read a company case and answer the questions

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norris_industries_guideline_solutions1.xlsx

READ THIS FIRST

Norris Industries case study
See the FCF Valuation tab for the 2-part question.
See the Multiples Valuation tab for 1-part question.
Use Case Ex 6 & 9 data in this file instead of the data in the case.
THE LAST TWO TABS SHOW BOTH THE QUESTION AND A GUIDELINE SOLUTION (not the only posible solution)

Case Ex 6 & 9

slightly different numbers than case Exhibit 6 - not materially diferent - rounding errors
Exhibit 6
Pro Forma Income Statement, 1982-1990
(millions of dollars, except per share amounts)
1982 1983 1984 1985 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990
Income before taxes and interest 91.6 100.8 110.8 121.9 134.1 147.5 162.3 178.5 196.4
Interest expense:
Industrial revenue bonds 1.6 1.6 1.6 1.6 1.6 1.5 1.5 1.4 1.4
Bank debt (17 percent) 48.8 48.8 48.8 44.5 40.2 34.0 29.8 22.1 14.5
Subordinated notes (19.5 percent) 8.0 8.0 8.0 8.0 8.0 8.0 8.0 8.0 8.0
TotalInterest Expense 58.4 58.4 58.4 54.1 49.8 43.5 39.3 31.5 23.9
Pre-tax income 33.2 42.4 52.4 67.8 84.3 104.0 123.0 147.0 172.5
Income taxes (50 percent) 16.6 21.2 26.2 33.9 42.2 52.0 61.5 73.5 86.2
Net income 16.6 21.2 26.2 33.9 42.2 52.0 61.5 73.5 86.2
Earnings per share 1.66 2.12 2.62 3.39 4.22 5.20 6.15 7.35 8.62
Book value per share 7.16 9.28 11.90 15.28 19.48 24.66 30.79 38.11 46.70
Interest coverage ratios:
Senior debt 1.8 2.0 2.2 2.6 3.2 4.2 5.2 7.6 12.3
All debt 1.6 1.7 1.9 2.3 2.7 3.4 4.1 5.7 8.2
Capitalization at Year End (millions of dollars)
Bank debt 286.0 286.0 261.0 236.0 200.0 175.0 130.0 85.0 0.0
Industrial revenue bonds 23.0 22.7 22.4 21.9 21.3 20.7 20.1 19.7 19.3
Total senior debt 309.0 308.7 283.4 257.9 221.3 195.7 150.1 104.7 19.3
Subordinated debt 41.0 41.0 41.0 41.0 41.0 41.0 41.0 41.0 41.0
Equity 64.6 85.8 112.0 145.9 188.1 240.1 301.6 375.1 461.3
Total subordinated debt and equity 105.6 126.8 153.0 186.9 229.1 281.1 342.6 416.1 502.3
Assumes 10 million shares outstanding at $5.50 per share.
Pro Forma Cash Flows as of Year End, 1982-1990 (millions of dollars)
Net income 16.6 21.2 26.2 33.9 42.2 52.0 61.5 73.5 86.2
Depreciation 23.0 23.1 23.1 22.0 21.5 21.5 21.5 21.5 21.5
Cash flow from operations 39.6 44.3 49.3 55.9 63.7 73.5 83.0 95.0 107.7
Principal payments
Bank payments 0.0 0.0 25.0 25.0 36.0 25.0 45.4 45.0 85.0
Industrial revenue bond payments 0.3 0.3 0.3 0.5 0.6 0.6 0.6 0.4 0.4
Subordinated payments--industrial
revenue bond payments 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0
Total payments 0.3 0.3 25.3 25.5 36.6 25.6 46.0 45.4 85.4
Cash flow available for working capital
and capital expenditures 39.3 44.0 24.0 30.4 27.1 47.9 37.0 49.6 22.3
Capital expenditures 15.0 16.0 17.0 18.0 19.0 25.0 25.0 25.0 25.0
Working capital 12.0 8.0 8.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0
Net cash flow 12.3 20.0 (1.0) 7.4 3.1 17.9 7.0 19.6 (7.7)
Beginning cash 5.2 17.5 37.5 36.5 43.9 47.0 64.9 71.9 91.5
Ending cash 17.5 37.5 36.5 43.9 47.0 64.9 71.9 91.5 83.8
Assumptions of Pro Forma Statements for 1982-1990
Income before taxes and interest is based on management's estimate for net income before taxes
and interest of $91.6 million for 1982 compared with the current estimate of $77.7 for 1981.
Principal underlying assumptions include the following:
a. Domestic automobile and light truct production at 10.3 million unites for 1982
versus estimate for 1981 of 9.0 million units.
b. Residential construction at 1.65 million units for 1982 versus estimate for 1981 of 1.35 million units.
Income before taxes and interest beyond 1982 based on projections made by KKR assumption
of a 10-percent compounded growth rate.
There is no interest income on excess cash.
No proceeds from the sale of assets. Norris currently has assets held for sale the could
generate $14.1 million.
No charges resulting from the revaluation of assets pursuant to Accounting Principles Board #16.
Working capital includes net change in receivables, inventories, and accounts payable.
Existing industrial revenue bonds will be assumed by NEWCO.
Exhibit 9
Data on Leveraged Buyouts and Other Acquisitions
Premium
Price Offer as a Senior
Acquisition One Day Percentage Multiple Debt/ Subordinated Subordinated
of Stock Prior to of Net of Book Total Debt/ Debt/Total
Company Acquired Date or Assets Announcement Income Value Debt Total Debt Capital
Houdaille Industries 10/28/78 S 93 13.9 2.0 65.5 34.5 29.6
Bliss & Laughlin 8/10/79 S 23 8.7 1.7 N.Av. N.Av. N.Av.
Carrier Corp. 9/16/78 A 39 10.2 1.6 N.Av. N.Av. N.Av.
Gardner-Denver 1/22/79 A 46 12.2 2.1 N.Av. N.Av. N.Av.
Eltra Corp. 6/29/79 A 25 11.6 1.5 N.Av. N.Av. N.Av.
Washington Steel 3/12/79 A 34 7.3 1.3 N.Av. N.Av. N.Av.
Studebaker-Northington 7/25/79 A 17 10.7 1.4 N.Av. N.Av. N.Av.
Marathon Manufacturing 8/13/79 A 13 11.4 2.1 N.Av. N.Av. N.Av.
Congoleum 1980 A/S 50 9.4 2.4 68.6 31.4 27.6

FCF VALUATION

FCF VALUATION
This is a 2-part FCF Valuation question using data from the Norris Industries case.
You are killing two birds with one stone here, learning about leveraged buyouts and equity valuation at the same time.
Exhibit 6 is the crucial exhibit in the case - in the previous tab with minor non-material differences in the numbers.
Use the numbers here in that exhibit, not from the case exhibit.
Notice that B45 PV of FCFs is based on years 1-5 only. The year 6 column grows the year 5 FCF at the stated growth rate in G30.
The terminal value in G48 is as of year 5. It is discounted to year zero, as shown in B52.
Part 1:
KKR agreed to pay $43.05 per share to buy out all existing shareholders.
Rounding the actual number of shares to 10 million to make calculations easier, they must raise $430.5 million dollars to finance the buyout.
You, as a mutual fund manager owning a big block of Norris stock, must determine if $43.05 per share
is a fair price, even though it amounts to almost a 50% premium over the prior market price of Norris, about $29 per share.
Therefore, to test whether the $43.05 price is fair, and to learn how to use the FCF Equity Valuation Template,
with data from Ex. 6 is already entered, evaluate the results of the analysis,
and discuss what it tells you, answering the questions in the boxes below:
Existing Norris Shareholder Viewpoint - Part 1 (PRE-LBO) BASE YEAR DATA FOR REFERENCE ONLY -
Base Year Forecast Forecast Forecast Forecast Forecast NOT INCLUDED IN CALCULATIONS
PERIOD 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
YEAR 1981 1982 1983 1984 1985 1986 1987
EBIT (operating profit) 91.6 100.8 110.8 121.9 134.1 from ex 6
Income tax rate 50.0% 50.0% 50.0% 50.0% 50.0% from ex 6
Depreciation & amortization expense 23.0 23.1 23.1 22.0 21.5 from ex 6
Capital expenditures 15.0 16.0 17.0 18.0 19.0 from ex 6
Increase in NWC 12.0 8.0 8.0 5.0 5.0 from ex 6
Perpetual growth rate 3.0% assumed
K-wacc (discount rate) 10.0% assumed
Value of liabilities 23.0 pre LBO debt from balance sheet
Number of shares outstanding 10.00 given
PERIOD 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
YEAR 1981 1982 1983 1984 1985 1986 1987
EBIT 91.6 100.8 110.8 121.9 134.1
Income tax 45.8 50.4 55.4 61.0 67.1
Earnings after tax 45.8 50.4 55.4 61.0 67.1
+ Depreciation 23.0 23.1 23.1 22.0 21.5
=Cash flow from operations (CFFO) 68.8 73.5 78.5 83.0 88.6
- Capital expenditures 15.0 16.0 17.0 18.0 19.0
- Increase in NWC 12.0 8.0 8.0 5.0 5.0
=Free cash flow (FCF) 41.8 49.5 53.5 60.0 64.6 66.5 66.5 (H44) is 64.6 (G44) x 1.03
PV of FCFs 200.1
Terminal value estimates:
Perpetual growth 949.9 terminal cash flow (H44)/(k-wacc-growth rate)
Warranted MV firm/EBIT(1-tax rate) disregard
Projected BV of debt & equity disregard
Best-guess terminal value disregard'
PV of terminal value 589.8
Value of firm (enterprise value) 789.9
Value of liabilities 23.0
Value of equity 766.9
Shares outstanding 10.0
Value per share $ 76.69
Q1-A: Row 25 EBIT grows at 10% yr-by-yr in this forecast. Is that reasonable for a mature, cyclical company? Explain.
This 10% constant growth rate is not reasonable because a company in this mature business will grow
at a rate closer to the GDP growth rate. Further, a constant 10% yr-to-yr growth rate does not provide for
inevitable cyclical downturns. More subtly, you should notice, is previous EBIT of $66.5 in 1979 and $43.9 in 1980; the
forecast implies a substantial incease (climbing a steep cliff) from recent achieved EBIT to the EBIT
forecast. Therefore, this is a forecast biased in the optimistic direction.
Adjusting the forecast was not asked for or expected, but, a less optimistic scenario is easily run by
reducing the 1982 EBIT estimate, cutting the 10% growth rate, and introducing a one or two year flat or
down EBIT to simulate a cyclical downturn.
You should recognize EX 6 as optimistic and
realize that the resulting valuation is too high.
Q1-B: To what extent does Terminal Value dominate the calculation of value of equity?
G48 TV is 949.9, interpreted as the present value of the 1987 FCF growing at the stated rate, 3% in G30, Note Equation
into perpetuity. The present value as of time zero, base year 1981, is 589.8 in B52. The present value of FCFs COST OF DEBT:
in B45 is 201.1 Clearly, TV dominates the valuation. The question is: does this bias the result? Yes, it certainly Coupon Rate 6.7% Ex2 interest/Ex1 debt
does. Consider the key drivers, initial EBIT, EBIT growth rate, TV growth rate, and discount rate. All are optimistic, Marginal Tax Rate 50% given
leading to a high value. Cost of Debt 3.3% k-d = I x (1- t)
weight of debt 6.7% Ex1 d ÷ d+e
A meat-axe 50% haircut of the valuation estimate is routinely made in the venture capital business. Doing that here,
even though this is a mature business with a secure EBIT stream, the haircut compensates for the aggressive EBIT COST OF EQUITY:
forecast. A 3% growth rate is reasonable because this is not a here today-gone tomorrow type of business. Calculating Risk-Free Rate 15.3% Ex12-10 yr T-Bond
k-wacc using the Cost of Capital template from Wk 3 p342#4 (not asked for or expected - see it at the right) shows that Risk Premium 5.0% judgment R-m - R-f
a 19.2% k-wacc is more credible than the 10% rate assumed in B31, given the extant capital market rates, Beta 1.00 judgment or based on peers
equity risk premium of 5%, and Norris' pre-LBO debt ratio of 6.7%. Cost of Equity 20.3% k-e = R-f + [ß x (R-m - R-f)]
weight of equity 93.3% 1-b8 e ÷ d+e
Grey shading in Column H indicates that it is for calculation of Terminal Value, growing the previous year FCF
as Higgins explained. See the annotation next to H44. This column is not included in the PV of FCF calculation. k-wacc 19.2% (b8*b7)+(b15*b14) (k-d x wt-d)+(k-e x wt-e)
Q1-C:Based on the value of equity result above, is $43.05 a fair price? COMMENTARY:
Using the B59 valuation estimate of $76.69 says that the $43.05 deal price is too low by a wide margin. The troubles with the above are many. The 1980
Deal price is 78% below the estimated value. Security Market Line is negatively sloped -
However, you should identify and question the key drivers of the valuation result, as listed above: not the normal long-term SML. The yield curve
initial EBIT is inverted. Further, the equity risk premium,
EBIT growth rate R-m - R-f would be negative, not positive, because
growth rate stock market return has been so low.
discount rate What now? Normalize the inputs? If you do that,
Both initial EBIT and its growth rate are too aggressive. An impressionistic answer, a sense that a high value is which k-wacc to trust?
too high, is an excellent finding for this question beyond merely accepting the template result without question. The purpose of this commentary is to clue you in
Still, if you accepted the template result at face value, and indicated understanding of the analysis, that is ok. about k-wacc. If you are a buyer, is the seller using
a too low discount rate, therefore raising the value?
Note: Changing the discount rate in B31 from 10% to the 19.2% in H90, reduces the value to $30.56, If you are a seller, is the buyer using a too high discount rate,
close to market price at the time, making the deal price a healthy 41% premium over market price (recall the LBO video?) dropping the value?
This 'risk-adjustment' can be thought of as compensating for the too-high EBIT forecast, analogous to haircutting the EBITs BEWARE !! Cost of equity is a ghost-in-a-cloud.
in each cell as suggested above. Values that depend on it need careful interpretation.
Part 2:
Sam Mencoff needs to know the rate of return he might earn if he decides to invest $6 million (rounded) in the KKR-led buyout.
If he buys at time zero for $5.50 per share, he must forecast the exit price he will get if and when the KKR group sells Norris in the future.
Therefore, assume that such a sale will take place in 1986, and enter data from Ex. 6 into the FCF Equity Valuation Template below:
BASE YEAR DATA FOR REFERENCE ONLY -
Sam Mencoff viewpoint - Part 2 (POST-LBO) NOT INCLUDED IN CALCULATIONS
Base Year Forecast Forecast Forecast Forecast Forecast Forecast
PERIOD 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
YEAR 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991 1992
EBIT (operating profit) 134.1 147.5 162.3 178.5 196.4 196.4 Case Ex 6 stops at 1990.
Income tax rate 50% 50.0% 50.0% 50.0% 50.0% 50.0% Repeat 1990 data for 1991, or
Depreciation & amortization expense 21.5 21.5 21.5 21.5 21.5 21.5 grow them…your choice.
Capital expenditures 19.0 25.0 25.0 25.0 25.0 25.0
Increase in NWC 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0
Perpetual growth rate 3.0%
K-wacc (discount rate) 18.3% increased 12.2% from H167 below by 50%
Value of liabilities 261.3 as of 1996
Number of shares outstanding 10.00
PERIOD 0 1 2 3 4 5
YEAR 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991
EBIT 134.1 147.5 162.3 178.5 196.4 196.4
Income tax 67.1 73.8 81.1 89.3 98.2 98.2
Earnings after tax 67.1 73.8 81.1 89.3 98.2 98.2
+ Depreciation 21.5 21.5 21.5 21.5 21.5 21.5
=Cash flow from operations (CFFO) 88.6 95.3 102.6 110.8 119.7 119.7
- Capital expenditures 19.0 25.0 25.0 25.0 25.0 25.0
- Increase in NWC 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0
=Free cash flow (FCF) 64.6 65.3 72.6 80.8 89.7 89.7 92.4
PV of FCFs 240.6
Terminal value estimates:
Perpetual growth 605.4
Warranted MV firm/EBIT(1-tax rate) disregard
Projected BV of debt & equity disregard
Best-guess terminal value disregard
PV of terminal value 261.7
Value of firm (enterprise value) 502.3
Value of liabilities 261.3
Value of equity 241.0
Shares outstanding 10.0
Value per share $ 24.10
Q2: Based on the result above, what should Mencoff do? HINT: Use IRR to calculate his rate of return.
Some of the work for this question was done for you, to set it up and pave the way for completion. Base year Note Equation
shifts from 1981 to 1986, the target year for Sam's exit. Therefore, data is entered from Ex 6 from 1986 going forward. COST OF DEBT:
Growth rate is a judgment call - 3% is logical as discussed above, but you can make it lower (not much higher - it is Coupon Rate 18.0% Blended rate with LBO debt
a long-term sustainable gowth rate, forever) with a good reason. Discount rate selection is important here because Marginal Tax Rate 50%
the post-LBO Norris has extreme financial risk (business risk may not change unless the new owners decide to run Cost of Debt 9.0% b5*(1-b6) k-d = I x (1- t)
the business differently). Venture capital has high risk on the business risk side; Norris has high risk on the financial risk side. weight of debt 87.9% Ex5 d ÷ d+e
I hoped you tried to deal with k-wacc, based on prior learning in the course, and tried to increase beta, and changed the COST OF EQUITY:
debt ratio. You can't change the equity risk premium because it is R-m - R-f, determined by the market, not you. Risk-Free Rate 15.3% Ex12-10 yr T-bond
Risk Premium 5.0% judgment R-m - R-f
Therefore, if Sam buys at $5.50 per share in 1980 and sells at $24.10 per share in 1986, what is his rate of return (IRR)? Beta 4.00 judgment-more fin'l risk,high beta
If the IRR compensates for his exposure to risk, he joins the deal, if not, he politely refuses. Cost of Equity 35.3% k-e = R-f + [ß x (R-m - R-f)]
28% IRR weight of equity 12.1% e ÷ d+e
1980 -5.5
Any reasonable IRR is acceptable if your analysis 1981 0 k-wacc 12.2% (b8*b7)+(b15*b14) (k-d x wt-d)+(k-e x wt-e)
is logical and internally consistent. 1982 0 COMMENTARY:
1983 0 This k-wacc of 12.2% is an enigma. How can
1984 0 a much riskier capital structure (financial risk -
1985 0 post LBO) produce a lower k-wacc than a less
1986 $ 24.10 risky capital structure (pre LBO) of 19.2% from H90 above?
A 28% IRR would be marginally acceptable. Sam's high risk deals sometimes fail, so the IRR on the good ones One reason: low cost debt has a very high weight; high cost
must be high enough to cover for the bad ones, much like venture capital required rates of return. equity has a very low weight.
A valuation shortcut if you already have an income statement forecast: multiply EPS times P/E…
say F17 from Ex. 6 tab (choice of year is up to you) and K13 from the Multiples tab: $ 44.73 per share…
much higher than the $24.10 in C172 above - IT'S ALL IN THE ASSUMPTIONS Business risk is about the same per and post LBO,
See what actually happened, as suggested in the lbo overview.xls file, in the commentary at the right. because Norris' operations will remain the same.
Is the value of Norris truly higher (driven by lower
discount rate) post LBO?
To the owners, yes, because of the power of financial
leverage…as long as the EBIT forecast comes true, so
they can service the debt. If they can't service the debt,
they lose their investment, $48 million.
Does the k-wacc properly reflect the defaut scenario?
No!
Now you see how the LBO deal structure planted the
seeds of our global financial crisis.
Now you see why I use such an old case.
Love of excessive debt has not been good for us.
Are you jealous of investment bankers who earned such high
rates of return for so long? I am!
The actual deal took only two years for the exit to occur, at $40 per share.
170% IRR
1980 -5.5
1981 0
1982 40
170% per year return is outstanding, don't you think? Far off the scale
of the Security Market Line. The KKR group bought a company for about $400
putting about $50 million down (their equity investment). Then they sold
it in a IPO 2 years later for about $400 (plus the debt on the balance sheet).
I don't know the story, but presume that KKR anticipated a stock market
recovery from the flat performance in the prior 15 years or so, which would
pull up all stock prices and create demand for stocks.
To what extent did the forecast and valuation drive the deal?
To what extent did the expectation of a bull stock market drive the deal?
Even if KKR did not exit at a price as high as $40 per share, the IRR
would still have been very high. You can test this by changing
the number in H196.
Remember what you watched in the LBO Video.

MULTIPLES VALUATION

MULTIPLES VALUATION
If you do not like the result of the FCF Valuation just completed in Part 2, try another valuation approach, Multiples Valuation.
Mencoff continues to use 1986 as his exit year. Therefore, taking 1986 EPS from Ex 6 and multiples from Ex 9, already entered below,
discuss how the multiples approach differs from the FCF approach in the box below.
How might your answer to Part 2 on the previous tab change?
Make sure that you can navigate blank FCF and Multiples Valuation templates, looking ahead to the rest of the course.
COMPARABLES (MULTIPLES) VALUATION OF EQUITY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 AVERAGE OF
Multiple for Comparable Peer Businesses HOU BLI CAR GAR ELT WAS STU MAR CON PEERS
Price / Earnings (net income) 13.9 8.7 10.2 12.2 11.6 7.3 10.7 11.4 9.4 10.6 from Ex 9
Price / Revenue na na na na na na na na na ERROR:#DIV/0! no such data in Ex 9
Market value of firm / EBIT (1-Tax rate) na na na na na na na na na ERROR:#DIV/0! no such data in Ex 9
Market value of equity / Book value of equity 2 1.7 1.6 2.1 1.5 1.3 1.4 2.1 2.4 1.8 from Ex 9
Premium / Prior Price 93% 23% 39% 46% 25% 34% 17% 13% 50% 38% from Ex 9
PARAMETER OF change cell range for
NORRIS average if less than 9 peers
Earnings (net income) $41.70
Revenue na no such data in Ex 9
EBIT (1-Tax rate) na no such data in Ex 9
Book value of equity $349.00
Prior Price $290.00 $29 per share x # shares
ESTIMATED VALUE NORRIS VALUE PER
NORRIS # SHARES SHARE
Earnings (net income) $442.02 10 $44.20
Revenue ERROR:#DIV/0! 10 ERROR:#DIV/0!
EBIT (1-Tax rate) ERROR:#DIV/0! 10 ERROR:#DIV/0!
Book value of equity $624.32 10 $62.43
Prior Price $399.56 10 $39.96
Answer in this box:
Without considering whether or not all of the 'peer deals' are comparable, merely using the averages, the
value estimates for Norris as of 1986, the timing of a hoped-for exit for the KKR investment group, are good news.
All of them, in D29, D32, and D33, are above the $24.10 value estimate in Part 2 on the previous tab.
Once you realize that the KKR investment group invests $5.50 per share, not $43.05 per share, all of the above look very good.
Extremely good! IRRs would rise from the 28% calculated in Part 2.
If your valuation for Part 2 in the previous tab showed a value higher than the values in D29, D32, and D33, then you would
make the opposite recommendation, that the multiples valuation reduces the 28% IRR calculated in Part 2.
Multiples valuation applies peer information to the target company of the analysis, here Norris Industries.
Using the peer market prices, multiples are easy to calculate, based on earnings, revenue, EBIT, and book value. (Here, prior price
is added because deal premium is a standard metric in merger and acquisition analysis.)
Once the peer multiples are in hand, they are applied to the target's parameters: earnings, revenue, EBIT, book value. The
result is the valuation of the target based on peer valuations, the multiples coming from the current market price.
Of course, some peers may not be true peers, calling their use into question. The list of peers should be culled as a first step.
Compared to FCF Valuation, Multiples Valuation is quick and easy. No forecast is required, no discount rate controversy, no terminal
value controversy. No discounting to present value.
When multiples are based on base year parameters, the vagaries of forecasts are eliminated. However, multiples are often based
on forecast data, though not in the data above.
An answer consistent from the Part 2 result to this result is acceptable. Your answer does not have to be the same as in this solution.