 3.6 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio?   

A. 

.61

B. 

.68

C.  

.72

D. 

.84

E. 

.88

Sharpe ratio = (.1507 - .036)/.159 = .72

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

44.

The U.S. Treasury bill is yielding 2.25 percent and the market has an expected return of 9.8 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio of a portfolio that has a beta of 1.32 and a variance of .027556?   

A. 

.55

B.  

.60

C. 

.69

D. 

.74

E. 

.82

E(RP) = .0225 + 1.32(.980 - .0225) = .1222 Sharpe ratio = (.1222 - .0225)/√.027556 = .6004

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

45.

A portfolio has a beta of 1.23 and a standard deviation of 11.6 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio if the market return is 12.4 percent and the market risk premium is 7.9 percent?   

A. 

.07

B. 

.11

C. 

.65

D.  

.84

E. 

.90

Risk-free rate = .124 - .079 = .045 E(RP) = .045 + 1.23(.079) = .14217 Sharpe ratio = (.14217 - .045)/.116 = .84

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

46.

A portfolio has a variance of .0165, a beta of 1.05, and an expected return of 12.65 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio if the expected risk-free rate is 3.4 percent?   

A. 

.66

B. 

.70

C.  

.72

D. 

.82

E. 

.86

Sharpe ratio = (.1265 - .034)/√.0165 = .7201

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

47.

A portfolio has a Sharpe ratio of .80, a standard deviation of 17.4 percent, and an expected return of 15.9 percent. What is the risk-free rate?   

A.  

1.98 percent

B. 

2.36 percent

C. 

2.48 percent

D. 

3.09 percent

E. 

3.15 percent

.80 = (.159 - rf)/.174; rf = 1.98 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

48.

Your portfolio has an expected return of 14.2 percent, a beta of 1.31, and a standard deviation of 15.3 percent. The U.S. Treasury bill rate is 3.48 percent. What is the Sharpe ratio of your portfolio?   

A. 

.65

B. 

.67

C.  

.70

D. 

.77

E. 

.83

Sharpe ratio = (.142 - .0348)/.153 = .7007

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

49.

A portfolio has a beta of 1.16, a standard deviation of 12.2 percent, and an expected return of 11.55 percent. The market return is 10.4 percent and the risk-free rate is 3.2 percent. What is the portfolio's Sharpe ratio?   

A. 

.57

B.  

.68

C. 

.73

D. 

.77

E. 

.85

Sharpe ratio = (.1155 - .032)/.122 = .68

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe Ratio  

50.

Your portfolio has a beta of 1.17, a standard deviation of 14.3 percent, and an expected return of 12.5 percent. The market return is 11.3 percent and the risk-free rate is 3.1 percent. What is the Treynor ratio?   

A. 

.015

B.  

.080

C. 

.109

D. 

.482

E. 

.510

Treynor ratio = (.125 - .031)/1.17 = .0803

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

51.

A portfolio has an expected return of 13.8 percent, a beta of 1.14, and a standard deviation of 12.7 percent. The U.S. Treasury bill rate is 3.2 percent. What is the Treynor ratio?   

A.  

.093

B. 

.138

C. 

.146

D. 

.835

E. 

.951

Treynor ratio = (.138 - .032)/1.14 = .093

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

52.

A portfolio has a Treynor ratio of .070, a standard deviation of 16.40 percent, a beta of 1.16, and an expected return of 14.3 percent. What is the risk-free rate?   

A. 

1.32 percent

B. 

5.21 percent

C. 

5.39 percent

D.  

6.18 percent

E. 

6.41 percent

.070 = (.143 - rf)/1.16; rf = 6.18 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

53.

A portfolio has a variance of .027556, a beta of 1.54, and an expected return of 11.2 percent. What is the Treynor ratio if the expected risk-free rate is 2.7 percent?   

A.  

.055

B. 

.063

C. 

.367

D. 

.498

E. 

.512

Treynor ratio = (.112 - .027)/1.54 = .055

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

54.

The U.S. Treasury bill is yielding 3.0 percent and the market has an expected return of 11.6 percent. What is the Treynor ratio of a correctly-valued portfolio that has a beta of 1.02, and a standard deviation of 12.2 percent?   

A. 

.074

B.  

.086

C. 

.102

D. 

.619

E. 

.628

E(RP) = .03 + .92(.116 - .03) = .11772 Treynor ratio = (.11772 - .03)/1.02 = .086

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

55.

A portfolio has an average return of 9.7 percent, a standard deviation of 8.6 percent, and a beta of .72. The risk-free rate is 2.1 percent. What is the Treynor ratio?   

A. 

.098

B.  

.106

C. 

.121

D. 

.636

E. 

.884

Treynor ratio = (.097 - .021)/.72 = .106

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

56.

A portfolio has a standard deviation of 14.1 percent, a beta of 1.30 and a Treynor ratio of .094. The risk-free rate is 3.2 percent. What is the portfolio's expected rate of return?   

A. 

14.83 percent

B. 

15.25 percent

C.  

15.42 percent

D. 

16.41 percent

E. 

16.56 percent

.094 = (Rp - .032)/1.30; Rp = 15.42 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

57.

The U.S. Treasury bill is yielding 1.85 percent and the market has an expected return of 7.48 percent. What is the Treynor ratio of a correctly-valued portfolio that has a beta of 1.33 and a variance of .0045?   

A.  

.056

B. 

.064

C. 

.069

D. 

.082

E. 

.087

E(RP) = .0185 + 1.33(.0748 - .0185) = .093379 Treynor ratio = (.093379 - .0185)/1.33 = .056

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Treynor Ratio  

58.

Your portfolio actually earned 6.2 percent for the year. You were expecting to earn 8.6 percent based on the CAPM formula. What is Jensen's alpha if the portfolio standard deviation is 12.1 percent and the beta is .93?   

A. 

-3.91 percent

B. 

-3.40 percent

C. 

-2.96 percent

D.  

-2.40 percent

E. 

-1.87 percent

Jensen's alpha = 6.2 percent - 8.6 percent = -2.4 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

59.

A portfolio has a beta of 1.52 and an actual return of 13.7 percent. The risk-free rate is 2.7 percent and the market risk premium is 7.8 percent. What is the value of Jensen's alpha?   

A.  

-0.86 percent

B. 

1.01 percent

C. 

1.14 percent

D. 

1.23 percent

E. 

1.37 percent

Jensen's alpha = .137 - [.027 + 1.52(.078)] = -0.86 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

60.

The U.S. Treasury bill has a return of 2.84 percent while the S&P 500 is returning 10.84 percent. Your portfolio has an actual return of 14.76 percent and a beta of 1.31. What is the portfolio's Jensen's alpha?   

A. 

-0.47 percent

B. 

-0.92 percent

C. 

1.37 percent

D.  

1.44 percent

E. 

1.57 percent

Jensen's alpha = .1476 - [.0284 + 1.31(.1084 - .0284)] = 1.44 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

61.

A diversified portfolio has a beta of 1.47 and a raw return of 14.28 percent. The market return is 11.74 percent and the market risk premium is 7.85 percent. What is Jensen's alpha of the portfolio?   

A.  

-1.15 percent

B. 

-0.86 percent

C. 

-0.29 percent

D. 

0.48 percent

E. 

0.62 percent

Jensen's alpha = .1428 - [(.1174 - .0785) + 1.47(.0785)] = -1.15 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

62.

A portfolio has an actual return of 15.17 percent, a beta of .85, and a standard deviation of 7.2 percent. The market return is 13.4 percent and the risk-free rate is 2.8 percent. What is the portfolio's Jensen's alpha?   

A. 

2.25 percent

B. 

2.51 percent

C. 

2.67 percent

D.  

3.36 percent

E. 

4.04 percent

Jensen's alpha = .1517 - [.028 + .85(.134 - .028)] = 3.36 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

63.

A portfolio has a Jensen's alpha of 0.82 percent, a beta of 1.40, and a CAPM expected return of 13.7 percent. The risk-free rate is 2.5 percent. What is the actual return of the portfolio?   

A. 

15.5 percent

B. 

16.1 percent

C. 

16.8 percent

D. 

19.6 percent

E.  

21.9 percent

.082 = RP - .137; RP = 21.9 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha  

64.

What is the Treynor ratio of a portfolio comprised of 45 percent portfolio A and 55 percent portfolio B?    The risk-free rate is 3.12 percent and the market risk premium is 8.5 percent.   

A. 

.041

B. 

.058

C.  

.069

D. 

.114

E. 

.136

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Portfolio Treynor Ratio  

65.

What is the Treynor ratio of a portfolio comprised of 25 percent portfolio A, 35 percent portfolio B, and 40 percent portfolio C?    The risk-free rate is 3.6 percent and the market risk premium is 8.2 percent.   

A. 

.054

B. 

.062

C.  

.070

D. 

.081

E. 

.102

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Portfolio Treynor Ratio  

66.

What is Jensen's alpha of a portfolio comprised of 45 percent portfolio A and 55 percent of portfolio B?    The risk-free rate is 3.1 percent and the market risk premium is 6.8 percent.   

A. 

-1.25 percent

B. 

0.47 percent

C. 

1.08 percent

D. 

1.46 percent

E.  

2.04 percent

Portfolio average return = (.45 × .189) + (.55 × .132) = .1577 Portfolio beta = (.45 × 1.92) + (.55 × 1.27) = 1.56 CAPM return = .031 + 1.56(.068) = .1373 Jensen's alpha = .1577 - .1373 = 2.04 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.1 Topic: Portfolio Jensen's Alpha  

67.

A stock has a return of 16.18 percent and a beta of 1.47. The market return is 10.65 percent and the risk-free rate is 3.20 percent. What is the Jensen-Treynor alpha of this stock?   

A. 

-1.12 percent

B. 

-0.17 percent

C. 

0.66 percent

D.  

1.38 percent

E. 

1.59 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Jensen-Treynor Alpha  

68.

A stock has a return of 16.9 percent, a standard deviation of 11.7 percent, and a beta of 1.50. The risk-free rate is 2.65 percent and the market risk premium is 8.45 percent. What is the Jensen-Treynor alpha of this stock?   

A. 

-1.37 percent

B. 

-1.09 percent

C. 

-0.48 percent

D. 

0.89 percent

E.  

1.05 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Jensen-Treynor Alpha  

69.

A portfolio consists of the following two funds.    What is the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio?   

A. 

.39

B. 

.45

C. 

.52

D.  

.60

E. 

.64

Portfolio weight of A = $6,000/($6,000 + $14,000) = .30 Portfolio weight of B = $14,000/($6,000 + $14,000) = .70

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.2 Topic: Sharpe Ratio for Two-Asset Portfolio  

70.

A portfolio consists of the following two funds.    What is the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio?   

A. 

0.422

B. 

0.547

C.  

0.645

D. 

0.721

E. 

0.798

Portfolio weight of A = $8,000/($12,000 + $8,000) = .40 Portfolio weight of B = $12,000/($12,000 + $8,000) = .60

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.2 Topic: Sharpe Ratio for Two-Asset Portfolio  

71.

A portfolio consists of the following two funds.    What is the expected return on fund A?   

A. 

12.0 percent

B. 

13.3 percent

C. 

13.7 percent

D. 

14.5 percent

E.  

15.7 percent

Portfolio weight of A = $27,000/($27,000 + $33,000) = .45 Portfolio weight of B = $33,000/($27,000 + $33,000) = .55

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.2 Topic: Sharpe Ratio for Two-Asset Portfolio  

72.

A fund has an alpha of 0.73 percent and a tracking error of 4.9 percent. What is the fund's information ratio?   

A. 

0.112

B. 

0.135

C.  

0.149

D. 

0.208

E. 

0.229

Information ratio = 0.73/4.9 = 0.149

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: Information Ratio  

73.

The Miller Fund's correlation with the market is .648. What percentage of the fund's movement can be explained by movements in the overall market?   

A. 

35 percent

B.  

42 percent

C. 

51 percent

D. 

65 percent

E. 

71 percent

R2 = (0.648)2 = 42 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-02 The strengths and weaknesses of these portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.2 Topic: R Squared  

74.

A portfolio has an average return of 14.2 percent and a standard deviation of 14.5 percent. Given this, you should expect to lose at least _____ percent on an annual basis once every century.      

A.  

-19.53

B. 

-17.24

C. 

-15.68

D. 

-1.710

E. 

-1.550

Loss percent = .142 - 2.326(.145) = -19.53 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Probability Ranges  

75.

A portfolio has a standard deviation of 15.8 percent and an average return of 14.2 percent. What loss is associated with a 2.5 percent probability?      

A. 

-12.03 percent

B. 

-14.87 percent

C.  

-16.77 percent

D. 

-17.38 percent

E. 

-19.36 percent

Loss percent = .142 - 1.96(.158) = -16.77 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Probability Ranges  

76.

Your portfolio has a standard deviation of 12.3 percent and an average return of 9.6 percent. You have a 5 percent probability of losing _____ percent or more in any given year.      

A. 

-33.79

B. 

-31.54

C. 

-12.59

D.  

-10.63

E. 

-3.34

Loss percent = .96 - 1.645(.123) = -10.634 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Probability Ranges  

77.

Lester has a portfolio with an average return of 12.8 percent and a standard deviation of 9.1 percent. He has a one percent probability of losing _____ percent or more in any given year.      

A. 

-33.97

B. 

-38.87

C. 

-20.67

D. 

-5.04

E.  

-8.37

Loss percent = .128 - 2.326(.091) = -8.37 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Probability Ranges  

78.

You have a portfolio which has an average return of 10.3 percent. In any given year, you have a 2.5 percent probability of earning either a zero or a negative annual return. What is the approximate standard deviation of your portfolio?      

A.  

5.26 percent

B. 

6.43 percent

C. 

6.94 percent

D. 

7.60 percent

E. 

8.14 percent

0.0 = .103 - 1.96(σ); σ = 5.26 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.3 Topic: Probability Ranges  

79.

Your portfolio has an expected annual return of 11.6 percent. What is the two-year expected return?   

A. 

11.60 percent

B. 

14.65 percent

C. 

16.40 percent

D. 

21.60 percent

E.  

23.20 percent

Two-year return = 2 × .116 = 23.2 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Multi-Year Return  

80.

Angie owns a portfolio which has an expected annual return of 11.70 percent. What is the two-year expected return on her portfolio?   

A. 

13.80 percent

B. 

19.52 percent

C.  

23.40 percent

D. 

27.60 percent

E. 

29.10 percent

Two-year return = 2 × .1170 = 23.40 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Multi-Year Return  

81.

Mike's portfolio has a two-year expected return of 21.70 percent. What is the expected return for one year?   

A.  

10.85 percent

B. 

12.50 percent

C. 

13.33 percent

D. 

14.22 percent

E. 

15.34 percent

Annual return = .2170/2 = 10.85 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Multi-Year Return  

82.

The one-year standard deviation of your portfolio is 14.8 percent. What is the two-year standard deviation?   

A. 

16.47 percent

B. 

18.23 percent

C.  

20.93 percent

D. 

25.41 percent

E. 

27.20 percent

Two-year standard deviation = .148 × √2 = 20.93 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Multi-Year Standard Deviation  

83.

Your portfolio has a standard deviation of 11.7 percent. What is the two-year standard deviation?   

A. 

14.87 percent

B. 

15.80 percent

C.  

16.55 percent

D. 

23.40 percent

E. 

24.15 percent

Two-year standard deviation = .117 × √2 = 16.55 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Multi-Year Standard Deviation  

84.

A portfolio has a 3-year standard deviation of 18.1 percent. What is the one-year standard deviation?   

A. 

6.39 percent

B. 

8.69 percent

C.  

10.45 percent

D. 

11.80 percent

E. 

12.33 percent

.1810 = σ × √3; σ = 10.45 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.4 Topic: Multi-Year Standard Deviation  

85.

A stock has an annual standard deviation of 14.1 percent and an expected annual return of 11.5 percent. What is the smallest expected loss for the next 6 months given a probability of 2.5 percent?   

A. 

-8.90 percent

B.  

-13.79 percent

C. 

-14.57 percent

D. 

-15.38 percent

E. 

-16.67 percent

Smallest expected loss = (.115 × .5) - 1.96 × (.141 × √.5) = -13.79 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

86.

Trailer Co. stock has an expected return of 12.2 percent and a standard deviation of 11.8 percent. What is the smallest expected loss over the next month given a probability of 5 percent?   

A.  

-4.59 percent

B. 

-6.09 percent

C. 

-7.27 percent

D. 

-11.49 percent

E. 

-13.77 percent

Smallest loss = (.122 × 1/12) - 1.645 × (.118 × √1/12) = -4.59 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

87.

A portfolio has an expected annual return of 15.7 percent and a standard deviation of 19.6 percent. What is the smallest expected loss over the next calendar quarter given a probability of 1 percent?   

A. 

-15.11 percent

B. 

-16.23 percent

C. 

-16.49 percent

D. 

-18.08 percent

E.  

-18.87 percent

Smallest loss = (.157 × .25) - 2.326 × (.196 × √.25) = -18.87 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

88.

High Mountain Homes has an expected annual return of 16.1 percent and a standard deviation of 20.3 percent. What is the smallest expected loss over the next month given a probability of 2.5 percent?   

A. 

-6.64 percent

B. 

-8.67 percent

C.  

-10.14 percent

D. 

-12.12 percent

E. 

-15.13 percent

Smallest loss = (.161 × 1/12) - 1.96 × (.203 × √1/12) = -10.14 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

 

Essay Questions  

89.

Explain the similarities and differences between the Sharpe and Treynor ratios. Also, explain the most appropriate application for each.   

Answer will vary Feedback: The Sharpe and Treynor ratios both measure risk premium per unit of risk. Sharpe measures the risk premium in relation to total risk (standard deviation) while Treynor measures the risk premium against systematic risk (beta). The Sharpe ratio is best used to evaluate diversified portfolios where most of the unsystematic risk has been eliminated. The Treynor ratio is useful in analyzing a single asset to determine if it should be added to a portfolio.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.1 Topic: Sharpe and Treynor Ratios  

90.

Explain a key advantage and a key disadvantage of Jensen's alpha.    Answer will vary Feedback: An advantage of Jensen's alpha is that it indicates whether a security is outperforming or underperforming in relation to the amount of systematic risk inherent in the security. This also indicates whether a security is overpriced or underpriced. The key disadvantage lies in the fact that a security's actual return is compared to its CAPM return. However, the CAPM return is highly dependent upon the accuracy of the security's beta. If the beta is inappropriate, then Jensen's alpha is unreliable.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 13-01 How to calculate the best-known portfolio evaluation measures. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.1 Topic: Jensen's Alpha and the SML  

91.

A conservative investor has a well-diversified portfolio but is still concerned about two things. First, he is concerned about the downside risk and secondly, he is concerned whether he is earning a sufficient rate of return to compensate for the total risk he is assuming. How could you quantify these concerns for this investor?    Answer will vary Feedback: The VaR values would quantify the downside risks given a stated period of time and a probability of loss percentage. The Sharpe ratio would quantify the risk premium per unit of total risk. By quantifying these concerns, the investor should gain a greater understanding of the risk-return aspects of his portfolio.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 13-04 How to calculate and interpret Value-at-Risk. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.4 Topic: Value-At-Risk  

Chapter 17

Projecting Cash Flow and Earnings

 

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

You are interested in reviewing the information corporations file with the SEC. Which one of the following is the archive of these filings?   

A. 

SAMSON

B. 

REG FD

C. 

EDGAR

D. 

Nonpublic information files

E. 

ROA filings

 

2.

How frequently do corporations file 10K reports with the SEC?   

A. 

monthly

B. 

quarterly

C. 

semi-annually

D. 

annually

E. 

only when the firm engages in a merger or an acquisition

 

3.

Better Products just filed its quarterly report with the SEC. This report is referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

10F

B. 

10K

C. 

10Q

D. 

EDGAR 10

E. 

10FD

 

4.

Regulation FD requires companies to do which one of the following when disclosing material non-public information?   

A. 

advise the SEC 7 working days prior to such disclosure

B. 

disclose the information without preference to any party or parties

C. 

only disclose the information to professional analysts

D. 

only disclose the information after a 7-day advance notice of an announcement

E. 

disclose the information only after a 24-hour delay

 

5.

Material nonpublic information is defined as any information that could reasonably be expected to do which one of the following?   

A. 

affect the price of the firm's securities

B. 

cause great embarrassment to the firm

C. 

cause one or more of the senior executives of the firm to resign

D. 

cause the SEC to halt the trading of the firm's securities should that information become public

E. 

affect the manner in which the firm presents its financial information

 

6.

Which one of the following provides information on a firm's assets and liabilities as of a particular date?   

A. 

cash flow statement

B. 

pro-forma income statement

C. 

income statement

D. 

tax return

E. 

balance sheet

 

7.

Which one of the following is an accounting statement that provides information on a firm's revenues and expenses?   

A. 

balance sheet

B. 

cash budget

C. 

pro-forma balance sheet

D. 

income statement

E. 

cash flow statement

 

8.

Which one of the following is an analysis of a firm's sources and uses of cash over a period of time?   

A. 

income statement

B. 

pro-forma income statement

C. 

cash flow statement

D. 

tax return

E. 

balance sheet

 

9.

Which one of the following is defined as anything a firm owns that has value?   

A. 

equity

B. 

asset

C. 

liability

D. 

cash inflow

E. 

cash outflow

 

10.

Which one of the following represents the amounts owed by a firm to other parties?   

A. 

assets

B. 

cash inflows

C. 

equities

D. 

liabilities

E. 

expenses

 

11.

Which one of the following is an ownership interest in a firm?   

A. 

asset

B. 

expense

C. 

net income

D. 

liability

E. 

equity

 

12.

Which one of the following is used to pay dividends or kept as retained earnings by a firm?   

A. 

equity

B. 

net cash flow

C. 

revenue

D. 

net income

E. 

expense

 

13.

Which one of the following is income realized in cash form?   

A. 

net income

B. 

revenue

C. 

cash flow

D. 

retained earnings

E. 

dividends

 

14.

Income and expense items NOT realized in cash form are called which one of the following?   

A. 

deductible expenses

B. 

noncash items

C. 

intangible assets

D. 

operating income

E. 

financing activities

 

15.

Which one of the following is the definition of operating cash flow?   

A. 

revenue minus expenses

B. 

cash realized from the sale of assets

C. 

cash flow originating from the issuance of securities

D. 

cash generated by a firm's normal business activities

E. 

pre-tax income

 

16.

Which one of the following is the definition of investment cash flow?   

A. 

revenue minus expenses

B. 

cash flow from the purchases and sales of fixed assets and investments

C. 

cash flow originating from the issuance of securities

D. 

cash generated by a firm's normal business activities

E. 

pre-tax income

 

17.

Which one of the following is the cash flow resulting from the payment of dividends and the issuance or repurchase of equity securities?   

A. 

balance sheet cash flow

B. 

operating cash flow

C. 

financing cash flow

D. 

business cash flow

E. 

investment cash flow

 

18.

Which one of the following is equal to net income expressed as a percentage of total assets?   

A. 

return on equity

B. 

return on the balance sheet

C. 

operating yield

D. 

net yield

E. 

return on assets

 

19.

Return on equity is equal to which one of the following?   

A. 

dividend yield divided by total equity

B. 

retained earnings divided by total equity

C. 

revenue divided by total equity

D. 

net income divided by total equity

E. 

operating cash flow divided by total equity

 

20.

Pro forma financial statements are statements based on which one of the following?   

A. 

projected future income, cash flows, and other non-cash items

B. 

historical revenue and expenses

C. 

historical asset and liability values

D. 

current period cash flows

E. 

current period revenues and expenses

 

21.

Which one of the following is a financial planning method wherein some account values vary in relation to expected sales?   

A. 

common size approach

B. 

linear method

C. 

percentage of net income method

D. 

adjusted sales method

E. 

percentage of sales approach

 

22.

Which one of the following ratios tells you the amount of assets a firm needs to generate $1 in sales?   

A. 

capital intensity ratio

B. 

return on assets

C. 

asset turnover rate

D. 

profit margin

E. 

earnings ratio

 

23.

Which of the following reports are always included in a 10K filing with the SEC? I. statement of cash flows II. balance sheet III. pro-forma statement IV. income statement   

A. 

I only

B. 

IV only

C. 

II, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

24.

Which one of the following means of communication do most firms use for announcements in order to comply with Regulation FD?   

A. 

TV spots

B. 

e-mail alerts

C. 

public newspapers

D. 

radio

E. 

analyst networks

 

25.

Which of the following are current assets? I. inventory II. goodwill III. fixed assets IV. cash   

A. 

III only

B. 

IV only

C. 

II and III only

D. 

I and IV only

E. 

I, II, and IV only

 

26.

Which one of the following is an intangible fixed asset?   

A. 

accounts receivable

B. 

patent

C. 

inventory

D. 

equipment

E. 

building

 

27.

Which one of the following is a tangible fixed asset?   

A. 

cash

B. 

equipment

C. 

accounts receivable

D. 

right

E. 

inventory

 

28.

Stephen's Auto recently purchased Auto Express for $9.8 million. Auto Express had a market value of $9.5 million at the time of acquisition. The additional $0.3 million that Stephen's Auto paid for Auto Express will be treated on Stephen's Auto's balance sheet as which type of account?   

A. 

patent

B. 

depreciation

C. 

licenses

D. 

goodwill

E. 

acquisition expense

 

29.

Winter's Clothing has a loan payable to a bank which is due 18 months from now. How is this loan classified on the firm's financial statements?   

A. 

fixed asset

B. 

current liability

C. 

long-term debt

D. 

equity

E. 

expense

 

30.

Sugar Tree Cookies has current net income of $268,000 of which $110,000 was paid out in dividends. The remaining $158,000 will be shown in which account on the firm's financial statements for next year?   

A. 

long-term debt

B. 

common stock

C. 

net income

D. 

retained earnings

E. 

paid in surplus

 

31.

Which of the following are classified as equity accounts on a balance sheet? I. goodwill II. paid in capital III. net income IV. retained earnings   

A. 

IV only

B. 

I and III only

C. 

II and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

II, III, and IV only

 

32.

Sales minus cost of goods sold are equal to which one of the following?   

A. 

net sales

B. 

operating income

C. 

gross profit

D. 

pretax income

E. 

net income

 

33.

The costs of materials used in the production of a product are recorded in which one of the following accounts?   

A. 

net sales

B. 

fixed costs

C. 

operating income

D. 

depreciation

E. 

cost of goods sold

 

34.

Which one of the following is NOT included in operating income?   

A. 

sales

B. 

depreciation

C. 

interest expense

D. 

cost of goods sold

E. 

other operating expenses

 

35.

Net income is equal to which one of the following?   

A. 

operating income plus interest expense minus taxes

B. 

gross profit minus depreciation and interest expense

C. 

pretax income plus income taxes

D. 

dividends plus the change in retained earnings

E. 

pretax income minus taxes and dividends

 

36.

Which one of the following statements is correct?   

A. 

Pretax income is equal to gross profit minus interest expense.

B. 

Gross profit is equal to sales minus costs of goods sold and depreciation.

C. 

Operating expenses are indirect costs.

D. 

Costs that vary directly with production are classified as operating expenses.

E. 

The change in retained earnings is equal to net income plus dividends paid.

 

37.

Which one of the following is the primary difference between operating cash flow and net income?   

A. 

interest expense

B. 

indirect costs

C. 

taxes

D. 

fixed costs

E. 

depreciation

 

38.

Which one of the following will increase the investment cash flow?   

A. 

purchase of an investment

B. 

issuing new shares of stock

C. 

repaying a bond issue

D. 

sale of a building

E. 

payment of interest on a bond issue

 

39.

Which one of the following is NOT a financing cash flow according to standard accounting practice?   

A. 

new issue of stock

B. 

repurchase of stock

C. 

new issue of debt

D. 

interest payments

E. 

dividend payments

 

40.

The summation of the operating, investment, and financing cash flows for a stated period of time must equal which one of the following for the same time period?   

A. 

net income

B. 

total assets

C. 

ending cash balance

D. 

change in the cash balance

E. 

taxable income

 

41.

A decrease in which one of the following will increase the gross margin?   

A. 

taxes

B. 

sales

C. 

depreciation

D. 

variable costs

E. 

fixed costs

 

42.

Which one of the following is generally used as the basis for computing the cash flow per share?   

A. 

operating cash flow

B. 

investment cash flow

C. 

financing cash flow

D. 

net cash increase

E. 

retained cash earnings

 

43.

A decrease in which one of the following will increase the return on assets?   

A. 

long-term debt

B. 

sales

C. 

inventory

D. 

retained earnings

E. 

dividends paid

 

44.

Which one of the following will increase the return on equity?   

A. 

increase in the corporate tax rate

B. 

decrease in fixed costs

C. 

issuance of debt to purchase equipment

D. 

increase in variable costs per unit

E. 

decrease in net sales

 

45.

Which of the following affect the earnings per share? I. decrease in interest expense II. share repurchase III. increase in tax rates IV. preferred stock dividend   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

46.

Which one of the following statements related to book value per share (BVPS) is correct?   

A. 

BVPS is equal to total assets divided by the number of shares outstanding.

B. 

An increase in the market value of a firm's fixed assets will increase the firm's BVPS.

C. 

The payment of a dividend increases BVPS.

D. 

BVPS is equal to the market price of a share of stock.

E. 

The issuance of new shares at market value may increase the BVPS.

 

47.

Which one of the following accounts is least likely to vary directly with the level of sales?   

A. 

accounts payable

B. 

inventory

C. 

cost of goods sold

D. 

interest expense

E. 

accounts receivable

 

48.

Which one of the following is most apt to be constant given the percentage of sales approach to creating pro forma statements?   

A. 

book value per share

B. 

gross margin

C. 

earnings per share

D. 

return on equity

E. 

cash flow per share

 

49.

A firm maintains a constant dividend payout ratio of .40. What must the plowback ratio be?   

A. 

1 + .40

B. 

1 - .40

C. 

1 × .40

D. 

1/.40

E. 

.40

 

50.

Which one of the following is most apt to vary directly with sales?   

A. 

current assets

B. 

long-term debt

C. 

shareholders' equity

D. 

paid-in capital

E. 

retained earnings

 

51.

Which two of the following are generally used to fund the external financing need? I. sale of fixed assets II. increase in accounts payable III. issuance of long-term debt IV. sale of equity securities   

A. 

I and II

B. 

I and III

C. 

II and III

D. 

II and IV

E. 

III and IV

 

52.

The management of the Uptown Bikes recently voted to limit any future borrowing or sales of company stock. By taking this action, management has effectively done which one of the following?   

A. 

increased the profit margin

B. 

lowered income taxes

C. 

maximized future dividends

D. 

maximized future retained earnings

E. 

limited future growth

 

53.

A firm has $2,500 of cash, equipment worth $45,000, inventory of $16,300, $14,000 worth of patents, and $12,200 of accounts receivable. What is the value of the total current assets?   

A. 

$1,500

B. 

$14,700

C. 

$16,700

D. 

$31,000

E. 

$72,900

 

54.

A firm has $4,200 of cash, equipment worth $46,300, inventory of $38,400, a building worth $130,500, and $21,500 of accounts receivable. What is the value of the total fixed assets?   

A. 

$176,800

B. 

$203,500

C. 

$196,400

D. 

$223,100

E. 

$226,900

 

55.

Young Industries has a 3-year bank loan of $85,000, a 6-month note payable of $6,000, a $67,300 mortgage, and accounts payable of $22,500. What is the amount of the total current liabilities? (Ignore the current portion of any long-term debt.)   

A. 

$5,000

B. 

$16,200

C. 

$28,500

D. 

$64,200

E. 

$117,000

 

56.

ABC Construction, Inc. has buildings and equipment of $315,600, long-term debt of $154,700, accounts payable of $52,000, cash of $9,800, accounts receivable of $18,300, inventory of $62,000, and retained earnings of $147,000. What is the total equity of the firm?   

A. 

$5,200

B. 

$97,000

C. 

$147,000

D. 

$199,000

E. 

$228,000

 

57.

GH Enterprises has annual sales of $5.2 million, depreciation of $350,000, operating expenses of $390,000, and cost of goods sold of $3.1 million. What is the gross profit?   

A. 

$460,000

B. 

$850,000

C. 

$2,100,000

D. 

$2,650,000

E. 

$3,710,000

 

58.

Behrend Corporation has annual sales of $4.5 million, depreciation of $425,000, operating expenses of $679,000, cost of goods sold of $2.3 million, and interest expense of $230,000. What is the operating income?   

A. 

$1,096,000

B. 

$2,036,000

C. 

$3,525,000

D. 

$4,000,000

E. 

$4,811,000

 

59.

Gold Jewelry, Inc. has annual sales of $4.5 million and a gross profit margin of 55 percent. The operating expenses are $540,750 and depreciation is $170,300. Interest expense is $95,000 and the tax rate is 35 percent. What is the net income?   

A. 

$1,002,980

B. 

$1,084,818

C. 

$1,356,220

D. 

$1,589,200

E. 

$2,385,000

 

60.

The Cruise Ship Co. has taxable income of $4,000,000. The company paid out $550,000 in interest expense. The tax rate is 35 percent and the dividend payout ratio is 30 percent. What is the amount that was paid out in dividends?   

A. 

$420,000

B. 

$550,000

C. 

$682,500

D. 

$780,000

E. 

$980,000

 

61.

Handy Man Services, Inc. has net income of $525,000. What is the addition to retained earnings if the dividend payout ratio is 40 percent?   

A. 

$123,253

B. 

$157,250

C. 

$183,750

D. 

$221,813

E. 

$315,000

 

62.

HNW Manufacturing, Inc. has 255,000 shares of stock outstanding. The firm paid out $255,000 in dividends, $195,000 in interest, and added $193,700 to retained earnings for the year. What is the amount of the earnings per share?   

A. 

$0.70

B. 

$0.78

C. 

$1.47

D. 

$1.63

E. 

$1.76

 

63.

O'Hara's Market has net income of $1.6 million and 525,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the amount of the dividends per share if the plowback ratio is 60 percent?   

A. 

$0.94

B. 

$1.07

C. 

$1.22

D. 

$1.67

E. 

$1.98

 

64.

Glassmakers, Inc. purchased $137,600 of new equipment this year and also increased the inventory by $36,800. Thirty-three thousand dollars worth of old equipment was sold. What is the investment cash flow for the year?   

A. 

-$49,300

B. 

-$98,000

C. 

-$104,600

D. 

-$125,500

E. 

-$133,300

 

65.

For the year, Widgets Manufacturing, Inc. increased its current accounts by $52,000, decreased its current liabilities by $38,000, and decreased its fixed assets by $31,000. What is the investment cash flow for the year?   

A. 

-$31,000

B. 

-$12,000

C. 

$19,000

D. 

$31,000

E. 

$48,000

 

66.

Healthy Supplements, Inc. paid $7,300 in interest and $4,300 in dividends for the year. The firm also issued $15,000 worth of new equity securities. What is the amount of the financing cash flow?   

A. 

$2,500

B. 

$5,200

C. 

$6,800

D. 

$7,700

E. 

$10,700

 

67.

Whole Wheat Farms, Inc. has a net income of $20,000 and a dividend payout ratio of 30 percent. The firm issued $12,000 worth of common stock during the period. The firm has no long-term debt. What is the financing cash flow for the period?   

A. 

$2,500

B. 

$3,000

C. 

$6,000

D. 

$9,000

E. 

$25,000

 

68.

Marley Enterprises has financing cash flow of -$41,400 and investment cash flow of $28,600 for the year. The beginning cash balance was $65,300 and the ending cash balance was $44,800. What was the operating cash flow for the period?   

A. 

-$15,500

B. 

-$9,600

C. 

-$7,700

D. 

$8,900

E. 

$15,500

 

69.

A firm has net sales of $35,000, operating expenses of $6,100, depreciation of $1,700, and cost of goods sold of $18,300. What is the gross margin?   

A. 

31.1 percent

B. 

35.4 percent

C. 

47.7 percent

D. 

52.9 percent

E. 

59.2 percent

 

70.

A firm has net sales of $65,000, operating expenses of $21,300, depreciation of $5,000, cost of goods sold of $36,500, and interest expense of $4,500. What is the operating margin?   

A. 

-2.8 percent

B. 

2.6 percent

C. 

3.4 percent

D. 

9.2 percent

E. 

10.3 percent

 

71.

Smith's Corner Market had annual sales of $425,300 and total assets of $366,000. What is the return on assets if the profit margin is 11 percent?   

A. 

8.2 percent

B. 

9.8 percent

C. 

10.6 percent

D. 

11.0 percent

E. 

12.8 percent

 

72.

Wholesale Grocer's has total assets of $580,000 and total liabilities of $375,000. Net sales for the year are $523,000 and the profit margin is 10.5 percent. What is the return on equity?   

A. 

10.6 percent

B. 

26.8 percent

C. 

31.2 percent

D. 

37.4 percent

E. 

44.6 percent

 

73.

A firm has a price-cash flow ratio of 12.5 and a price-book value ratio of 7.6. If the cash flow per share is $4.67, what is the book value per share?   

A. 

$2.84

B. 

$3.55

C. 

$4.44

D. 

$6.45

E. 

$7.68

 

74.

A company has a price-earnings ratio of 23 and a price-cash flow ratio of 11.5. If the earnings per share are $1.75, what is the cash flow per share?   

A. 

$2.16

B. 

$2.51

C. 

$3.06

D. 

$3.14

E. 

$3.50

 

75.

Green Recycling, Inc. has 150,000 shares of stock outstanding. The firm has total assets of $568,000 and total liabilities of $415,000. The firm's stock is selling for $31 a share. What is the price-book ratio?   

A. 

22.3

B. 

26.5

C. 

27.5

D. 

30.4

E. 

37.8

 

76.

A firm has net income of $22,500 and a book value per share of $3.10. The firm has 30,000 shares of stock outstanding and a price-earnings ratio of 15.9. What is the price-book ratio?   

A. 

1.7

B. 

2.4

C. 

2.7

D. 

3.8

E. 

4.3

 

77.

Children's Books, Inc. has net income of $48,000 and a plowback ratio of 85 percent. There are 25,000 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $18.64 a share. What is the price-earnings ratio?   

A. 

6.9

B. 

7.1

C. 

9.7

D. 

11.1

E. 

11.6

 

78.

Bay Marina, Inc. has net income of $53,700 and has 30,000 shares of stock outstanding. Similar firms have a price-earnings ratio of 20. Given this, what should the market price of Bay Marina, Inc. stock be per share?   

A. 

$28.91

B. 

$29.29

C. 

$30.40

D. 

$33.91

E. 

$35.80

 

79.

A firm has earnings per share of $3.50 and cash flow per share of $3.84. The price-earnings ratio is 24.1. What is the price-cash flow ratio?   

A. 

19.8

B. 

20.1

C. 

22.0

D. 

26.0

E. 

27.1

 

80.

A company has net income of $65,430, a price-earnings ratio of 22.6, and 25,800 shares of stock outstanding. If the price-cash flow ratio is 20.4, what is the cash flow per share?   

A. 

$2.05

B. 

$2.34

C. 

$2.50

D. 

$2.81

E. 

$3.14

 

81.

A firm has total equity of $61,600 and total liabilities of $18,900. Current assets are $44,700 and current liabilities are $15,200. What is the value of the net fixed assets?   

A. 

$8,300

B. 

$10,600

C. 

$29,500

D. 

$35,800

E. 

$42,700

 

82.

A company has the following account balances. How much cash does the firm have assuming there are no other accounts?      

A. 

$27,300

B. 

$27,900

C. 

$30,900

D. 

$47,300

E. 

$50,300

 

83.

The Erie Bay Liner Company has sales of $2.6 million and operating expenses of $175,000. The firm uses the percentage of sales approach and estimates next year's sales at $2.8 million. What are the operating expenses expected to be next year?   

A. 

$171,231

B. 

$175,123

C. 

$179,400

D. 

$182,549

E. 

$188,462

 

84.

A firm has sales of $685,000 and cost of goods sold of $435,000. The firm expects sales to increase by 6 percent next year. What is the gross profit amount expected to be next year if the firm uses the percentage of sales approach when compiling pro forma statements?   

A. 

$235,100

B. 

$265,000

C. 

$335,000

D. 

$355,100

E. 

$536,100

 

85.

Your company has pretax income of $52,000 on sales of $506,000. Sales are expected to increase by 6 percent next year and the tax rate is 40 percent. What is the expected net income for next year if your firm uses the percentage of sales approach when compiling pro forma statements?   

A. 

$28,938

B. 

$31,835

C. 

$33,072

D. 

$35,582

E. 

$44,520

 

86.

A firm has net income of $25,000 on sales of $210,000. Sales are expected to increase by 8 percent next year and the dividend payout ratio is 35 percent. The firm uses the percentage of sales approach when compiling pro forma statements. What amount is expected to be added to retained earnings next year?   

A. 

$14,300

B. 

$15,400

C. 

$15,686

D. 

$17,550

E. 

$21,600

 

87.

Last year, a firm had net income of $62,000 on sales of $595,000. The projected sales for next year are $654,500. Assume the firm uses the percentage of sales method for pro forma statements. What is the projected net income?   

A. 

$59,500

B. 

$65,500

C. 

$68,200

D. 

$71,500

E. 

$71,900

 

88.

Zonvier, Inc. has sales of $53,800, a profit margin of 10.5 percent, and a plowback ratio of 40 percent. The company has 15,000 shares of stock outstanding. The firm uses the percentage of sales method for pro forma statements and estimates next year's sales will increase by 15 percent. What is the dividend per share expected to be next year?   

A. 

$0.249

B. 

$0.250

C. 

$0.260

D. 

$0.268

E. 

$0.274

 

89.

A firm has current sales of $32,000. Projected sales for next year are $35,520. The percentage of sales approach is used for pro forma purposes. All balance sheet accounts, except long-term debt and common stock, change according to that approach. The expected increase in retained earnings is $2,200. What is the projected external financing need given the following current account values?      

A. 

-$3,532

B. 

-$1,969

C. 

-$1,390

D. 

$231

E. 

$1,341

 

90.

A firm has the following account balances for this year. Sales for the year are $500,000. Projected sales for next year are $545,000. The percentage of sales approach is used for pro forma purposes. All balance sheet accounts, except long-term debt and common stock, change according to that approach. The firm plans to decrease the long-term debt balance by $5,000 next year. Retained earnings is expected to increase by $3,500 next year. What is the projected external financing need?      

A. 

$10,520

B. 

$14,720

C. 

$18,520

D. 

$20,720

E. 

$25,620

 

91.

A firm has the following account balances for this year. Sales for the year are $420,000. Projected sales for next year are $441,000. The percentage of sales approach is used for pro forma purposes. All balance sheet accounts, except long-term debt and common stock, change according to that approach. The firm plans to decrease the long-term debt balance by $23,500 next year. Retained earnings is expected to increase by $5,400 next year. What is the projected external financing need?      

A. 

-$14,150

B. 

-$6,850

C. 

$32,850

D. 

$36,000

E. 

$56,350

 

92.

What is the operating cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

$400

B. 

$470

C. 

$530

D. 

$540

E. 

$610

 

93.

What is the investment cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

-$20

B. 

-$10

C. 

$10

D. 

$20

E. 

$100

 

94.

What is the financing cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

-$180

B. 

-$150

C. 

-$110

D. 

-$75

E. 

-$10

 

95.

What is the operating cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

$680

B. 

$650

C. 

$780

D. 

$890

E. 

$930

 

96.

What is the investment cash flow?      

A. 

-$220

B. 

-$140

C. 

-$120

D. 

-$20

E. 

-$10

 

97.

What is the financing cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

-$210

B. 

-$160

C. 

-$110

D. 

-$60

E. 

-$50

 

 

Essay Questions  

98.

Explain the role the external financing need plays in the future growth outlook for a firm.   

 

 

 

 

99.

Why is the expected rate of sales growth so critical to pro forma statements?   

 

 

 

 

100.

What value does the Statement of Cash Flows add to the financial statements of a firm?   

 

 

 

 

Chapter 17 Projecting Cash Flow and Earnings Answer Key  

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

You are interested in reviewing the information corporations file with the SEC. Which one of the following is the archive of these filings?   

A. 

SAMSON

B. 

REG FD

C.  

EDGAR

D. 

Nonpublic information files

E. 

ROA filings

See Section 17.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-01 How to obtain financial information about companies. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.1 Topic: EDGAR  

2.

How frequently do corporations file 10K reports with the SEC?   

A. 

monthly

B. 

quarterly

C. 

semi-annually

D.  

annually

E. 

only when the firm engages in a merger or an acquisition

See Section 17.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-01 How to obtain financial information about companies. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.1 Topic: 10K  

3.

Better Products just filed its quarterly report with the SEC. This report is referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

10F

B. 

10K

C.  

10Q

D. 

EDGAR 10

E. 

10FD

See Section 17.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-01 How to obtain financial information about companies. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.1 Topic: 10K  

4.

Regulation FD requires companies to do which one of the following when disclosing material non-public information?   

A. 

advise the SEC 7 working days prior to such disclosure

B.  

disclose the information without preference to any party or parties

C. 

only disclose the information to professional analysts

D. 

only disclose the information after a 7-day advance notice of an announcement

E. 

disclose the information only after a 24-hour delay

See Section 17.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-01 How to obtain financial information about companies. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.1 Topic: Regulation FD  

5.

Material nonpublic information is defined as any information that could reasonably be expected to do which one of the following?   

A.  

affect the price of the firm's securities

B. 

cause great embarrassment to the firm

C. 

cause one or more of the senior executives of the firm to resign

D. 

cause the SEC to halt the trading of the firm's securities should that information become public

E. 

affect the manner in which the firm presents its financial information

See Section 17.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-01 How to obtain financial information about companies. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.1 Topic: Material Nonpublic Information  

6.

Which one of the following provides information on a firm's assets and liabilities as of a particular date?   

A. 

cash flow statement

B. 

pro-forma income statement

C. 

income statement

D. 

tax return

E.  

balance sheet

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Balance Sheet  

7.

Which one of the following is an accounting statement that provides information on a firm's revenues and expenses?   

A. 

balance sheet

B. 

cash budget

C. 

pro-forma balance sheet

D.  

income statement

E. 

cash flow statement

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Income Statement  

8.

Which one of the following is an analysis of a firm's sources and uses of cash over a period of time?   

A. 

income statement

B. 

pro-forma income statement

C.  

cash flow statement

D. 

tax return

E. 

balance sheet

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Cash Flow Statement  

9.

Which one of the following is defined as anything a firm owns that has value?   

A. 

equity

B.  

asset

C. 

liability

D. 

cash inflow

E. 

cash outflow

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Asset  

10.

Which one of the following represents the amounts owed by a firm to other parties?   

A. 

assets

B. 

cash inflows

C. 

equities

D.  

liabilities

E. 

expenses

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Liability  

11.

Which one of the following is an ownership interest in a firm?   

A. 

asset

B. 

expense

C. 

net income

D. 

liability

E.  

equity

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Equity  

12.

Which one of the following is used to pay dividends or kept as retained earnings by a firm?   

A. 

equity

B. 

net cash flow

C. 

revenue

D.  

net income

E. 

expense

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Net Income  

13.

Which one of the following is income realized in cash form?   

A. 

net income

B. 

revenue

C.  

cash flow

D. 

retained earnings

E. 

dividends

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Cash Flows  

14.

Income and expense items NOT realized in cash form are called which one of the following?   

A. 

deductible expenses

B.  

noncash items

C. 

intangible assets

D. 

operating income

E. 

financing activities

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Noncash Items  

15.

Which one of the following is the definition of operating cash flow?   

A. 

revenue minus expenses

B. 

cash realized from the sale of assets

C. 

cash flow originating from the issuance of securities

D.  

cash generated by a firm's normal business activities

E. 

pre-tax income

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Cash Flow  

16.

Which one of the following is the definition of investment cash flow?   

A. 

revenue minus expenses

B.  

cash flow from the purchases and sales of fixed assets and investments

C. 

cash flow originating from the issuance of securities

D. 

cash generated by a firm's normal business activities

E. 

pre-tax income

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Investment Cash Flow  

17.

Which one of the following is the cash flow resulting from the payment of dividends and the issuance or repurchase of equity securities?   

A. 

balance sheet cash flow

B. 

operating cash flow

C.  

financing cash flow

D. 

business cash flow

E. 

investment cash flow

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Financing Cash Flow  

18.

Which one of the following is equal to net income expressed as a percentage of total assets?   

A. 

return on equity

B. 

return on the balance sheet

C. 

operating yield

D. 

net yield

E.  

return on assets

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Return on Assets  

19.

Return on equity is equal to which one of the following?   

A. 

dividend yield divided by total equity

B. 

retained earnings divided by total equity

C. 

revenue divided by total equity

D.  

net income divided by total equity

E. 

operating cash flow divided by total equity

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Return on Equity  

20.

Pro forma financial statements are statements based on which one of the following?   

A.  

projected future income, cash flows, and other non-cash items

B. 

historical revenue and expenses

C. 

historical asset and liability values

D. 

current period cash flows

E. 

current period revenues and expenses

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: Pro Forma Financial Statements  

21.

Which one of the following is a financial planning method wherein some account values vary in relation to expected sales?   

A. 

common size approach

B. 

linear method

C. 

percentage of net income method

D. 

adjusted sales method

E.  

percentage of sales approach

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

22.

Which one of the following ratios tells you the amount of assets a firm needs to generate $1 in sales?   

A.  

capital intensity ratio

B. 

return on assets

C. 

asset turnover rate

D. 

profit margin

E. 

earnings ratio

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: Capital Intensity Ratio  

23.

Which of the following reports are always included in a 10K filing with the SEC? I. statement of cash flows II. balance sheet III. pro-forma statement IV. income statement   

A. 

I only

B. 

IV only

C. 

II, III, and IV only

D.  

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 17.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-01 How to obtain financial information about companies. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.1 Topic: Information Sources  

24.

Which one of the following means of communication do most firms use for announcements in order to comply with Regulation FD?   

A. 

TV spots

B.  

e-mail alerts

C. 

public newspapers

D. 

radio

E. 

analyst networks

See Section 17.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-01 How to obtain financial information about companies. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.1 Topic: Regulation FD  

25.

Which of the following are current assets? I. inventory II. goodwill III. fixed assets IV. cash   

A. 

III only

B. 

IV only

C. 

II and III only

D.  

I and IV only

E. 

I, II, and IV only

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Current Assets  

26.

Which one of the following is an intangible fixed asset?   

A. 

accounts receivable

B.  

patent

C. 

inventory

D. 

equipment

E. 

building

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Intangible Fixed Asset  

27.

Which one of the following is a tangible fixed asset?   

A. 

cash

B.  

equipment

C. 

accounts receivable

D. 

right

E. 

inventory

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Fixed Assets  

28.

Stephen's Auto recently purchased Auto Express for $9.8 million. Auto Express had a market value of $9.5 million at the time of acquisition. The additional $0.3 million that Stephen's Auto paid for Auto Express will be treated on Stephen's Auto's balance sheet as which type of account?   

A. 

patent

B. 

depreciation

C. 

licenses

D.  

goodwill

E. 

acquisition expense

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Goodwill  

29.

Winter's Clothing has a loan payable to a bank which is due 18 months from now. How is this loan classified on the firm's financial statements?   

A. 

fixed asset

B. 

current liability

C.  

long-term debt

D. 

equity

E. 

expense

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Current Liability  

30.

Sugar Tree Cookies has current net income of $268,000 of which $110,000 was paid out in dividends. The remaining $158,000 will be shown in which account on the firm's financial statements for next year?   

A. 

long-term debt

B. 

common stock

C. 

net income

D.  

retained earnings

E. 

paid in surplus

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Retained Earnings  

31.

Which of the following are classified as equity accounts on a balance sheet? I. goodwill II. paid in capital III. net income IV. retained earnings   

A. 

IV only

B. 

I and III only

C.  

II and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

II, III, and IV only

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Equity Accounts  

32.

Sales minus cost of goods sold are equal to which one of the following?   

A. 

net sales

B. 

operating income

C.  

gross profit

D. 

pretax income

E. 

net income

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Gross Profit  

33.

The costs of materials used in the production of a product are recorded in which one of the following accounts?   

A. 

net sales

B. 

fixed costs

C. 

operating income

D. 

depreciation

E.  

cost of goods sold

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Cost of Goods Sold  

34.

Which one of the following is NOT included in operating income?   

A. 

sales

B. 

depreciation

C.  

interest expense

D. 

cost of goods sold

E. 

other operating expenses

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Income  

35.

Net income is equal to which one of the following?   

A. 

operating income plus interest expense minus taxes

B. 

gross profit minus depreciation and interest expense

C. 

pretax income plus income taxes

D.  

dividends plus the change in retained earnings

E. 

pretax income minus taxes and dividends

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Net Income  

36.

Which one of the following statements is correct?   

A. 

Pretax income is equal to gross profit minus interest expense.

B. 

Gross profit is equal to sales minus costs of goods sold and depreciation.

C.  

Operating expenses are indirect costs.

D. 

Costs that vary directly with production are classified as operating expenses.

E. 

The change in retained earnings is equal to net income plus dividends paid.

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Expenses  

37.

Which one of the following is the primary difference between operating cash flow and net income?   

A. 

interest expense

B. 

indirect costs

C. 

taxes

D. 

fixed costs

E.  

depreciation

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Cash Flow  

38.

Which one of the following will increase the investment cash flow?   

A. 

purchase of an investment

B. 

issuing new shares of stock

C. 

repaying a bond issue

D.  

sale of a building

E. 

payment of interest on a bond issue

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Investment Cash Flow  

39.

Which one of the following is NOT a financing cash flow according to standard accounting practice?   

A. 

new issue of stock

B. 

repurchase of stock

C. 

new issue of debt

D.  

interest payments

E. 

dividend payments

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Financing Cash Flow  

40.

The summation of the operating, investment, and financing cash flows for a stated period of time must equal which one of the following for the same time period?   

A. 

net income

B. 

total assets

C. 

ending cash balance

D.  

change in the cash balance

E. 

taxable income

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Cash Flows  

41.

A decrease in which one of the following will increase the gross margin?   

A. 

taxes

B. 

sales

C. 

depreciation

D.  

variable costs

E. 

fixed costs

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Gross Margin  

42.

Which one of the following is generally used as the basis for computing the cash flow per share?   

A.  

operating cash flow

B. 

investment cash flow

C. 

financing cash flow

D. 

net cash increase

E. 

retained cash earnings

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Cash Flow Per Share  

43.

A decrease in which one of the following will increase the return on assets?   

A. 

long-term debt

B. 

sales

C.  

inventory

D. 

retained earnings

E. 

dividends paid

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Return on Assets  

44.

Which one of the following will increase the return on equity?   

A. 

increase in the corporate tax rate

B.  

decrease in fixed costs

C. 

issuance of debt to purchase equipment

D. 

increase in variable costs per unit

E. 

decrease in net sales

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Return on Equity  

45.

Which of the following affect the earnings per share? I. decrease in interest expense II. share repurchase III. increase in tax rates IV. preferred stock dividend   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Earnings Per Share  

46.

Which one of the following statements related to book value per share (BVPS) is correct?   

A. 

BVPS is equal to total assets divided by the number of shares outstanding.

B. 

An increase in the market value of a firm's fixed assets will increase the firm's BVPS.

C. 

The payment of a dividend increases BVPS.

D. 

BVPS is equal to the market price of a share of stock.

E.  

The issuance of new shares at market value may increase the BVPS.

See Section 17.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Book Value Per Share  

47.

Which one of the following accounts is least likely to vary directly with the level of sales?   

A. 

accounts payable

B. 

inventory

C. 

cost of goods sold

D.  

interest expense

E. 

accounts receivable

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

48.

Which one of the following is most apt to be constant given the percentage of sales approach to creating pro forma statements?   

A. 

book value per share

B.  

gross margin

C. 

earnings per share

D. 

return on equity

E. 

cash flow per share

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

49.

A firm maintains a constant dividend payout ratio of .40. What must the plowback ratio be?   

A. 

1 + .40

B.  

1 - .40

C. 

1 × .40

D. 

1/.40

E. 

.40

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: Plowback Ratio  

50.

Which one of the following is most apt to vary directly with sales?   

A.  

current assets

B. 

long-term debt

C. 

shareholders' equity

D. 

paid-in capital

E. 

retained earnings

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales  

51.

Which two of the following are generally used to fund the external financing need? I. sale of fixed assets II. increase in accounts payable III. issuance of long-term debt IV. sale of equity securities   

A. 

I and II

B. 

I and III

C. 

II and III

D. 

II and IV

E.  

III and IV

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: External Financing Need  

52.

The management of the Uptown Bikes recently voted to limit any future borrowing or sales of company stock. By taking this action, management has effectively done which one of the following?   

A. 

increased the profit margin

B. 

lowered income taxes

C. 

maximized future dividends

D. 

maximized future retained earnings

E.  

limited future growth

See Section 17.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: External Financing Need  

53.

A firm has $2,500 of cash, equipment worth $45,000, inventory of $16,300, $14,000 worth of patents, and $12,200 of accounts receivable. What is the value of the total current assets?   

A. 

$1,500

B. 

$14,700

C. 

$16,700

D.  

$31,000

E. 

$72,900

Total current assets = $2,500 + $16,300 + $12,200 = $31,000

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Total Current Assets  

54.

A firm has $4,200 of cash, equipment worth $46,300, inventory of $38,400, a building worth $130,500, and $21,500 of accounts receivable. What is the value of the total fixed assets?   

A.  

$176,800

B. 

$203,500

C. 

$196,400

D. 

$223,100

E. 

$226,900

Total fixed assets = $46,300 + $130,500 = $176,800

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Total Fixed Assets  

55.

Young Industries has a 3-year bank loan of $85,000, a 6-month note payable of $6,000, a $67,300 mortgage, and accounts payable of $22,500. What is the amount of the total current liabilities? (Ignore the current portion of any long-term debt.)   

A. 

$5,000

B. 

$16,200

C.  

$28,500

D. 

$64,200

E. 

$117,000

Total current liabilities = $6,000 + $22,500 = $28,500

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Total Current Liabilities  

56.

ABC Construction, Inc. has buildings and equipment of $315,600, long-term debt of $154,700, accounts payable of $52,000, cash of $9,800, accounts receivable of $18,300, inventory of $62,000, and retained earnings of $147,000. What is the total equity of the firm?   

A. 

$5,200

B. 

$97,000

C. 

$147,000

D. 

$199,000

E.  

$228,000

Total assets = $325,600 + $11,000 + $26,000 + $65,000 = $427,600 Total liabilities = $144,600 + $55,000 = $199,600 Total equity = $427,600 - $199,600 = $228,000

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Total Equity  

57.

GH Enterprises has annual sales of $5.2 million, depreciation of $350,000, operating expenses of $390,000, and cost of goods sold of $3.1 million. What is the gross profit?   

A. 

$460,000

B. 

$850,000

C.  

$2,100,000

D. 

$2,650,000

E. 

$3,710,000

Gross profit = $5,200,000 - $3,100,000 = $2,100,000

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Gross Profit  

58.

Behrend Corporation has annual sales of $4.5 million, depreciation of $425,000, operating expenses of $679,000, cost of goods sold of $2.3 million, and interest expense of $230,000. What is the operating income?   

A.  

$1,096,000

B. 

$2,036,000

C. 

$3,525,000

D. 

$4,000,000

E. 

$4,811,000

Operating income = $4,500,000 - $425,000 - $679,000 - $2,300,000 = $1,096,000

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Income  

59.

Gold Jewelry, Inc. has annual sales of $4.5 million and a gross profit margin of 55 percent. The operating expenses are $540,750 and depreciation is $170,300. Interest expense is $95,000 and the tax rate is 35 percent. What is the net income?   

A. 

$1,002,980

B.  

$1,084,818

C. 

$1,356,220

D. 

$1,589,200

E. 

$2,385,000

Net income = [($4,500,000 × .55) - $540,750 - $170,300 - $95,000] × (1 - .35) = $1,084,818

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Net Income  

60.

The Cruise Ship Co. has taxable income of $4,000,000. The company paid out $550,000 in interest expense. The tax rate is 35 percent and the dividend payout ratio is 30 percent. What is the amount that was paid out in dividends?   

A. 

$420,000

B. 

$550,000

C.  

$682,500

D. 

$780,000

E. 

$980,000

Dividends = $3,500,000 × (1 - .35) × .30 = $682,500

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Dividends  

61.

Handy Man Services, Inc. has net income of $525,000. What is the addition to retained earnings if the dividend payout ratio is 40 percent?   

A. 

$123,253

B. 

$157,250

C. 

$183,750

D. 

$221,813

E.  

$315,000

Addition to retained earnings = $525,000 × (1 - .40) = $315,000

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Addition to Retained Earnings  

62.

HNW Manufacturing, Inc. has 255,000 shares of stock outstanding. The firm paid out $255,000 in dividends, $195,000 in interest, and added $193,700 to retained earnings for the year. What is the amount of the earnings per share?   

A. 

$0.70

B. 

$0.78

C. 

$1.47

D. 

$1.63

E.  

$1.76

Earnings per share = ($255,000 + $193,700)/255,000 = $1.76

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Earnings Per Share  

63.

O'Hara's Market has net income of $1.6 million and 525,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the amount of the dividends per share if the plowback ratio is 60 percent?   

A. 

$0.94

B. 

$1.07

C.  

$1.22

D. 

$1.67

E. 

$1.98

Dividends per share = [$1,600,000 × (1 - .60)]/525,000 = $1.22

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Dividends per Share  

64.

Glassmakers, Inc. purchased $137,600 of new equipment this year and also increased the inventory by $36,800. Thirty-three thousand dollars worth of old equipment was sold. What is the investment cash flow for the year?   

A. 

-$49,300

B. 

-$98,000

C.  

-$104,600

D. 

-$125,500

E. 

-$133,300

Investment cash flow = -$137,600 + $33,000 = -$104,600

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Investment Cash Flow  

65.

For the year, Widgets Manufacturing, Inc. increased its current accounts by $52,000, decreased its current liabilities by $38,000, and decreased its fixed assets by $31,000. What is the investment cash flow for the year?   

A. 

-$31,000

B. 

-$12,000

C. 

$19,000

D.  

$31,000

E. 

$48,000

Investment cash flow = $31,000

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Investment Cash Flow  

66.

Healthy Supplements, Inc. paid $7,300 in interest and $4,300 in dividends for the year. The firm also issued $15,000 worth of new equity securities. What is the amount of the financing cash flow?   

A. 

$2,500

B. 

$5,200

C. 

$6,800

D. 

$7,700

E.  

$10,700

Financing cash flow = - $7,300 + $15,000 = $10,700

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Financing Cash Flow  

67.

Whole Wheat Farms, Inc. has a net income of $20,000 and a dividend payout ratio of 30 percent. The firm issued $12,000 worth of common stock during the period. The firm has no long-term debt. What is the financing cash flow for the period?   

A. 

$2,500

B. 

$3,000

C.  

$6,000

D. 

$9,000

E. 

$25,000

Financing cash flow = ($20,000 × .30 × -1) + $12,000 = $6,000

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Financing Cash Flow  

68.

Marley Enterprises has financing cash flow of -$41,400 and investment cash flow of $28,600 for the year. The beginning cash balance was $65,300 and the ending cash balance was $44,800. What was the operating cash flow for the period?   

A. 

-$15,500

B. 

-$9,600

C.  

-$7,700

D. 

$8,900

E. 

$15,500

Operating cash flow = ($44,800 - $65,300) - (-$41,400) - $28,600 = -$7,700

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Cash Flow  

69.

A firm has net sales of $35,000, operating expenses of $6,100, depreciation of $1,700, and cost of goods sold of $18,300. What is the gross margin?   

A. 

31.1 percent

B. 

35.4 percent

C.  

47.7 percent

D. 

52.9 percent

E. 

59.2 percent

Gross margin percentage = ($35,000 - $18,300)/$35,000 = 47.7 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Gross Margin  

70.

A firm has net sales of $65,000, operating expenses of $21,300, depreciation of $5,000, cost of goods sold of $36,500, and interest expense of $4,500. What is the operating margin?   

A. 

-2.8 percent

B. 

2.6 percent

C.  

3.4 percent

D. 

9.2 percent

E. 

10.3 percent

Operating margin = ($65,000 - $21,300 - $5,000 - $36,500)/$65,000 = 3.4 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Margin  

71.

Smith's Corner Market had annual sales of $425,300 and total assets of $366,000. What is the return on assets if the profit margin is 11 percent?   

A. 

8.2 percent

B. 

9.8 percent

C. 

10.6 percent

D. 

11.0 percent

E.  

12.8 percent

Return on assets = (.11 × $425,300)/$366,000 = 12.8 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Return on Assets  

72.

Wholesale Grocer's has total assets of $580,000 and total liabilities of $375,000. Net sales for the year are $523,000 and the profit margin is 10.5 percent. What is the return on equity?   

A. 

10.6 percent

B.  

26.8 percent

C. 

31.2 percent

D. 

37.4 percent

E. 

44.6 percent

Return on equity = (.105 × $523,000)/($580,000 - $375,000) = 26.8 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Return on Equity  

73.

A firm has a price-cash flow ratio of 12.5 and a price-book value ratio of 7.6. If the cash flow per share is $4.67, what is the book value per share?   

A. 

$2.84

B. 

$3.55

C. 

$4.44

D. 

$6.45

E.  

$7.68

Price = $4.67 × 12.5 = $58.375 BVPS = $58.375/7.6 = $7.68

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Book Value Per Share  

74.

A company has a price-earnings ratio of 23 and a price-cash flow ratio of 11.5. If the earnings per share are $1.75, what is the cash flow per share?   

A. 

$2.16

B. 

$2.51

C. 

$3.06

D. 

$3.14

E.  

$3.50

Price = $1.75 × 23 = $40.25 CFPS = $40.25/11.5 = $3.50

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Cash Flow Per Share  

75.

Green Recycling, Inc. has 150,000 shares of stock outstanding. The firm has total assets of $568,000 and total liabilities of $415,000. The firm's stock is selling for $31 a share. What is the price-book ratio?   

A. 

22.3

B. 

26.5

C. 

27.5

D.  

30.4

E. 

37.8

BVPS = ($568,000 - $415,000)/150,000 = $1.02 Price-book ratio = $31/$1.02 = 30.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Price-Book Ratio  

76.

A firm has net income of $22,500 and a book value per share of $3.10. The firm has 30,000 shares of stock outstanding and a price-earnings ratio of 15.9. What is the price-book ratio?   

A. 

1.7

B. 

2.4

C. 

2.7

D.  

3.8

E. 

4.3

Price = ($22,500/30,000) × 15.9 = $11.93 Price-book ratio = $11.93/$3.10 = 3.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Price-Book Ratio  

77.

Children's Books, Inc. has net income of $48,000 and a plowback ratio of 85 percent. There are 25,000 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $18.64 a share. What is the price-earnings ratio?   

A. 

6.9

B. 

7.1

C.  

9.7

D. 

11.1

E. 

11.6

Price-earnings ratio = $18.64/($48,000/25,000) = 9.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Price-Earnings Ratio  

78.

Bay Marina, Inc. has net income of $53,700 and has 30,000 shares of stock outstanding. Similar firms have a price-earnings ratio of 20. Given this, what should the market price of Bay Marina, Inc. stock be per share?   

A. 

$28.91

B. 

$29.29

C. 

$30.40

D. 

$33.91

E.  

$35.80

Price = ($53,700/30,000) × 20 = $35.80

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Price-Earnings Ratio  

79.

A firm has earnings per share of $3.50 and cash flow per share of $3.84. The price-earnings ratio is 24.1. What is the price-cash flow ratio?   

A. 

19.8

B. 

20.1

C.  

22.0

D. 

26.0

E. 

27.1

Price = $3.50 × 24.1 = $84.35 Price-cash flow ratio = $84.35/$3.84 = 22.0

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Price-Cash Flow Ratio  

80.

A company has net income of $65,430, a price-earnings ratio of 22.6, and 25,800 shares of stock outstanding. If the price-cash flow ratio is 20.4, what is the cash flow per share?   

A. 

$2.05

B. 

$2.34

C. 

$2.50

D.  

$2.81

E. 

$3.14

Price = ($65,430/25,800) × 22.6 = $57.3147 Cash flow per share = $57.3147/20.4 = $2.81

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-03 How to use performance and price ratios. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Price-Cash Flow Ratio  

81.

A firm has total equity of $61,600 and total liabilities of $18,900. Current assets are $44,700 and current liabilities are $15,200. What is the value of the net fixed assets?   

A. 

$8,300

B. 

$10,600

C. 

$29,500

D.  

$35,800

E. 

$42,700

Net fixed assets = ($61,600 + $18,900) - $44,700 = $35,800

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Balance Sheet Identity  

82.

A company has the following account balances. How much cash does the firm have assuming there are no other accounts?      

A. 

$27,300

B. 

$27,900

C.  

$30,900

D. 

$47,300

E. 

$50,300

Cash = ($98,800 + $19,100 + $34,000) - ($22,500 + $20,200 + $78,300) = $30,900

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.2 Topic: Balance Sheet Identity  

83.

The Erie Bay Liner Company has sales of $2.6 million and operating expenses of $175,000. The firm uses the percentage of sales approach and estimates next year's sales at $2.8 million. What are the operating expenses expected to be next year?   

A. 

$171,231

B. 

$175,123

C. 

$179,400

D. 

$182,549

E.  

$188,462

Next year's operating expenses = ($175,000/$2,600,000) × $2,800,000 = $188,462

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

84.

A firm has sales of $685,000 and cost of goods sold of $435,000. The firm expects sales to increase by 6 percent next year. What is the gross profit amount expected to be next year if the firm uses the percentage of sales approach when compiling pro forma statements?   

A. 

$235,100

B.  

$265,000

C. 

$335,000

D. 

$355,100

E. 

$536,100

Pro forma gross profit = ($685,000 - $435,000) × (1 + .06) = $265,000

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

85.

Your company has pretax income of $52,000 on sales of $506,000. Sales are expected to increase by 6 percent next year and the tax rate is 40 percent. What is the expected net income for next year if your firm uses the percentage of sales approach when compiling pro forma statements?   

A. 

$28,938

B. 

$31,835

C.  

$33,072

D. 

$35,582

E. 

$44,520

Pro forma net income = $52,000 × (1 + .06) × (1 - .40) = $33,072

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

86.

A firm has net income of $25,000 on sales of $210,000. Sales are expected to increase by 8 percent next year and the dividend payout ratio is 35 percent. The firm uses the percentage of sales approach when compiling pro forma statements. What amount is expected to be added to retained earnings next year?   

A. 

$14,300

B. 

$15,400

C. 

$15,686

D.  

$17,550

E. 

$21,600

Addition to retained earnings = $25,000 × (1 + .08) × (1 - .35) = $17,550

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

87.

Last year, a firm had net income of $62,000 on sales of $595,000. The projected sales for next year are $654,500. Assume the firm uses the percentage of sales method for pro forma statements. What is the projected net income?   

A. 

$59,500

B. 

$65,500

C.  

$68,200

D. 

$71,500

E. 

$71,900

Percentage increase in sales = ($654,500 - $595,000)/$595,000 = .10 Pro forma net income = $62,000 × (1 + .10) = $68,200

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

88.

Zonvier, Inc. has sales of $53,800, a profit margin of 10.5 percent, and a plowback ratio of 40 percent. The company has 15,000 shares of stock outstanding. The firm uses the percentage of sales method for pro forma statements and estimates next year's sales will increase by 15 percent. What is the dividend per share expected to be next year?   

A. 

$0.249

B. 

$0.250

C.  

$0.260

D. 

$0.268

E. 

$0.274

Pro forma dividend per share = [$53,800 × (1 + .15) × .105 × (1 - .40)]/15,000 = $0.260

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

89.

A firm has current sales of $32,000. Projected sales for next year are $35,520. The percentage of sales approach is used for pro forma purposes. All balance sheet accounts, except long-term debt and common stock, change according to that approach. The expected increase in retained earnings is $2,200. What is the projected external financing need given the following current account values?      

A. 

-$3,532

B. 

-$1,969

C. 

-$1,390

D. 

$231

E.  

$1,341

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: External Financing Need  

90.

A firm has the following account balances for this year. Sales for the year are $500,000. Projected sales for next year are $545,000. The percentage of sales approach is used for pro forma purposes. All balance sheet accounts, except long-term debt and common stock, change according to that approach. The firm plans to decrease the long-term debt balance by $5,000 next year. Retained earnings is expected to increase by $3,500 next year. What is the projected external financing need?      

A. 

$10,520

B.  

$14,720

C. 

$18,520

D. 

$20,720

E. 

$25,620

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: External Financing Need  

91.

A firm has the following account balances for this year. Sales for the year are $420,000. Projected sales for next year are $441,000. The percentage of sales approach is used for pro forma purposes. All balance sheet accounts, except long-term debt and common stock, change according to that approach. The firm plans to decrease the long-term debt balance by $23,500 next year. Retained earnings is expected to increase by $5,400 next year. What is the projected external financing need?      

A. 

-$14,150

B. 

-$6,850

C. 

$32,850

D.  

$36,000

E. 

$56,350

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: External Financing Need  

92.

What is the operating cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

$400

B. 

$470

C. 

$530

D. 

$540

E.  

$610

Operating cash flow = $550 + $60 = $610

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Cash Flow  

93.

What is the investment cash flow, given the following information?      

A.  

-$20

B. 

-$10

C. 

$10

D. 

$20

E. 

$100

Investment cash flow = $40 - $60 = -$20

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Investment Cash Flow  

94.

What is the financing cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

-$180

B. 

-$150

C. 

-$110

D.  

-$75

E. 

-$10

Financing cash flow = $25 - $30 - $70 = -$75

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Financing Cash Flow  

95.

What is the operating cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

$680

B. 

$650

C. 

$780

D. 

$890

E.  

$930

Operating cash flow = $800 + $130 = $930

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Operating Cash Flow  

96.

What is the investment cash flow?      

A. 

-$220

B. 

-$140

C. 

-$120

D.  

-$20

E. 

-$10

Investment cash flow = $45 - $65 = -$20

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Investment Cash Flow  

97.

What is the financing cash flow, given the following information?      

A. 

-$210

B. 

-$160

C. 

-$110

D. 

-$60

E.  

-$50

Financing cash flow = $60 - $80 - $30 = -$50

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Financing Cash Flow  

 

Essay Questions  

98.

Explain the role the external financing need plays in the future growth outlook for a firm.   

Answer will vary Feedback: The external financing need is the difference between the expected total assets and the expected total liabilities and equity. If this need is positive, external funding must be raised through external debt and/or equity financing. If the financing is not available, or not acceptable to management, then the projected sales growth of the firm is unattainable. If the external financing need is negative, then the firm will be able to increase its dividend, reduce its debt, or grow at a faster rate.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: External Financing Need  

99.

Why is the expected rate of sales growth so critical to pro forma statements?   

Answer will vary Feedback: Sales is the starting point for the percentage of sales approach (as well as other approaches) to creating pro forma statements. Most expenses as well as the net working capital accounts tend to vary in direct relation to sales. If the sales estimate is unreliable, then the pro forma statements are also unreliable.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 17-04 How to use the percentage of sales method in financial forecasting. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.3 Topic: Percentage of Sales Approach  

100.

What value does the Statement of Cash Flows add to the financial statements of a firm?   

Answer will vary Feedback: The balance sheet and income statement are compiled according to Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) and do not reveal the actual receipt and disbursement of cash. The Statement of Cash Flows shows the cash flows by category - operating, investment, and financing. This allows management to determine if a firm is generating sufficient income to meet its needs without accessing external funds. Firms do not go bankrupt because they have negative net income; they go bankrupt because they have no cash.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 17-02 How to read basic financial statements. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.2 Topic: Cash Flows  

Chapter 18

Corporate and Government Bonds

 

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following best defines a plain vanilla bond?   

A. 

bond secured by agricultural or food inventory

B. 

bond with relatively standard features

C. 

unsecured debt

D. 

bond secured with financial collateral

E. 

bond that has no coupon payments

 

2.

Which one of the following terms is defined as debt issued without specific collateral pledged as security?   

A. 

unsecured debt

B. 

indenture

C. 

vanilla bond

D. 

naked bond

E. 

risk-free bond

 

3.

Which one of the following is an unsecured bond issued by a corporation?   

A. 

indenture

B. 

general obligation bond

C. 

plain vanilla bond

D. 

debenture

E. 

trust bond

 

4.

Which one of the following is the portion of a prospectus that outlines the contractual terms of a new bond issue?   

A. 

indenture summary

B. 

financial disclosure

C. 

covenant agreement

D. 

security agreement

E. 

trust agreement

 

5.

What is the document called that is distributed to potential bondholders and provides detailed information on the financial position and operations of the bond issuer?   

A. 

indenture summary

B. 

prospectus

C. 

trust statement

D. 

10K

E. 

10Q

 

6.

Which one of the following is an unsecured bond that has a higher claim on a firm's assets than other unsecured bonds?   

A. 

plain vanilla bond

B. 

subordinated debenture

C. 

refunded bond

D. 

senior debenture

E. 

collateral trust bond

 

7.

During a bankruptcy proceeding, Bond A will be paid only if funds remain after the bonds that have a higher claim on the issuer's assets have been paid. What type of bond is Bond A?   

A. 

plain vanilla bond

B. 

senior trust bond

C. 

junior trust bond

D. 

subordinated debenture

E. 

senior debenture

 

8.

Which one of the following is the clause which prevents a bond issuer from issuing new debt that has seniority over current debt?   

A. 

first-in-line

B. 

sinking fund

C. 

call provision

D. 

affirmation

E. 

negative pledge

 

9.

Which one of the following accurately describes bond refunding?   

A. 

replacing maturing bonds with a new bond issue

B. 

calling existing bonds and refinancing those bonds with new debt

C. 

paying off bonds early with excess cash generated by the firm

D. 

replacing maturing bonds with an equity issue

E. 

paying bonds off early to satisfy disgruntled bondholders

 

10.

Which one of the following provisions grants the bondholder the option of selling the bond back to the issuer at a prespecified price on prespecified dates?   

A. 

convertible

B. 

call

C. 

put

D. 

exchange

E. 

sinking fund

 

11.

Which one of the following provisions grants the bondholder the option of exchanging a bond for a prespecified number of shares of stock of the same issuer?   

A. 

put

B. 

call

C. 

equity

D. 

conversion

E. 

sinking

 

12.

Which one of the following defines an in-the-money bond?   

A. 

secured bond with collateral value that exceeds the bond's price

B. 

callable bond with a call price that exceeds the current market price

C. 

put bond with a put price that exceeds the current market price

D. 

convertible bond with a call price that exceeds its conversion value

E. 

convertible bond with a conversion value that exceeds its call price

 

13.

Which one of the following terms is given to the value of a convertible bond that would equate to the value of a comparable nonconvertible bond?   

A. 

out-of-the money value

B. 

in-the-money value

C. 

discounted value

D. 

external value

E. 

intrinsic value

 

14.

What is a bond called if it can be converted into shares of stock of a firm other than the bond issuer?   

A. 

swap bond

B. 

alternate bond

C. 

exchangeable bond

D. 

convertible bond

E. 

callable bond

 

15.

Term bonds are defined as all bonds in a bond issue having which one of the following characteristics?   

A. 

sequential maturity dates

B. 

serial maturity dates

C. 

multiple maturity dates

D. 

an identical maturity date

E. 

renewable maturity dates

 

16.

Bonds issued with a regular sequence of maturity dates are called which one of the following?   

A. 

callable bonds

B. 

sequential bonds

C. 

serial bonds

D. 

sinking bonds

E. 

put bonds

 

17.

Which one of the following is an account used to provide for scheduled redemptions of outstanding bonds?   

A. 

redemption fund

B. 

sinking fund

C. 

liquidation account

D. 

serial account

E. 

callable account

 

18.

What are the various provisions within a bond indenture that are designed to protect bondholders by restricting the actions of the issuer called?   

A. 

restrictive actions

B. 

prohibitions

C. 

negative conditions

D. 

protective covenants

E. 

restrictive amendments

 

19.

Which one of the following identifies a new bond issue as being a private placement?   

A. 

The proceeds of the issue are used for a single project.

B. 

The issue is marketed through a sole brokerage house.

C. 

The issue is sold only to individuals rather than to institutional investors.

D. 

The issue is not made available to the public.

E. 

The issue names a private individual as the bond trustee.

 

20.

Adjustable-rate bonds are identified by which one of the following characteristics?   

A. 

The coupon rate will increase should the credit rating of the bond decline.

B. 

Different bonds within the same issue have different coupon rates.

C. 

Bondholders can defer coupon payments at their discretion.

D. 

The amount of each coupon payment will depend on the free cash flow of the issuer.

E. 

The coupon rate changes in response to changes in current market rates.

 

21.

Which one of the following is an assessment of the credit quality of a bond based on the financial condition of the bond issuer?   

A. 

protective covenant

B. 

risk analysis

C. 

credit rating

D. 

serial report

E. 

in-the-money status

 

22.

What are the restrictions on investment portfolios that require that all securities held within the portfolio meet a specified level of safety called?   

A. 

protective covenants

B. 

negative restrictions

C. 

prudent investment guidelines

D. 

safety monitors

E. 

risk ranges

 

23.

Bonds with relatively high coupons due to their speculative credit ratings are called which one of the following?   

A. 

investment-grade bonds

B. 

high-yield bonds

C. 

prudent risk bonds

D. 

floating-rate bonds

E. 

covenant bonds

 

24.

Which of the following are common characteristics associated with corporate bonds? I. specified cash flows II. equity ownership III. call feature IV. set maturity date   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

II and III only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, III, and IV only

 

25.

Which one of the following parties is the largest holder of U.S. corporate bonds?   

A. 

pension funds

B. 

life insurance companies

C. 

banks

D. 

foreign investors

E. 

individual investors

 

26.

Which one of the following features of corporate bonds has the greatest appeal to pension fund investors?   

A. 

call provision

B. 

convertible provision

C. 

zero repayment risk

D. 

prospectus availability

E. 

predictable cash flows

 

27.

A pension fund purchases bonds so that the payments from the bonds provide sufficient cash inflow in a timely manner to offset the cash outflows from the pension fund. What is this investment strategy called?   

A. 

cash flow matching

B. 

cash diversification

C. 

cash stabilization

D. 

in-out investing

E. 

plain vanilla matching

 

28.

Which of the following features would you expect a plain vanilla bond to have? I. semi-annual coupon payments II. $1,000 face value III. stated maturity date IV. multiple bonds within one issue   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

II, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

29.

The entire formal contract between a bond issuer and the bondholders is found in which one of the following documents?   

A. 

prospectus

B. 

prospectus summary

C. 

indenture agreement

D. 

indenture summary

E. 

trust certificate

 

30.

Which one of the following statements related to callable bonds is correct?   

A. 

Callable bonds are issued at the call price.

B. 

Callable bonds can be called at any time.

C. 

Callable bonds are generally called at the market price at the time of the call.

D. 

Callable bonds are more apt to be called if market interest rates decline.

E. 

Callable bonds are generally priced higher than comparable noncallable bonds.

 

31.

How much will you be paid if you own a bond that is called under a make-whole call provision?   

A. 

the face value

B. 

an amount equal to the par value plus the total amount of the remaining interest payments

C. 

the present value of all future bond payments that will not be paid because of the call

D. 

the current market value plus a prespecified call premium

E. 

an amount equal to the normal maturity value of the bond

 

32.

After the call protection period, which one of the following basically serves as the upper price limit on a callable bond?   

A. 

present value of all future bond payments discounted at the current market rate of interest

B. 

face value of the bond

C. 

call price of the bond

D. 

current market price of the bond

E. 

current market price of a comparable noncallable bond

 

33.

Which one of the following statements related to a put bond is correct?   

A. 

Put bonds are generally redeemed at a premium over par value.

B. 

Put bonds can be redeemed at any time once the put protection period has elapsed.

C. 

The put feature effectively sets the ceiling price for the bond.

D. 

The put feature helps protect bondholders from the risk associated with rising interest rates.

E. 

A putable bond is generally priced lower than a comparable nonputable bond.

 

34.

Which one of the following statements related to convertible bonds is correct?   

A. 

Bondholders forego higher coupon rates in exchange for the conversion option.

B. 

Convertible bonds are generally issued such that the conversion value is equal to the par value.

C. 

The conversion price is equal to the bond's market value divided by the conversion ratio.

D. 

The conversion value is equal to the bond's market price multiplied by the conversion ratio.

E. 

Bonds should be converted as soon as the conversion value exceeds the face value.

 

35.

Which one of the following statements related to convertible bonds is correct?   

A. 

Convertible bonds have a maximum value equal to the bond's intrinsic value.

B. 

Convertible bonds have limited downside risk with unlimited upside potential.

C. 

A convertible bond is in-the-money when its call price is greater than its conversion value.

D. 

Convertible bonds must be converted prior to or on the maturity date.

E. 

Convertible bonds must be converted once they are called.

 

36.

Which one of these statements regarding corporate bond credit ratings is correct?   

A. 

Bonds rated Ba3 or above by Moody's are considered investment-grade bonds.

B. 

All bonds issued by the same issuer will have the same credit rating.

C. 

A bond's credit spread may be a better indicator of a bond's risk than its rating.

D. 

Bond ratings are based solely on the seniority of the bond issue and the protective covenants by which it is covered.

E. 

Credit ratings are assigned to the bond issuer, not the bond issue.

 

37.

Which one of the following is another name for a junk bond?   

A. 

high-yield

B. 

convertible

C. 

private placement

D. 

subordinated

E. 

called

 

38.

What is the method of selling Treasury bills at less than face value called?   

A. 

imputed basis

B. 

par value method

C. 

discount basis

D. 

STRIP basis

E. 

face value method

 

39.

What is the interest on a Treasury bill called when it is determined by the size of the bill's discount from face value?   

A. 

assumed interest

B. 

imputed interest

C. 

imaginary interest

D. 

convergent interest

E. 

original-issue interest

 

40.

Which one of the following is the Treasury program allowing interest and principal payments from Treasury notes or bonds to be sold separately?   

A. 

EDGAR

B. 

TRSTRP

C. 

TRIPS

D. 

TZEROES

E. 

STRIPS

 

41.

Which one of the following descriptors is used to identify a bond that pays one single payment at maturity?   

A. 

zero coupon

B. 

imputed value

C. 

solo

D. 

STRIP

E. 

term

 

42.

Which one of the following is the difference between the price a bond dealer is willing to pay to buy and the price at which he or she is willing to sell?   

A. 

commission

B. 

imputed cost

C. 

imputed interest

D. 

bid-ask spread

E. 

ask price

 

43.

What is the lowest accepted competitive bid in a U.S. Treasury auction called?   

A. 

selected price

B. 

base price

C. 

stop-out bid

D. 

imputed bid

E. 

set bid

 

44.

Which one of the following is the risk that a bond issuer will cease paying the interest and principal payments as scheduled?   

A. 

interest rate risk

B. 

default risk

C. 

market risk

D. 

conversion risk

E. 

earnings risk

 

45.

Municipal bonds that are secured by the full faith and credit of the issuer are referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

general obligation bonds

B. 

local taxation bonds

C. 

fully funded bonds

D. 

revenue bonds

E. 

private activity bonds

 

46.

Which one of the following is a municipal bond that is secured by the income collected from a specific project?   

A. 

agency bond

B. 

general obligation bond

C. 

development bond

D. 

contingency bond

E. 

revenue bond

 

47.

Which one of the following is a municipal bond that is secured by both the revenues from a project and also by the taxing authority of the municipality?   

A. 

mixed bond

B. 

general obligation bond

C. 

hybrid bond

D. 

dual bond

E. 

multiple bond

 

48.

Which one of the following is a taxable municipal bond used to finance a facility used by a private business?   

A. 

private activity bond

B. 

private revenue bond

C. 

private corporate bond

D. 

private agency bond

E. 

private income bond

 

49.

Which of the following features apply to T-bills? I. original maturities of 4, 13, or 26 weeks II. minimum face value of $10,000 III. sold at a discount IV. semiannual interest payments   

A. 

IV only

B. 

I and III only

C. 

I and IV only

D. 

II and III only

E. 

II and IV only

 

50.

Which one of the following statements applies to U.S. Treasury bonds?   

A. 

They have original maturities of 1 to 10 years.

B. 

They have a minimum face value of $100,000.

C. 

They are zero-coupon securities.

D. 

They pay a fixed coupon payment semiannually.

E. 

They are adjusted semiannually for inflation.

 

51.

You just purchased a 5-year STRIPS security that was created from a 30-year T-bond. How many payments will you receive?   

A. 

1

B. 

10

C. 

11

D. 

60

E. 

61

 

52.

Which one of the following statements related to TIPS is correct assuming an inflationary environment?   

A. 

TIPS have a maturity value of $1,000.

B. 

TIPS pay an interest payment based on the latest T-bill rate.

C. 

TIPS pay a fixed coupon rate.

D. 

The principal amount of a TIPS is adjusted annually for inflation.

E. 

The interest rate is adjusted semiannually for inflation.

 

53.

Which of the following statements correctly apply to TIPS? I. They are quoted as a percentage of the current accrued principal. II. They pay a variable interest rate that responds to movements in the inflation rate. III. They are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government. IV. They adjust for inflation on an annual basis.   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

III and IV only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

II, III, and IV only

 

54.

Which one of the following applies to U.S. Treasury auctions?   

A. 

Every bidder has a choice of submitting either a competitive or a noncompetitive bid.

B. 

The purchase price paid by all bidders is the highest bid price.

C. 

Each bidder with an accepted bid will pay the individual price he or she bid.

D. 

All noncompetitive bids are accepted automatically.

E. 

Noncompetitive bids are ignored unless there are not enough competitive bids to buy the entire issue.

 

55.

What price will a noncompetitive bidder pay for a security being purchased through a U.S. Treasury auction?   

A. 

highest competitive bid price

B. 

highest noncompetitive bid price

C. 

stop-out bid price

D. 

average of all bid prices

E. 

lowest competitive bid price

 

56.

U.S. government agency bonds pay interest which is subject to which of the following taxes?   

A. 

federal only

B. 

state only

C. 

state and local only

D. 

state and federal only

E. 

state, local, and federal

 

57.

Kathy lives in State A and owns a municipal bond issued by State B. The interest earned on this bond is most apt to be exempt from taxation at which of the following levels?   

A. 

local only

B. 

state only

C. 

federal only

D. 

local and state only

E. 

federal, state, and local

 

58.

Which one of the following generally applies to municipal bonds?   

A. 

noncallable

B. 

risk-free

C. 

high credit rating

D. 

zero coupon

E. 

par value of $1,000

 

59.

A moral obligation bond is which type of a bond?   

A. 

municipal revenue

B. 

municipal GO

C. 

municipal hybrid

D. 

U.S. Treasury

E. 

U.S. agency

 

60.

Which of the following uses of proceeds from private activity bonds will most likely qualify those bonds as federally tax-exempt? I. public airport runway II. baseball stadium III. multifamily housing project IV. mass rail transit   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and III only

C. 

II and III only

D. 

II and IV only

E. 

I, III, and IV only

 

61.

A bond that is currently selling for $933.38 has a conversion price of $40.00. If the par value is $1,000, what is the conversion ratio?   

A. 

23

B. 

24

C. 

25

D. 

26

E. 

27

 

62.

A bond has a par value of $1,000 and a market value of $833.40. The conversion price is $45.45. What is the conversion ratio?   

A. 

21

B. 

22

C. 

23

D. 

24

E. 

25

 

63.

A bond has a conversion price of $47.62, a par value of $1,000, and a market price of $833.40. What is the conversion ratio?   

A. 

20

B. 

21

C. 

22

D. 

23

E. 

24

 

64.

What is the conversion ratio of a $1,000 par value bond that is selling for $888.96 and has a conversion price of $58.82?   

A. 

15

B. 

16

C. 

17

D. 

18

E. 

19

 

65.

A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000 and a market price of $1,116.76. If the conversion ratio is 19, what is the conversion price?   

A. 

$43.48

B. 

$45.45

C. 

$47.62

D. 

$52.63

E. 

$55.56

 

66.

A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000, a market value of $875, and a conversion ratio of 14. What is the conversion price?   

A. 

$55.56

B. 

$58.82

C. 

$62.50

D. 

$66.67

E. 

$71.43

 

67.

A bond is currently priced at $1,076.88 and has a par value of $1,000. If the conversion ratio is 25, what is the conversion price?   

A. 

$35.71

B. 

$36.92

C. 

$38.46

D. 

$40.00

E. 

$41.67

 

68.

A bond has a conversion ratio of 24 and a market price of $1,080. If the par value is $1,000, what is the conversion price?   

A. 

$40.00

B. 

$41.67

C. 

$42.60

D. 

$43.20

E. 

$43.80

 

69.

A bond has a conversion ratio of 22, a $1,000 par value, and a market price of $1,038. The stock is selling for $46.14. What is the conversion value?   

A. 

$1,009.16

B. 

$1,015.08

C. 

$1,038.60

D. 

$1,049.35

E. 

$1,053.50

 

70.

A $1,000 par value bond has a market price of $986 and a conversion ratio of 15. The stock is selling for $60.74. What is the conversion value?   

A. 

$903.17

B. 

$911.10

C. 

$925.60

D. 

$930.57

E. 

$946.49

 

71.

A bond has a par value of $1,000 and a market price of $1,087.20. The conversion price is $40 and the stock price is $41.75. What is the conversion value?   

A. 

$1,043.75

B. 

$1,250.00

C. 

$1,481.10

D. 

$1,500.00

E. 

$1,652.00

 

72.

A 4.5 percent, semi-annual coupon bond has a face value of $1,000 and a time to maturity of 4 years. The bonds are convertible into shares of common stock at a conversion price of $42.50. The stock price currently is $40.70. Similar, non-convertible bonds have a yield to maturity of 4.5 percent. The intrinsic value of this bond is _____ and the conversion value is _____.   

A. 

$832.62; $982.80

B. 

$961.06; $957.65

C. 

$1,014.16; $1,017.50

D. 

$1,014.16; $982.80

E. 

$1,006.96; $1,017.50

 

73.

A semi-annual coupon bond has a 6.5 percent coupon rate, a $1,000 face value, a current value of $1,054.54, and 4 years until the first call date. What is the call price if the yield to call is 6.7 percent?   

A. 

$1,000

B. 

$1,020

C. 

$1,040

D. 

$1,060

E. 

$1,080

 

74.

A bond has 6 years until it can be called, a 7 percent coupon, and a $1,000 face value. The bond has a market value of $1,031.90 and a yield to call of 7.35 percent. What is the call premium?   

A. 

$45

B. 

$55

C. 

$65

D. 

$75

E. 

$85

 

75.

A bond has a face value of $1,000 and a call price of $1,030. The bond is callable in 3.5 years and pays a 5 percent, semi-annual coupon. What is the current price if the yield to call is 6 percent?   

A. 

$912.36

B. 

$927.19

C. 

$966.25

D. 

$993.24

E. 

$1,009.01

 

76.

You own a bond that has a face value of $1,000 and a conversion ratio of 26. You have just received notification that the bond is being called at a premium of $40. The stock price is $41.20 a share. You should _____ your bond because the conversion value is _____.   

A. 

convert; less than the call price by $40.00

B. 

convert; greater than the call price by $31.20

C. 

convert; greater than the call price by $4.75

D. 

not convert; less than the call price by $31.20

E. 

not convert; greater than the call price by $40.00

 

77.

Slater Mines just called its outstanding bonds at a call price of $1,025. The bonds have a conversion price of $33.33 and a par value of $1,000. The stock price is currently $33.10. In response to this call, the bondholders should _____ because _____.   

A. 

accept the call; the call price exceeds the conversion value

B. 

accept the call; they have no other choice

C. 

convert their bonds; the conversion price exceeds the par value by $37.90

D. 

convert their bonds; the conversion price exceeds the call price by $12.90

E. 

elect to continue holding their bonds; they want to continue receiving the interest payments

 

78.

A Treasury bond has a face value of $25,000 and a quoted price of 102:20. What is the bond's dollar price?   

A. 

$25,002.80

B. 

$25,102.18

C. 

$25,656.25

D. 

$25,787.50

E. 

$31,475.00

 

79.

A Treasury bond has a quoted bid price of 100:10 and a quoted ask price of 100:11. What is the amount you will receive if you sell your bond that has a par value of $20,000?   

A. 

$20,016.00

B. 

$20,050.00

C. 

$20,062.60

D. 

$20,100.08

E. 

$21,600.00

 

80.

A Treasury bond has a yield to maturity of 5.2 percent, a time to maturity of 8 years, and a coupon rate of 7 percent. What is the bond price?   

A. 

$940.65

B. 

$946.95

C. 

$1,054.55

D. 

$1,116.59

E. 

$1,169.56

 

81.

A Treasury bond has a dollar price of $1,015.63. What would you expect the bond quote to be?   

A. 

101:05

B. 

101:15

C. 

101:16

D. 

101:18

E. 

101:22

 

82.

A Treasury note has 3.5 years left to maturity, a yield to maturity of 4.25 percent, and a coupon rate of 4.40 percent. What is the price of the bond?   

A. 

$1,004.83

B. 

$1,005.53

C. 

$1,006.56

D. 

$1,007.58

E. 

$1,008.96

 

83.

A Treasury bond matures in 13 years, has a 5.25 percent coupon, and a quoted price of 98:01. What is the yield to maturity?   

A. 

5.25 percent

B. 

5.34 percent

C. 

5.46 percent

D. 

5.55 percent

E. 

5.68 percent

 

84.

A Treasury bond has a 3.4 percent coupon, a quoted price of 101:06, and 9 years to maturity. What is the yield to maturity?   

A. 

3.25 percent

B. 

3.93 percent

C. 

4.03 percent

D. 

4.90 percent

E. 

5.92 percent

 

85.

A STRIPS matures in 6 years, has a face value of $17,000, and has a yield to maturity of 4.8 percent. What is the price?   

A. 

$10,854.59

B. 

$11,010.43

C. 

$11,284.75

D. 

$11,322.01

E. 

$12,789.38

 

86.

A STRIPS has a yield to maturity of 6.2 percent, a par value of $25,000, and a time to maturity of 10 years. What is the price?   

A. 

$4,100.87

B. 

$5,792.80

C. 

$9,967.50

D. 

$10,698.08

E. 

$13,575.84

 

87.

A STRIPS has a $9,000 par value and a market value of $7,050. The time to maturity is 5 years. What is the yield to maturity?   

A. 

2.07 percent

B. 

3.00 percent

C. 

4.94 percent

D. 

5.00 percent

E. 

5.07 percent

 

88.

A STRIPS that matures in 8 years is selling for $11,490. The par value is $15,000. What is the yield to maturity?   

A. 

3.36 percent

B. 

4.67 percent

C. 

5.25 percent

D. 

6.54 percent

E. 

6.75 percent

 

89.

You own a principal STRIPS which is based on a 4.5 percent coupon Treasury bond that matures in 20 years. The STRIPS is priced at $22,868 and has a par value of $50,000. What is the yield to maturity on the STRIPS?   

A. 

3.79 percent

B. 

3.90 percent

C. 

3.93 percent

D. 

3.95 percent

E. 

3.99 percent

 

90.

The Federal Reserve is offering Treasury bills with a par value of $25 billion for sale. They have received $7 billion of noncompetitive bids. The competitive bids for a $10,000 par value bond are: (Qty in billions)    What price will Bidder A pay per bond, assuming that bid is accepted?   

A. 

$9,600

B. 

$9,650

C. 

$9,675

D. 

$9,700

E. 

$9,750

 

91.

The Federal Reserve is offering Treasury bills with a par value of $30 billion for sale. They have received $11 billion of noncompetitive bids. The competitive bids for a $10,000 par value bond are:    How much money will the Federal Reserve raise from this offering?   

A. 

$29.55 billion

B. 

$29.40 billion

C. 

$29.10 billion

D. 

$29.33 billion

E. 

$29.25 billion

 

92.

The Federal Reserve is offering Treasury bills with a par value of $10 billion for sale. They have received $3 billion of noncompetitive bids. The competitive bids for a $10,000 par value bond are: (Qty in billions)    How much money will the Federal Reserve raise from this offering?   

A. 

$9.92 billion

B. 

$9.88 billion

C. 

$9.85 billion

D. 

$9.84 billion

E. 

$9.80 billion

 

93.

A municipal bond is yielding 4.8 percent. Jeremy has a marginal tax rate of 24 percent. What is his equivalent taxable yield?   

A. 

2.18 percent

B. 

4.58 percent

C. 

6.15 percent

D. 

6.32 percent

E. 

7.18 percent

 

94.

You have a marginal tax rate of 32 percent and an average tax rate of 28 percent. Municipal bonds in your area are yielding 4.25 percent. What is your equivalent taxable yield?   

A. 

5.16 percent

B. 

5.93 percent

C. 

5.13 percent

D. 

6.25 percent

E. 

6.47 percent

 

95.

Municipal bonds are yielding 4.8 percent currently. Alicia has a marginal tax rate of 35 percent and Yvonne has a marginal tax rate of 22 percent. Alicia's equivalent taxable yield is _____ percent and Yvonne's is _____ percent.   

A. 

7.50; 5.86

B. 

7.39; 6.15

C. 

6.53; 5.86

D. 

6.53; 6.15

E. 

8.29; 5.07

 

96.

Municipal bonds are yielding 4.4 percent if they are insured and 4.7 percent if they are uninsured. Your marginal tax rate is 28 percent. Your equivalent taxable yield on the insured bonds is _____ percent and on the uninsured bonds is _____ percent.   

A. 

5.89; 6.27

B. 

6.11; 6.53

C. 

6.31; 6.81

D. 

6.67; 7.10

E. 

6.76; 7.10

 

97.

You own a corporate bond which is yielding 8.2 percent. What is your after-tax yield if your marginal tax rate is 28 percent?   

A. 

5.90 percent

B. 

7.52 percent

C. 

8.20 percent

D. 

10.58 percent

E. 

11.55 percent

 

98.

Laura has an average tax rate of 22 percent and a marginal tax rate of 28 percent. What is her after-tax yield on a corporate bond which has a 6.7 percent yield?   

A. 

4.82 percent

B. 

5.09 percent

C. 

5.47 percent

D. 

6.00 percent

E. 

11.34 percent

 

99.

Jeff owns a taxable bond portfolio which is yielding 8.76 percent. His after-tax yield is 6.57 percent. What is his marginal tax rate?   

A. 

25 percent

B. 

28 percent

C. 

31 percent

D. 

32 percent

E. 

34 percent

 

100.

A corporate bond is yielding 6.8 percent and a municipal bond is yielding 4.75 percent. What is the critical marginal tax rate?   

A. 

28 percent

B. 

30 percent

C. 

33 percent

D. 

35 percent

E. 

38 percent

 

101.

Sonya has a marginal tax rate of 36 percent. A corporate bond is yielding 7.4 percent and a municipal bond is yielding 3.6 percent. Sonya should invest in the _____ bond because the critical marginal tax rate is _____ percent.   

A. 

corporate; 17

B. 

corporate; 34

C. 

corporate; 51

D. 

municipal; 43

E. 

municipal; 51

 

102.

Lester is considering a municipal bond yielding 5.5 percent and a corporate bond yielding 8.2 percent. His marginal tax rate is 28 percent. He should invest in the _____ bond because the critical marginal tax rate is _____ percent.   

A. 

corporate; 26

B. 

corporate; 29

C. 

corporate; 33

D. 

municipal; 35

E. 

municipal; 37

 

103.

A $5,000 face value municipal bond matures in 14 years and is priced at $4,862. The coupon rate is 4.5 percent with interest paid semiannually. What is the yield to maturity on the bond?   

A. 

4.77 percent

B. 

5.14 percent

C. 

5.40 percent

D. 

5.61 percent

E. 

5.97 percent

 

104.

A $5,000 face value municipal bond matures in 6 years and has a market value of $5,110. The coupon rate is 3.5 percent with interest paid semiannually. What is the yield to maturity?   

A. 

2.92 percent

B. 

3.10 percent

C. 

3.73 percent

D. 

5.13 percent

E. 

6.38 percent

 

 

Essay Questions  

105.

Explain how the imputed interest is computed on a U.S. Treasury bill.   

 

 

 

 

106.

What is the advantage of purchasing a STRIPS over a Treasury note?   

 

 

 

 

107.

Why would an investor prefer a TIPS which offers a lower coupon rate over a comparable T-note with a higher coupon rate?   

 

 

 

 

108.

How is the minimal value for a convertible bond determined?   

 

 

 

 

Chapter 18 Corporate and Government Bonds Answer Key  

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following best defines a plain vanilla bond?   

A. 

bond secured by agricultural or food inventory

B.  

bond with relatively standard features

C. 

unsecured debt

D. 

bond secured with financial collateral

E. 

bond that has no coupon payments

See Section 18.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.1 Topic: Plain Vanilla Bonds  

2.

Which one of the following terms is defined as debt issued without specific collateral pledged as security?   

A.  

unsecured debt

B. 

indenture

C. 

vanilla bond

D. 

naked bond

E. 

risk-free bond

See Section 18.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.1 Topic: Unsecured Debt  

3.

Which one of the following is an unsecured bond issued by a corporation?   

A. 

indenture

B. 

general obligation bond

C. 

plain vanilla bond

D.  

debenture

E. 

trust bond

See Section 18.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.1 Topic: Debentures  

4.

Which one of the following is the portion of a prospectus that outlines the contractual terms of a new bond issue?   

A.  

indenture summary

B. 

financial disclosure

C. 

covenant agreement

D. 

security agreement

E. 

trust agreement

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Indenture Summary  

5.

What is the document called that is distributed to potential bondholders and provides detailed information on the financial position and operations of the bond issuer?   

A. 

indenture summary

B.  

prospectus

C. 

trust statement

D. 

10K

E. 

10Q

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Prospectus  

6.

Which one of the following is an unsecured bond that has a higher claim on a firm's assets than other unsecured bonds?   

A. 

plain vanilla bond

B. 

subordinated debenture

C. 

refunded bond

D.  

senior debenture

E. 

collateral trust bond

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Senior Debenture  

7.

During a bankruptcy proceeding, Bond A will be paid only if funds remain after the bonds that have a higher claim on the issuer's assets have been paid. What type of bond is Bond A?   

A. 

plain vanilla bond

B. 

senior trust bond

C. 

junior trust bond

D.  

subordinated debenture

E. 

senior debenture

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Subordinated Debenture  

8.

Which one of the following is the clause which prevents a bond issuer from issuing new debt that has seniority over current debt?   

A. 

first-in-line

B. 

sinking fund

C. 

call provision

D. 

affirmation

E.  

negative pledge

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Negative Pledge Clause  

9.

Which one of the following accurately describes bond refunding?   

A. 

replacing maturing bonds with a new bond issue

B.  

calling existing bonds and refinancing those bonds with new debt

C. 

paying off bonds early with excess cash generated by the firm

D. 

replacing maturing bonds with an equity issue

E. 

paying bonds off early to satisfy disgruntled bondholders

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Bond Refunding  

10.

Which one of the following provisions grants the bondholder the option of selling the bond back to the issuer at a prespecified price on prespecified dates?   

A. 

convertible

B. 

call

C.  

put

D. 

exchange

E. 

sinking fund

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Put Bond  

11.

Which one of the following provisions grants the bondholder the option of exchanging a bond for a prespecified number of shares of stock of the same issuer?   

A. 

put

B. 

call

C. 

equity

D.  

conversion

E. 

sinking

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Convertible Bond  

12.

Which one of the following defines an in-the-money bond?   

A. 

secured bond with collateral value that exceeds the bond's price

B. 

callable bond with a call price that exceeds the current market price

C. 

put bond with a put price that exceeds the current market price

D. 

convertible bond with a call price that exceeds its conversion value

E.  

convertible bond with a conversion value that exceeds its call price

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: In-the-Money Bond  

13.

Which one of the following terms is given to the value of a convertible bond that would equate to the value of a comparable nonconvertible bond?   

A. 

out-of-the money value

B. 

in-the-money value

C. 

discounted value

D. 

external value

E.  

intrinsic value

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Intrinsic Bond Value  

14.

What is a bond called if it can be converted into shares of stock of a firm other than the bond issuer?   

A. 

swap bond

B. 

alternate bond

C.  

exchangeable bond

D. 

convertible bond

E. 

callable bond

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Exchangeable Bond  

15.

Term bonds are defined as all bonds in a bond issue having which one of the following characteristics?   

A. 

sequential maturity dates

B. 

serial maturity dates

C. 

multiple maturity dates

D.  

an identical maturity date

E. 

renewable maturity dates

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Term Bonds  

16.

Bonds issued with a regular sequence of maturity dates are called which one of the following?   

A. 

callable bonds

B. 

sequential bonds

C.  

serial bonds

D. 

sinking bonds

E. 

put bonds

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Serial Bond  

17.

Which one of the following is an account used to provide for scheduled redemptions of outstanding bonds?   

A. 

redemption fund

B.  

sinking fund

C. 

liquidation account

D. 

serial account

E. 

callable account

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Sinking Fund  

18.

What are the various provisions within a bond indenture that are designed to protect bondholders by restricting the actions of the issuer called?   

A. 

restrictive actions

B. 

prohibitions

C. 

negative conditions

D.  

protective covenants

E. 

restrictive amendments

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Protective Covenants  

19.

Which one of the following identifies a new bond issue as being a private placement?   

A. 

The proceeds of the issue are used for a single project.

B. 

The issue is marketed through a sole brokerage house.

C. 

The issue is sold only to individuals rather than to institutional investors.

D.  

The issue is not made available to the public.

E. 

The issue names a private individual as the bond trustee.

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Private Placement  

20.

Adjustable-rate bonds are identified by which one of the following characteristics?   

A. 

The coupon rate will increase should the credit rating of the bond decline.

B. 

Different bonds within the same issue have different coupon rates.

C. 

Bondholders can defer coupon payments at their discretion.

D. 

The amount of each coupon payment will depend on the free cash flow of the issuer.

E.  

The coupon rate changes in response to changes in current market rates.

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Adjustable-Rate Bond  

21.

Which one of the following is an assessment of the credit quality of a bond based on the financial condition of the bond issuer?   

A. 

protective covenant

B. 

risk analysis

C.  

credit rating

D. 

serial report

E. 

in-the-money status

See Section 18.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-04 The basics of bond ratings. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.8 Topic: Credit Rating  

22.

What are the restrictions on investment portfolios that require that all securities held within the portfolio meet a specified level of safety called?   

A. 

protective covenants

B. 

negative restrictions

C.  

prudent investment guidelines

D. 

safety monitors

E. 

risk ranges

See Section 18.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-04 The basics of bond ratings. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.8 Topic: Prudent Investment Guidelines  

23.

Bonds with relatively high coupons due to their speculative credit ratings are called which one of the following?   

A. 

investment-grade bonds

B.  

high-yield bonds

C. 

prudent risk bonds

D. 

floating-rate bonds

E. 

covenant bonds

See Section 18.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-04 The basics of bond ratings. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.8 Topic: High-Yield Bonds  

24.

Which of the following are common characteristics associated with corporate bonds? I. specified cash flows II. equity ownership III. call feature IV. set maturity date   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

II and III only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E.  

I, III, and IV only

See Section 18.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.1 Topic: Bond Characteristics  

25.

Which one of the following parties is the largest holder of U.S. corporate bonds?   

A. 

pension funds

B.  

life insurance companies

C. 

banks

D. 

foreign investors

E. 

individual investors

See Section 18.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.1 Topic: Bond Ownership  

26.

Which one of the following features of corporate bonds has the greatest appeal to pension fund investors?   

A. 

call provision

B. 

convertible provision

C. 

zero repayment risk

D. 

prospectus availability

E.  

predictable cash flows

See Section 18.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.1 Topic: Bond Ownership  

27.

A pension fund purchases bonds so that the payments from the bonds provide sufficient cash inflow in a timely manner to offset the cash outflows from the pension fund. What is this investment strategy called?   

A.  

cash flow matching

B. 

cash diversification

C. 

cash stabilization

D. 

in-out investing

E. 

plain vanilla matching

See Section 18.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.1 Topic: Cash Flow Matching  

28.

Which of the following features would you expect a plain vanilla bond to have? I. semi-annual coupon payments II. $1,000 face value III. stated maturity date IV. multiple bonds within one issue   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

II, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 18.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.1 Topic: Plain Vanilla Bonds  

29.

The entire formal contract between a bond issuer and the bondholders is found in which one of the following documents?   

A. 

prospectus

B. 

prospectus summary

C.  

indenture agreement

D. 

indenture summary

E. 

trust certificate

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Indenture Agreement  

30.

Which one of the following statements related to callable bonds is correct?   

A. 

Callable bonds are issued at the call price.

B. 

Callable bonds can be called at any time.

C. 

Callable bonds are generally called at the market price at the time of the call.

D.  

Callable bonds are more apt to be called if market interest rates decline.

E. 

Callable bonds are generally priced higher than comparable noncallable bonds.

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Callable Bond  

31.

How much will you be paid if you own a bond that is called under a make-whole call provision?   

A. 

the face value

B. 

an amount equal to the par value plus the total amount of the remaining interest payments

C.  

the present value of all future bond payments that will not be paid because of the call

D. 

the current market value plus a prespecified call premium

E. 

an amount equal to the normal maturity value of the bond

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Make-Whole Call Provision  

32.

After the call protection period, which one of the following basically serves as the upper price limit on a callable bond?   

A. 

present value of all future bond payments discounted at the current market rate of interest

B. 

face value of the bond

C.  

call price of the bond

D. 

current market price of the bond

E. 

current market price of a comparable noncallable bond

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Callable Bond  

33.

Which one of the following statements related to a put bond is correct?   

A. 

Put bonds are generally redeemed at a premium over par value.

B. 

Put bonds can be redeemed at any time once the put protection period has elapsed.

C. 

The put feature effectively sets the ceiling price for the bond.

D.  

The put feature helps protect bondholders from the risk associated with rising interest rates.

E. 

A putable bond is generally priced lower than a comparable nonputable bond.

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Put Provision  

34.

Which one of the following statements related to convertible bonds is correct?   

A.  

Bondholders forego higher coupon rates in exchange for the conversion option.

B. 

Convertible bonds are generally issued such that the conversion value is equal to the par value.

C. 

The conversion price is equal to the bond's market value divided by the conversion ratio.

D. 

The conversion value is equal to the bond's market price multiplied by the conversion ratio.

E. 

Bonds should be converted as soon as the conversion value exceeds the face value.

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Convertible Bond  

35.

Which one of the following statements related to convertible bonds is correct?   

A. 

Convertible bonds have a maximum value equal to the bond's intrinsic value.

B.  

Convertible bonds have limited downside risk with unlimited upside potential.

C. 

A convertible bond is in-the-money when its call price is greater than its conversion value.

D. 

Convertible bonds must be converted prior to or on the maturity date.

E. 

Convertible bonds must be converted once they are called.

See Section 18.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Convertible Bond  

36.

Which one of these statements regarding corporate bond credit ratings is correct?   

A. 

Bonds rated Ba3 or above by Moody's are considered investment-grade bonds.

B. 

All bonds issued by the same issuer will have the same credit rating.

C.  

A bond's credit spread may be a better indicator of a bond's risk than its rating.

D. 

Bond ratings are based solely on the seniority of the bond issue and the protective covenants by which it is covered.

E. 

Credit ratings are assigned to the bond issuer, not the bond issue.

See Section 18.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-04 The basics of bond ratings. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.8 Topic: Bond Ratings  

37.

Which one of the following is another name for a junk bond?   

A.  

high-yield

B. 

convertible

C. 

private placement

D. 

subordinated

E. 

called

See Section 18.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-04 The basics of bond ratings. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.8 Topic: Junk Bond  

38.

What is the method of selling Treasury bills at less than face value called?   

A. 

imputed basis

B. 

par value method

C.  

discount basis

D. 

STRIP basis

E. 

face value method

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: Discount Basis  

39.

What is the interest on a Treasury bill called when it is determined by the size of the bill's discount from face value?   

A. 

assumed interest

B.  

imputed interest

C. 

imaginary interest

D. 

convergent interest

E. 

original-issue interest

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: Imputed Interest  

40.

Which one of the following is the Treasury program allowing interest and principal payments from Treasury notes or bonds to be sold separately?   

A. 

EDGAR

B. 

TRSTRP

C. 

TRIPS

D. 

TZEROES

E.  

STRIPS

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: STRIPS  

41.

Which one of the following descriptors is used to identify a bond that pays one single payment at maturity?   

A.  

zero coupon

B. 

imputed value

C. 

solo

D. 

STRIP

E. 

term

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: Zero Coupon Bond  

42.

Which one of the following is the difference between the price a bond dealer is willing to pay to buy and the price at which he or she is willing to sell?   

A. 

commission

B. 

imputed cost

C. 

imputed interest

D.  

bid-ask spread

E. 

ask price

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: Bid-Ask Spread  

43.

What is the lowest accepted competitive bid in a U.S. Treasury auction called?   

A. 

selected price

B. 

base price

C.  

stop-out bid

D. 

imputed bid

E. 

set bid

See Section 18.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.5 Topic: Stop-Out Bid  

44.

Which one of the following is the risk that a bond issuer will cease paying the interest and principal payments as scheduled?   

A. 

interest rate risk

B.  

default risk

C. 

market risk

D. 

conversion risk

E. 

earnings risk

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-01 The basic types of corporate bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Default Risk  

45.

Municipal bonds that are secured by the full faith and credit of the issuer are referred to as which one of the following?   

A.  

general obligation bonds

B. 

local taxation bonds

C. 

fully funded bonds

D. 

revenue bonds

E. 

private activity bonds

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: General Obligation Bonds  

46.

Which one of the following is a municipal bond that is secured by the income collected from a specific project?   

A. 

agency bond

B. 

general obligation bond

C. 

development bond

D. 

contingency bond

E.  

revenue bond

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Revenue Bond  

47.

Which one of the following is a municipal bond that is secured by both the revenues from a project and also by the taxing authority of the municipality?   

A. 

mixed bond

B. 

general obligation bond

C.  

hybrid bond

D. 

dual bond

E. 

multiple bond

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Hybrid Bond  

48.

Which one of the following is a taxable municipal bond used to finance a facility used by a private business?   

A.  

private activity bond

B. 

private revenue bond

C. 

private corporate bond

D. 

private agency bond

E. 

private income bond

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Private Activity Bonds  

49.

Which of the following features apply to T-bills? I. original maturities of 4, 13, or 26 weeks II. minimum face value of $10,000 III. sold at a discount IV. semiannual interest payments   

A. 

IV only

B.  

I and III only

C. 

I and IV only

D. 

II and III only

E. 

II and IV only

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Bills  

50.

Which one of the following statements applies to U.S. Treasury bonds?   

A. 

They have original maturities of 1 to 10 years.

B. 

They have a minimum face value of $100,000.

C. 

They are zero-coupon securities.

D.  

They pay a fixed coupon payment semiannually.

E. 

They are adjusted semiannually for inflation.

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Bonds  

51.

You just purchased a 5-year STRIPS security that was created from a 30-year T-bond. How many payments will you receive?   

A.  

1

B. 

10

C. 

11

D. 

60

E. 

61

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: STRIPS  

52.

Which one of the following statements related to TIPS is correct assuming an inflationary environment?   

A. 

TIPS have a maturity value of $1,000.

B. 

TIPS pay an interest payment based on the latest T-bill rate.

C.  

TIPS pay a fixed coupon rate.

D. 

The principal amount of a TIPS is adjusted annually for inflation.

E. 

The interest rate is adjusted semiannually for inflation.

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: TIPS  

53.

Which of the following statements correctly apply to TIPS? I. They are quoted as a percentage of the current accrued principal. II. They pay a variable interest rate that responds to movements in the inflation rate. III. They are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government. IV. They adjust for inflation on an annual basis.   

A.  

I and III only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

III and IV only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

II, III, and IV only

See Section 18.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: U.S. Treasury inflation-protected security  

54.

Which one of the following applies to U.S. Treasury auctions?   

A. 

Every bidder has a choice of submitting either a competitive or a noncompetitive bid.

B. 

The purchase price paid by all bidders is the highest bid price.

C. 

Each bidder with an accepted bid will pay the individual price he or she bid.

D.  

All noncompetitive bids are accepted automatically.

E. 

Noncompetitive bids are ignored unless there are not enough competitive bids to buy the entire issue.

See Section 18.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.5 Topic: U.S. treasury auction  

55.

What price will a noncompetitive bidder pay for a security being purchased through a U.S. Treasury auction?   

A. 

highest competitive bid price

B. 

highest noncompetitive bid price

C.  

stop-out bid price

D. 

average of all bid prices

E. 

lowest competitive bid price

See Section 18.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.5 Topic: U.S. treasury auction  

56.

U.S. government agency bonds pay interest which is subject to which of the following taxes?   

A. 

federal only

B. 

state only

C. 

state and local only

D. 

state and federal only

E.  

state, local, and federal

See Section 18.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.6 Topic: Agency Bonds  

57.

Kathy lives in State A and owns a municipal bond issued by State B. The interest earned on this bond is most apt to be exempt from taxation at which of the following levels?   

A. 

local only

B. 

state only

C.  

federal only

D. 

local and state only

E. 

federal, state, and local

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Municipal Bond Taxation  

58.

Which one of the following generally applies to municipal bonds?   

A. 

noncallable

B. 

risk-free

C.  

high credit rating

D. 

zero coupon

E. 

par value of $1,000

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Municipal Bonds  

59.

A moral obligation bond is which type of a bond?   

A. 

municipal revenue

B. 

municipal GO

C.  

municipal hybrid

D. 

U.S. Treasury

E. 

U.S. agency

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Municipal Bonds  

60.

Which of the following uses of proceeds from private activity bonds will most likely qualify those bonds as federally tax-exempt? I. public airport runway II. baseball stadium III. multifamily housing project IV. mass rail transit   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and III only

C. 

II and III only

D. 

II and IV only

E.  

I, III, and IV only

See Section 18.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Private Activity Bonds  

61.

A bond that is currently selling for $933.38 has a conversion price of $40.00. If the par value is $1,000, what is the conversion ratio?   

A. 

23

B. 

24

C.  

25

D. 

26

E. 

27

Conversion ratio = $1,000/$40.00 = 25

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Ratio  

62.

A bond has a par value of $1,000 and a market value of $833.40. The conversion price is $45.45. What is the conversion ratio?   

A. 

21

B.  

22

C. 

23

D. 

24

E. 

25

Conversion ratio = $1,000/$45.45 = 22

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Ratio  

63.

A bond has a conversion price of $47.62, a par value of $1,000, and a market price of $833.40. What is the conversion ratio?   

A. 

20

B.  

21

C. 

22

D. 

23

E. 

24

Conversion ratio = $1,000/$47.62 = 21

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Ratio  

64.

What is the conversion ratio of a $1,000 par value bond that is selling for $888.96 and has a conversion price of $58.82?   

A. 

15

B. 

16

C.  

17

D. 

18

E. 

19

Conversion ratio = $1,000/$58.82 = 17

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Ratio  

65.

A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000 and a market price of $1,116.76. If the conversion ratio is 19, what is the conversion price?   

A. 

$43.48

B. 

$45.45

C. 

$47.62

D.  

$52.63

E. 

$55.56

Conversion price = $1,000/19 = $52.63

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Price  

66.

A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000, a market value of $875, and a conversion ratio of 14. What is the conversion price?   

A. 

$55.56

B. 

$58.82

C. 

$62.50

D. 

$66.67

E.  

$71.43

Conversion price = $1,000/14 = $71.43

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Price  

67.

A bond is currently priced at $1,076.88 and has a par value of $1,000. If the conversion ratio is 25, what is the conversion price?   

A. 

$35.71

B. 

$36.92

C. 

$38.46

D.  

$40.00

E. 

$41.67

Conversion price = $1,000/25 = $40.00

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Price  

68.

A bond has a conversion ratio of 24 and a market price of $1,080. If the par value is $1,000, what is the conversion price?   

A. 

$40.00

B.  

$41.67

C. 

$42.60

D. 

$43.20

E. 

$43.80

Conversion price = $1,000/24 = $41.67

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Price  

69.

A bond has a conversion ratio of 22, a $1,000 par value, and a market price of $1,038. The stock is selling for $46.14. What is the conversion value?   

A. 

$1,009.16

B.  

$1,015.08

C. 

$1,038.60

D. 

$1,049.35

E. 

$1,053.50

Conversion value = 22 × $46.14 = $1,015.08

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Value  

70.

A $1,000 par value bond has a market price of $986 and a conversion ratio of 15. The stock is selling for $60.74. What is the conversion value?   

A. 

$903.17

B.  

$911.10

C. 

$925.60

D. 

$930.57

E. 

$946.49

Conversion value = 15 × $60.74 = $911.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Value  

71.

A bond has a par value of $1,000 and a market price of $1,087.20. The conversion price is $40 and the stock price is $41.75. What is the conversion value?   

A.  

$1,043.75

B. 

$1,250.00

C. 

$1,481.10

D. 

$1,500.00

E. 

$1,652.00

Conversion value = ($1,000/$40) × $41.75 = $1,043.75

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Value  

72.

A 4.5 percent, semi-annual coupon bond has a face value of $1,000 and a time to maturity of 4 years. The bonds are convertible into shares of common stock at a conversion price of $42.50. The stock price currently is $40.70. Similar, non-convertible bonds have a yield to maturity of 4.5 percent. The intrinsic value of this bond is _____ and the conversion value is _____.   

A. 

$832.62; $982.80

B.  

$961.06; $957.65

C. 

$1,014.16; $1,017.50

D. 

$1,014.16; $982.80

E. 

$1,006.96; $1,017.50

Intrinsic value = $961.06 Conversion value = ($1,000/$42.50) × $40.70 = $957.65

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Conversion Value  

73.

A semi-annual coupon bond has a 6.5 percent coupon rate, a $1,000 face value, a current value of $1,054.54, and 4 years until the first call date. What is the call price if the yield to call is 6.7 percent?   

A. 

$1,000

B. 

$1,020

C. 

$1,040

D. 

$1,060

E.  

$1,080

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Callable Bond  

74.

A bond has 6 years until it can be called, a 7 percent coupon, and a $1,000 face value. The bond has a market value of $1,031.90 and a yield to call of 7.35 percent. What is the call premium?   

A. 

$45

B. 

$55

C. 

$65

D.  

$75

E. 

$85

Call premium = $1,075 - $1,000 = $75

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Callable Bond  

75.

A bond has a face value of $1,000 and a call price of $1,030. The bond is callable in 3.5 years and pays a 5 percent, semi-annual coupon. What is the current price if the yield to call is 6 percent?   

A. 

$912.36

B. 

$927.19

C. 

$966.25

D.  

$993.24

E. 

$1,009.01

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Callable Bond  

76.

You own a bond that has a face value of $1,000 and a conversion ratio of 26. You have just received notification that the bond is being called at a premium of $40. The stock price is $41.20 a share. You should _____ your bond because the conversion value is _____.   

A. 

convert; less than the call price by $40.00

B.  

convert; greater than the call price by $31.20

C. 

convert; greater than the call price by $4.75

D. 

not convert; less than the call price by $31.20

E. 

not convert; greater than the call price by $40.00

Conversion value = 26 × $41.20 = $1,071.20 Call price = $1,000 + $40 = $1,040 Difference = $1,071.20 - $1,040 = -$31.20 You should convert your bond because the conversion value is $31.20 greater than the call price.

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Callable/Convertible bond  

77.

Slater Mines just called its outstanding bonds at a call price of $1,025. The bonds have a conversion price of $33.33 and a par value of $1,000. The stock price is currently $33.10. In response to this call, the bondholders should _____ because _____.   

A.  

accept the call; the call price exceeds the conversion value

B. 

accept the call; they have no other choice

C. 

convert their bonds; the conversion price exceeds the par value by $37.90

D. 

convert their bonds; the conversion price exceeds the call price by $12.90

E. 

elect to continue holding their bonds; they want to continue receiving the interest payments

Conversion value = ($1,000/$33.33) × $33.10 = $993.10 The call price of $1,025 exceeds the conversion value of $993.10. Bondholders should redeem their bonds at the call price because that price exceeds the conversion value.

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.2 Topic: Callable/Convertible bond  

78.

A Treasury bond has a face value of $25,000 and a quoted price of 102:20. What is the bond's dollar price?   

A. 

$25,002.80

B. 

$25,102.18

C.  

$25,656.25

D. 

$25,787.50

E. 

$31,475.00

Price = $25,000 × 102 and 20/32nds percent = $25,000 × 1.02625 = $25,656.25

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Bond Price  

79.

A Treasury bond has a quoted bid price of 100:10 and a quoted ask price of 100:11. What is the amount you will receive if you sell your bond that has a par value of $20,000?   

A. 

$20,016.00

B. 

$20,050.00

C.  

$20,062.60

D. 

$20,100.08

E. 

$21,600.00

Sale price = $20,000 × 100 and 10/32nds percent = $20,000 × 1.00313 = $20,062.60

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Bond Price  

80.

A Treasury bond has a yield to maturity of 5.2 percent, a time to maturity of 8 years, and a coupon rate of 7 percent. What is the bond price?   

A. 

$940.65

B. 

$946.95

C. 

$1,054.55

D.  

$1,116.59

E. 

$1,169.56

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Bond Price  

81.

A Treasury bond has a dollar price of $1,015.63. What would you expect the bond quote to be?   

A. 

101:05

B. 

101:15

C. 

101:16

D.  

101:18

E. 

101:22

$1,015.63 = bond quote price of 101:18. $1,010 quote = 101% .563 × 32 = 18.016

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Bond Price  

82.

A Treasury note has 3.5 years left to maturity, a yield to maturity of 4.25 percent, and a coupon rate of 4.40 percent. What is the price of the bond?   

A.  

$1,004.83

B. 

$1,005.53

C. 

$1,006.56

D. 

$1,007.58

E. 

$1,008.96

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Bond Price  

83.

A Treasury bond matures in 13 years, has a 5.25 percent coupon, and a quoted price of 98:01. What is the yield to maturity?   

A. 

5.25 percent

B. 

5.34 percent

C.  

5.46 percent

D. 

5.55 percent

E. 

5.68 percent

Price = $1,000 × 98 and 1/32nds percent = $1,000 × .9803125 = $980.3125 Payment = (.0525 × $1,000)/2 = $26.25 Using a financial calculator:

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Yield to Maturity  

84.

A Treasury bond has a 3.4 percent coupon, a quoted price of 101:06, and 9 years to maturity. What is the yield to maturity?   

A.  

3.25 percent

B. 

3.93 percent

C. 

4.03 percent

D. 

4.90 percent

E. 

5.92 percent

Price = $1,000 × 101 and 6/32nds percent = $1,000 × 1.011875 = $1,011.875 Payment = (.034 × $1,000)/2 = $17 Using a financial calculator: YTM = 1.6234% × 2 = 3.25%

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: Treasury Yield to Maturity  

85.

A STRIPS matures in 6 years, has a face value of $17,000, and has a yield to maturity of 4.8 percent. What is the price?   

A. 

$10,854.59

B. 

$11,010.43

C. 

$11,284.75

D. 

$11,322.01

E.  

$12,789.38

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: STRIPS Price  

86.

A STRIPS has a yield to maturity of 6.2 percent, a par value of $25,000, and a time to maturity of 10 years. What is the price?   

A. 

$4,100.87

B. 

$5,792.80

C. 

$9,967.50

D. 

$10,698.08

E.  

$13,575.84

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: STRIPS Price  

87.

A STRIPS has a $9,000 par value and a market value of $7,050. The time to maturity is 5 years. What is the yield to maturity?   

A. 

2.07 percent

B. 

3.00 percent

C.  

4.94 percent

D. 

5.00 percent

E. 

5.07 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: STRIPS YTM  

88.

A STRIPS that matures in 8 years is selling for $11,490. The par value is $15,000. What is the yield to maturity?   

A.  

3.36 percent

B. 

4.67 percent

C. 

5.25 percent

D. 

6.54 percent

E. 

6.75 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: STRIPS YTM  

89.

You own a principal STRIPS which is based on a 4.5 percent coupon Treasury bond that matures in 20 years. The STRIPS is priced at $22,868 and has a par value of $50,000. What is the yield to maturity on the STRIPS?   

A. 

3.79 percent

B. 

3.90 percent

C. 

3.93 percent

D.  

3.95 percent

E. 

3.99 percent

The STRIPS matures in 20 years because it is based on the T-bond principal.

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: STRIPS YTM  

90.

The Federal Reserve is offering Treasury bills with a par value of $25 billion for sale. They have received $7 billion of noncompetitive bids. The competitive bids for a $10,000 par value bond are: (Qty in billions)    What price will Bidder A pay per bond, assuming that bid is accepted?   

A.  

$9,600

B. 

$9,650

C. 

$9,675

D. 

$9,700

E. 

$9,750

Amount available to competitive bidders = $25b - $7b = $18b Lowest acceptable bid price is $9,600, which is Bidder C. All bidders pay the stop-out bid which is $9,600.

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.5 Topic: Treasury Auction  

91.

The Federal Reserve is offering Treasury bills with a par value of $30 billion for sale. They have received $11 billion of noncompetitive bids. The competitive bids for a $10,000 par value bond are:    How much money will the Federal Reserve raise from this offering?   

A. 

$29.55 billion

B. 

$29.40 billion

C. 

$29.10 billion

D. 

$29.33 billion

E.  

$29.25 billion

Amount available to competitive bidders = $30b - $11b = $19b Lowest acceptable bid price is $9,750, which is Bidder C. Amount raised = $30b × ($9,750/$10,000) = $29.25b

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.5 Topic: Treasury Auction  

92.

The Federal Reserve is offering Treasury bills with a par value of $10 billion for sale. They have received $3 billion of noncompetitive bids. The competitive bids for a $10,000 par value bond are: (Qty in billions)    How much money will the Federal Reserve raise from this offering?   

A. 

$9.92 billion

B. 

$9.88 billion

C.  

$9.85 billion

D. 

$9.84 billion

E. 

$9.80 billion

Amount available to competitive bidders = $10b - $3b = $7b Lowest acceptable bid price is $9,850, which is Bidder B. Amount raised = $10b × ($9,850/$10,000) = $9.85b

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.5 Topic: Treasury Auction  

93.

A municipal bond is yielding 4.8 percent. Jeremy has a marginal tax rate of 24 percent. What is his equivalent taxable yield?   

A. 

2.18 percent

B. 

4.58 percent

C. 

6.15 percent

D.  

6.32 percent

E. 

7.18 percent

Equivalent taxable yield = .048/(1 - .24) = 6.32 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Equivalent Taxable Yield  

94.

You have a marginal tax rate of 32 percent and an average tax rate of 28 percent. Municipal bonds in your area are yielding 4.25 percent. What is your equivalent taxable yield?   

A. 

5.16 percent

B. 

5.93 percent

C. 

5.13 percent

D.  

6.25 percent

E. 

6.47 percent

Equivalent taxable yield = .0425/(1 - .31) = 6.25 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Equivalent Taxable Yield  

95.

Municipal bonds are yielding 4.8 percent currently. Alicia has a marginal tax rate of 35 percent and Yvonne has a marginal tax rate of 22 percent. Alicia's equivalent taxable yield is _____ percent and Yvonne's is _____ percent.   

A. 

7.50; 5.86

B.  

7.39; 6.15

C. 

6.53; 5.86

D. 

6.53; 6.15

E. 

8.29; 5.07

Equivalent taxable yield = .048/(1 - .35) = 7.39 percent Equivalent taxable yield = .048/(1 - .22) = 6.15 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Equivalent Taxable Yield  

96.

Municipal bonds are yielding 4.4 percent if they are insured and 4.7 percent if they are uninsured. Your marginal tax rate is 28 percent. Your equivalent taxable yield on the insured bonds is _____ percent and on the uninsured bonds is _____ percent.   

A. 

5.89; 6.27

B.  

6.11; 6.53

C. 

6.31; 6.81

D. 

6.67; 7.10

E. 

6.76; 7.10

Equivalent taxable yield = .044/(1 - .28) = 6.11 percent Equivalent taxable yield = .047/(1 - .28) = 6.53 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Equivalent Taxable Yield  

97.

You own a corporate bond which is yielding 8.2 percent. What is your after-tax yield if your marginal tax rate is 28 percent?   

A.  

5.90 percent

B. 

7.52 percent

C. 

8.20 percent

D. 

10.58 percent

E. 

11.55 percent

After-tax yield = .082 × (1 - .28) = 5.90 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Aftertax Yield  

98.

Laura has an average tax rate of 22 percent and a marginal tax rate of 28 percent. What is her after-tax yield on a corporate bond which has a 6.7 percent yield?   

A.  

4.82 percent

B. 

5.09 percent

C. 

5.47 percent

D. 

6.00 percent

E. 

11.34 percent

After-tax yield = .067 × (1 - .28) = 4.82 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Aftertax Yield  

99.

Jeff owns a taxable bond portfolio which is yielding 8.76 percent. His after-tax yield is 6.57 percent. What is his marginal tax rate?   

A.  

25 percent

B. 

28 percent

C. 

31 percent

D. 

32 percent

E. 

34 percent

.0657 = .0876 × (1 - x); x = 25 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Marginal tax rate  

100.

A corporate bond is yielding 6.8 percent and a municipal bond is yielding 4.75 percent. What is the critical marginal tax rate?   

A. 

28 percent

B.  

30 percent

C. 

33 percent

D. 

35 percent

E. 

38 percent

Critical marginal tax rate = 1 - (.0475/.068) = 30 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Critical Marginal Tax Rate  

101.

Sonya has a marginal tax rate of 36 percent. A corporate bond is yielding 7.4 percent and a municipal bond is yielding 3.6 percent. Sonya should invest in the _____ bond because the critical marginal tax rate is _____ percent.   

A. 

corporate; 17

B. 

corporate; 34

C.  

corporate; 51

D. 

municipal; 43

E. 

municipal; 51

Critical marginal tax rate = 1 - (.036/.074) = 51 percent Sonya should invest in the corporate bond because her marginal tax rate is lower than the critical marginal rate.

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Critical Marginal Tax Rate  

102.

Lester is considering a municipal bond yielding 5.5 percent and a corporate bond yielding 8.2 percent. His marginal tax rate is 28 percent. He should invest in the _____ bond because the critical marginal tax rate is _____ percent.   

A. 

corporate; 26

B. 

corporate; 29

C.  

corporate; 33

D. 

municipal; 35

E. 

municipal; 37

Critical marginal tax rate = 1 - (.055/.082) = 33 percent Lester should invest in the corporate bond because his marginal tax rate is less than the critical marginal rate.

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Critical Marginal Tax Rate  

103.

A $5,000 face value municipal bond matures in 14 years and is priced at $4,862. The coupon rate is 4.5 percent with interest paid semiannually. What is the yield to maturity on the bond?   

A.  

4.77 percent

B. 

5.14 percent

C. 

5.40 percent

D. 

5.61 percent

E. 

5.97 percent

Using a financial calculator: Payment = (.045 × $5,000)/2 = $112.50

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Municipal Yield to Maturity  

104.

A $5,000 face value municipal bond matures in 6 years and has a market value of $5,110. The coupon rate is 3.5 percent with interest paid semiannually. What is the yield to maturity?   

A. 

2.92 percent

B.  

3.10 percent

C. 

3.73 percent

D. 

5.13 percent

E. 

6.38 percent

Using a financial calculator: Payment = (.035 × $5,000)/2 = $87.50 YTM = 1.5477% × 2 = 3.10%

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.7 Topic: Municipal Yield to Maturity  

 

Essay Questions  

105.

Explain how the imputed interest is computed on a U.S. Treasury bill.   

Answer will vary Feedback: The total imputed interest is the difference between the purchase price and the face value. The imputed interest for one year is the difference between the price at the beginning and the price at the end of the year, assuming a constant rate of return.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.4 Topic: T-Bills  

106.

What is the advantage of purchasing a STRIPS over a Treasury note?   

Answer will vary Feedback: With a Treasury note, you receive semiannual interest payments plus the principal at maturity. With a STRIPS, you receive one payment at maturity. If you have a cash need at one point in time, it is much easier to match that need with a STRIPS than with a T-note.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: STRIPS  

107.

Why would an investor prefer a TIPS which offers a lower coupon rate over a comparable T-note with a higher coupon rate?   

Answer will vary Feedback: If an investor is concerned about future inflation, he or she would prefer the TIPS over the T-note because the TIPS offers a guaranteed positive real rate of return. The comparison between the two should be done on a real return basis, not a nominal return basis.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 18-03 The different types of government bonds. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.4 Topic: TIPS  

108.

How is the minimal value for a convertible bond determined?   

Answer will vary Feedback: The minimal value is the larger of either the bond's intrinsic value or its conversion value. The intrinsic value is the value of the bond assuming it is not convertible. The conversion value is the value that would be realized if the bond were converted into shares of stock.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 18-02 How callable and convertible bonds function. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.3 Topic: Convertible Bond  

Chapter 20

Mortgage-Backed Securities

 

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following is defined as bonds which represent a claim on the cash flows of an underlying pool of mortgages which flow through to bondholders?   

A. 

mortgage bonds

B. 

mortgage certificates

C. 

mortgage passthroughs

D. 

collateralized securities

E. 

mortgage collaterals

 

2.

Mortgage-backed securities are defined as securities whose investment returns are based on which one of the following?   

A. 

lease payments from the tenants of financed property

B. 

interest only on mortgage loans

C. 

loan refinancings

D. 

condominium fees

E. 

pool of mortgages

 

3.

Which one of the following terms is applied to the process of creating mortgage-backed securities from a pool of mortgages?   

A. 

mortgage aggregation

B. 

mortgage securitization

C. 

mortgage bundling

D. 

mortgage pooling

E. 

mortgage financing

 

4.

When a borrower pays a fixed monthly amount on his or her home mortgage based on a fixed rate of interest, he or she has which type of mortgage?   

A. 

prepayment-based

B. 

open-end

C. 

fixed-rate

D. 

variable-rate

E. 

floating-rate

 

5.

Which one of the following is the amount of a mortgage loan outstanding?   

A. 

mortgage remainder

B. 

mortgage face value

C. 

mortgage par value

D. 

mortgage principal

E. 

mortgage accrual

 

6.

Which one of the following terms applies to the process of reducing the mortgage principal over the life of the mortgage according to a schedule?   

A. 

mortgage amortization

B. 

mortgage prepayment

C. 

mortgage elimination

D. 

mortgage securitization

E. 

mortgage passthrough

 

7.

Mortgage prepayments are best defined by which one of the following?   

A. 

reducing the mortgage according to a schedule over the life of the mortgage

B. 

paying a monthly mortgage payment before the regular due date

C. 

paying off the principal faster than required by the amortization schedule

D. 

paying a cash deposit when purchasing a property

E. 

paying each mortgage payment as scheduled

 

8.

Which one of the following is the government agency assigned the responsibility of promoting liquidity in the home mortgage market?   

A. 

FNMA

B. 

GNMA

C. 

FHLMC

D. 

SPIC

E. 

FDIC

 

9.

Which one of the following is the type of mortgage pool that guarantees timely payment of interest and principal?   

A. 

prepaid

B. 

refinanced

C. 

secured

D. 

fully amortized

E. 

fully modified

 

10.

Which one of the following is the risk associated with receiving a mortgage bond's principal payments sooner than anticipated?   

A. 

prepayment risk

B. 

default risk

C. 

amortized risk

D. 

market risk

E. 

seasoned risk

 

11.

FHLMC and FNMA are government-sponsored enterprises charged with which one of the following duties?   

A. 

providing home mortgages directly to homeowners

B. 

purchasing only defaulted mortgages from banking institutions

C. 

guaranteeing mortgages with the full faith and credit of the U.S. government

D. 

providing guarantees equal to GNMA's to the home mortgage market

E. 

promoting liquidity in the home mortgage market

 

12.

What is the probability that a mortgage will be prepaid during a given year called?   

A. 

mortgage reduction rate

B. 

amortization rate

C. 

filtration rate

D. 

prepayment rate

E. 

postponement rate

 

13.

Seasoned mortgages are defined as mortgages that are, or have been, which of the following?   

A. 

prepackaged

B. 

resold

C. 

being paid faster than scheduled

D. 

refinanced

E. 

over 30 months old

 

14.

Which one of the following statements correctly applies to an unseasoned mortgage?   

A. 

The mortgage is less than 30 months old.

B. 

The mortgage is still held by the original mortgage company.

C. 

The mortgage has at least one term or provision that is uncommon to most mortgages.

D. 

The mortgage has an adjustable interest rate that has not been adjusted to date.

E. 

The mortgage was obtained by a first-time home owner.

 

15.

Which one of the following is the prepayment rate for a mortgage pool which is dependent upon the age of the mortgages comprising the pool?   

A. 

unseasoned rate

B. 

average life rate

C. 

aged payment rate

D. 

conditional prepayment rate

E. 

amortized rate

 

16.

The average time it takes for a mortgage in a pool to be paid off is referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

average amortized period

B. 

seasoned period

C. 

maturity life

D. 

average life

E. 

normal pool life

 

17.

Which one of the following is the measure of interest rate risk for fixed-income securities?   

A. 

standard deviation

B. 

Macaulay duration

C. 

variance

D. 

Jensen's alpha

E. 

beta

 

18.

The _____ duration for mortgage-backed securities is the duration measure that accounts for how mortgage prepayments are affected by changes in interest rates.   

A. 

mean

B. 

modified

C. 

average

D. 

effective

E. 

adjusted

 

19.

What are the securities which are created by splitting the cash flows from mortgage pools according to specific allocation rules called?   

A. 

collateralized mortgage obligations

B. 

collateralized housing bonds

C. 

mortgage amortized strips

D. 

pooled mortgage obligations

E. 

secured mortgage strips

 

20.

Interest-only strips are securities that do which one of the following?   

A. 

pay interest only at maturity

B. 

pay only the interest cash flows to investors

C. 

pay interest over the life of the security and the entire principal at maturity

D. 

pay interest only when requested by the holder with all remaining amounts paid at maturity

E. 

pay interest monthly and principal quarterly

 

21.

Which one of the following is a security that only pays the principal cash flows to investors?   

A. 

split strip

B. 

interest-only strip

C. 

amortized strip

D. 

principal-only strip

E. 

final strip

 

22.

What are the securities that are created when a mortgage pool is divided into a number of tranches called?   

A. 

split strips

B. 

divided CMOs

C. 

sequential CMOs

D. 

indexed mortgage splits

E. 

tranche pools

 

23.

Which one of the following is a mortgage-backed security that has first priority to scheduled principal payments?   

A. 

priority strip bond

B. 

principal strip

C. 

amortized principal strip

D. 

protected amortization class bond

E. 

principal priority tranche

 

24.

A mortgage-backed security that has only a subordinate claim to principal payments is referred to as which type of bond?   

A. 

subsidiary

B. 

sequential

C. 

PAC support

D. 

secondary

E. 

subordinate

 

25.

Which one of the following is the range defined by the upper and lower prepayment schedules of a PAC bond?   

A. 

PAC collar

B. 

PAC range

C. 

PAC space

D. 

PAC cup

E. 

PAC field

 

26.

Which one of the following is defined as the yield to maturity for a mortgage-backed security computed on an assumed prepayment pattern?   

A. 

payment yield

B. 

assumed yield

C. 

current yield

D. 

cash flow yield

E. 

amortized yield

 

27.

Which one of the following correctly applies to a mortgage passthrough bond?   

A. 

The primary collateral for the bond is the underlying pool of mortgages.

B. 

All interest received is immediately passed through while principal payments are held until the bond matures.

C. 

Each bond represents one home mortgage.

D. 

These bonds are created via a process known as mortgage collaring.

E. 

All of these bonds are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.

 

28.

You own a mortgage passthrough. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the payments you will receive on that security?   

A. 

The payments will decrease at a constant rate over the life of the security.

B. 

The payments will increase at a decreasing rate over the life of the security.

C. 

The payments will be fixed for the life of the security.

D. 

The payments will vary depending upon the amount paid on the underlying mortgages each period.

E. 

The payments will decrease based on the interest shown on the amortization schedule.

 

29.

Which one of the following financing terms will provide the lowest monthly payment for a fixed-rate $175,000 mortgage? (No calculations are required.)   

A. 

10-year, 5.5 percent

B. 

10-year, 6.0 percent

C. 

15-year, 5.5 percent

D. 

15-year, 6.0 percent

E. 

30-year, 5.5 percent

 

30.

Which one of the following set of mortgage terms will cause the borrower to pay the most interest, assuming the mortgage is paid according to the amortization schedule?   

A. 

10-year, 6.5 percent

B. 

10-year, 7.0 percent

C. 

15-year, 7.0 percent

D. 

30-year, 6.5 percent

E. 

30-year, 7.0 percent

 

31.

You have a 30-year, fixed-rate mortgage with equal monthly payments. The amount of interest you pay each month will _____ and the amount of principal you pay each month will ____.   

A. 

decrease; decrease

B. 

decrease; increase

C. 

increase; decrease

D. 

increase; increase

E. 

remain constant; remain constant

 

32.

You have a 15-year, fixed-rate, $150,000 mortgage. The monthly payment amount is constant and the mortgage is amortized on a monthly basis. How much will the principal balance be after the 90th payment has been paid?   

A. 

zero

B. 

< $75,000

C. 

$75,000

D. 

> $75,000

E. 

cannot be determined from the information provided

 

33.

When can a homeowner prepay on his or her home mortgage?   

A. 

only on prespecified dates

B. 

only during the last five years of the loan period

C. 

only if the prepayment pays the mortgage balance in full

D. 

at any time

E. 

only if the property securing the mortgage is being sold

 

34.

Borrowers must pay which one of the following if they are to pay off their home mortgage?   

A. 

remaining principal balance plus any accrued interest

B. 

present value of all future payments discounted at the current market rate

C. 

all remaining payments in full

D. 

remaining principal balance plus one year's interest

E. 

present value of the remaining principal balance

 

35.

A mortgage prepayment is similar to which one of the following features of a corporate bond?   

A. 

collateral provision

B. 

put provision

C. 

call provision

D. 

conversion provision

E. 

protective covenants provision

 

36.

Which one of the following is NOT a reason why mortgage prepayments occur?   

A. 

house securing the mortgage is sold

B. 

increase in interest rates

C. 

homeowner's spouse dies

D. 

homeowner faces job transfer

E. 

home is refinanced

 

37.

Mortgage prepayments are generally a(n) ______ to the mortgage borrower and a(n) ____ to the mortgage investor.   

A. 

advantage; advantage

B. 

advantage; disadvantage

C. 

disadvantage; advantage

D. 

disadvantage; disadvantage

E. 

advantage; neutral event

 

38.

Which one of the following is most apt to create an environment that increases mortgage prepayments?   

A. 

home mortgage rates remain relatively steady

B. 

home mortgage rates decline significantly

C. 

number of homeowner's defaulting on their mortgages rises

D. 

homeowner's have steady, secure employment at their current jobs

E. 

number of employees being transferred for employment purposes declines

 

39.

Which one of the following statements correctly relates to reverse mortgages?   

A. 

The loans allow homeowners to build equity in their property.

B. 

The total costs associated with the loans are relatively low.

C. 

Borrowers only qualify if they are 65 years of age or older.

D. 

Homeowner's make monthly payments of principal and interest.

E. 

No payments are required from the borrower as long as the borrower lives in the mortgaged property.

 

40.

Which of the following affect the amount of funds available to a homeowner from a reverse mortgage? I. current mortgage balance on the home II. age of homeowner III. location of the home IV. appraised value of the home   

A. 

I and IV only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

I, II, and IV only

D. 

I, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

41.

Which one of the following is the key function of GNMA?   

A. 

providing direct financing for first-time home buyers only

B. 

directly refinancing existing home mortgages

C. 

providing mortgage funds to military personnel only

D. 

providing direct financing to first-time home buyers, military personnel, and farmers

E. 

sponsoring the repackaging of mortgages into mortgage-backed securities pools

 

42.

Which one of the following statements correctly relates to GNMA securities?   

A. 

The primary risk associated with GNMAs is default risk.

B. 

The minimal denomination of a GNMA when issued is $10,000.

C. 

GNMA mortgages are guaranteed solely by the FHA.

D. 

GNMAs were originally established as an agency within the Department of Veteran's Affairs.

E. 

If you buy a GNMA you are accepting the risk of prepayment.

 

43.

GNMA mortgage pools are based on mortgages issued by which of the following? I. FHLMC II. FNMA III. FHA IV. FmHA   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

III and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

44.

Which one of the following is a government agency?   

A. 

FHLMC

B. 

Fannie Mae

C. 

Freddie Mac

D. 

GNMA

E. 

FNMA

 

45.

The greater the prepayment rate for a mortgage pool, the:   

A. 

slower the payments to the holders of the bonds supported by the pool.

B. 

greater the decline in the bond principal for bonds supported by the pool.

C. 

longer the age of the mortgages held in the underlying pool.

D. 

lower the PSA benchmark rate.

E. 

greater the default risk.

 

46.

After 30 months, what is the 100 PSA benchmark conditional prepayment rate per year?   

A. 

3 percent

B. 

5 percent

C. 

6 percent

D. 

8 percent

E. 

12 percent

 

47.

You acquired a 30-year mortgage two years ago to purchase your current residence. Your mortgage is classified as which one of the following?   

A. 

seasoned

B. 

unseasoned

C. 

conditional

D. 

complex

E. 

deferred

 

48.

How much faster will a mortgage pool with a PSA of 150 be prepaid as compared to the benchmark?   

A. 

150 times faster

B. 

15 times faster

C. 

1.5 times faster

D. 

1.5 times slower

E. 

15 times slower

 

49.

Generally, the average life of a mortgage is _____ the mortgage's stated maturity.   

A. 

much less than

B. 

marginally less than

C. 

equal to

D. 

marginally greater than

E. 

significantly greater than

 

50.

How long is the expected average mortgage life of a mortgage held in a 30-year mortgage pool with a 100 PSA?   

A. 

14.68 years

B. 

18.29 years

C. 

21.33 years

D. 

23.90 years

E. 

25.25 years

 

51.

A mortgage pool was created six years ago. Which one of the following PSA values is most apt to apply to that pool if market mortgage rates have been declining quite rapidly over the past five years?   

A. 

0

B. 

50

C. 

100

D. 

150

E. 

200

 

52.

Monthly payments to investors in GNMA mortgage-backed bonds include which of the following cash flows? I. mortgage interest II. fixed principal payment III. scheduled amortization of mortgage principal IV. mortgage prepayments   

A. 

II only

B. 

I and II only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

53.

You just purchased a GNMA mortgage-backed security. Which one of the following should you expect to receive?   

A. 

fixed monthly payments

B. 

fixed quarterly payments

C. 

variable monthly payments

D. 

variable quarterly payments

E. 

quarterly payments that decrease at a constant rate

 

54.

Which one of the following statements regarding an original issue $25,000 GNMA bond is correct?   

A. 

The investor will receive $25,000 as a principal payment at maturity.

B. 

The investor will receive fixed quarterly interest payments.

C. 

The investor will receive the future value of $25,000 at maturity.

D. 

The investor will receive payments totaling $25,000 over the life of the bond.

E. 

The investor should receive more than $25,000 but the amount of each payment is unknown in advance.

 

55.

Which one of the following is the reason that Macaulay duration is NOT a good measure of interest rate risk for mortgage bonds?   

A. 

Mortgage bonds are long-term securities while Macaulay duration is a short-term measure.

B. 

Macaulay duration assumes the debt has a variable rate and most mortgages have a fixed rate.

C. 

Macaulay duration requires bond payments to be made semi-annually.

D. 

Macaulay duration assumes payments are fixed and mortgage bond payments vary.

E. 

Macaulay duration only applies to zero-coupon bonds.

 

56.

Historically, what has been the relationship between bond prepayment rates and the market rate of interest?   

A. 

perfectly related

B. 

directly related

C. 

inversely related

D. 

minimally related

E. 

unrelated

 

57.

Which one of the following is the preferred method of evaluating interest rate risk on mortgage bonds?   

A. 

PSA rating

B. 

modified duration

C. 

Macaulay duration

D. 

effective duration

E. 

postponed duration

 

58.

If the prepayment schedule for a mortgage pool increases to 100 PSA from 50 PSA, the related interest-only strips will _____ in value and the related principal-only strips will _____ in value.   

A. 

decrease; decrease

B. 

decrease; increase

C. 

increase; decrease

D. 

increase; increase

E. 

remain constant; remain constant

 

59.

Which of the following affect the value of a PO strip based on a GNMA bond? I. changes in the PSA schedule II. prepayment rates III. time value of money IV. changes in the default rates for the underlying mortgages   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

60.

Which one of the following is correct concerning the total payment amount on a PO strip?   

A. 

The total payment amount equals the bond's par value.

B. 

The total payment amount will either equal or exceed the bond's par value.

C. 

The total payment will vary based on the PSA schedule.

D. 

The total payment amount will increase if interest rates decline.

E. 

The total payment amount will vary if the prepayment rate varies.

 

61.

The total payment amount on an IO strip is:   

A. 

fixed.

B. 

equal to the interest rate multiplied by the par value multiplied by the PSA rate schedule.

C. 

equal to the par value multiplied by the interest rate.

D. 

unknown until all payments have been made.

E. 

equal to the total interest computed on the bond's amortization schedule.

 

62.

The value of an IO strip will most likely increase when:   

A. 

the PSA schedule rate decreases from 200 to 100.

B. 

market interest rates remain constant.

C. 

prepayments increase.

D. 

mortgage refinancings increase.

E. 

market interest rates decrease significantly.

 

63.

Which one of the following will maximize the value of an IO strip?   

A. 

prepaying all mortgages in the underlying mortgage pool

B. 

minimizing the duration of the underlying mortgage pool

C. 

maximizing the value of the PO strip

D. 

amortizing the bonds in the underlying pool faster than anticipated

E. 

creating conditions where no prepayments occur in the underlying mortgage pool

 

64.

A mortgage pool is divided into A, B, C, and Z-tranches based on the textbook example. The mortgage principal will initially be paid to which one of the tranches?   

A. 

A-tranche

B. 

B-tranche

C. 

C-tranche

D. 

Z-tranche

E. 

all tranches on a pro-rata basis

 

65.

A mortgage pool is divided into A, B, C, and Z-tranches based on the textbook example. Which tranche will have the longest life?   

A. 

A-tranche

B. 

B-tranche

C. 

C-tranche

D. 

Z-tranche

E. 

All tranches will have equal lives.

 

66.

A mortgage pool is divided into A, B, C, and Z-tranches as discussed in the textbook. What happens to the initial interest payment for the Z tranche?   

A. 

It is immediately passed through to holders of Z tranche securities.

B. 

It is accumulated and held until the Z tranche securities mature.

C. 

It is exchanged for principal from the A tranche.

D. 

It is exchanged for principal from the B tranche.

E. 

It is exchanged for principal from the C tranche.

 

67.

Which one of the following statements regarding PAC bonds is correct?   

A. 

The cash flows from a PAC bond are less certain than those from a Z-tranche bond from a sequential CMO.

B. 

PAC bondholders receive the residual cash flows from the underlying mortgage pool.

C. 

PAC bonds are defined by the specific rules which created them.

D. 

PAC bonds have bounds based on market interest rates.

E. 

PAC bond cash flows are unaffected by mortgage prepayments.

 

68.

Which one of the following is required for the cash flows on a PAC bond to be predictable?   

A. 

market interest rates must remain constant

B. 

market interest rates must steadily decline

C. 

mortgage prepayments must remain within the PAC collar

D. 

PAC support bonds must be prepaid in a timely manner

E. 

mortgage prepayments must exceed the specified PSA schedule

 

69.

A PAC support bond is most similar to which tranche in a sequential CMO?   

A. 

A

B. 

B

C. 

C

D. 

Z

E. 

A PAC bond cannot be compared to a sequential CMO.

 

70.

PAC bondholders receive payments of principal based on which one of the following?   

A. 

an amortization schedule

B. 

PAC collar's lower PSA prepayment schedule

C. 

PAC collar's upper PSA prepayment schedule

D. 

receipt of all principal collected on the underlying pool of mortgages until the bond is paid in full

E. 

zero principal from the underlying pool of mortgages until after the PAC companion bonds have been paid in full

 

71.

After month 30, assuming that prepayments remain within the PAC collar, the holders of a PAC bond will receive which one of the following payments?   

A. 

a fixed principal payment only

B. 

a fixed interest payment only

C. 

a fixed principal payment plus a declining interest payment

D. 

a declining principal payment only

E. 

a declining principal payment and a declining interest payment

 

72.

How are the cash flows allocated when actual prepayments fall below a PAC collar's lower bound?   

A. 

The entire cash flow is paid to the non-PAC support bonds until those bonds are paid in full.

B. 

The cash flows are divided between PAC and non-PAC bonds on a pro-rata basis.

C. 

PAC payments are recomputed to a reduced fixed amount.

D. 

The entire cash flow is paid to the PAC bondholders.

E. 

The interest income is paid to the non-PAC bondholders with all principal amounts paid to the PAC bondholders.

 

73.

Assume that a mortgage pool follows a specified PSA prepayment schedule. Given this, the cash flow yield on the mortgage pool will do which one of the following?   

A. 

equal the average interest rate of the mortgages contained in the pool

B. 

equal the anticipated cash flow for the next year divided by the current value of the pool

C. 

equate the present value of the future cash flows from the pool to the current value of the pool

D. 

equate the average interest rate on the mortgages to the current market rate of interest

E. 

equal the current market rate of interest

 

74.

What is the monthly mortgage payment on a $255,000, 25-year loan if the interest rate is 5.50 percent?   

A. 

$1,034.07

B. 

$1,468.75

C. 

$1,565.92

D. 

$1,893.14

E. 

$2,622.47

 

75.

You want to borrow $180,000 at 6.25 percent interest. If you assume a 10-year loan, the monthly payment will be _____ as compared to _____ if you assume a 20-year loan.   

A. 

$1,237.50; $1,103.88

B. 

$2,207.75; $1,237.50

C. 

$2,021.04; $1,315.67

D. 

$2,498.18; $1,103.88

E. 

$2,498.16; $1,533.50

 

76.

You took out a 20-year, $125,000, 4.5 percent loan 8 years ago. What is your current principal balance, assuming payments are made monthly?   

A. 

$58,588

B. 

$65,130

C. 

$74,988

D. 

$87,867

E. 

$88,889

 

77.

Ten years ago, you borrowed $165,000 for 25 years at 7.5 percent interest. What is the current principal balance, assuming payments are made monthly?   

A. 

$112,200

B. 

$131,534

C. 

$138,314

D. 

$140,362

E. 

$147,414

 

78.

You are borrowing $260,000 for 25 years at 5.5 percent. Payments will be made monthly. What is the total amount of interest you will pay if you pay the loan as agreed over the 25 years?   

A. 

$314,786

B. 

$324,340

C. 

$346,360

D. 

$364,120

E. 

$396,342

 

79.

Four years ago, you borrowed $250,000 for 20 years at 8 percent. Payments are made monthly. How much interest have you paid thus far?   

A. 

$74,222

B. 

$75,756

C. 

$75,909

D. 

$76,456

E. 

$77,121

 

80.

You just assumed a 30-year mortgage for $300,000 at 6 percent interest. How much of the first monthly payment will be applied to the principal balance?   

A. 

$253.14

B. 

$267.35

C. 

$272.17

D. 

$281.16

E. 

$298.65

 

81.

You recently assumed a 15-year mortgage for $150,000 at 6.5 percent interest. How much of the second monthly payment will be applied to the principal balance?   

A. 

$453.02

B. 

$482.02

C. 

$685.00

D. 

$809.82

E. 

$938.18

 

82.

You have a 25-year mortgage at 5 percent interest. The initial loan amount was $250,000. By how much did the principal decrease over the first 10 years of the loan? Payments are made monthly.   

A. 

$61,345

B. 

$64,580

C. 

$65,189

D. 

$66,453

E. 

$68,618

 

83.

You have a 30-year, $180,000 mortgage. The interest rate is 7.5 percent. What is the amount of the mortgage prepayment if you pay $1,400 as your first payment?   

A. 

$128.50

B. 

$130.46

C. 

$132.65

D. 

$135.89

E. 

$141.41

 

84.

You have a 25-year, $225,000 mortgage at 5.5 percent interest. What is the amount of your mortgage prepayment if you pay $1,650 as your second mortgage payment? Assume your first payment was the agreed upon amount.   

A. 

$241.93

B. 

$248.25

C. 

$268.30

D. 

$276.37

E. 

$289.65

 

85.

You have decided to pay $1,800 a month on your 30-year, $225,000 mortgage. The interest rate is 7.75 percent. What is your total prepayment amount for year two?   

A. 

$2,208

B. 

$2,257

C. 

$3,387

D. 

$3,979

E. 

$4,002

 

86.

You are currently borrowing $175,000 to buy a house. The mortgage is for 15 years at 6 percent. How much would you save each month if you could finance this amount at 5 percent for the same time period?   

A. 

$84.37

B. 

$86.27

C. 

$88.95

D. 

$90.24

E. 

$92.86

 

87.

You are assuming a 30-year mortgage for $230,000 at 7.75 percent interest. How much would you save in interest if you financed this loan at 7.25 percent for 20 years?   

A. 

$159,603

B. 

$158,504

C. 

$156,902

D. 

$154,116

E. 

$152,686

 

88.

The CPR for a seasoned 150 PSA mortgage is 9.8 percent. What is the single monthly mortality?   

A. 

0.8258 percent

B. 

0.8558 percent

C. 

0.8949 percent

D. 

0.9013 percent

E. 

0.9129 percent

 

89.

The CPR for an unseasoned 100 PSA mortgage is 4.5 percent. What is the single monthly mortality?   

A. 

0.3557 percent

B. 

0.3635 percent

C. 

0.3752 percent

D. 

0.3830 percent

E. 

0.3986 percent

 

 

Essay Questions  

90.

What are the advantages and the disadvantages of a homeowner selecting a 30-year mortgage rather than a 20-year mortgage?   

 

 

 

 

91.

How do CMOs increase the availability of mortgage funds?   

 

 

 

 

92.

Explain what a reverse mortgage is, how it works, and who it is intended to help.   

 

 

 

 

Chapter 20 Mortgage-Backed Securities Answer Key  

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following is defined as bonds which represent a claim on the cash flows of an underlying pool of mortgages which flow through to bondholders?   

A. 

mortgage bonds

B. 

mortgage certificates

C.  

mortgage passthroughs

D. 

collateralized securities

E. 

mortgage collaterals

See Section 20.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.1 Topic: Mortgage Passthroughs  

2.

Mortgage-backed securities are defined as securities whose investment returns are based on which one of the following?   

A. 

lease payments from the tenants of financed property

B. 

interest only on mortgage loans

C. 

loan refinancings

D. 

condominium fees

E.  

pool of mortgages

See Section 20.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.1 Topic: Mortgage-Backed Securities  

3.

Which one of the following terms is applied to the process of creating mortgage-backed securities from a pool of mortgages?   

A. 

mortgage aggregation

B.  

mortgage securitization

C. 

mortgage bundling

D. 

mortgage pooling

E. 

mortgage financing

See Section 20.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.1 Topic: Mortgage Securitization  

4.

When a borrower pays a fixed monthly amount on his or her home mortgage based on a fixed rate of interest, he or she has which type of mortgage?   

A. 

prepayment-based

B. 

open-end

C.  

fixed-rate

D. 

variable-rate

E. 

floating-rate

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Fixed-Rate Mortgage  

5.

Which one of the following is the amount of a mortgage loan outstanding?   

A. 

mortgage remainder

B. 

mortgage face value

C. 

mortgage par value

D.  

mortgage principal

E. 

mortgage accrual

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Principal  

6.

Which one of the following terms applies to the process of reducing the mortgage principal over the life of the mortgage according to a schedule?   

A.  

mortgage amortization

B. 

mortgage prepayment

C. 

mortgage elimination

D. 

mortgage securitization

E. 

mortgage passthrough

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Amortization  

7.

Mortgage prepayments are best defined by which one of the following?   

A. 

reducing the mortgage according to a schedule over the life of the mortgage

B. 

paying a monthly mortgage payment before the regular due date

C.  

paying off the principal faster than required by the amortization schedule

D. 

paying a cash deposit when purchasing a property

E. 

paying each mortgage payment as scheduled

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Prepayments  

8.

Which one of the following is the government agency assigned the responsibility of promoting liquidity in the home mortgage market?   

A. 

FNMA

B.  

GNMA

C. 

FHLMC

D. 

SPIC

E. 

FDIC

See Section 20.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-02 Government's role in the secondary market for home mortgages. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.3 Topic: Gnma  

9.

Which one of the following is the type of mortgage pool that guarantees timely payment of interest and principal?   

A. 

prepaid

B. 

refinanced

C. 

secured

D. 

fully amortized

E.  

fully modified

See Section 20.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.3 Topic: Fully Modified Mortgage Pool  

10.

Which one of the following is the risk associated with receiving a mortgage bond's principal payments sooner than anticipated?   

A.  

prepayment risk

B. 

default risk

C. 

amortized risk

D. 

market risk

E. 

seasoned risk

See Section 20.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.3 Topic: Prepayment Risk  

11.

FHLMC and FNMA are government-sponsored enterprises charged with which one of the following duties?   

A. 

providing home mortgages directly to homeowners

B. 

purchasing only defaulted mortgages from banking institutions

C. 

guaranteeing mortgages with the full faith and credit of the U.S. government

D. 

providing guarantees equal to GNMA's to the home mortgage market

E.  

promoting liquidity in the home mortgage market

See Section 20.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-02 Government's role in the secondary market for home mortgages. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.3 Topic: Fhlmc and Fnma  

12.

What is the probability that a mortgage will be prepaid during a given year called?   

A. 

mortgage reduction rate

B. 

amortization rate

C. 

filtration rate

D.  

prepayment rate

E. 

postponement rate

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Prepayment Rate  

13.

Seasoned mortgages are defined as mortgages that are, or have been, which of the following?   

A. 

prepackaged

B. 

resold

C. 

being paid faster than scheduled

D. 

refinanced

E.  

over 30 months old

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Seasoned Mortgages  

14.

Which one of the following statements correctly applies to an unseasoned mortgage?   

A.  

The mortgage is less than 30 months old.

B. 

The mortgage is still held by the original mortgage company.

C. 

The mortgage has at least one term or provision that is uncommon to most mortgages.

D. 

The mortgage has an adjustable interest rate that has not been adjusted to date.

E. 

The mortgage was obtained by a first-time home owner.

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Unseasoned Mortgages  

15.

Which one of the following is the prepayment rate for a mortgage pool which is dependent upon the age of the mortgages comprising the pool?   

A. 

unseasoned rate

B. 

average life rate

C. 

aged payment rate

D.  

conditional prepayment rate

E. 

amortized rate

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Conditional Prepayment Rate  

16.

The average time it takes for a mortgage in a pool to be paid off is referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

average amortized period

B. 

seasoned period

C. 

maturity life

D.  

average life

E. 

normal pool life

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Average Life  

17.

Which one of the following is the measure of interest rate risk for fixed-income securities?   

A. 

standard deviation

B.  

Macaulay duration

C. 

variance

D. 

Jensen's alpha

E. 

beta

See Section 20.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.5 Topic: Macaulay Duration  

18.

The _____ duration for mortgage-backed securities is the duration measure that accounts for how mortgage prepayments are affected by changes in interest rates.   

A. 

mean

B. 

modified

C. 

average

D.  

effective

E. 

adjusted

See Section 20.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.5 Topic: Effective Duration for Mbs  

19.

What are the securities which are created by splitting the cash flows from mortgage pools according to specific allocation rules called?   

A.  

collateralized mortgage obligations

B. 

collateralized housing bonds

C. 

mortgage amortized strips

D. 

pooled mortgage obligations

E. 

secured mortgage strips

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: CMOs  

20.

Interest-only strips are securities that do which one of the following?   

A. 

pay interest only at maturity

B.  

pay only the interest cash flows to investors

C. 

pay interest over the life of the security and the entire principal at maturity

D. 

pay interest only when requested by the holder with all remaining amounts paid at maturity

E. 

pay interest monthly and principal quarterly

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Interest-Only Strips  

21.

Which one of the following is a security that only pays the principal cash flows to investors?   

A. 

split strip

B. 

interest-only strip

C. 

amortized strip

D.  

principal-only strip

E. 

final strip

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Principal-Only Strips  

22.

What are the securities that are created when a mortgage pool is divided into a number of tranches called?   

A. 

split strips

B. 

divided CMOs

C.  

sequential CMOs

D. 

indexed mortgage splits

E. 

tranche pools

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Sequential Cmos  

23.

Which one of the following is a mortgage-backed security that has first priority to scheduled principal payments?   

A. 

priority strip bond

B. 

principal strip

C. 

amortized principal strip

D.  

protected amortization class bond

E. 

principal priority tranche

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Protected Amortization Class Bond  

24.

A mortgage-backed security that has only a subordinate claim to principal payments is referred to as which type of bond?   

A. 

subsidiary

B. 

sequential

C.  

PAC support

D. 

secondary

E. 

subordinate

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Pac Support Bond  

25.

Which one of the following is the range defined by the upper and lower prepayment schedules of a PAC bond?   

A.  

PAC collar

B. 

PAC range

C. 

PAC space

D. 

PAC cup

E. 

PAC field

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Pac Collar  

26.

Which one of the following is defined as the yield to maturity for a mortgage-backed security computed on an assumed prepayment pattern?   

A. 

payment yield

B. 

assumed yield

C. 

current yield

D.  

cash flow yield

E. 

amortized yield

See Section 20.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.7 Topic: Cash Flow Yield  

27.

Which one of the following correctly applies to a mortgage passthrough bond?   

A.  

The primary collateral for the bond is the underlying pool of mortgages.

B. 

All interest received is immediately passed through while principal payments are held until the bond matures.

C. 

Each bond represents one home mortgage.

D. 

These bonds are created via a process known as mortgage collaring.

E. 

All of these bonds are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.

See Section 20.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.1 Topic: Passthrough Bond  

28.

You own a mortgage passthrough. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the payments you will receive on that security?   

A. 

The payments will decrease at a constant rate over the life of the security.

B. 

The payments will increase at a decreasing rate over the life of the security.

C. 

The payments will be fixed for the life of the security.

D.  

The payments will vary depending upon the amount paid on the underlying mortgages each period.

E. 

The payments will decrease based on the interest shown on the amortization schedule.

See Section 20.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.1 Topic: Passthrough Bond  

29.

Which one of the following financing terms will provide the lowest monthly payment for a fixed-rate $175,000 mortgage? (No calculations are required.)   

A. 

10-year, 5.5 percent

B. 

10-year, 6.0 percent

C. 

15-year, 5.5 percent

D. 

15-year, 6.0 percent

E.  

30-year, 5.5 percent

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Fixed-Rate Mortgage  

30.

Which one of the following set of mortgage terms will cause the borrower to pay the most interest, assuming the mortgage is paid according to the amortization schedule?   

A. 

10-year, 6.5 percent

B. 

10-year, 7.0 percent

C. 

15-year, 7.0 percent

D. 

30-year, 6.5 percent

E.  

30-year, 7.0 percent

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Fixed-Rate Mortgage  

31.

You have a 30-year, fixed-rate mortgage with equal monthly payments. The amount of interest you pay each month will _____ and the amount of principal you pay each month will ____.   

A. 

decrease; decrease

B.  

decrease; increase

C. 

increase; decrease

D. 

increase; increase

E. 

remain constant; remain constant

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Amortization  

32.

You have a 15-year, fixed-rate, $150,000 mortgage. The monthly payment amount is constant and the mortgage is amortized on a monthly basis. How much will the principal balance be after the 90th payment has been paid?   

A. 

zero

B. 

< $75,000

C. 

$75,000

D.  

> $75,000

E. 

cannot be determined from the information provided

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Amortization  

33.

When can a homeowner prepay on his or her home mortgage?   

A. 

only on prespecified dates

B. 

only during the last five years of the loan period

C. 

only if the prepayment pays the mortgage balance in full

D.  

at any time

E. 

only if the property securing the mortgage is being sold

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Prepayment  

34.

Borrowers must pay which one of the following if they are to pay off their home mortgage?   

A.  

remaining principal balance plus any accrued interest

B. 

present value of all future payments discounted at the current market rate

C. 

all remaining payments in full

D. 

remaining principal balance plus one year's interest

E. 

present value of the remaining principal balance

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Payoff  

35.

A mortgage prepayment is similar to which one of the following features of a corporate bond?   

A. 

collateral provision

B. 

put provision

C.  

call provision

D. 

conversion provision

E. 

protective covenants provision

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Prepayments  

36.

Which one of the following is NOT a reason why mortgage prepayments occur?   

A. 

house securing the mortgage is sold

B.  

increase in interest rates

C. 

homeowner's spouse dies

D. 

homeowner faces job transfer

E. 

home is refinanced

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Prepayments  

37.

Mortgage prepayments are generally a(n) ______ to the mortgage borrower and a(n) ____ to the mortgage investor.   

A. 

advantage; advantage

B.  

advantage; disadvantage

C. 

disadvantage; advantage

D. 

disadvantage; disadvantage

E. 

advantage; neutral event

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Prepayments  

38.

Which one of the following is most apt to create an environment that increases mortgage prepayments?   

A. 

home mortgage rates remain relatively steady

B.  

home mortgage rates decline significantly

C. 

number of homeowner's defaulting on their mortgages rises

D. 

homeowner's have steady, secure employment at their current jobs

E. 

number of employees being transferred for employment purposes declines

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Prepayments  

39.

Which one of the following statements correctly relates to reverse mortgages?   

A. 

The loans allow homeowners to build equity in their property.

B. 

The total costs associated with the loans are relatively low.

C. 

Borrowers only qualify if they are 65 years of age or older.

D. 

Homeowner's make monthly payments of principal and interest.

E.  

No payments are required from the borrower as long as the borrower lives in the mortgaged property.

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Reverse Mortgage  

40.

Which of the following affect the amount of funds available to a homeowner from a reverse mortgage? I. current mortgage balance on the home II. age of homeowner III. location of the home IV. appraised value of the home   

A. 

I and IV only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

I, II, and IV only

D. 

I, III, and IV only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 20.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Reverse Mortgage  

41.

Which one of the following is the key function of GNMA?   

A. 

providing direct financing for first-time home buyers only

B. 

directly refinancing existing home mortgages

C. 

providing mortgage funds to military personnel only

D. 

providing direct financing to first-time home buyers, military personnel, and farmers

E.  

sponsoring the repackaging of mortgages into mortgage-backed securities pools

See Section 20.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-02 Government's role in the secondary market for home mortgages. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.3 Topic: Gnma  

42.

Which one of the following statements correctly relates to GNMA securities?   

A. 

The primary risk associated with GNMAs is default risk.

B. 

The minimal denomination of a GNMA when issued is $10,000.

C. 

GNMA mortgages are guaranteed solely by the FHA.

D. 

GNMAs were originally established as an agency within the Department of Veteran's Affairs.

E.  

If you buy a GNMA you are accepting the risk of prepayment.

See Section 20.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-02 Government's role in the secondary market for home mortgages. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.3 Topic: Gnma  

43.

GNMA mortgage pools are based on mortgages issued by which of the following? I. FHLMC II. FNMA III. FHA IV. FmHA   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

II and III only

C.  

III and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 20.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-02 Government's role in the secondary market for home mortgages. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.3 Topic: Gnma  

44.

Which one of the following is a government agency?   

A. 

FHLMC

B. 

Fannie Mae

C. 

Freddie Mac

D.  

GNMA

E. 

FNMA

See Section 20.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-02 Government's role in the secondary market for home mortgages. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.3 Topic: Gnma  

45.

The greater the prepayment rate for a mortgage pool, the:   

A. 

slower the payments to the holders of the bonds supported by the pool.

B.  

greater the decline in the bond principal for bonds supported by the pool.

C. 

longer the age of the mortgages held in the underlying pool.

D. 

lower the PSA benchmark rate.

E. 

greater the default risk.

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.4 Topic: Prepayment Rate  

46.

After 30 months, what is the 100 PSA benchmark conditional prepayment rate per year?   

A. 

3 percent

B. 

5 percent

C.  

6 percent

D. 

8 percent

E. 

12 percent

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Psa Benchmark  

47.

You acquired a 30-year mortgage two years ago to purchase your current residence. Your mortgage is classified as which one of the following?   

A. 

seasoned

B.  

unseasoned

C. 

conditional

D. 

complex

E. 

deferred

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Seasoned Mortgages  

48.

How much faster will a mortgage pool with a PSA of 150 be prepaid as compared to the benchmark?   

A. 

150 times faster

B. 

15 times faster

C.  

1.5 times faster

D. 

1.5 times slower

E. 

15 times slower

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Psa Rates  

49.

Generally, the average life of a mortgage is _____ the mortgage's stated maturity.   

A.  

much less than

B. 

marginally less than

C. 

equal to

D. 

marginally greater than

E. 

significantly greater than

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Average Mortgage Life  

50.

How long is the expected average mortgage life of a mortgage held in a 30-year mortgage pool with a 100 PSA?   

A.  

14.68 years

B. 

18.29 years

C. 

21.33 years

D. 

23.90 years

E. 

25.25 years

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Average Mortgage Life  

51.

A mortgage pool was created six years ago. Which one of the following PSA values is most apt to apply to that pool if market mortgage rates have been declining quite rapidly over the past five years?   

A. 

0

B. 

50

C. 

100

D. 

150

E.  

200

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Psa Values  

52.

Monthly payments to investors in GNMA mortgage-backed bonds include which of the following cash flows? I. mortgage interest II. fixed principal payment III. scheduled amortization of mortgage principal IV. mortgage prepayments   

A. 

II only

B. 

I and II only

C.  

I, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 20.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.5 Topic: Gnma Cash Flows  

53.

You just purchased a GNMA mortgage-backed security. Which one of the following should you expect to receive?   

A. 

fixed monthly payments

B. 

fixed quarterly payments

C.  

variable monthly payments

D. 

variable quarterly payments

E. 

quarterly payments that decrease at a constant rate

See Section 20.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.5 Topic: Gnma Cash Flows  

54.

Which one of the following statements regarding an original issue $25,000 GNMA bond is correct?   

A. 

The investor will receive $25,000 as a principal payment at maturity.

B. 

The investor will receive fixed quarterly interest payments.

C. 

The investor will receive the future value of $25,000 at maturity.

D. 

The investor will receive payments totaling $25,000 over the life of the bond.

E.  

The investor should receive more than $25,000 but the amount of each payment is unknown in advance.

See Section 20.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.5 Topic: Gnma  

55.

Which one of the following is the reason that Macaulay duration is NOT a good measure of interest rate risk for mortgage bonds?   

A. 

Mortgage bonds are long-term securities while Macaulay duration is a short-term measure.

B. 

Macaulay duration assumes the debt has a variable rate and most mortgages have a fixed rate.

C. 

Macaulay duration requires bond payments to be made semi-annually.

D.  

Macaulay duration assumes payments are fixed and mortgage bond payments vary.

E. 

Macaulay duration only applies to zero-coupon bonds.

See Section 20.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.5 Topic: Macaulay Duration  

56.

Historically, what has been the relationship between bond prepayment rates and the market rate of interest?   

A. 

perfectly related

B. 

directly related

C.  

inversely related

D. 

minimally related

E. 

unrelated

See Section 20.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.5 Topic: Prepayment Rate  

57.

Which one of the following is the preferred method of evaluating interest rate risk on mortgage bonds?   

A. 

PSA rating

B. 

modified duration

C. 

Macaulay duration

D.  

effective duration

E. 

postponed duration

See Section 20.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-03 The impact of mortgage prepayments. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.5 Topic: Macaulay Duration  

58.

If the prepayment schedule for a mortgage pool increases to 100 PSA from 50 PSA, the related interest-only strips will _____ in value and the related principal-only strips will _____ in value.   

A. 

decrease; decrease

B.  

decrease; increase

C. 

increase; decrease

D. 

increase; increase

E. 

remain constant; remain constant

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Io and Po Strip Values  

59.

Which of the following affect the value of a PO strip based on a GNMA bond? I. changes in the PSA schedule II. prepayment rates III. time value of money IV. changes in the default rates for the underlying mortgages   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

II and III only

C.  

I, II, and III only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Po Strip Values  

60.

Which one of the following is correct concerning the total payment amount on a PO strip?   

A.  

The total payment amount equals the bond's par value.

B. 

The total payment amount will either equal or exceed the bond's par value.

C. 

The total payment will vary based on the PSA schedule.

D. 

The total payment amount will increase if interest rates decline.

E. 

The total payment amount will vary if the prepayment rate varies.

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Po Strip  

61.

The total payment amount on an IO strip is:   

A. 

fixed.

B. 

equal to the interest rate multiplied by the par value multiplied by the PSA rate schedule.

C. 

equal to the par value multiplied by the interest rate.

D.  

unknown until all payments have been made.

E. 

equal to the total interest computed on the bond's amortization schedule.

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Io Strip  

62.

The value of an IO strip will most likely increase when:   

A.  

the PSA schedule rate decreases from 200 to 100.

B. 

market interest rates remain constant.

C. 

prepayments increase.

D. 

mortgage refinancings increase.

E. 

market interest rates decrease significantly.

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Io Strip  

63.

Which one of the following will maximize the value of an IO strip?   

A. 

prepaying all mortgages in the underlying mortgage pool

B. 

minimizing the duration of the underlying mortgage pool

C. 

maximizing the value of the PO strip

D. 

amortizing the bonds in the underlying pool faster than anticipated

E.  

creating conditions where no prepayments occur in the underlying mortgage pool

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Io Strip  

64.

A mortgage pool is divided into A, B, C, and Z-tranches based on the textbook example. The mortgage principal will initially be paid to which one of the tranches?   

A.  

A-tranche

B. 

B-tranche

C. 

C-tranche

D. 

Z-tranche

E. 

all tranches on a pro-rata basis

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Tranches  

65.

A mortgage pool is divided into A, B, C, and Z-tranches based on the textbook example. Which tranche will have the longest life?   

A. 

A-tranche

B. 

B-tranche

C. 

C-tranche

D.  

Z-tranche

E. 

All tranches will have equal lives.

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Tranches  

66.

A mortgage pool is divided into A, B, C, and Z-tranches as discussed in the textbook. What happens to the initial interest payment for the Z tranche?   

A. 

It is immediately passed through to holders of Z tranche securities.

B. 

It is accumulated and held until the Z tranche securities mature.

C.  

It is exchanged for principal from the A tranche.

D. 

It is exchanged for principal from the B tranche.

E. 

It is exchanged for principal from the C tranche.

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Tranches  

67.

Which one of the following statements regarding PAC bonds is correct?   

A. 

The cash flows from a PAC bond are less certain than those from a Z-tranche bond from a sequential CMO.

B. 

PAC bondholders receive the residual cash flows from the underlying mortgage pool.

C.  

PAC bonds are defined by the specific rules which created them.

D. 

PAC bonds have bounds based on market interest rates.

E. 

PAC bond cash flows are unaffected by mortgage prepayments.

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Pac Bonds  

68.

Which one of the following is required for the cash flows on a PAC bond to be predictable?   

A. 

market interest rates must remain constant

B. 

market interest rates must steadily decline

C.  

mortgage prepayments must remain within the PAC collar

D. 

PAC support bonds must be prepaid in a timely manner

E. 

mortgage prepayments must exceed the specified PSA schedule

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Pac Bonds  

69.

A PAC support bond is most similar to which tranche in a sequential CMO?   

A. 

A

B. 

B

C. 

C

D.  

Z

E. 

A PAC bond cannot be compared to a sequential CMO.

See Section 20.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Pac Support Bond  

70.

PAC bondholders receive payments of principal based on which one of the following?   

A. 

an amortization schedule

B.  

PAC collar's lower PSA prepayment schedule

C. 

PAC collar's upper PSA prepayment schedule

D. 

receipt of all principal collected on the underlying pool of mortgages until the bond is paid in full

E. 

zero principal from the underlying pool of mortgages until after the PAC companion bonds have been paid in full

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Pac Bonds  

71.

After month 30, assuming that prepayments remain within the PAC collar, the holders of a PAC bond will receive which one of the following payments?   

A. 

a fixed principal payment only

B. 

a fixed interest payment only

C. 

a fixed principal payment plus a declining interest payment

D. 

a declining principal payment only

E.  

a declining principal payment and a declining interest payment

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Pac Bonds  

72.

How are the cash flows allocated when actual prepayments fall below a PAC collar's lower bound?   

A. 

The entire cash flow is paid to the non-PAC support bonds until those bonds are paid in full.

B. 

The cash flows are divided between PAC and non-PAC bonds on a pro-rata basis.

C. 

PAC payments are recomputed to a reduced fixed amount.

D.  

The entire cash flow is paid to the PAC bondholders.

E. 

The interest income is paid to the non-PAC bondholders with all principal amounts paid to the PAC bondholders.

See Section 20.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: Pac Bonds  

73.

Assume that a mortgage pool follows a specified PSA prepayment schedule. Given this, the cash flow yield on the mortgage pool will do which one of the following?   

A. 

equal the average interest rate of the mortgages contained in the pool

B. 

equal the anticipated cash flow for the next year divided by the current value of the pool

C.  

equate the present value of the future cash flows from the pool to the current value of the pool

D. 

equate the average interest rate on the mortgages to the current market rate of interest

E. 

equal the current market rate of interest

See Section 20.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.7 Topic: Cash Flow Yield  

74.

What is the monthly mortgage payment on a $255,000, 25-year loan if the interest rate is 5.50 percent?   

A. 

$1,034.07

B. 

$1,468.75

C.  

$1,565.92

D. 

$1,893.14

E. 

$2,622.47

Calculator solution:

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Payment  

75.

You want to borrow $180,000 at 6.25 percent interest. If you assume a 10-year loan, the monthly payment will be _____ as compared to _____ if you assume a 20-year loan.   

A. 

$1,237.50; $1,103.88

B. 

$2,207.75; $1,237.50

C.  

$2,021.04; $1,315.67

D. 

$2,498.18; $1,103.88

E. 

$2,498.16; $1,533.50

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Payment  

76.

You took out a 20-year, $125,000, 4.5 percent loan 8 years ago. What is your current principal balance, assuming payments are made monthly?   

A. 

$58,588

B. 

$65,130

C. 

$74,988

D.  

$87,867

E. 

$88,889

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Balance  

77.

Ten years ago, you borrowed $165,000 for 25 years at 7.5 percent interest. What is the current principal balance, assuming payments are made monthly?   

A. 

$112,200

B.  

$131,534

C. 

$138,314

D. 

$140,362

E. 

$147,414

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Balance  

78.

You are borrowing $260,000 for 25 years at 5.5 percent. Payments will be made monthly. What is the total amount of interest you will pay if you pay the loan as agreed over the 25 years?   

A.  

$314,786

B. 

$324,340

C. 

$346,360

D. 

$364,120

E. 

$396,342

Total interest = ($1,596.63 × 25 × 12) - $260,000 = $314,785.89

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Interest  

79.

Four years ago, you borrowed $250,000 for 20 years at 8 percent. Payments are made monthly. How much interest have you paid thus far?   

A. 

$74,222

B. 

$75,756

C. 

$75,909

D.  

$76,456

E. 

$77,121

Interest paid to date = ($2,091.10 × 4 × 12) - ($250,000 - $226,083) = $76,456

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Interest  

80.

You just assumed a 30-year mortgage for $300,000 at 6 percent interest. How much of the first monthly payment will be applied to the principal balance?   

A. 

$253.14

B. 

$267.35

C. 

$272.17

D. 

$281.16

E.  

$298.65

Interest included in first payment = $300,000 × (.06/12) = $1,500 Principal portion of first payment = $1,798.65 - $1,500.00 = $298.65

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Amortization  

81.

You recently assumed a 15-year mortgage for $150,000 at 6.5 percent interest. How much of the second monthly payment will be applied to the principal balance?   

A. 

$453.02

B. 

$482.02

C. 

$685.00

D.  

$809.82

E. 

$938.18

Interest on the first payment = $150,000 × (.065/12) = $812.50 Principal on the first payment = $1,306.66 - $812.50 = $494.16 Interest on the second payment = ($150,000 - $494.16) × (.065/12) = $809.82

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Amortization  

82.

You have a 25-year mortgage at 5 percent interest. The initial loan amount was $250,000. By how much did the principal decrease over the first 10 years of the loan? Payments are made monthly.   

A. 

$61,345

B. 

$64,580

C.  

$65,189

D. 

$66,453

E. 

$68,618

Decrease in principal = $250,000 - $184,811 = $65,189

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Amortization  

83.

You have a 30-year, $180,000 mortgage. The interest rate is 7.5 percent. What is the amount of the mortgage prepayment if you pay $1,400 as your first payment?   

A. 

$128.50

B. 

$130.46

C. 

$132.65

D. 

$135.89

E.  

$141.41

Mortgage prepayment = $1,400 - $1,258.59 = $141.41

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Prepayments  

84.

You have a 25-year, $225,000 mortgage at 5.5 percent interest. What is the amount of your mortgage prepayment if you pay $1,650 as your second mortgage payment? Assume your first payment was the agreed upon amount.   

A. 

$241.93

B. 

$248.25

C.  

$268.30

D. 

$276.37

E. 

$289.65

Mortgage prepayment = $1,650 - $1,381.70 = $268.30

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Prepayments  

85.

You have decided to pay $1,800 a month on your 30-year, $225,000 mortgage. The interest rate is 7.75 percent. What is your total prepayment amount for year two?   

A. 

$2,208

B.  

$2,257

C. 

$3,387

D. 

$3,979

E. 

$4,002

Total prepayment for year 2 = ($1,800 - $1,611.93) × 12 = $2,257

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Prepayments  

86.

You are currently borrowing $175,000 to buy a house. The mortgage is for 15 years at 6 percent. How much would you save each month if you could finance this amount at 5 percent for the same time period?   

A. 

$84.37

B. 

$86.27

C. 

$88.95

D. 

$90.24

E.  

$92.86

Difference = $1,476.75 - $1,383.89 = $92.86

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Financing  

87.

You are assuming a 30-year mortgage for $230,000 at 7.75 percent interest. How much would you save in interest if you financed this loan at 7.25 percent for 20 years?   

A. 

$159,603

B. 

$158,504

C.  

$156,902

D. 

$154,116

E. 

$152,686

Total loan interest = ($1,647.75 × 30 × 12) - $230,000 = $363,190 Total loan interest = ($1,817.86 × 20 × 12) - $230,000 = $206,288 Interest savings = $363,190 - $206,288 = $156,902

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 20.2 Topic: Mortgage Financing  

88.

The CPR for a seasoned 150 PSA mortgage is 9.8 percent. What is the single monthly mortality?   

A. 

0.8258 percent

B.  

0.8558 percent

C. 

0.8949 percent

D. 

0.9013 percent

E. 

0.9129 percent

SMM = 1 - (1 - .098)1/12 = 0.8558 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Single Monthly Mortality  

89.

The CPR for an unseasoned 100 PSA mortgage is 4.5 percent. What is the single monthly mortality?   

A. 

0.3557 percent

B. 

0.3635 percent

C. 

0.3752 percent

D.  

0.3830 percent

E. 

0.3986 percent

SMM = 1 - (1 - .045)1/12 = 0.3830 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.4 Topic: Single Monthly Mortality  

 

Essay Questions  

90.

What are the advantages and the disadvantages of a homeowner selecting a 30-year mortgage rather than a 20-year mortgage?   

Answer will vary Feedback: The primary advantage is the lower required monthly payment. The primary disadvantages are the higher total interest cost for the loan and the longer period of payments. However, if the homeowner has sufficient funds, he or she can prepay on the 30-year mortgage such that the loan is paid off in 20 years. However, if funds are not available to do that, the homeowner does have the option of paying the lower 30-year payment amount. Another disadvantage may be that the longer term loan may carry a higher interest rate.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Fixed Mortgages  

91.

How do CMOs increase the availability of mortgage funds?   

Answer will vary Feedback: CMOs are packaged mortgages which are combined into a mortgage pool. This pool distributes its cash flows to IOs, POs, and PACs which allow individuals and institutions to purchase those investments which meet their investment needs and goals. These investments increase the amount of money available for financing mortgages and thus provide liquidity to the mortgage market.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-04 How collateralized mortgage obligations are created and divided. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.6 Topic: CMOs  

92.

Explain what a reverse mortgage is, how it works, and who it is intended to help.   

Answer will vary Feedback: A reverse mortgage provides money to a homeowner in exchange for increasing the mortgage amount due on a home. The homeowner receives payments, either as he or she needs funds or on a regular basis. These payments, plus the accrued interest and costs, become a lien on the home. The homeowner pays no payments on this mortgage as long as he or she is residing in the home. The mortgage becomes due and payable only when the homeowner either moves from the home or passes away. These mortgages are designed to aid an individual 62 years of age or older by providing liquidity from the equity ownership in the home.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 20-01 The workings of a fixed-rate mortgage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 20.2 Topic: Reverse Mortgage  

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