Investing

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Chapter 05

The Stock Market

 

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

High Color Detergent is issuing new shares of stock which will trade on NASDAQ. If Sue purchases 300 of these shares, the trade will occur in which one of the following markets?   

A. 

primary

B. 

secondary

C. 

third

D. 

fourth

E. 

over-the-counter

 

2.

Wilson just placed an order with his broker to purchase 500 of the outstanding shares of GE. This purchase will occur in which one of the following markets?   

A. 

primary

B. 

secondary

C. 

third

D. 

fourth

E. 

fifth

 

3.

Hi-Tek Shoes is a private firm that has decided to issue shares of stock to the general public. This stock issue will be referred to as a(n):   

A. 

open-end sale

B. 

break-out issue

C. 

public service offering

D. 

initial public offering

E. 

initial trial issue

 

4.

A firm that specializes in arranging financing for companies is called a(n):   

A. 

floor broker

B. 

investment banking firm

C. 

investment dealer

D. 

private broker

E. 

marketing firm

 

5.

The process of purchasing newly issued shares from the issuer and reselling those shares to the general public is called:   

A. 

underwriting

B. 

capitalizing

C. 

securing

D. 

brokering

E. 

deploying

 

6.

The financing provided for new ventures that are frequently high-risk investments is referred to as "venture _______".   

A. 

capital

B. 

leverage

C. 

risk funds

D. 

funding

E. 

investing

 

7.

Marco Painting Supplies is a publicly-traded firm with 250,000 shares of stock outstanding. If the firm issues an additional 10,000 shares, those shares will be referred to as a(n):   

A. 

supplemental offering.

B. 

seasoned equity offering.

C. 

initial public offer.

D. 

market expansion offer.

E. 

after-market underwriting.

 

8.

Under the provisions of a general cash offer, shares of stock are offered to:   

A. 

underwriters on a guaranteed sale basis only.

B. 

current shareholders prior to being offered to the general public.

C. 

institutional investors only.

D. 

the issuer's employees on a cash purchase basis only.

E. 

the general public on a "first-come" basis.

 

9.

A public offering of securities which are offered first to current shareholders is called a(n):   

A. 

existing shareholder offer.

B. 

limited offer.

C. 

rights offer.

D. 

venture offer.

E. 

preference offer.

 

10.

The difference between the price an underwriter pays an issuer and the underwriter's offering price is called the:   

A. 

spread.

B. 

margin.

C. 

offer differential.

D. 

firm commitment.

E. 

underwriting capital.

 

11.

When a group of underwriters jointly work together to sell a new issue of securities, the underwriters form a(n):   

A. 

underwriting cartel.

B. 

market union.

C. 

venture capital association.

D. 

Dutch market.

E. 

syndicate.

 

12.

When an underwriting syndicate purchases an entire issue of new securities and accepts the risk of unsold shares, the underwriting is known as a _____ underwriting.   

A. 

Dutch auction

B. 

full-fledge

C. 

firm commitment

D. 

best efforts

E. 

guaranteed sale

 

13.

When the issuer assumes the risk for any shares the underwriters cannot sell, the underwriting is known as a _____ underwriting.   

A. 

Dutch auction

B. 

partial

C. 

firm commitment

D. 

best efforts

E. 

pro-rata

 

14.

When the price of newly issued shares is determined by competitive bidding the underwriting is known as a _____ underwriting.   

A. 

Dutch auction

B. 

market-priced

C. 

seasoned

D. 

best efforts

E. 

rights

 

15.

Which one of the following is the federal agency which regulates the financial markets in the U.S.?   

A. 

Treasury Department

B. 

National Association of Securities Dealers

C. 

Over the Counter Commission

D. 

Federal Reserve

E. 

Securities and Exchange Commission

 

16.

The document that must be prepared in order to receive approval for a stock offering is called a:   

A. 

tombstone.

B. 

prospectus.

C. 

offering agreement.

D. 

regulatory report.

E. 

offering paper.

 

17.

A preliminary document provided to investors who are interested in a stock offering is called a(n):   

A. 

prospectus.

B. 

inquiry form.

C. 

draft offer.

D. 

green shoe.

E. 

red herring.

 

18.

A securities dealer is a(n):   

A. 

intermediary who arranges trades between a buyer and a seller.

B. 

trader who buys and sells from his or her inventory.

C. 

firm which charges a commission for arranging a transaction.

D. 

person who buys securities for his or her own account on an exchange floor.

E. 

trader who transacts business on behalf of a securities issuer.

 

19.

Which one of the following best describes a broker?   

A. 

intermediary who arranges trades between a buyer and a seller

B. 

trader who buys and sells from his or her inventory

C. 

firm which charges a commission for arranging a transaction

D. 

person who buys securities for his or her own account on an exchange floor

E. 

trader who transacts business on behalf of a securities issuer

 

20.

Which one of the following prices will an individual investor receive if he or she sells shares of Microsoft?   

A. 

bid

B. 

ask

C. 

issue

D. 

offer

E. 

Dutch

 

21.

Which one of the following prices will an investor pay to purchase shares of stock that are currently outstanding?   

A. 

issue

B. 

option

C. 

bid

D. 

ask

E. 

primary

 

22.

The profit a dealer makes on a purchase and resale of shares of stock is called the:   

A. 

margin.

B. 

bid.

C. 

float.

D. 

offer.

E. 

spread.

 

23.

A private equity fund: I. is set up as a limited partnership II. usually use a 2/20 fee structure III. place no constraints on manager compensation IV. typically have a stated life of 7 to 10 years   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and III only

C. 

I, II and III only

D. 

I, II and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

24.

Which of the following is correct regarding the compensation paid to private equity fund managers?   

A. 

Managers typically receive 20% of fund profits but no separate management fee.

B. 

Managers typically receive a high percentage management fee but no portion of fund profits.

C. 

Management compensation is usually subject to a "clawback" provision to limit the performance fees.

D. 

"Carried interest" refers to the interest fund managers earn on performance fees.

E. 

Fees paid to fund managers do not reduce the net return of the fund.

 

25.

An owner of a trading license on the NYSE is called a:   

A. 

broker.

B. 

shareholder.

C. 

member.

D. 

trader.

E. 

dealer.

 

26.

An NYSE Supplemental Liquidity Provider: I. can trade the same stocks as designated market makers II. can trade only from offices outside the exchange III. must quote bid or ask quotes a certain % of the day IV. are paid 30 cents per 100 shares traded   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I, II and III only

C. 

I and III only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III and IV

 

27.

The party who serves as a dealer for a few securities on an exchange floor and is obligated to maintain an orderly market for those securities is called a:   

A. 

floor trader.

B. 

designated market maker.

C. 

floor broker.

D. 

member.

E. 

house broker.

 

28.

A trading floor broker:   

A. 

is a NYSE member who trades on the floor for his or her personal account.

B. 

executes orders on behalf of commission brokers in exchange for a fee.

C. 

executes customers' orders in exchange for a commission.

D. 

trades a limited number of securities and is obligated to maintain an orderly market for those securities.

E. 

is any party who owns a NYSE trading license.

 

29.

The NYSE's Super Display Book is an electronic system which:   

A. 

maintains the historical records of each customer's trading activity.

B. 

transmits the latest market information to the news media.

C. 

allows floor traders to execute trades via cell phones.

D. 

tracks the activity on an exchange floor to ensure regulatory compliance.

E. 

is based on NYSE's ARCA electronic trading engine.

 

30.

A NYSE member who trades only for his or her own account is called a(n):   

A. 

floor trader.

B. 

specialist.

C. 

individual broker.

D. 

floor broker.

E. 

house broker.

 

31.

The location on an exchange floor where a particular security trades is called a(n):   

A. 

specialist's post.

B. 

broker's terminal.

C. 

floor spot.

D. 

exchange spot.

E. 

market pit.

 

32.

You want to sell shares of stock at the current price. Which type of order should you place?   

A. 

limit

B. 

post

C. 

market

D. 

short

E. 

stop

 

33.

An order to buy shares of stock at a stated price or less is called a _____ order.   

A. 

limit

B. 

stop

C. 

market

D. 

short

E. 

bid

 

34.

An order to sell that involves a preset trigger point is called a _____ order.   

A. 

limit

B. 

day

C. 

stop

D. 

short

E. 

market

 

35.

A market centered on dealers buying and selling for their own inventories is called a(n):   

A. 

exchange floor.

B. 

SuperDot.

C. 

OTC market.

D. 

subscriber market.

E. 

Big Board.

 

36.

Which one of the following describes an ECN?   

A. 

Web site used by investors to trade directly with other investors

B. 

Web site limited to use by professional brokers and dealers

C. 

computerized trading floor

D. 

communications network used by specialists

E. 

cellular trading network

 

37.

Inside quotes are the:   

A. 

highest asked and lowest bid quotes offered by securities dealers.

B. 

highest bid and lowest asked quotes offered by securities dealers.

C. 

latest prices at which corporate insiders have purchased or sold securities.

D. 

bid and asked prices which are offered only to institutional traders or large private investors.

E. 

latest price at which a security traded.

 

38.

The off-exchange market in which exchange-listed securities trade is referred to as the _____ market.   

A. 

independent

B. 

secondary

C. 

fourth

D. 

third

E. 

primary

 

39.

The market where individual investors directly trade exchange-listed securities with other individual investors is referred to as the _____ market.   

A. 

home

B. 

independent

C. 

third

D. 

fourth

E. 

SuperDot

 

40.

Which of the following types of indexes is a stock market index in which stocks are held in proportion to their share price?   

A. 

balanced

B. 

market-weighted

C. 

dollar-weighted

D. 

price-weighted

E. 

value-weighted

 

41.

When stocks are held in an index in proportion to their total company market value, the index is:   

A. 

dollar-weighted.

B. 

front-weighted.

C. 

back-weighted.

D. 

price-weighted.

E. 

value-weighted.

 

42.

An index is valued on a daily basis. However, some stocks in this particular index have not traded recently. As a result, this index suffers from index:   

A. 

fatigue.

B. 

devaluation.

C. 

flatness.

D. 

staleness.

E. 

weighting.

 

43.

Which one of the following statements concerning the NYSE is correct?   

A. 

The NYSE was created based on the Walnut Tree Agreement.

B. 

The average daily trading volume on the NYSE in 2007 was approximately one billion shares.

C. 

The NYSE and NASDAQ merged in 2007.

D. 

The NYSE is part of a firm that also operates a stock exchange in Amsterdam.

E. 

The NYSE merged with NASDAQ in 2007.

 

44.

Which of the following are common sources of venture capital? I. private individuals II. NASDAQ III. university endowment funds IV. insurance companies   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

III and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

45.

Which one of the following statements concerning venture capital is correct?   

A. 

Venture capital is frequently provided in stages with each stage financed by a different venture capitalist.

B. 

Most venture capitalists are passive investors.

C. 

The founders of a firm generally realize substantial payoffs as soon as the firm receives venture financing.

D. 

Venture capitalists generally compete with banks to find projects to finance.

E. 

Well established firms tend to absorb most of the available venture capital.

 

46.

How long is the "lock-up" period that is commonly found in an IPO underwriting contract?   

A. 

one month

B. 

three months

C. 

six months

D. 

one year

E. 

eighteen months

 

47.

Which one of the following can be assumed when the SEC approves an IPO registration?   

A. 

The securities offering will provide value to the shareholders.

B. 

The issuer is financially sound.

C. 

The issuer will remain solvent.

D. 

All rules have been followed to allow for full disclosure of information.

E. 

The stock price is set at a level which will allow shareholders to earn a positive rate of return.

 

48.

Which one of the following transactions occurs in the primary market?   

A. 

sale of stock by Shareholder A to Shareholder B

B. 

gift of shares from a grandmother to her granddaughter

C. 

sale of newly issued shares by the issuer to a shareholder

D. 

sale of shares in the third market

E. 

purchase of shares by a dealer from a shareholder

 

49.

Trevor currently owns 545,000 shares of ABC stock. He will sell those shares for $17.10 a share. He is also willing to purchase additional shares for $17.07 a share. Trevor is a securities:   

A. 

broker.

B. 

representative.

C. 

underwriter.

D. 

floor broker.

E. 

dealer.

 

50.

Anna is an individual investor. She purchases shares at the _____ price and sells at the _____ price.   

A. 

asked; bid

B. 

average; asked

C. 

bid; asked

D. 

bid; average

E. 

asked; average

 

51.

What is the current structure of the NYSE?   

A. 

general partnership

B. 

limited partnership

C. 

non-profit organization

D. 

publicly traded corporation

E. 

government agency

 

52.

In 2007, NYSE Holdings merged with which one of the following?   

A. 

NASDAQ

B. 

AMEX

C. 

Chicago Stock Exchange

D. 

London Stock Exchange

E. 

Euronext, N.V.

 

53.

In order to currently trade on the floor of the NYSE, members must:   

A. 

be registered as a floor trader

B. 

own a seat

C. 

purchase a trading license

D. 

be a specialist

E. 

be designated as a floor broker

 

54.

Which one of the following has the greatest duty to provide liquidity to the financial market?   

A. 

floor broker

B. 

independent broker

C. 

dealer

D. 

designated market maker

E. 

floor trader

 

55.

The SuperDOT system has lessened the role of which one of the following?   

A. 

personal financial advisers

B. 

floor traders

C. 

specialists

D. 

floor brokers

E. 

underwriters

 

56.

Which one of the following statements related to the NYSE Hybrid market is correct?   

A. 

Floor brokers operate both electronically and in person.

B. 

The Hybrid system replaces the market specialists.

C. 

The automated system works better than the specialist for stocks with minimal liquidity.

D. 

The automated system will only replace the specialist in times of market duress.

E. 

Investors can automatically trade an unlimited number of shares.

 

57.

To be listed on the NYSE, a firm must have at least:   

A. 

2,500 shareholders

B. 

100,000 shares traded on an average day

C. 

1.5 million shares held by the public

D. 

$75 million in market value for an IPO

E. 

pre-tax aggregate earnings of $10 million in the previous 3 years

 

58.

Lucas wants to sell 9,000 shares of stock and places a market order. The floor broker is unable to arrange the sale with another floor broker so the specialist agrees to "stop" the stock. What has the specialist agreed to do?   

A. 

cancel the order

B. 

place the order into the order book to hold until an order to buy 9,000 shares is received

C. 

purchase the shares if no other buyer is readily available

D. 

sell the shares to the next available buyer regardless of the price received

E. 

sell the shares at the end of the trading day at the best price available at that time

 

59.

The duties of a specialist include which of the following? I. maintain an orderly market II. offer a higher bid price than the floor brokers III. provide liquidity to the market IV. purchase all shares offered as limit sells   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

I, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

60.

Faith placed an order to sell 7,500 shares of stock she currently owned. As soon as the order reached the trading floor, the shares were immediately sold. Which type of order did Faith place?   

A. 

limit

B. 

day

C. 

market

D. 

short

E. 

stop

 

61.

Steve placed a limit order to sell 500 shares of stock at $14 a share. Which of the following does Steve know for sure? I. His order will execute but the time of execution is unknown. II. His order may never execute. III. He will receive exactly $7,000 if his order executes. IV. He could receive more, but not less, than $14 a share.   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

II and III only

D. 

II and IV only

E. 

I only

 

62.

Kelly wants to sell 600 shares of DeLux stock at the going market price after the stock reaches $42 a share. Which type of order should she place?   

A. 

stop

B. 

limit

C. 

market

D. 

fixed

E. 

loss

 

63.

After the trigger point is reached, a stop-loss order will be executed at the:   

A. 

trigger price.

B. 

stop price.

C. 

trigger price or better.

D. 

stop price or better.

E. 

market price.

 

64.

Which one of the following orders is frequently used as a means to limit losses resulting from a short sale?   

A. 

limit

B. 

market

C. 

day

D. 

stop-sell

E. 

stop-buy

 

65.

Marcus just placed a stop limit order to sell 100 shares at $21 stop, $18 limit. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning this order if the current market price is $16?   

A. 

As soon as the price rises to $18, the stock will be sold.

B. 

The stock will sell for at least $18 but less than $21.

C. 

The stock will sell for $18 a share as soon as the price hits $21.

D. 

The order will become a limit order to sell at $21 once the market price reaches $18.

E. 

The order will become a limit order to sell at $18 once the market price reaches $21.

 

66.

NASDAQ dealers post which one of the following in addition to their bid and ask prices?   

A. 

commission rates

B. 

front-end load charges

C. 

number of shares they will commit to buy or sell

D. 

total trades for the day

E. 

trading fees

 

67.

NASDAQ has which of the following characteristics? I. trading floor II. computer network III. specialist system IV. multiple market makers   

A. 

I and IV only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

68.

Which one of the following statements concerning NASDAQ is correct?   

A. 

The NASDAQ Capital Market has the most stringent listing requirements of any of the NASDAQ companies.

B. 

NASDAQ is actually comprised of four separate markets.

C. 

Microsoft shares are listed on the NASDAQ Global Market.

D. 

NASDAQ has more total dollar volume of trading than does the NYSE.

E. 

There are more companies listed on NASDAQ than on NYSE.

 

69.

The orders displayed on NASDAQ are placed by:   

A. 

individuals on ECNs only.

B. 

market makers only.

C. 

both market makers and individuals on ECNs.

D. 

brokerage firms.

E. 

floor brokers.

 

70.

Stocks which are listed on the NYSE can:   

A. 

not be listed on any other exchange.

B. 

only be dual listed on a regional exchange.

C. 

only be dual listed on Instinet.

D. 

only be dual listed on the Archipelago Exchange.

E. 

also be listed on NASDAQ.

 

71.

The stocks listed on the Pink Sheets:   

A. 

are those stocks trading on the NASDAQ CAPITAL MARKET.

B. 

do not have to file financial statements with the SEC.

C. 

have all been delisted by the NYSE.

D. 

are the highest priced stocks listed on NASDAQ.

E. 

must file financial statements with the SEC but do not have to meet any listing requirements.

 

72.

Which of the following are common characteristic of the OTCBB market? I. low stock prices II. dual listings with NASDAQ III. high percentage price changes IV. thinly traded securities   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

I, II, and III only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

II, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

73.

The DJIA is an index of the stock prices of _____ firms.   

A. 

25

B. 

30

C. 

50

D. 

100

E. 

500

 

74.

Stock market indexes:   

A. 

are all computed using the same methodology.

B. 

all react the same to a change in the price of a particular stock.

C. 

all cover the same market sectors.

D. 

are all price-weighted.

E. 

vary in the type of stocks included.

 

75.

Which one of the following is the primary flaw of a price-weighted index?   

A. 

Price-weighted indexes ignore stock splits which affect stock prices.

B. 

The effect a company has on the index is dependent solely on the price per share.

C. 

Only a small number of stocks can be included in a price-weighted index.

D. 

If the number of shares outstanding of an index stock changes, the index divisor must be recomputed.

E. 

The index can only be computed once the trading day is over.

 

76.

Which one of the following statements related to stock indexes is correct?   

A. 

The index divisor increases in value whenever a stock in the index undergoes a stock split.

B. 

A value-weighted index includes both dividends and capital gains.

C. 

The S&P 500 index is value-weighted.

D. 

The DJIA is value-weighted.

E. 

Index staleness is more apt to be a problem for the DJIA than for the Wilshire 5000.

 

77.

Alco Metals just sold 2.5 million shares through an IPO offering. The shares were offered at $25.50 a share and all shares were sold. The firm received a total of $67,250,000 for this issue. What was the spread?   

A. 

5.49 percent

B. 

6.25 percent

C. 

6.40 percent

D. 

7.00 percent

E. 

7.20 percent

 

78.

Reliant Underwriters has agreed to a firm commitment underwriting in which they will pay $36.75 million in exchange for 3 million shares of stock for an IPO offering. The offering price is expected to be $13.50 a share. How much will the underwriters earn if all of the shares can be sold?   

A. 

$1.25 million

B. 

$2.75 million

C. 

$3.75 million

D. 

$4.25 million

E. 

$4.50 million

 

79.

In a recent IPO, the Sausage Co. offered 1.4 million shares of stock at an offer price of $16 a share. The underwriting was conducted on a best efforts basis with a spread of 7.0 percent. The Sausage Co. received a total of $20,079,868.00 in sale proceeds. How many shares were sold?   

A. 

1,349,453 shares

B. 

1,486,500 shares

C. 

1,498,200 shares

D. 

1,505,700 shares

E. 

1,508,400 shares

 

80.

A best efforts IPO underwriting consisted of 2.2 million shares at an offer price of $17 a share. The underwriter's fee was set at 6.65 percent. How many shares were sold if the issuer received $31,926,260.10?   

A. 

2,011,800 shares

B. 

1,878,015 shares

C. 

1,760,915 shares

D. 

2,346,300 shares

E. 

2,053,700 shares

 

81.

ML Underwriters paid an issuer $37,694,528 as IPO proceeds. The IPO offered 1.86 million shares of which 1.835 million were sold at an offer price of $21.85 a share. The underwriting spread was 7.25 percent. What type of underwriting was this?   

A. 

best efforts

B. 

variable

C. 

firm commitment

D. 

plain vanilla

E. 

stand-by

 

82.

DT Metals is offering 700 shares in a Dutch auction IPO. The following bids have been received:    What will the gross proceeds be for this offering?   

A. 

$12,000

B. 

$12,600

C. 

$13,200

D. 

$13,300

E. 

$14,700

 

83.

Cee The Moon is offering 700 shares in a Dutch auction IPO. The following bids have been received:    How much will Cee The Moon receive from this offering if the underwriter's fee is 5.5 percent?   

A. 

$9,905.75

B. 

$9,440.60

C. 

$10,184.25

D. 

$11,245.50

E. 

$12,095.30

 

84.

Mason Materials is offering 800 shares in a Dutch auction IPO. The following bids have been received:    How many shares will be allocated to Bidder A?   

A. 

0

B. 

80

C. 

125

D. 

145

E. 

200

 

85.

Juno Markets is offering 900 shares in a Dutch auction IPO. The following bids have been received:    How much will Bidder B have to spend to purchase all of the shares that have been allocated to him?   

A. 

$4,050.00

B. 

$4,212.00

C. 

$4,800.00

D. 

$5,200.00

E. 

$5,700.00

 

86.

An index consists of the following securities and has an index divisor of 3.0. What is the price-weighted index return?      

A. 

9.43 percent

B. 

9.67 percent

C. 

10.53 percent

D. 

10.91 percent

E. 

11.03 percent

 

87.

An index consists of the following securities and has an index divisor of 3.0. What is the price-weighted index return?      

A. 

9.33 percent

B. 

10.35 percent

C. 

11.54 percent

D. 

12.33 percent

E. 

13.00 percent

 

88.

An index consists of the following securities and has an index divisor of 3.0. What is the price-weighted index return?      

A. 

-4.76 percent

B. 

-2.05 percent

C. 

3.09 percent

D. 

5.17 percent

E. 

7.48 percent

 

89.

An index consists of the following securities and has an index divisor of 2.0. What is the price-weighted index return?      

A. 

-0.69 percent

B. 

-0.18 percent

C. 

0.00 percent

D. 

0.22 percent

E. 

0.31 percent

 

90.

A price-weighted index consists of stocks A, B, and C which are priced at $38, $21, and $26 a share, respectively. The current index divisor is 2.7. What will the new index divisor be if stock B undergoes a 3-for-1 stock split?   

A. 

2.1684

B. 

2.2553

C. 

2.5890

D. 

2.7000

E. 

3.1447

 

91.

A price-weighted index consists of stocks A, B, and C which are priced at $50, $35, and $15 a share, respectively. The current index divisor is 2.75. What will the new index advisor be if stock A undergoes a 5-for-1 stock split?   

A. 

0.40

B. 

0.65

C. 

1.00

D. 

1.65

E. 

1.85

 

92.

A price-weighted index consists of stocks A, B, and C which are priced at $27, $11, and $18 a share, respectively. The current index divisor is 2.24. If stock B undergoes a 1-for-3 reverse stock split, the new index divisor will be:   

A. 

1.9467.

B. 

2.1806.

C. 

2.2000.

D. 

3.0842.

E. 

3.1200.

 

93.

An index consists of the following securities. What is the value-weighted index return?      

A. 

12.75 percent

B. 

15.00 percent

C. 

16.50 percent

D. 

18.75 percent

E. 

25.00 percent

 

94.

An index consists of the following securities. What is the value-weighted index return?      

A. 

-0.43 percent

B. 

-1.46 percent

C. 

4.43 percent

D. 

4.51 percent

E. 

4.62 percent

 

95.

An index consists of the following securities. What is the value-weighted index return?      

A. 

3.72 percent

B. 

5.09 percent

C. 

6.61 percent

D. 

8.75 percent

E. 

10.07 percent

 

96.

You have the following information:    You want the beginning price-weighted index of these two stocks to be 100. Given this, what is the ending index value?   

A. 

93.44

B. 

98.10

C. 

107.02

D. 

108.36

E. 

110.40

 

97.

You have the following information:    You want the beginning price-weighted index of these two stocks to be 500. Given this, what is the ending index value?   

A. 

408.33

B. 

487.08

C. 

511.19

D. 

576.09

E. 

612.24

 

98.

An index has a market value of $689,400 at the beginning of the period and $722,009 at the end of the period. If you want the beginning index value to be 100, what is the ending index value?   

A. 

104.73

B. 

105.42

C. 

105.67

D. 

105.89

E. 

106.13

 

99.

Assume the DJIA closed at 15,150 last night. The divisor is 0.123017848. Assume that 29 of the stocks in the index were unchanged today. One stock increased in value from $44.80 a share yesterday to $47.90 a share today. What is the DJIA index value at the close of trading today?   

A. 

15,175.20

B. 

15,208.30

C. 

15,365.60

D. 

15,412.20

E. 

15,524.10

 

100.

Yesterday, the DJIA closed at 12,309.16. The divisor is 0.123017848. Today, every one of the stocks in the index increased in value by $0.40 a share. What is the value of today's closing DJIA?   

A. 

12,367

B. 

12,407

C. 

12,442

D. 

12,564

E. 

12,571

 

101.

An order book displays the following information:    You place a market order to buy 100 shares. At what price will your order be executed?   

A. 

$18.13

B. 

$18.14

C. 

$18.16

D. 

$18.17

E. 

$18.18

 

102.

An order book displays the following information:    You place an order to sell 100 shares. At what price will your order be executed?   

A. 

$18.05

B. 

$18.06

C. 

$18.07

D. 

$18.11

E. 

$18.12

 

 

Essay Questions  

103.

Describe some of the recent changes in the structure and operations of the NYSE.   

 

 

 

 

104.

Describe the primary advantage and disadvantage of a limit sell order.   

 

 

 

 

Chapter 05 The Stock Market Answer Key  

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

High Color Detergent is issuing new shares of stock which will trade on NASDAQ. If Sue purchases 300 of these shares, the trade will occur in which one of the following markets?   

A.  

primary

B. 

secondary

C. 

third

D. 

fourth

E. 

over-the-counter

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Primary Market  

2.

Wilson just placed an order with his broker to purchase 500 of the outstanding shares of GE. This purchase will occur in which one of the following markets?   

A. 

primary

B.  

secondary

C. 

third

D. 

fourth

E. 

fifth

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Secondary Market  

3.

Hi-Tek Shoes is a private firm that has decided to issue shares of stock to the general public. This stock issue will be referred to as a(n):   

A. 

open-end sale

B. 

break-out issue

C. 

public service offering

D.  

initial public offering

E. 

initial trial issue

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Initial Public Offering  

4.

A firm that specializes in arranging financing for companies is called a(n):   

A. 

floor broker

B.  

investment banking firm

C. 

investment dealer

D. 

private broker

E. 

marketing firm

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Investment Banking Firm  

5.

The process of purchasing newly issued shares from the issuer and reselling those shares to the general public is called:   

A.  

underwriting

B. 

capitalizing

C. 

securing

D. 

brokering

E. 

deploying

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Underwriting  

6.

The financing provided for new ventures that are frequently high-risk investments is referred to as "venture _______".   

A.  

capital

B. 

leverage

C. 

risk funds

D. 

funding

E. 

investing

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Venture Capital  

7.

Marco Painting Supplies is a publicly-traded firm with 250,000 shares of stock outstanding. If the firm issues an additional 10,000 shares, those shares will be referred to as a(n):   

A. 

supplemental offering.

B.  

seasoned equity offering.

C. 

initial public offer.

D. 

market expansion offer.

E. 

after-market underwriting.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Seasoned Equity Offering  

8.

Under the provisions of a general cash offer, shares of stock are offered to:   

A. 

underwriters on a guaranteed sale basis only.

B. 

current shareholders prior to being offered to the general public.

C. 

institutional investors only.

D. 

the issuer's employees on a cash purchase basis only.

E.  

the general public on a "first-come" basis.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: General Cash Offer  

9.

A public offering of securities which are offered first to current shareholders is called a(n):   

A. 

existing shareholder offer.

B. 

limited offer.

C.  

rights offer.

D. 

venture offer.

E. 

preference offer.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Rights Offer  

10.

The difference between the price an underwriter pays an issuer and the underwriter's offering price is called the:   

A.  

spread.

B. 

margin.

C. 

offer differential.

D. 

firm commitment.

E. 

underwriting capital.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Spread  

11.

When a group of underwriters jointly work together to sell a new issue of securities, the underwriters form a(n):   

A. 

underwriting cartel.

B. 

market union.

C. 

venture capital association.

D. 

Dutch market.

E.  

syndicate.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Syndicate  

12.

When an underwriting syndicate purchases an entire issue of new securities and accepts the risk of unsold shares, the underwriting is known as a _____ underwriting.   

A. 

Dutch auction

B. 

full-fledge

C.  

firm commitment

D. 

best efforts

E. 

guaranteed sale

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Firm Commitment Underwriting  

13.

When the issuer assumes the risk for any shares the underwriters cannot sell, the underwriting is known as a _____ underwriting.   

A. 

Dutch auction

B. 

partial

C. 

firm commitment

D.  

best efforts

E. 

pro-rata

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Best Efforts Underwriting  

14.

When the price of newly issued shares is determined by competitive bidding the underwriting is known as a _____ underwriting.   

A.  

Dutch auction

B. 

market-priced

C. 

seasoned

D. 

best efforts

E. 

rights

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Dutch Auction Underwriting  

15.

Which one of the following is the federal agency which regulates the financial markets in the U.S.?   

A. 

Treasury Department

B. 

National Association of Securities Dealers

C. 

Over the Counter Commission

D. 

Federal Reserve

E.  

Securities and Exchange Commission

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Securities and Exchange Commission (Sec)  

16.

The document that must be prepared in order to receive approval for a stock offering is called a:   

A. 

tombstone.

B.  

prospectus.

C. 

offering agreement.

D. 

regulatory report.

E. 

offering paper.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Prospectus  

17.

A preliminary document provided to investors who are interested in a stock offering is called a(n):   

A. 

prospectus.

B. 

inquiry form.

C. 

draft offer.

D. 

green shoe.

E.  

red herring.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Red Herring  

18.

A securities dealer is a(n):   

A. 

intermediary who arranges trades between a buyer and a seller.

B.  

trader who buys and sells from his or her inventory.

C. 

firm which charges a commission for arranging a transaction.

D. 

person who buys securities for his or her own account on an exchange floor.

E. 

trader who transacts business on behalf of a securities issuer.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Dealer  

19.

Which one of the following best describes a broker?   

A.  

intermediary who arranges trades between a buyer and a seller

B. 

trader who buys and sells from his or her inventory

C. 

firm which charges a commission for arranging a transaction

D. 

person who buys securities for his or her own account on an exchange floor

E. 

trader who transacts business on behalf of a securities issuer

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Broker  

20.

Which one of the following prices will an individual investor receive if he or she sells shares of Microsoft?   

A.  

bid

B. 

ask

C. 

issue

D. 

offer

E. 

Dutch

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Bid Price  

21.

Which one of the following prices will an investor pay to purchase shares of stock that are currently outstanding?   

A. 

issue

B. 

option

C. 

bid

D.  

ask

E. 

primary

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Ask Price  

22.

The profit a dealer makes on a purchase and resale of shares of stock is called the:   

A. 

margin.

B. 

bid.

C. 

float.

D. 

offer.

E.  

spread.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Spread  

23.

A private equity fund: I. is set up as a limited partnership II. usually use a 2/20 fee structure III. place no constraints on manager compensation IV. typically have a stated life of 7 to 10 years   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and III only

C. 

I, II and III only

D.  

I, II and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Private Equity Fund  

24.

Which of the following is correct regarding the compensation paid to private equity fund managers?   

A. 

Managers typically receive 20% of fund profits but no separate management fee.

B. 

Managers typically receive a high percentage management fee but no portion of fund profits.

C.  

Management compensation is usually subject to a "clawback" provision to limit the performance fees.

D. 

"Carried interest" refers to the interest fund managers earn on performance fees.

E. 

Fees paid to fund managers do not reduce the net return of the fund.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Private Equity Fund  

25.

An owner of a trading license on the NYSE is called a:   

A. 

broker.

B. 

shareholder.

C.  

member.

D. 

trader.

E. 

dealer.

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Nyse Member  

26.

An NYSE Supplemental Liquidity Provider: I. can trade the same stocks as designated market makers II. can trade only from offices outside the exchange III. must quote bid or ask quotes a certain % of the day IV. are paid 30 cents per 100 shares traded   

A. 

I and II only

B.  

I, II and III only

C. 

I and III only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III and IV

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Supplemental Liquidity Provider  

27.

The party who serves as a dealer for a few securities on an exchange floor and is obligated to maintain an orderly market for those securities is called a:   

A. 

floor trader.

B.  

designated market maker.

C. 

floor broker.

D. 

member.

E. 

house broker.

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Specialist  

28.

A trading floor broker:   

A. 

is a NYSE member who trades on the floor for his or her personal account.

B.  

executes orders on behalf of commission brokers in exchange for a fee.

C. 

executes customers' orders in exchange for a commission.

D. 

trades a limited number of securities and is obligated to maintain an orderly market for those securities.

E. 

is any party who owns a NYSE trading license.

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Floor Broker  

29.

The NYSE's Super Display Book is an electronic system which:   

A. 

maintains the historical records of each customer's trading activity.

B. 

transmits the latest market information to the news media.

C. 

allows floor traders to execute trades via cell phones.

D. 

tracks the activity on an exchange floor to ensure regulatory compliance.

E.  

is based on NYSE's ARCA electronic trading engine.

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Sdbk  

30.

A NYSE member who trades only for his or her own account is called a(n):   

A.  

floor trader.

B. 

specialist.

C. 

individual broker.

D. 

floor broker.

E. 

house broker.

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Floor Trader  

31.

The location on an exchange floor where a particular security trades is called a(n):   

A.  

specialist's post.

B. 

broker's terminal.

C. 

floor spot.

D. 

exchange spot.

E. 

market pit.

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Specialist's Post  

32.

You want to sell shares of stock at the current price. Which type of order should you place?   

A. 

limit

B. 

post

C.  

market

D. 

short

E. 

stop

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Market Order  

33.

An order to buy shares of stock at a stated price or less is called a _____ order.   

A.  

limit

B. 

stop

C. 

market

D. 

short

E. 

bid

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Limit Order  

34.

An order to sell that involves a preset trigger point is called a _____ order.   

A. 

limit

B. 

day

C.  

stop

D. 

short

E. 

market

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Stop Order  

35.

A market centered on dealers buying and selling for their own inventories is called a(n):   

A. 

exchange floor.

B. 

SuperDot.

C.  

OTC market.

D. 

subscriber market.

E. 

Big Board.

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Otc Market  

36.

Which one of the following describes an ECN?   

A.  

Web site used by investors to trade directly with other investors

B. 

Web site limited to use by professional brokers and dealers

C. 

computerized trading floor

D. 

communications network used by specialists

E. 

cellular trading network

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Ecn  

37.

Inside quotes are the:   

A. 

highest asked and lowest bid quotes offered by securities dealers.

B.  

highest bid and lowest asked quotes offered by securities dealers.

C. 

latest prices at which corporate insiders have purchased or sold securities.

D. 

bid and asked prices which are offered only to institutional traders or large private investors.

E. 

latest price at which a security traded.

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Inside Quotes  

38.

The off-exchange market in which exchange-listed securities trade is referred to as the _____ market.   

A. 

independent

B. 

secondary

C. 

fourth

D.  

third

E. 

primary

See Section 5.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.5 Topic: Third Market  

39.

The market where individual investors directly trade exchange-listed securities with other individual investors is referred to as the _____ market.   

A. 

home

B. 

independent

C. 

third

D.  

fourth

E. 

SuperDot

See Section 5.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.5 Topic: Fourth Market  

40.

Which of the following types of indexes is a stock market index in which stocks are held in proportion to their share price?   

A. 

balanced

B. 

market-weighted

C. 

dollar-weighted

D.  

price-weighted

E. 

value-weighted

See Section 5.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Index  

41.

When stocks are held in an index in proportion to their total company market value, the index is:   

A. 

dollar-weighted.

B. 

front-weighted.

C. 

back-weighted.

D. 

price-weighted.

E.  

value-weighted.

See Section 5.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.6 Topic: Value-Weighted Index  

42.

An index is valued on a daily basis. However, some stocks in this particular index have not traded recently. As a result, this index suffers from index:   

A. 

fatigue.

B. 

devaluation.

C. 

flatness.

D.  

staleness.

E. 

weighting.

See Section 5.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.6 Topic: Index Staleness  

43.

Which one of the following statements concerning the NYSE is correct?   

A. 

The NYSE was created based on the Walnut Tree Agreement.

B. 

The average daily trading volume on the NYSE in 2007 was approximately one billion shares.

C. 

The NYSE and NASDAQ merged in 2007.

D.  

The NYSE is part of a firm that also operates a stock exchange in Amsterdam.

E. 

The NYSE merged with NASDAQ in 2007.

See Section Introduction

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: introduction Topic: Nyse Euronext  

44.

Which of the following are common sources of venture capital? I. private individuals II. NASDAQ III. university endowment funds IV. insurance companies   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

III and IV only

C.  

I, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Venture Capital  

45.

Which one of the following statements concerning venture capital is correct?   

A.  

Venture capital is frequently provided in stages with each stage financed by a different venture capitalist.

B. 

Most venture capitalists are passive investors.

C. 

The founders of a firm generally realize substantial payoffs as soon as the firm receives venture financing.

D. 

Venture capitalists generally compete with banks to find projects to finance.

E. 

Well established firms tend to absorb most of the available venture capital.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.1 Topic: Venture Capital  

46.

How long is the "lock-up" period that is commonly found in an IPO underwriting contract?   

A. 

one month

B. 

three months

C.  

six months

D. 

one year

E. 

eighteen months

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Lock-Up Period  

47.

Which one of the following can be assumed when the SEC approves an IPO registration?   

A. 

The securities offering will provide value to the shareholders.

B. 

The issuer is financially sound.

C. 

The issuer will remain solvent.

D.  

All rules have been followed to allow for full disclosure of information.

E. 

The stock price is set at a level which will allow shareholders to earn a positive rate of return.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Sec Registration  

48.

Which one of the following transactions occurs in the primary market?   

A. 

sale of stock by Shareholder A to Shareholder B

B. 

gift of shares from a grandmother to her granddaughter

C.  

sale of newly issued shares by the issuer to a shareholder

D. 

sale of shares in the third market

E. 

purchase of shares by a dealer from a shareholder

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Primary Market  

49.

Trevor currently owns 545,000 shares of ABC stock. He will sell those shares for $17.10 a share. He is also willing to purchase additional shares for $17.07 a share. Trevor is a securities:   

A. 

broker.

B. 

representative.

C. 

underwriter.

D. 

floor broker.

E.  

dealer.

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Dealer  

50.

Anna is an individual investor. She purchases shares at the _____ price and sells at the _____ price.   

A.  

asked; bid

B. 

average; asked

C. 

bid; asked

D. 

bid; average

E. 

asked; average

See Section 5.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Ask Price  

51.

What is the current structure of the NYSE?   

A. 

general partnership

B. 

limited partnership

C. 

non-profit organization

D.  

publicly traded corporation

E. 

government agency

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Nyse  

52.

In 2007, NYSE Holdings merged with which one of the following?   

A. 

NASDAQ

B. 

AMEX

C. 

Chicago Stock Exchange

D. 

London Stock Exchange

E.  

Euronext, N.V.

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Nyse  

53.

In order to currently trade on the floor of the NYSE, members must:   

A. 

be registered as a floor trader

B. 

own a seat

C.  

purchase a trading license

D. 

be a specialist

E. 

be designated as a floor broker

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Nyse  

54.

Which one of the following has the greatest duty to provide liquidity to the financial market?   

A. 

floor broker

B. 

independent broker

C. 

dealer

D.  

designated market maker

E. 

floor trader

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Specialist  

55.

The SuperDOT system has lessened the role of which one of the following?   

A. 

personal financial advisers

B. 

floor traders

C. 

specialists

D.  

floor brokers

E. 

underwriters

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Superdot  

56.

Which one of the following statements related to the NYSE Hybrid market is correct?   

A.  

Floor brokers operate both electronically and in person.

B. 

The Hybrid system replaces the market specialists.

C. 

The automated system works better than the specialist for stocks with minimal liquidity.

D. 

The automated system will only replace the specialist in times of market duress.

E. 

Investors can automatically trade an unlimited number of shares.

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.2 Topic: Nyse Hybrid  

57.

To be listed on the NYSE, a firm must have at least:   

A. 

2,500 shareholders

B. 

100,000 shares traded on an average day

C. 

1.5 million shares held by the public

D. 

$75 million in market value for an IPO

E.  

pre-tax aggregate earnings of $10 million in the previous 3 years

See Section 5.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.2 Topic: Nyse Listing  

58.

Lucas wants to sell 9,000 shares of stock and places a market order. The floor broker is unable to arrange the sale with another floor broker so the specialist agrees to "stop" the stock. What has the specialist agreed to do?   

A. 

cancel the order

B. 

place the order into the order book to hold until an order to buy 9,000 shares is received

C.  

purchase the shares if no other buyer is readily available

D. 

sell the shares to the next available buyer regardless of the price received

E. 

sell the shares at the end of the trading day at the best price available at that time

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Specialist "Stop"  

59.

The duties of a specialist include which of the following? I. maintain an orderly market II. offer a higher bid price than the floor brokers III. provide liquidity to the market IV. purchase all shares offered as limit sells   

A.  

I and III only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

I, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Specialist  

60.

Faith placed an order to sell 7,500 shares of stock she currently owned. As soon as the order reached the trading floor, the shares were immediately sold. Which type of order did Faith place?   

A. 

limit

B. 

day

C.  

market

D. 

short

E. 

stop

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Market Order  

61.

Steve placed a limit order to sell 500 shares of stock at $14 a share. Which of the following does Steve know for sure? I. His order will execute but the time of execution is unknown. II. His order may never execute. III. He will receive exactly $7,000 if his order executes. IV. He could receive more, but not less, than $14 a share.   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

II and III only

D.  

II and IV only

E. 

I only

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Limit Order  

62.

Kelly wants to sell 600 shares of DeLux stock at the going market price after the stock reaches $42 a share. Which type of order should she place?   

A.  

stop

B. 

limit

C. 

market

D. 

fixed

E. 

loss

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Stop Order  

63.

After the trigger point is reached, a stop-loss order will be executed at the:   

A. 

trigger price.

B. 

stop price.

C. 

trigger price or better.

D. 

stop price or better.

E.  

market price.

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Stop Order  

64.

Which one of the following orders is frequently used as a means to limit losses resulting from a short sale?   

A. 

limit

B. 

market

C. 

day

D. 

stop-sell

E.  

stop-buy

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Stop-Buy Order  

65.

Marcus just placed a stop limit order to sell 100 shares at $21 stop, $18 limit. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning this order if the current market price is $16?   

A. 

As soon as the price rises to $18, the stock will be sold.

B. 

The stock will sell for at least $18 but less than $21.

C. 

The stock will sell for $18 a share as soon as the price hits $21.

D. 

The order will become a limit order to sell at $21 once the market price reaches $18.

E.  

The order will become a limit order to sell at $18 once the market price reaches $21.

See Section 5.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Stop-Limit Order  

66.

NASDAQ dealers post which one of the following in addition to their bid and ask prices?   

A. 

commission rates

B. 

front-end load charges

C.  

number of shares they will commit to buy or sell

D. 

total trades for the day

E. 

trading fees

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Nasdaq  

67.

NASDAQ has which of the following characteristics? I. trading floor II. computer network III. specialist system IV. multiple market makers   

A. 

I and IV only

B.  

II and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Nasdaq  

68.

Which one of the following statements concerning NASDAQ is correct?   

A. 

The NASDAQ Capital Market has the most stringent listing requirements of any of the NASDAQ companies.

B. 

NASDAQ is actually comprised of four separate markets.

C. 

Microsoft shares are listed on the NASDAQ Global Market.

D. 

NASDAQ has more total dollar volume of trading than does the NYSE.

E.  

There are more companies listed on NASDAQ than on NYSE.

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Nasdaq  

69.

The orders displayed on NASDAQ are placed by:   

A. 

individuals on ECNs only.

B. 

market makers only.

C.  

both market makers and individuals on ECNs.

D. 

brokerage firms.

E. 

floor brokers.

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Nasdaq  

70.

Stocks which are listed on the NYSE can:   

A. 

not be listed on any other exchange.

B. 

only be dual listed on a regional exchange.

C. 

only be dual listed on Instinet.

D. 

only be dual listed on the Archipelago Exchange.

E.  

also be listed on NASDAQ.

See Section 5.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.5 Topic: Dual Listings  

71.

The stocks listed on the Pink Sheets:   

A. 

are those stocks trading on the NASDAQ CAPITAL MARKET.

B.  

do not have to file financial statements with the SEC.

C. 

have all been delisted by the NYSE.

D. 

are the highest priced stocks listed on NASDAQ.

E. 

must file financial statements with the SEC but do not have to meet any listing requirements.

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Pink Sheets  

72.

Which of the following are common characteristic of the OTCBB market? I. low stock prices II. dual listings with NASDAQ III. high percentage price changes IV. thinly traded securities   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

I, II, and III only

C.  

I, III, and IV only

D. 

II, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 5.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: OTCBB  

73.

The DJIA is an index of the stock prices of _____ firms.   

A. 

25

B.  

30

C. 

50

D. 

100

E. 

500

See Section 5.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.6 Topic: Djia  

74.

Stock market indexes:   

A. 

are all computed using the same methodology.

B. 

all react the same to a change in the price of a particular stock.

C. 

all cover the same market sectors.

D. 

are all price-weighted.

E.  

vary in the type of stocks included.

See Section 5.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.6 Topic: Market Indexes  

75.

Which one of the following is the primary flaw of a price-weighted index?   

A. 

Price-weighted indexes ignore stock splits which affect stock prices.

B.  

The effect a company has on the index is dependent solely on the price per share.

C. 

Only a small number of stocks can be included in a price-weighted index.

D. 

If the number of shares outstanding of an index stock changes, the index divisor must be recomputed.

E. 

The index can only be computed once the trading day is over.

See Section 5.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Index  

76.

Which one of the following statements related to stock indexes is correct?   

A. 

The index divisor increases in value whenever a stock in the index undergoes a stock split.

B. 

A value-weighted index includes both dividends and capital gains.

C.  

The S&P 500 index is value-weighted.

D. 

The DJIA is value-weighted.

E. 

Index staleness is more apt to be a problem for the DJIA than for the Wilshire 5000.

See Section 5.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.6 Topic: Stock Indexes  

77.

Alco Metals just sold 2.5 million shares through an IPO offering. The shares were offered at $25.50 a share and all shares were sold. The firm received a total of $67,250,000 for this issue. What was the spread?   

A.  

5.49 percent

B. 

6.25 percent

C. 

6.40 percent

D. 

7.00 percent

E. 

7.20 percent

Spread = [$67,250,000/($25.50 × 2,500,000)] - 1 = 5.49 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Spread  

78.

Reliant Underwriters has agreed to a firm commitment underwriting in which they will pay $36.75 million in exchange for 3 million shares of stock for an IPO offering. The offering price is expected to be $13.50 a share. How much will the underwriters earn if all of the shares can be sold?   

A. 

$1.25 million

B. 

$2.75 million

C.  

$3.75 million

D. 

$4.25 million

E. 

$4.50 million

Underwriting fees = ($13.50 × 3,000,000) - $36,750,000 = $3.75 million

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Spread  

79.

In a recent IPO, the Sausage Co. offered 1.4 million shares of stock at an offer price of $16 a share. The underwriting was conducted on a best efforts basis with a spread of 7.0 percent. The Sausage Co. received a total of $20,079,868.00 in sale proceeds. How many shares were sold?   

A.  

1,349,453 shares

B. 

1,486,500 shares

C. 

1,498,200 shares

D. 

1,505,700 shares

E. 

1,508,400 shares

Number of shares = [$20,079,868/(1 - .07)]/$16 = 1,349,453 shares

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Best Efforts  

80.

A best efforts IPO underwriting consisted of 2.2 million shares at an offer price of $17 a share. The underwriter's fee was set at 6.65 percent. How many shares were sold if the issuer received $31,926,260.10?   

A.  

2,011,800 shares

B. 

1,878,015 shares

C. 

1,760,915 shares

D. 

2,346,300 shares

E. 

2,053,700 shares

Number of shares = [$31,926,260.10/(1 - .0665)]/$17 = 2,011,800 shares

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Best Efforts  

81.

ML Underwriters paid an issuer $37,694,528 as IPO proceeds. The IPO offered 1.86 million shares of which 1.835 million were sold at an offer price of $21.85 a share. The underwriting spread was 7.25 percent. What type of underwriting was this?   

A. 

best efforts

B. 

variable

C.  

firm commitment

D. 

plain vanilla

E. 

stand-by

Number of shares = [$37,694,528/(1 - .0725)]/$21.85 = 1,860,000 shares. This was a firm commitment underwriting since the issuer was paid for all of the shares, even though the underwriter did not sell the entire issue.

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Firm Commitment  

82.

DT Metals is offering 700 shares in a Dutch auction IPO. The following bids have been received:    What will the gross proceeds be for this offering?   

A. 

$12,000

B. 

$12,600

C. 

$13,200

D. 

$13,300

E.  

$14,700

Proceeds = 700 × $21 = $14,700

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Dutch auction  

83.

Cee The Moon is offering 700 shares in a Dutch auction IPO. The following bids have been received:    How much will Cee The Moon receive from this offering if the underwriter's fee is 5.5 percent?   

A. 

$9,905.75

B. 

$9,440.60

C. 

$10,184.25

D.  

$11,245.50

E. 

$12,095.30

(700 × $17) × (1 - .055) = $11,245.50

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Dutch auction  

84.

Mason Materials is offering 800 shares in a Dutch auction IPO. The following bids have been received:    How many shares will be allocated to Bidder A?   

A. 

0

B. 

80

C. 

125

D.  

145

E. 

200

Allocation = 200 × [800/(200 + 300 + 100 + 500)] = 145 shares

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Dutch auction  

85.

Juno Markets is offering 900 shares in a Dutch auction IPO. The following bids have been received:    How much will Bidder B have to spend to purchase all of the shares that have been allocated to him?   

A.  

$4,050.00

B. 

$4,212.00

C. 

$4,800.00

D. 

$5,200.00

E. 

$5,700.00

Cost = 300 × [900/(100 + 300 + 400 + 200)] × $15 = $4,050

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-01 The differences between private and public equity; and primary and secondary stock markets. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.1 Topic: Dutch auction  

86.

An index consists of the following securities and has an index divisor of 3.0. What is the price-weighted index return?      

A. 

9.43 percent

B. 

9.67 percent

C.  

10.53 percent

D. 

10.91 percent

E. 

11.03 percent

Price-weighted index = {[($19 + $11 + $33)/3] - [($17 + $14 + $26)/3]}/[($17 + $14 + $26)/3] = 10.53 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Index  

87.

An index consists of the following securities and has an index divisor of 3.0. What is the price-weighted index return?      

A.  

9.33 percent

B. 

10.35 percent

C. 

11.54 percent

D. 

12.33 percent

E. 

13.00 percent

Price-weighted index = {[($32 + $28 + $22)/3] - [($26 + $30 + $19)/3]}/[($26 + $30 + $19)/3] = 9.33 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Index  

88.

An index consists of the following securities and has an index divisor of 3.0. What is the price-weighted index return?      

A. 

-4.76 percent

B. 

-2.05 percent

C. 

3.09 percent

D. 

5.17 percent

E.  

7.48 percent

Price-weighted index = {[($16 + $61 + $38)/3] - [($21 + $49 + $37)/3]}/[($21 + $49 + $37)/3] = 7.48 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Index  

89.

An index consists of the following securities and has an index divisor of 2.0. What is the price-weighted index return?      

A. 

-0.69 percent

B. 

-0.18 percent

C.  

0.00 percent

D. 

0.22 percent

E. 

0.31 percent

Price-weighted index = {[($51 + $36)/2] - [($55 + $32)/2]}/[($55 + $32)/2] = 0 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Index  

90.

A price-weighted index consists of stocks A, B, and C which are priced at $38, $21, and $26 a share, respectively. The current index divisor is 2.7. What will the new index divisor be if stock B undergoes a 3-for-1 stock split?   

A. 

2.1684

B.  

2.2553

C. 

2.5890

D. 

2.7000

E. 

3.1447

[38 + (21/3) + 26]/x = (38 + 21 + 26)/2.7; x = 2.2553

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Divisor  

91.

A price-weighted index consists of stocks A, B, and C which are priced at $50, $35, and $15 a share, respectively. The current index divisor is 2.75. What will the new index advisor be if stock A undergoes a 5-for-1 stock split?   

A. 

0.40

B. 

0.65

C. 

1.00

D.  

1.65

E. 

1.85

[(50/5) + 35 + 15]/x = (50 + 35 + 15)/2.75; x = 1.65

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Divisor  

92.

A price-weighted index consists of stocks A, B, and C which are priced at $27, $11, and $18 a share, respectively. The current index divisor is 2.24. If stock B undergoes a 1-for-3 reverse stock split, the new index divisor will be:   

A. 

1.9467.

B. 

2.1806.

C. 

2.2000.

D. 

3.0842.

E.  

3.1200.

[27 + (11 × 3) + 18]/x = [(27 + 11 + 18)/2.24]; x = 3.12

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Price-Weighted Divisor  

93.

An index consists of the following securities. What is the value-weighted index return?      

A. 

12.75 percent

B. 

15.00 percent

C. 

16.50 percent

D. 

18.75 percent

E.  

25.00 percent

Beginning value = (5,000 × 20) + (2,000 × 38) = 176,000 Ending value = (5,000 × 28) + (2,000 × 40) = 220,000 Return = (220,000 - 176,000)/176,000 = 25.00 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Value-Weighted Index  

94.

An index consists of the following securities. What is the value-weighted index return?      

A.  

-0.43 percent

B. 

-1.46 percent

C. 

4.43 percent

D. 

4.51 percent

E. 

4.62 percent

Beginning value = (1,000 × 32) + (4,000 × 22) + (6,000 × 57) = 462,000 Ending value = (1,000 × 38) + (4,000 × 23) + (6,000 × 55) = 460,000 Return = (460,000 - 462,000)/462,000 = -0.43 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Value-Weighted Index  

95.

An index consists of the following securities. What is the value-weighted index return?      

A. 

3.72 percent

B. 

5.09 percent

C. 

6.61 percent

D. 

8.75 percent

E.  

10.07 percent

Beginning value = (3,000 × 18) + (8,000 × 12) + (4,000 × 32) = 278,000 Ending value = (3,000 × 26) + (8,000 × 10) + (4,000 × 37) = 306,000 Return = (306,000 - 278,000)/278,000 = 10.07 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Value-Weighted Index  

96.

You have the following information:    You want the beginning price-weighted index of these two stocks to be 100. Given this, what is the ending index value?   

A. 

93.44

B. 

98.10

C.  

107.02

D. 

108.36

E. 

110.40

Beginning price-weighted index = [(35 + 22)/(35 + 22)] × 100 = 100 Ending price-weighted index = [(38 + 23)/(35 + 22)] × 100 = 107.02

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Reindexing  

97.

You have the following information:    You want the beginning price-weighted index of these two stocks to be 500. Given this, what is the ending index value?   

A. 

408.33

B. 

487.08

C. 

511.19

D.  

576.09

E. 

612.24

Beginning price-weighted index = [(15 + 31)/(15 + 31)] × 500 = 500 Ending price-weighted index = [(18 + 35)/(15 + 31)] × 500 = 576.09

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Reindexing  

98.

An index has a market value of $689,400 at the beginning of the period and $722,009 at the end of the period. If you want the beginning index value to be 100, what is the ending index value?   

A.  

104.73

B. 

105.42

C. 

105.67

D. 

105.89

E. 

106.13

Beginning value-weighted index = (689,400/689,400) × 100 = 100 Ending value-weighted index = (722,009/689,400) × 100 = 104.73

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Reindexing  

99.

Assume the DJIA closed at 15,150 last night. The divisor is 0.123017848. Assume that 29 of the stocks in the index were unchanged today. One stock increased in value from $44.80 a share yesterday to $47.90 a share today. What is the DJIA index value at the close of trading today?   

A.  

15,175.20

B. 

15,208.30

C. 

15,365.60

D. 

15,412.20

E. 

15,524.10

Old SP = 15,150 × 0.123017848 = 1,863.72 New SP = 1,863.72 + (47.90 - 44.80) = 1,866.82 New DJIA = 1,866.82.22/0.123017848 = 15,175.20

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Djia  

100.

Yesterday, the DJIA closed at 12,309.16. The divisor is 0.123017848. Today, every one of the stocks in the index increased in value by $0.40 a share. What is the value of today's closing DJIA?   

A. 

12,367

B.  

12,407

C. 

12,442

D. 

12,564

E. 

12,571

Old SP = 12,309.16 × 0.123017848 = 1,514.25 New SP = 1,514.25 + (.40 × 30) = 1,526.25 New DJIA = 1,526.25/0.123017848 = 12,407

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-04 How to calculate index returns. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.6 Topic: Djia  

101.

An order book displays the following information:    You place a market order to buy 100 shares. At what price will your order be executed?   

A. 

$18.13

B. 

$18.14

C. 

$18.16

D.  

$18.17

E. 

$18.18

You will pay the lowest selling price, which is $18.17.

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Order Book  

102.

An order book displays the following information:    You place an order to sell 100 shares. At what price will your order be executed?   

A. 

$18.05

B. 

$18.06

C.  

$18.07

D. 

$18.11

E. 

$18.12

You will receive the highest buying price, which is $18.07.

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 05-03 How NASDAQ operates. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.4 Topic: Order Book  

 

Essay Questions  

103.

Describe some of the recent changes in the structure and operations of the NYSE.   

Answer will vary Feedback: The NYSE has gone from a not-for-profit entity to its current for-profit structure as NYSE Euronext. Its operations are changing from a trading floor based specialist system to a hybrid system. The hybrid system is based more on an automated trading platform, allowing the majority of orders to be executed electronically. NYSE's historic specialist system has been replaced by a system based on designated market makers (DMMs). DMMs are still required to maintain a fair and orderly market but they do not face the same restrictions on trading previously imposed on specialists. DMMs can compete against other exchange members for trades but no longer receive advance notice of incoming orders. DMMs are complemented by a newly created class of market maker called a supplemental liquidity provider. (SLP). SLP's are allowed to trade only from outside the exchange and face less stringent quoting requirements than DMMs but receive lower compensation.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 5.2 Topic: Nyse Changes  

104.

Describe the primary advantage and disadvantage of a limit sell order.   

Answer will vary Feedback: A limit sell order guarantees that a security will be sold for no less than the limit price, which is considered an advantage. The disadvantage is that the order may not execute. This is particularly disadvantageous if the stock price is rapidly deteriorating.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 05-02 The workings of the New York Stock Exchange. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 5.3 Topic: Limit Order  

Chapter 06

Common Stock Valuation

 

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following terms is used to identify the evaluation method that determines the value of a stock by reviewing a firm's financial statement in conjunction with other financial and economic information?   

A. 

technical analysis

B. 

conceptual analysis

C. 

prediction valuation

D. 

fundamental analysis

E. 

discounted valuation

 

2.

The method of valuing a stock based on the present value of the future income derived from that stock is called:   

A. 

technical analysis.

B. 

constant valuation.

C. 

the basic stock valuation method.

D. 

compound dividend analysis.

E. 

the dividend discount model.

 

3.

The model used to value a stock that pays a dividend which increases at a constant rate forever is referred to as which one of the following? Assume the growth rate is less than the discount rate.   

A. 

diminishing valuation growth model

B. 

increasing valuation growth model

C. 

constant perpetual growth model

D. 

irregular growth perpetual model

E. 

two-stage growth model

 

4.

How is a sustainable dividend growth rate defined?   

A. 

a constant rate at which dividends increase

B. 

a rate of growth that does not exceed two percent of the annual increase in revenue

C. 

a rate of growth that is set equal to one-half of the average growth rate of a firm's earnings

D. 

a rate that can be supported over time by a company's earnings

E. 

a rate of dividend growth that is equal to the discount rate used to value the firm's stock

 

5.

The portion of net income that is held by a firm, for future growth, comprises which one of the following balance sheet accounts?   

A. 

capital surplus

B. 

common stock

C. 

internal earnings

D. 

retained earnings

E. 

net earnings

 

6.

What is the percentage of a firm's earnings that is distributed to shareholders called?   

A. 

payout ratio

B. 

distribution percentage

C. 

retention ratio

D. 

dividend portion

E. 

outflow ratio

 

7.

What is the percentage of a firm's net income which is reinvested in the firm to support future growth called?   

A. 

payout ratio

B. 

distribution percentage

C. 

retention ratio

D. 

equity ratio

E. 

equity reinvestment

 

8.

The model used to value the stock of a firm which has a short-term growth rate that varies from its long-term growth rate is called the _____ dividend growth model.   

A. 

flexible

B. 

increasing

C. 

two-stage

D. 

stepped up

E. 

geometric

 

9.

What is beta?   

A. 

a rate of return measure

B. 

the return on a stock relative to the overall market

C. 

the rate of dividend growth

D. 

the percentage of net income paid out as a dividend

E. 

measure of a stock's risk relative to the stock market average

 

10.

What is the accounting relationship in which earnings per share minus dividends equal the change in book value per share called?   

A. 

clean surplus relationship

B. 

economic value added relationship

C. 

accounting earnings identity

D. 

payout-retention identity

E. 

dividend valuation equation

 

11.

The Free Cash Flow Model: I. can be used to value a company with negative earnings II. is based on a firm having positive cash flows III. requires that a firm pay a dividend IV. directly estimates a value for a firm's equity   

A. 

I only

B. 

I and II only

C. 

I and III only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

12.

What is the market value of a share of stock divided by the net income per share called?   

A. 

earnings per share

B. 

price-earnings ratio

C. 

value-earnings ratio

D. 

earnings yield

E. 

market multiple

 

13.

The net income per share divided by the market price per share is called the:   

A. 

profit margin.

B. 

profit yield.

C. 

market yield.

D. 

earnings yield.

E. 

income ratio.

 

14.

Growth stocks are frequently described as having which one of the following characteristics?   

A. 

high dividends

B. 

a value orientation

C. 

high P/E ratios

D. 

low cash flows per share

E. 

low retention ratios

 

15.

The price-book ratio is computed as the market value per share divided by the per share book value of:   

A. 

total assets.

B. 

long-term debt.

C. 

equity.

D. 

long-term debt plus equity.

E. 

net working capital.

 

16.

A firm's current stock price divided by the firm's revenue per share is referred to as which one of the following ratios?   

A. 

price-earnings

B. 

price-book

C. 

price-income

D. 

price-sales

E. 

price-cash flow

 

17.

An analysis of which of the following are commonly included as part of fundamental analysis? I. sales II. book value III. earnings per share IV. cash flow   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

II, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

18.

Based on the dividend discount model, an increase in which of the following will lower the current value of a stock? I. amount of the next dividend II. dividend growth rate III. discount rate   

A. 

I only

B. 

III only

C. 

I and II only

D. 

II and III only

E. 

I, II, and III

 

19.

The dividend discount model assumes that:   

A. 

the dividend payout ratio will remain constant.

B. 

the dividend growth rate is equal to the discount rate.

C. 

discount rate increases at a constant rate.

D. 

at least one dividend will be paid in the future.

E. 

the dividend payout ratio increases at a constant rate.

 

20.

The constant perpetual growth model assumes the:   

A. 

dividends are paid for a stated number of years only.

B. 

net income is all paid out in dividends.

C. 

growth rate is less than the discount rate.

D. 

dividends are constant in amount.

E. 

discount rate increases at a constant rate.

 

21.

The constant perpetual growth model is applicable primarily to those firms which:   

A. 

adhere to a residual dividend policy.

B. 

pay dividends that increase at a steady rate.

C. 

have irregular dividend growth rates.

D. 

maintain a constant dividend payout ratio.

E. 

have multiple rates of dividend growth.

 

22.

Which one of the following is a correct formula for computing a geometric average dividend growth rate?   

A. 

[(1 + D0) + (1 + D1) × (1 + DN)]N + 1 - 1

B. 

[(1 + D0) × (1 + D1) × (1 + DN)]N - 1 - 1

C. 

[DN/D0]1/N - 1

D. 

[D0/DN]N - 1

E. 

[DN/D0]N/1 - 1

 

23.

The arithmetic average dividend growth rate is:   

A. 

the compounded rate of growth over a specified time period.

B. 

easier to compute than the geometric average dividend growth rate.

C. 

the summation of the annual dividend growth rates.

D. 

generally preferred over the geometric average growth rate by most financial analysts.

E. 

generally larger than the geometric average growth rate when the annual growth rates are positive.

 

24.

The retention ratio is the:   

A. 

net income divided by total equity.

B. 

percentage of net income paid out to shareholders.

C. 

net income divided by the number of shares outstanding.

D. 

percentage of net income held by a firm for future growth.

E. 

inverse of the dividend payout ratio.

 

25.

An increase in the retention ratio will:   

A. 

increase the dividends per share.

B. 

decrease a firm's sustainable rate of growth.

C. 

decrease the equity of a firm.

D. 

increase the dividend growth rate.

E. 

increase the value of a firm's stock.

 

26.

A decrease in which one of the following will increase a firm's sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

net income

B. 

dividend payout ratio

C. 

total assets

D. 

retention ratio

E. 

earnings per share

 

27.

The sustainable growth rate is equal to:   

A. 

ROE × (1 - Payout ratio).

B. 

ROA × (1 - Payout ratio).

C. 

ROE × (1 - Retention ratio).

D. 

ROA × (1 - Retention ratio).

E. 

ROE × ROA.

 

28.

Hypo Tech expects its net income to grow at 20 percent a year for the next two years and then taper off to a constant 5 percent annual rate of growth. The firm maintains a constant dividend payout ratio. Which one of the following models is best suited for computing the current value of this firm's stock?   

A. 

irregular dividend

B. 

constant perpetual growth

C. 

constant dividend

D. 

two-stage dividend growth

E. 

perpetuity formula

 

29.

Which one of the following is a requirement of the two-stage dividend growth model?   

A. 

both growth rates must be less than the discount rate

B. 

one of the two growth rates must exceed the discount rate

C. 

the first growth rate must exceed the second growth rate

D. 

the first growth rate must equal the discount rate

E. 

the second growth rate must be less than the discount rate

 

30.

Which one of the following statements concerning beta is correct?   

A. 

The beta assigned to the overall market is zero.

B. 

A stock with a beta of 1.2 earns a higher risk premium than a stock with a beta of 1.3.

C. 

A stock with a beta of .5 has 50 percent more risk than the overall market.

D. 

Beta is applied to the T-bill rate when computing the discount rate used for the dividend discount models.

E. 

The higher the beta, the higher the discount rate used for the dividend discount models.

 

31.

Which one of the following is correct concerning the two-stage dividend growth model?   

A. 

The discount rate is based on the coupon rate a firm pays on its outstanding bonds.

B. 

The first growth rate must be higher than the second growth rate.

C. 

The time value of money is ignored.

D. 

The discount rate ignores the risks associated with an individual firm.

E. 

The discount rate considers the risk-free rate of return.

 

32.

How will the price of a stock be affected if the dividend growth rate is decreased?   

A. 

increase

B. 

either increase or no change

C. 

no change

D. 

either decrease or no change

E. 

decrease

 

33.

Which one of the following will increase the current residual income of a firm?   

A. 

an increase in required earnings

B. 

a decrease in the current earnings per share

C. 

a decrease in future earnings per share

D. 

a decrease in the required return on the firm's equity

E. 

an increase in the firm's beginning book equity per share

 

34.

Which one of the following models can be used to value the stock of a firm that maintains a one hundred percent retention ratio?   

A. 

two-stage growth

B. 

residual income

C. 

perpetual dividend growth

D. 

supernormal growth

E. 

perpetual cash flow

 

35.

Which of the following have the same meaning as the term "economic value added"? I. abnormal earnings II. residual income III. value created by a firm in period t IV. EPSt - Bt-1 × k   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

III and IV only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

36.

Which one of the following correctly expresses the clean surplus relationship?   

A. 

The change in book value per share is equal to earnings per share minus dividends.

B. 

The change in retained earnings is equal to net income.

C. 

The change in market value per share is equal to the change in book value per share.

D. 

The change in market value per share is equal to earnings per share minus dividends.

E. 

The rate of change in book value per share is equal to the firm's discount rate.

 

37.

Which one of the following statements related to the price-earnings (P/E) ratio is correct?   

A. 

The earnings yield is the inverse of the P/E ratio.

B. 

The P/E ratio is equal to the market price per share divided by total net income.

C. 

The P/E ratio shown in The Wall Street Journal is based on next year's estimated earnings per share.

D. 

The P/E ratio varies directly with earnings per share.

E. 

The earnings for the past twelve months is the method analysts prefer for computing earnings for the P/E ratio.

 

38.

Which one of the following is used as an indicator that a firm has good-quality earnings?   

A. 

declining price-earnings ratios

B. 

constant price-earnings ratios

C. 

cash flow per share that exceeds earnings per share

D. 

earnings per share that exceed cash flow per share

E. 

positive earnings per share

 

39.

Which one of the following is the most common definition of cash flow as used in the price-cash flow ratio?   

A. 

net income minus dividends

B. 

net income plus depreciation

C. 

net income minus depreciation plus taxes

D. 

earnings before interest and taxes plus depreciation

E. 

earnings before interest and taxes

 

40.

The price-sales ratio helps measure the ability of a firm to generate:   

A. 

net profits.

B. 

quality cash flows.

C. 

higher earnings per share.

D. 

higher cash flow per share.

E. 

revenue growth.

 

41.

You would like to know the value of a firm's equity today in relation to the cost of that equity. Which one of the following ratios will provide you with this information?   

A. 

price-earnings

B. 

price-book

C. 

price-sales

D. 

price-cash flow

E. 

price-assets

 

42.

PT Boats plans to pay a $2.25 a share dividend at the end of each of the next 2 years. At the end of year 3, it will pay a final liquidating dividend of $15 a share. After that, the company plans to close its doors permanently. What is the current value of this stock at a discount rate of 15 percent?   

A. 

$9.89

B. 

$10.26

C. 

$11.54

D. 

$12.47

E. 

$13.50

 

43.

Upwind Tours just announced that it will pay an annual dividend of $3.60 a share one year from now. Two years from now, the company expects to pay a $28 a share liquidating dividend. After that, the company will cease operations. What is the current value per share at a discount rate of 12.5 percent?   

A. 

$23.88

B. 

$24.97

C. 

$25.32

D. 

$28.09

E. 

$29.16

 

44.

Lakeside Sheet Metal is downsizing and plans on completely closing 3 years from now. The firm's liquidation plan calls for annual dividends of $3, $6, and $36 over the next 3 years, respectively. What is the current value of this stock given a discount rate of 14 percent?   

A. 

$26.94

B. 

$27.16

C. 

$28.46

D. 

$31.50

E. 

$36.29

 

45.

Barn Wood Interiors announced today that it is going out of business. As of today, no more regular dividends will be paid. The firm will, however, pay two liquidating dividends. The first will be paid one year from now in the amount of $14 a share. The second and final payment will be paid two years from now at an estimated $38 a share. What is the value of this stock today at a discount rate of 18.7 percent?   

A. 

$38.76

B. 

$39.03

C. 

$41.41

D. 

$43.78

E. 

$46.01

 

46.

Blue Water Tours just paid an annual dividend of $0.80 a share. The firm has a policy of increasing the dividend by 3.5 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock at a discount rate of 11.5 percent?   

A. 

$9.52

B. 

$9.78

C. 

$9.91

D. 

$10.02

E. 

$10.35

 

47.

Precision Engineering recently announced that its next annual dividend will be $1.20 per share with later dividends increasing by 2.5 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock to you if you require a 12 percent rate of return?   

A. 

$12.63

B. 

$12.95

C. 

$13.05

D. 

$13.37

E. 

$13.72

 

48.

The Fish House increases its dividend each year. The next annual dividend is expected to be $2.32 a share. Future dividends will increase by 4.0 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock if the discount rate is 12 percent?   

A. 

$28.91

B. 

$28.05

C. 

$28.78

D. 

$29.00

E. 

$29.18

 

49.

Long Life Floors just paid an annual dividend of $0.82 a share and plans on increasing future dividends by 2 percent annually. The discount rate is 15 percent. What will the value of this stock be 5 years from today?   

A. 

$6.96

B. 

$7.04

C. 

$7.10

D. 

$7.18

E. 

$7.25

 

50.

Wilson's Furniture is experiencing good growth so has decided to commence paying dividends starting next year. The first dividend will be $0.50 a share with annual increases of 4 percent in the dividend amount. The discount rate is 10 percent. What will the value of this stock be four years from now?   

A. 

$8.50

B. 

$8.72

C. 

$9.03

D. 

$9.23

E. 

$9.75

 

51.

The Back Room just paid an annual dividend of $1.65 a share. The firm expects to pay dividends forever and to increase the dividend by 3 percent annually. What is the expected value of this stock five years from now if the discount rate is 14 percent?   

A. 

$17.39

B. 

$17.91

C. 

$18.06

D. 

$18.52

E. 

$19.08

 

52.

Main Street Antiques is planning on paying an annual dividend of $2.20 per share next year. The company is slowly downsizing and is decreasing its dividend by 3 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock at a discount rate of 8 percent?   

A. 

$18.86

B. 

$19.12

C. 

$19.78

D. 

$20.00

E. 

$20.57

 

53.

You are considering buying shares of stock in the Steel Mill. The forecast for the firm is steady growth over the next decade. The firm just paid its annual dividend of $1.42 per share and has plans to increase that amount by 4 percent annually indefinitely. You require a 12.5 percent return on this type of security. What is your estimate of the value of this stock ten years from now?   

A. 

$24.13

B. 

$24.38

C. 

$24.73

D. 

$25.06

E. 

$25.72

 

54.

DT Industries stock is valued at $10.40 a share. The firm pays annual dividends at an increasing rate of 2.5 percent annually. Next year's dividend will be $1.05 per share. What is the required return on this stock?   

A. 

10.00 percent

B. 

11.50 percent

C. 

12.60 percent

D. 

13.50 percent

E. 

14.80 percent

 

55.

Wholesale Foods common stock is valued at $11.05 per share. The firm pays annual dividends which increase at a constant rate. The last dividend paid was $1.20. The required return is 12 percent. What is the dividend growth rate?   

A. 

1.03 percent

B. 

1.67 percent

C. 

3.47 percent

D. 

3.59 percent

E. 

4.00 percent

 

56.

A stock sells for $12.36 a share and has a required return of 9 percent. Dividends are paid annually and increase at a constant 3 percent per year. What is the amount of the last dividend paid?   

A. 

$0.46

B. 

$0.50

C. 

$0.59

D. 

$0.63

E. 

$0.72

 

57.

Factory Stores pays annual dividends and increases those dividends by 2 percent each year. The stock is currently valued at $12 a share and has a required return of 16 percent. You own 400 shares of this stock. What is the total amount of dividend income you should expect to receive next year?   

A. 

$646

B. 

$659

C. 

$672

D. 

$685

E. 

$699

 

58.

The common stock of JL Recyclers has a required return of 12 percent and a current value of $18.72. The company pays its dividend annually and increases the amount by 4 percent each year. You own 300 shares of this stock. What was the total amount of the last dividend you received?   

A. 

$319

B. 

$360

C. 

$432

D. 

$480

E. 

$513

 

59.

The Rug Barn has paid annual dividends of $1.30, $1.36, $1.40, $1.42, and $1.45 over the last 5 years, respectively. What is the geometric average dividend growth rate?   

A. 

1.98 percent

B. 

2.11 percent

C. 

2.39 percent

D. 

2.55 percent

E. 

2.77 percent

 

60.

A firm has paid annual dividends of $1.32, $1.43, $1.55, $1.62, $1.64, and $1.70 per share over the past 6 years, respectively. What is the geometric average growth rate for these dividends?   

A. 

5.19 percent

B. 

5.28 percent

C. 

5.48 percent

D. 

5.57 percent

E. 

5.74 percent

 

61.

Over the past 5 years, DL Insulation has paid annual dividends of $1.40, $1.55, $1.70, $1.73, and $1.77 per share. What is the geometric average dividend growth rate for this period?   

A. 

4.80 percent

B. 

5.79 percent

C. 

5.88 percent

D. 

6.04 percent

E. 

6.33 percent

 

62.

The Brown Jug has paid annual dividends of $0.61, $0.64, $0.71, $0.82, and $0.88 per share over the past 5 years, respectively. What is the geometric average dividend growth rate for this period?   

A. 

8.51 percent

B. 

8.97 percent

C. 

9.10 percent

D. 

9.59 percent

E. 

10.21 percent

 

63.

Dennison Mfg. pays annual dividends. For the past six years, the firm has paid dividends of $1.10, $1.12, $1.25, $1.28, $1.30, and $1.40, respectively. What is the geometric average dividend growth rate for this time period?   

A. 

3.51 percent

B. 

4.10 percent

C. 

4.94 percent

D. 

5.07 percent

E. 

6.03 percent

 

64.

Over the past 4 years, a local firm has paid annual dividends of $1.52, $1.55, $1.60, and $1.68. What is the arithmetic average dividend growth rate?   

A. 

2.69 percent

B. 

2.98 percent

C. 

3.24 percent

D. 

3.40 percent

E. 

3.62 percent

 

65.

Blue Water Tours has paid annual dividends of $2.10, $2.12, $2.15, $2.15, and $2.22 over the past 5 years, respectively. What is the arithmetic average growth rate for these dividends?   

A. 

1.08 percent

B. 

1.41 percent

C. 

1.57 percent

D. 

1.70 percent

E. 

1.73 percent

 

66.

Knit ‘n Needle started paying dividends 4 years ago. The annual dividends thus far have been $0.25, $0.27, $0.30, and $0.33, respectively. What is the arithmetic average dividend growth rate?   

A. 

6.33 percent

B. 

8.58 percent

C. 

9.70 percent

D. 

10.80 percent

E. 

11.17 percent

 

67.

Roy's Markets has net income of $164,000. The firm has 200,000 shares of common stock outstanding. The dividend for this year is $0.61 per share. What is the retention ratio?   

A. 

.220

B. 

.256

C. 

.314

D. 

.774

E. 

.780

 

68.

Detroit Imports has a dividend payout ratio of 40 percent and annual dividends of $2.60 per share. What is the retention ratio?   

A. 

.167

B. 

.208

C. 

.600

D. 

.735

E. 

.792

 

69.

Home Interiors has net income of $248,000. The firm has decided to pay $160,000 of that income out to the shareholders. What is the firm's retention ratio?   

A. 

.355

B. 

.412

C. 

.450

D. 

.588

E. 

.645

 

70.

Art Supplies has a net income of $138,600. The firm has $1.25 million in assets and $500,000 in liabilities. What is the return on equity?   

A. 

13.87 percent

B. 

15.09 percent

C. 

16.44 percent

D. 

18.48 percent

E. 

21.21 percent

 

71.

Oak Supply has earnings per share of $1.22. The firm has $840,000 in equity and 60,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the return on equity?   

A. 

7.92 percent

B. 

8.71 percent

C. 

9.09 percent

D. 

9.47 percent

E. 

10.36 percent

 

72.

Wilderness Adventures has earnings per share of $2.45 and dividends per share of $1.05. The total equity of the firm is $850,000. There are 40,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

2.14 percent

B. 

3.31 percent

C. 

4.97 percent

D. 

5.32 percent

E. 

6.59 percent

 

73.

The Grand Isle has 12,000 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $31.60 per share. The book value per share is $12.08. The firm has earnings per share of $1.86 and a dividend payout ratio of .40. What is the firm's sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

8.88 percent

B. 

9.24 percent

C. 

9.71 percent

D. 

10.57 percent

E. 

10.86 percent

 

74.

Wilkinson and Daughters has net income of $415,400, total assets of $2.2 million, and total liabilities of $1.08 million. The company paid $270,000 in dividends. What is the firm's sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

9.69 percent

B. 

11.06 percent

C. 

12.98 percent

D. 

13.93 percent

E. 

14.15 percent

 

75.

The Potato Patch has a retention ratio of .80, dividends of $52,000, and total equity of $3.3 million. What is the firm's sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

1.58 percent

B. 

4.22 percent

C. 

6.30 percent

D. 

7.38 percent

E. 

8.54 percent

 

76.

Southern Foods just paid an annual dividend of $1.10 a share. Management estimates the dividend will increase by 10 percent a year for the next four years. After that, the annual dividend growth rate is estimated at 3.2 percent. The required rate of return is 12 percent. What is the value of this stock today?   

A. 

$12.55

B. 

$13.00

C. 

$14.54

D. 

$15.81

E. 

$16.21

 

77.

The common stock of A.G. Tailor has a required return of 16 percent. The latest press release stated that last year's dividend was $0.90 per share and that future dividends will increase by 15 percent for the following 3 years. After that, the dividend growth rate will be 3 percent indefinitely. What is one share of this stock worth to you today?   

A. 

$8.42

B. 

$9.60

C. 

$10.26

D. 

$10.75

E. 

$12.03

 

78.

Mountain Top Nursery is a relatively young firm which just paid its first annual dividend of $0.30 a share. Management projects dividend increases of 15 percent per year for five years followed by a constant growth rate of 3.0 percent annually. What is this stock worth today if the applicable discount rate is 12.5 percent?   

A. 

$3.59

B. 

$4.66

C. 

$5.23

D. 

$6.01

E. 

$6.59

 

79.

The last dividend paid by New Technologies was an annual dividend of $1.40 a share. Dividends for the next 3 years will be increased at an annual rate of 8 percent. After that, dividends are expected to increase by 3 percent each year. The discount rate is 16 percent. What is the current value of this stock?   

A. 

$10.40

B. 

$12.60

C. 

$13.33

D. 

$14.10

E. 

$15.55

 

80.

Ultra Fine Furnishings is in the process of selling its peripheral businesses and focusing on its upscale clients. In conjunction with this reorganization, the dividend will be decreased by 10 percent for the next three years. After that, the dividend will resume increasing at an annual rate of 5 percent. The required return on this stock is 14 percent and the last dividend paid was $2.40 a share. What is one share of this stock worth today?   

A. 

$17.34

B. 

$18.08

C. 

$18.35

D. 

$19.68

E. 

$20.72

 

81.

Periscope Adventures last annual dividend was $0.63 a share. The firm will increase the dividend by 7 percent for the next 4 years and thereafter increase the dividend by 4 percent annually. What is this stock worth today if the required return is 11 percent?   

A. 

$10.38

B. 

$11.06

C. 

$11.30

D. 

$13.97

E. 

$14.08

 

82.

Newcomer Mills is a relatively new firm which will retain all of its earnings for the next four years. Four years from now, the firm expects to pay its first dividend of $0.25 a share. After that, it intends to increase the dividend by 4 percent annually. What is the value of this stock today at a discount rate of 12 percent?   

A. 

$1.53

B. 

$1.78

C. 

$2.04

D. 

$2.22

E. 

$2.60

 

83.

Best Value Outlet recently announced that it intends to pay dividends of $0.40, $0.60, $0.75, and $1.00 per share over the next four years, respectively. After that, the plan is to increase the dividend by 3.5 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock if the applicable discount rate is 13.5 percent?   

A. 

$6.44

B. 

$7.83

C. 

$8.17

D. 

$9.55

E. 

$13.10

 

84.

Quality Home Made Ice Cream has plans to pay decreasing annual dividends of $1.50, $1.25, and $1.00 over the next three years, respectively. After that, the firm will increase the dividend by 4 percent each year. What is the value of this stock today at a discount rate of 9 percent?   

A. 

$19.26

B. 

$19.54

C. 

$19.69

D. 

$19.93

E. 

$20.48

 

85.

The Shoe Box will not pay a dividend for the next two years. The following two years, it will pay annual dividends of $1 per share. Starting in year 5, the dividends will increase by 4 percent annually. The discount rate is 8 percent. What is the value of this stock today?   

A. 

$18.18

B. 

$20.64

C. 

$22.63

D. 

$24.08

E. 

$27.09

 

86.

The current book value per share of B.L. Black & Sons is $5.35 and the required return on the stock is 15.5 percent. The firm expects earnings per share of $2.25 next year with annual earnings growth of 4.5 percent. What is the current market value of this stock?   

A. 

$9.16

B. 

$10.91

C. 

$13.88

D. 

$18.27

E. 

$20.30

 

87.

The Diamond Outlet has current earnings per share of $1.96 and an expected earnings growth rate of 2.2 percent. The required return on the stock is 13 percent and the current book value per share is $12.70. What is the current market value of this stock?   

A. 

$15.07

B. 

$15.62

C. 

$15.96

D. 

$16.31

E. 

$16.67

 

88.

Leslie Apparel has a current book value per share of $5.15 and current earnings per share of $1.13. The required return is 14 percent and the expected earnings growth rate is 4.5 percent. What is one share of this stock worth today?   

A. 

$7.44

B. 

$8.77

C. 

$9.99

D. 

$10.65

E. 

$11.13

 

89.

A firm has a current book value per share of $21.10 and a market price per share of $37.57. Next year's earnings are expected to be $5.60 per share and the expected earnings growth rate is 2.5 percent. What is the required rate of return on this stock?   

A. 

14 percent

B. 

15 percent

C. 

16 percent

D. 

17 percent

E. 

18 percent

 

90.

Lambert Corporation reported net income of $60 million for last year. Depreciation expense totaled $20 million and capital expenditures came to $5 million. Free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 4.5% for the foreseeable future. Lambert faces a 40% tax rate and has a 0.45 debt to equity ratio with $185 million (market value) in debt outstanding. Lambert's equity beta is 1.25, the risk-free rate is currently 5% and the market risk premium is estimated to be 6.5%. What is the current total value of Lambert's equity (in millions)?   

A. 

$655.90

B. 

$731.20

C. 

$840.95

D. 

$951.26

E. 

$1,025.95

 

91.

Beach & Company reported net income of $40 million for last year. Depreciation expense totaled $18 million and capital expenditures came to $8 million. Free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 5% for the foreseeable future. Beach faces a 40% tax rate and has a 0.40 debt to equity ratio with $200 million (market value) in debt outstanding. Beach's equity beta is 1.25, the risk-free rate is currently 4.5% and the market risk premium is estimated to be 8.0%. What is the current total value of Beach & Company (in millions)?   

A. 

$655.90

B. 

$730.18

C. 

$840.95

D. 

$919.46

E. 

$1,025.95

 

92.

McKenzie, Inc. reported net income of $8.5 million for last year. Depreciation expense totaled $5 million and capital expenditures came to $2 million. Free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 2.5% for the foreseeable future. McKenzie faces a 40% tax rate and has a 0.50 debt to equity ratio with $20 million (market value) in debt outstanding. McKenzie's equity beta is 1.4, the risk- free rate is currently 5% and the market risk premium is estimated to be 7.5%. McKenzie has 10 million shares of common stock outstanding. What is the current value of a share of McKenzie stock?   

A. 

$6.62

B. 

$7.32

C. 

$8.45

D. 

$9.12

E. 

$10.25

 

93.

Stuart, Inc. reported net income of $20 million for last year. Depreciation expense totaled $15 million and capital expenditures came to $5 million. Free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 6% for the foreseeable future. Stuart faces a 40% tax rate and has a 0.30 debt to equity ratio with $75 million (market value) in debt outstanding. Stuart's equity beta is 1.1, the risk-free rate is currently 6% and the market risk premium is estimated to be 8.0%. What is the current value (in millions) of Stuart's equity?   

A. 

$237.34

B. 

$352.42

C. 

$427.42

D. 

$556.79

E. 

$689.10

 

94.

A firm has net income of $198,500 and total equity of 1.15 million. There are 220,000 shares of stock outstanding at a price per share of $14.80. What is the firm's price-earnings ratio?   

A. 

16.21

B. 

16.40

C. 

17.09

D. 

17.28

E. 

17.94

 

95.

L.B. Jay has net income of $38,000, total assets of $437,000, total liabilities of $208,000, and a price-book ratio of 3.8. There are 60,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the firm's price-earnings ratio?   

A. 

18.72

B. 

19.11

C. 

19.28

D. 

20.80

E. 

22.90

 

96.

Miller's Farm has 120,000 shares of stock outstanding, sales of $850,000, and net income of $55,000. Financial analysts believe the price-earnings ratio for this firm should be 15.8. Given this information, what should be the current stock price?   

A. 

$7.24

B. 

$8.87

C. 

$14.85

D. 

$14.57

E. 

$15.21

 

97.

Electronics Galore has historically had a P/E ratio of 23.4. This ratio is considered a good estimate of the future ratio. The firm currently has EPS of $1.68. These earnings are expected to increase by 4.2 percent next year. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$39.31

B. 

$40.96

C. 

$41.25

D. 

$42.78

E. 

$43.79

 

98.

Historically, Jones Trucking has had a P/E ratio of 14.6. The firm has current net income of $92,000 with 85,000 shares of stock outstanding. The EPS growth rate is 4.5 percent. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$15.32

B. 

$15.85

C. 

$16.41

D. 

$16.51

E. 

$17.10

 

99.

The Retail Box has an historical P/CF ratio of 21.5. The current CFPS is $1.42 and the projected CFPS growth rate is 5.6 percent. The current EPS is $1.02. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$30.53

B. 

$32.24

C. 

$32.88

D. 

$34.11

E. 

$34.20

 

100.

The Satellite Shoppe has current sales per share of $8.40. The sales per share are expected to increase at an annual rate of 12 percent. The historical P/E ratio is 16.2 and the historical P/S ratio is 7.6. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$59.72

B. 

$66.67

C. 

$71.50

D. 

$115.18

E. 

$129.00

 

101.

Currently, Southern Foods has sales of $1.32 million, net profit of $521,400, and 125,000 shares of stock outstanding. The sales and net profit are each expected to grow by 6 percent annually. The historical P/S ratio is 7.8. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$32.54

B. 

$34.49

C. 

$82.37

D. 

$85.15

E. 

$87.31

 

 

Essay Questions  

102.

Future stock prices that are estimated using any one of the various price ratios will be based on an assumption related to the ratio. What is that assumption?   

 

 

 

 

103.

Identify three causes for a decrease in a firm's sustainable rate of growth.   

 

 

 

 

104.

The residual income model for valuing a stock suffers from some of the same estimating errors as the dividend growth model. Identify and explain these estimating errors.   

 

 

 

 

Chapter 06 Common Stock Valuation Answer Key  

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following terms is used to identify the evaluation method that determines the value of a stock by reviewing a firm's financial statement in conjunction with other financial and economic information?   

A. 

technical analysis

B. 

conceptual analysis

C. 

prediction valuation

D.  

fundamental analysis

E. 

discounted valuation

See Section 6.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.1 Topic: Fundamental Analysis  

2.

The method of valuing a stock based on the present value of the future income derived from that stock is called:   

A. 

technical analysis.

B. 

constant valuation.

C. 

the basic stock valuation method.

D. 

compound dividend analysis.

E.  

the dividend discount model.

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Dividend Discount Model  

3.

The model used to value a stock that pays a dividend which increases at a constant rate forever is referred to as which one of the following? Assume the growth rate is less than the discount rate.   

A. 

diminishing valuation growth model

B. 

increasing valuation growth model

C.  

constant perpetual growth model

D. 

irregular growth perpetual model

E. 

two-stage growth model

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth Model  

4.

How is a sustainable dividend growth rate defined?   

A. 

a constant rate at which dividends increase

B. 

a rate of growth that does not exceed two percent of the annual increase in revenue

C. 

a rate of growth that is set equal to one-half of the average growth rate of a firm's earnings

D.  

a rate that can be supported over time by a company's earnings

E. 

a rate of dividend growth that is equal to the discount rate used to value the firm's stock

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Sustainable Growth Rate  

5.

The portion of net income that is held by a firm, for future growth, comprises which one of the following balance sheet accounts?   

A. 

capital surplus

B. 

common stock

C. 

internal earnings

D.  

retained earnings

E. 

net earnings

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Retained Earnings  

6.

What is the percentage of a firm's earnings that is distributed to shareholders called?   

A.  

payout ratio

B. 

distribution percentage

C. 

retention ratio

D. 

dividend portion

E. 

outflow ratio

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Payout Ratio  

7.

What is the percentage of a firm's net income which is reinvested in the firm to support future growth called?   

A. 

payout ratio

B. 

distribution percentage

C.  

retention ratio

D. 

equity ratio

E. 

equity reinvestment

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Retention Ratio  

8.

The model used to value the stock of a firm which has a short-term growth rate that varies from its long-term growth rate is called the _____ dividend growth model.   

A. 

flexible

B. 

increasing

C.  

two-stage

D. 

stepped up

E. 

geometric

See Section 6.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth Model  

9.

What is beta?   

A. 

a rate of return measure

B. 

the return on a stock relative to the overall market

C. 

the rate of dividend growth

D. 

the percentage of net income paid out as a dividend

E.  

measure of a stock's risk relative to the stock market average

See Section 6.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.3 Topic: Beta  

10.

What is the accounting relationship in which earnings per share minus dividends equal the change in book value per share called?   

A.  

clean surplus relationship

B. 

economic value added relationship

C. 

accounting earnings identity

D. 

payout-retention identity

E. 

dividend valuation equation

See Section 6.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.4 Topic: Clean Surplus Relationship  

11.

The Free Cash Flow Model: I. can be used to value a company with negative earnings II. is based on a firm having positive cash flows III. requires that a firm pay a dividend IV. directly estimates a value for a firm's equity   

A. 

I only

B.  

I and II only

C. 

I and III only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 6.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.4 Topic: Free Cash Flow Model  

12.

What is the market value of a share of stock divided by the net income per share called?   

A. 

earnings per share

B.  

price-earnings ratio

C. 

value-earnings ratio

D. 

earnings yield

E. 

market multiple

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Earnings Ratio  

13.

The net income per share divided by the market price per share is called the:   

A. 

profit margin.

B. 

profit yield.

C. 

market yield.

D.  

earnings yield.

E. 

income ratio.

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Earnings Yield  

14.

Growth stocks are frequently described as having which one of the following characteristics?   

A. 

high dividends

B. 

a value orientation

C.  

high P/E ratios

D. 

low cash flows per share

E. 

low retention ratios

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Growth Stocks  

15.

The price-book ratio is computed as the market value per share divided by the per share book value of:   

A. 

total assets.

B. 

long-term debt.

C.  

equity.

D. 

long-term debt plus equity.

E. 

net working capital.

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Book Ratio  

16.

A firm's current stock price divided by the firm's revenue per share is referred to as which one of the following ratios?   

A. 

price-earnings

B. 

price-book

C. 

price-income

D.  

price-sales

E. 

price-cash flow

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Sales Ratio  

17.

An analysis of which of the following are commonly included as part of fundamental analysis? I. sales II. book value III. earnings per share IV. cash flow   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

II, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and IV only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 6.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.1 Topic: Fundamental Analysis  

18.

Based on the dividend discount model, an increase in which of the following will lower the current value of a stock? I. amount of the next dividend II. dividend growth rate III. discount rate   

A. 

I only

B.  

III only

C. 

I and II only

D. 

II and III only

E. 

I, II, and III

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Dividend Discount Model  

19.

The dividend discount model assumes that:   

A. 

the dividend payout ratio will remain constant.

B. 

the dividend growth rate is equal to the discount rate.

C. 

discount rate increases at a constant rate.

D.  

at least one dividend will be paid in the future.

E. 

the dividend payout ratio increases at a constant rate.

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Dividend Discount Model  

20.

The constant perpetual growth model assumes the:   

A. 

dividends are paid for a stated number of years only.

B. 

net income is all paid out in dividends.

C.  

growth rate is less than the discount rate.

D. 

dividends are constant in amount.

E. 

discount rate increases at a constant rate.

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

21.

The constant perpetual growth model is applicable primarily to those firms which:   

A. 

adhere to a residual dividend policy.

B.  

pay dividends that increase at a steady rate.

C. 

have irregular dividend growth rates.

D. 

maintain a constant dividend payout ratio.

E. 

have multiple rates of dividend growth.

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth Model  

22.

Which one of the following is a correct formula for computing a geometric average dividend growth rate?   

A. 

[(1 + D0) + (1 + D1) × (1 + DN)]N + 1 - 1

B. 

[(1 + D0) × (1 + D1) × (1 + DN)]N - 1 - 1

C.  

[DN/D0]1/N - 1

D. 

[D0/DN]N - 1

E. 

[DN/D0]N/1 - 1

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Geometric Average Growth  

23.

The arithmetic average dividend growth rate is:   

A. 

the compounded rate of growth over a specified time period.

B. 

easier to compute than the geometric average dividend growth rate.

C. 

the summation of the annual dividend growth rates.

D. 

generally preferred over the geometric average growth rate by most financial analysts.

E.  

generally larger than the geometric average growth rate when the annual growth rates are positive.

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Arithmetic Average Growth  

24.

The retention ratio is the:   

A. 

net income divided by total equity.

B. 

percentage of net income paid out to shareholders.

C. 

net income divided by the number of shares outstanding.

D.  

percentage of net income held by a firm for future growth.

E. 

inverse of the dividend payout ratio.

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Retention Ratio  

25.

An increase in the retention ratio will:   

A. 

increase the dividends per share.

B. 

decrease a firm's sustainable rate of growth.

C. 

decrease the equity of a firm.

D. 

increase the dividend growth rate.

E.  

increase the value of a firm's stock.

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Retention Ratio  

26.

A decrease in which one of the following will increase a firm's sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

net income

B.  

dividend payout ratio

C. 

total assets

D. 

retention ratio

E. 

earnings per share

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Sustainable Growth Rate  

27.

The sustainable growth rate is equal to:   

A.  

ROE × (1 - Payout ratio).

B. 

ROA × (1 - Payout ratio).

C. 

ROE × (1 - Retention ratio).

D. 

ROA × (1 - Retention ratio).

E. 

ROE × ROA.

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Sustainable Growth Rate  

28.

Hypo Tech expects its net income to grow at 20 percent a year for the next two years and then taper off to a constant 5 percent annual rate of growth. The firm maintains a constant dividend payout ratio. Which one of the following models is best suited for computing the current value of this firm's stock?   

A. 

irregular dividend

B. 

constant perpetual growth

C. 

constant dividend

D.  

two-stage dividend growth

E. 

perpetuity formula

See Section 6.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth Model  

29.

Which one of the following is a requirement of the two-stage dividend growth model?   

A. 

both growth rates must be less than the discount rate

B. 

one of the two growth rates must exceed the discount rate

C. 

the first growth rate must exceed the second growth rate

D. 

the first growth rate must equal the discount rate

E.  

the second growth rate must be less than the discount rate

See Section 6.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth Model  

30.

Which one of the following statements concerning beta is correct?   

A. 

The beta assigned to the overall market is zero.

B. 

A stock with a beta of 1.2 earns a higher risk premium than a stock with a beta of 1.3.

C. 

A stock with a beta of .5 has 50 percent more risk than the overall market.

D. 

Beta is applied to the T-bill rate when computing the discount rate used for the dividend discount models.

E.  

The higher the beta, the higher the discount rate used for the dividend discount models.

See Section 6.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.3 Topic: Beta  

31.

Which one of the following is correct concerning the two-stage dividend growth model?   

A. 

The discount rate is based on the coupon rate a firm pays on its outstanding bonds.

B. 

The first growth rate must be higher than the second growth rate.

C. 

The time value of money is ignored.

D. 

The discount rate ignores the risks associated with an individual firm.

E.  

The discount rate considers the risk-free rate of return.

See Section 6.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth  

32.

How will the price of a stock be affected if the dividend growth rate is decreased?   

A. 

increase

B. 

either increase or no change

C. 

no change

D. 

either decrease or no change

E.  

decrease

See Section 6.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

33.

Which one of the following will increase the current residual income of a firm?   

A. 

an increase in required earnings

B. 

a decrease in the current earnings per share

C. 

a decrease in future earnings per share

D.  

a decrease in the required return on the firm's equity

E. 

an increase in the firm's beginning book equity per share

See Section 6.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.4 Topic: Residual Income  

34.

Which one of the following models can be used to value the stock of a firm that maintains a one hundred percent retention ratio?   

A. 

two-stage growth

B.  

residual income

C. 

perpetual dividend growth

D. 

supernormal growth

E. 

perpetual cash flow

See Section 6.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.4 Topic: Residual Income Model  

35.

Which of the following have the same meaning as the term "economic value added"? I. abnormal earnings II. residual income III. value created by a firm in period t IV. EPSt - Bt-1 × k   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

III and IV only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 6.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.4 Topic: Economic Value Added  

36.

Which one of the following correctly expresses the clean surplus relationship?   

A.  

The change in book value per share is equal to earnings per share minus dividends.

B. 

The change in retained earnings is equal to net income.

C. 

The change in market value per share is equal to the change in book value per share.

D. 

The change in market value per share is equal to earnings per share minus dividends.

E. 

The rate of change in book value per share is equal to the firm's discount rate.

See Section 6.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.4 Topic: Clean Surplus  

37.

Which one of the following statements related to the price-earnings (P/E) ratio is correct?   

A.  

The earnings yield is the inverse of the P/E ratio.

B. 

The P/E ratio is equal to the market price per share divided by total net income.

C. 

The P/E ratio shown in The Wall Street Journal is based on next year's estimated earnings per share.

D. 

The P/E ratio varies directly with earnings per share.

E. 

The earnings for the past twelve months is the method analysts prefer for computing earnings for the P/E ratio.

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Earnings Ratio  

38.

Which one of the following is used as an indicator that a firm has good-quality earnings?   

A. 

declining price-earnings ratios

B. 

constant price-earnings ratios

C.  

cash flow per share that exceeds earnings per share

D. 

earnings per share that exceed cash flow per share

E. 

positive earnings per share

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Cash Flow  

39.

Which one of the following is the most common definition of cash flow as used in the price-cash flow ratio?   

A. 

net income minus dividends

B.  

net income plus depreciation

C. 

net income minus depreciation plus taxes

D. 

earnings before interest and taxes plus depreciation

E. 

earnings before interest and taxes

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Cash Flow  

40.

The price-sales ratio helps measure the ability of a firm to generate:   

A. 

net profits.

B. 

quality cash flows.

C. 

higher earnings per share.

D. 

higher cash flow per share.

E.  

revenue growth.

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Sales Ratio  

41.

You would like to know the value of a firm's equity today in relation to the cost of that equity. Which one of the following ratios will provide you with this information?   

A. 

price-earnings

B.  

price-book

C. 

price-sales

D. 

price-cash flow

E. 

price-assets

See Section 6.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Book Ratio  

42.

PT Boats plans to pay a $2.25 a share dividend at the end of each of the next 2 years. At the end of year 3, it will pay a final liquidating dividend of $15 a share. After that, the company plans to close its doors permanently. What is the current value of this stock at a discount rate of 15 percent?   

A. 

$9.89

B. 

$10.26

C. 

$11.54

D. 

$12.47

E.  

$13.50

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Dividend Discount Model  

43.

Upwind Tours just announced that it will pay an annual dividend of $3.60 a share one year from now. Two years from now, the company expects to pay a $28 a share liquidating dividend. After that, the company will cease operations. What is the current value per share at a discount rate of 12.5 percent?   

A. 

$23.88

B. 

$24.97

C.  

$25.32

D. 

$28.09

E. 

$29.16

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Dividend Discount Model  

44.

Lakeside Sheet Metal is downsizing and plans on completely closing 3 years from now. The firm's liquidation plan calls for annual dividends of $3, $6, and $36 over the next 3 years, respectively. What is the current value of this stock given a discount rate of 14 percent?   

A. 

$26.94

B. 

$27.16

C. 

$28.46

D.  

$31.50

E. 

$36.29

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Dividend Discount Model  

45.

Barn Wood Interiors announced today that it is going out of business. As of today, no more regular dividends will be paid. The firm will, however, pay two liquidating dividends. The first will be paid one year from now in the amount of $14 a share. The second and final payment will be paid two years from now at an estimated $38 a share. What is the value of this stock today at a discount rate of 18.7 percent?   

A.  

$38.76

B. 

$39.03

C. 

$41.41

D. 

$43.78

E. 

$46.01

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Dividend Discount Model  

46.

Blue Water Tours just paid an annual dividend of $0.80 a share. The firm has a policy of increasing the dividend by 3.5 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock at a discount rate of 11.5 percent?   

A. 

$9.52

B. 

$9.78

C. 

$9.91

D. 

$10.02

E.  

$10.35

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

47.

Precision Engineering recently announced that its next annual dividend will be $1.20 per share with later dividends increasing by 2.5 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock to you if you require a 12 percent rate of return?   

A.  

$12.63

B. 

$12.95

C. 

$13.05

D. 

$13.37

E. 

$13.72

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

48.

The Fish House increases its dividend each year. The next annual dividend is expected to be $2.32 a share. Future dividends will increase by 4.0 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock if the discount rate is 12 percent?   

A. 

$28.91

B. 

$28.05

C. 

$28.78

D.  

$29.00

E. 

$29.18

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

49.

Long Life Floors just paid an annual dividend of $0.82 a share and plans on increasing future dividends by 2 percent annually. The discount rate is 15 percent. What will the value of this stock be 5 years from today?   

A. 

$6.96

B. 

$7.04

C.  

$7.10

D. 

$7.18

E. 

$7.25

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

50.

Wilson's Furniture is experiencing good growth so has decided to commence paying dividends starting next year. The first dividend will be $0.50 a share with annual increases of 4 percent in the dividend amount. The discount rate is 10 percent. What will the value of this stock be four years from now?   

A. 

$8.50

B. 

$8.72

C. 

$9.03

D. 

$9.23

E.  

$9.75

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

51.

The Back Room just paid an annual dividend of $1.65 a share. The firm expects to pay dividends forever and to increase the dividend by 3 percent annually. What is the expected value of this stock five years from now if the discount rate is 14 percent?   

A. 

$17.39

B.  

$17.91

C. 

$18.06

D. 

$18.52

E. 

$19.08

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

52.

Main Street Antiques is planning on paying an annual dividend of $2.20 per share next year. The company is slowly downsizing and is decreasing its dividend by 3 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock at a discount rate of 8 percent?   

A. 

$18.86

B. 

$19.12

C. 

$19.78

D.  

$20.00

E. 

$20.57

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

53.

You are considering buying shares of stock in the Steel Mill. The forecast for the firm is steady growth over the next decade. The firm just paid its annual dividend of $1.42 per share and has plans to increase that amount by 4 percent annually indefinitely. You require a 12.5 percent return on this type of security. What is your estimate of the value of this stock ten years from now?   

A. 

$24.13

B. 

$24.38

C. 

$24.73

D. 

$25.06

E.  

$25.72

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

54.

DT Industries stock is valued at $10.40 a share. The firm pays annual dividends at an increasing rate of 2.5 percent annually. Next year's dividend will be $1.05 per share. What is the required return on this stock?   

A. 

10.00 percent

B. 

11.50 percent

C.  

12.60 percent

D. 

13.50 percent

E. 

14.80 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

55.

Wholesale Foods common stock is valued at $11.05 per share. The firm pays annual dividends which increase at a constant rate. The last dividend paid was $1.20. The required return is 12 percent. What is the dividend growth rate?   

A.  

1.03 percent

B. 

1.67 percent

C. 

3.47 percent

D. 

3.59 percent

E. 

4.00 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

56.

A stock sells for $12.36 a share and has a required return of 9 percent. Dividends are paid annually and increase at a constant 3 percent per year. What is the amount of the last dividend paid?   

A. 

$0.46

B. 

$0.50

C. 

$0.59

D. 

$0.63

E.  

$0.72

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

57.

Factory Stores pays annual dividends and increases those dividends by 2 percent each year. The stock is currently valued at $12 a share and has a required return of 16 percent. You own 400 shares of this stock. What is the total amount of dividend income you should expect to receive next year?   

A. 

$646

B. 

$659

C.  

$672

D. 

$685

E. 

$699

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

58.

The common stock of JL Recyclers has a required return of 12 percent and a current value of $18.72. The company pays its dividend annually and increases the amount by 4 percent each year. You own 300 shares of this stock. What was the total amount of the last dividend you received?   

A. 

$319

B. 

$360

C.  

$432

D. 

$480

E. 

$513

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Constant Perpetual Growth  

59.

The Rug Barn has paid annual dividends of $1.30, $1.36, $1.40, $1.42, and $1.45 over the last 5 years, respectively. What is the geometric average dividend growth rate?   

A. 

1.98 percent

B. 

2.11 percent

C. 

2.39 percent

D. 

2.55 percent

E.  

2.77 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Geometric Dividend Growth  

60.

A firm has paid annual dividends of $1.32, $1.43, $1.55, $1.62, $1.64, and $1.70 per share over the past 6 years, respectively. What is the geometric average growth rate for these dividends?   

A.  

5.19 percent

B. 

5.28 percent

C. 

5.48 percent

D. 

5.57 percent

E. 

5.74 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Geometric Dividend Growth  

61.

Over the past 5 years, DL Insulation has paid annual dividends of $1.40, $1.55, $1.70, $1.73, and $1.77 per share. What is the geometric average dividend growth rate for this period?   

A. 

4.80 percent

B. 

5.79 percent

C. 

5.88 percent

D.  

6.04 percent

E. 

6.33 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Geometric Dividend Growth  

62.

The Brown Jug has paid annual dividends of $0.61, $0.64, $0.71, $0.82, and $0.88 per share over the past 5 years, respectively. What is the geometric average dividend growth rate for this period?   

A. 

8.51 percent

B. 

8.97 percent

C. 

9.10 percent

D.  

9.59 percent

E. 

10.21 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Geometric Dividend Growth  

63.

Dennison Mfg. pays annual dividends. For the past six years, the firm has paid dividends of $1.10, $1.12, $1.25, $1.28, $1.30, and $1.40, respectively. What is the geometric average dividend growth rate for this time period?   

A. 

3.51 percent

B. 

4.10 percent

C.  

4.94 percent

D. 

5.07 percent

E. 

6.03 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Geometric Dividend Growth  

64.

Over the past 4 years, a local firm has paid annual dividends of $1.52, $1.55, $1.60, and $1.68. What is the arithmetic average dividend growth rate?   

A. 

2.69 percent

B. 

2.98 percent

C. 

3.24 percent

D.  

3.40 percent

E. 

3.62 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Arithmetic Dividend Growth  

65.

Blue Water Tours has paid annual dividends of $2.10, $2.12, $2.15, $2.15, and $2.22 over the past 5 years, respectively. What is the arithmetic average growth rate for these dividends?   

A. 

1.08 percent

B.  

1.41 percent

C. 

1.57 percent

D. 

1.70 percent

E. 

1.73 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Arithmetic Dividend Growth  

66.

Knit ‘n Needle started paying dividends 4 years ago. The annual dividends thus far have been $0.25, $0.27, $0.30, and $0.33, respectively. What is the arithmetic average dividend growth rate?   

A. 

6.33 percent

B. 

8.58 percent

C.  

9.70 percent

D. 

10.80 percent

E. 

11.17 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Arithmetic Dividend Growth  

67.

Roy's Markets has net income of $164,000. The firm has 200,000 shares of common stock outstanding. The dividend for this year is $0.61 per share. What is the retention ratio?   

A. 

.220

B.  

.256

C. 

.314

D. 

.774

E. 

.780

Retention ratio = [$164,000 - (200,000 × $.61)]/$164,000 = .256

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Retention Ratio  

68.

Detroit Imports has a dividend payout ratio of 40 percent and annual dividends of $2.60 per share. What is the retention ratio?   

A. 

.167

B. 

.208

C.  

.600

D. 

.735

E. 

.792

Retention ratio = 1 - .40 = .60

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Retention Ratio  

69.

Home Interiors has net income of $248,000. The firm has decided to pay $160,000 of that income out to the shareholders. What is the firm's retention ratio?   

A.  

.355

B. 

.412

C. 

.450

D. 

.588

E. 

.645

Retention ratio = ($248,000 - $160,000)/$248,000 = .355

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Retention Ratio  

70.

Art Supplies has a net income of $138,600. The firm has $1.25 million in assets and $500,000 in liabilities. What is the return on equity?   

A. 

13.87 percent

B. 

15.09 percent

C. 

16.44 percent

D.  

18.48 percent

E. 

21.21 percent

Return on equity = $138,500/($1,250,000 - $500,000) = 18.48 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Return on Equity  

71.

Oak Supply has earnings per share of $1.22. The firm has $840,000 in equity and 60,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the return on equity?   

A. 

7.92 percent

B.  

8.71 percent

C. 

9.09 percent

D. 

9.47 percent

E. 

10.36 percent

Return on equity = ($1.22 × 60,000)/$840,000 = 8.71 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Return on Equity  

72.

Wilderness Adventures has earnings per share of $2.45 and dividends per share of $1.05. The total equity of the firm is $850,000. There are 40,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

2.14 percent

B. 

3.31 percent

C. 

4.97 percent

D. 

5.32 percent

E.  

6.59 percent

Sustainable growth rate = [($2.45 × 40,000)/$850,000] × [1 - ($1.05/$2.45)] = 6.59 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Sustainable Growth Rate  

73.

The Grand Isle has 12,000 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $31.60 per share. The book value per share is $12.08. The firm has earnings per share of $1.86 and a dividend payout ratio of .40. What is the firm's sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

8.88 percent

B.  

9.24 percent

C. 

9.71 percent

D. 

10.57 percent

E. 

10.86 percent

Sustainable growth rate = ($1.86/$12.08) × (1 - .40) = 9.24 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Sustainable Growth Rate  

74.

Wilkinson and Daughters has net income of $415,400, total assets of $2.2 million, and total liabilities of $1.08 million. The company paid $270,000 in dividends. What is the firm's sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

9.69 percent

B. 

11.06 percent

C.  

12.98 percent

D. 

13.93 percent

E. 

14.15 percent

Sustainable growth rate = [$415,400/($2.2m - $1.08m)] × [($415,400 - $270,000)/$415,400] = 12.98 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Sustainable Growth Rate  

75.

The Potato Patch has a retention ratio of .80, dividends of $52,000, and total equity of $3.3 million. What is the firm's sustainable rate of growth?   

A. 

1.58 percent

B. 

4.22 percent

C.  

6.30 percent

D. 

7.38 percent

E. 

8.54 percent

Sustainable growth rate = {[($52,000/(1 - .80)]/$3.3m} × .80 = 6.30 percent

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.2 Topic: Sustainable Growth Rate  

76.

Southern Foods just paid an annual dividend of $1.10 a share. Management estimates the dividend will increase by 10 percent a year for the next four years. After that, the annual dividend growth rate is estimated at 3.2 percent. The required rate of return is 12 percent. What is the value of this stock today?   

A. 

$12.55

B. 

$13.00

C. 

$14.54

D. 

$15.81

E.  

$16.21

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth  

77.

The common stock of A.G. Tailor has a required return of 16 percent. The latest press release stated that last year's dividend was $0.90 per share and that future dividends will increase by 15 percent for the following 3 years. After that, the dividend growth rate will be 3 percent indefinitely. What is one share of this stock worth to you today?   

A. 

$8.42

B.  

$9.60

C. 

$10.26

D. 

$10.75

E. 

$12.03

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth  

78.

Mountain Top Nursery is a relatively young firm which just paid its first annual dividend of $0.30 a share. Management projects dividend increases of 15 percent per year for five years followed by a constant growth rate of 3.0 percent annually. What is this stock worth today if the applicable discount rate is 12.5 percent?   

A. 

$3.59

B. 

$4.66

C.  

$5.23

D. 

$6.01

E. 

$6.59

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth Model  

79.

The last dividend paid by New Technologies was an annual dividend of $1.40 a share. Dividends for the next 3 years will be increased at an annual rate of 8 percent. After that, dividends are expected to increase by 3 percent each year. The discount rate is 16 percent. What is the current value of this stock?   

A. 

$10.40

B.  

$12.60

C. 

$13.33

D. 

$14.10

E. 

$15.55

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth  

80.

Ultra Fine Furnishings is in the process of selling its peripheral businesses and focusing on its upscale clients. In conjunction with this reorganization, the dividend will be decreased by 10 percent for the next three years. After that, the dividend will resume increasing at an annual rate of 5 percent. The required return on this stock is 14 percent and the last dividend paid was $2.40 a share. What is one share of this stock worth today?   

A. 

$17.34

B. 

$18.08

C.  

$18.35

D. 

$19.68

E. 

$20.72

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth  

81.

Periscope Adventures last annual dividend was $0.63 a share. The firm will increase the dividend by 7 percent for the next 4 years and thereafter increase the dividend by 4 percent annually. What is this stock worth today if the required return is 11 percent?   

A.  

$10.38

B. 

$11.06

C. 

$11.30

D. 

$13.97

E. 

$14.08

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Two-Stage Dividend Growth  

82.

Newcomer Mills is a relatively new firm which will retain all of its earnings for the next four years. Four years from now, the firm expects to pay its first dividend of $0.25 a share. After that, it intends to increase the dividend by 4 percent annually. What is the value of this stock today at a discount rate of 12 percent?   

A. 

$1.53

B. 

$1.78

C. 

$2.04

D.  

$2.22

E. 

$2.60

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Nonconstant Growth Stage One  

83.

Best Value Outlet recently announced that it intends to pay dividends of $0.40, $0.60, $0.75, and $1.00 per share over the next four years, respectively. After that, the plan is to increase the dividend by 3.5 percent annually. What is the current value of this stock if the applicable discount rate is 13.5 percent?   

A. 

$6.44

B. 

$7.83

C.  

$8.17

D. 

$9.55

E. 

$13.10

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Nonconstant Growth Stage One  

84.

Quality Home Made Ice Cream has plans to pay decreasing annual dividends of $1.50, $1.25, and $1.00 over the next three years, respectively. After that, the firm will increase the dividend by 4 percent each year. What is the value of this stock today at a discount rate of 9 percent?   

A.  

$19.26

B. 

$19.54

C. 

$19.69

D. 

$19.93

E. 

$20.48

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Nonconstant Growth Stage One  

85.

The Shoe Box will not pay a dividend for the next two years. The following two years, it will pay annual dividends of $1 per share. Starting in year 5, the dividends will increase by 4 percent annually. The discount rate is 8 percent. What is the value of this stock today?   

A. 

$18.18

B.  

$20.64

C. 

$22.63

D. 

$24.08

E. 

$27.09

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-02 The two-stage dividend growth model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.3 Topic: Nonconstant Growth Stage One  

86.

The current book value per share of B.L. Black & Sons is $5.35 and the required return on the stock is 15.5 percent. The firm expects earnings per share of $2.25 next year with annual earnings growth of 4.5 percent. What is the current market value of this stock?   

A. 

$9.16

B. 

$10.91

C. 

$13.88

D.  

$18.27

E. 

$20.30

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.4 Topic: Residual Income Model  

87.

The Diamond Outlet has current earnings per share of $1.96 and an expected earnings growth rate of 2.2 percent. The required return on the stock is 13 percent and the current book value per share is $12.70. What is the current market value of this stock?   

A. 

$15.07

B. 

$15.62

C.  

$15.96

D. 

$16.31

E. 

$16.67

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.4 Topic: Residual Income Model  

88.

Leslie Apparel has a current book value per share of $5.15 and current earnings per share of $1.13. The required return is 14 percent and the expected earnings growth rate is 4.5 percent. What is one share of this stock worth today?   

A. 

$7.44

B. 

$8.77

C.  

$9.99

D. 

$10.65

E. 

$11.13

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.4 Topic: Residual Income Model  

89.

A firm has a current book value per share of $21.10 and a market price per share of $37.57. Next year's earnings are expected to be $5.60 per share and the expected earnings growth rate is 2.5 percent. What is the required rate of return on this stock?   

A. 

14 percent

B. 

15 percent

C.  

16 percent

D. 

17 percent

E. 

18 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.4 Topic: Residual Income Model  

90.

Lambert Corporation reported net income of $60 million for last year. Depreciation expense totaled $20 million and capital expenditures came to $5 million. Free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 4.5% for the foreseeable future. Lambert faces a 40% tax rate and has a 0.45 debt to equity ratio with $185 million (market value) in debt outstanding. Lambert's equity beta is 1.25, the risk-free rate is currently 5% and the market risk premium is estimated to be 6.5%. What is the current total value of Lambert's equity (in millions)?   

A. 

$655.90

B. 

$731.20

C. 

$840.95

D.  

$951.26

E. 

$1,025.95

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.5 Topic: Free Cash Flow Model  

91.

Beach & Company reported net income of $40 million for last year. Depreciation expense totaled $18 million and capital expenditures came to $8 million. Free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 5% for the foreseeable future. Beach faces a 40% tax rate and has a 0.40 debt to equity ratio with $200 million (market value) in debt outstanding. Beach's equity beta is 1.25, the risk-free rate is currently 4.5% and the market risk premium is estimated to be 8.0%. What is the current total value of Beach & Company (in millions)?   

A. 

$655.90

B.  

$730.18

C. 

$840.95

D. 

$919.46

E. 

$1,025.95

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.5 Topic: Free Cash Flow Model  

92.

McKenzie, Inc. reported net income of $8.5 million for last year. Depreciation expense totaled $5 million and capital expenditures came to $2 million. Free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 2.5% for the foreseeable future. McKenzie faces a 40% tax rate and has a 0.50 debt to equity ratio with $20 million (market value) in debt outstanding. McKenzie's equity beta is 1.4, the risk- free rate is currently 5% and the market risk premium is estimated to be 7.5%. McKenzie has 10 million shares of common stock outstanding. What is the current value of a share of McKenzie stock?   

A. 

$6.62

B. 

$7.32

C. 

$8.45

D.  

$9.12

E. 

$10.25

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.5 Topic: Free Cash Flow Model  

93.

Stuart, Inc. reported net income of $20 million for last year. Depreciation expense totaled $15 million and capital expenditures came to $5 million. Free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 6% for the foreseeable future. Stuart faces a 40% tax rate and has a 0.30 debt to equity ratio with $75 million (market value) in debt outstanding. Stuart's equity beta is 1.1, the risk-free rate is currently 6% and the market risk premium is estimated to be 8.0%. What is the current value (in millions) of Stuart's equity?   

A. 

$237.34

B.  

$352.42

C. 

$427.42

D. 

$556.79

E. 

$689.10

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.5 Topic: Free Cash Flow Model  

94.

A firm has net income of $198,500 and total equity of 1.15 million. There are 220,000 shares of stock outstanding at a price per share of $14.80. What is the firm's price-earnings ratio?   

A. 

16.21

B.  

16.40

C. 

17.09

D. 

17.28

E. 

17.94

P/E = $14.80/($198,500/220,000) = 16.40

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Earnings Ratio  

95.

L.B. Jay has net income of $38,000, total assets of $437,000, total liabilities of $208,000, and a price-book ratio of 3.8. There are 60,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the firm's price-earnings ratio?   

A. 

18.72

B. 

19.11

C. 

19.28

D. 

20.80

E.  

22.90

P/E = {[($437,000 - $208,000)/60,000] × 3.8}/($38,000/60,000) = 22.90

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Earnings Ratio  

96.

Miller's Farm has 120,000 shares of stock outstanding, sales of $850,000, and net income of $55,000. Financial analysts believe the price-earnings ratio for this firm should be 15.8. Given this information, what should be the current stock price?   

A.  

$7.24

B. 

$8.87

C. 

$14.85

D. 

$14.57

E. 

$15.21

P0 = ($55,000/120,000) × 15.8 = $7.24

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Price-Earnings Ratio  

97.

Electronics Galore has historically had a P/E ratio of 23.4. This ratio is considered a good estimate of the future ratio. The firm currently has EPS of $1.68. These earnings are expected to increase by 4.2 percent next year. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$39.31

B.  

$40.96

C. 

$41.25

D. 

$42.78

E. 

$43.79

Expected price = $1.68 × (1 + .042) × 23.4 = $40.96

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Expected Price  

98.

Historically, Jones Trucking has had a P/E ratio of 14.6. The firm has current net income of $92,000 with 85,000 shares of stock outstanding. The EPS growth rate is 4.5 percent. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$15.32

B. 

$15.85

C. 

$16.41

D.  

$16.51

E. 

$17.10

Expected price = ($92,000/85,000) × (1 + .045) × 14.6 = $16.51

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Expected Price  

99.

The Retail Box has an historical P/CF ratio of 21.5. The current CFPS is $1.42 and the projected CFPS growth rate is 5.6 percent. The current EPS is $1.02. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$30.53

B.  

$32.24

C. 

$32.88

D. 

$34.11

E. 

$34.20

Expected price = $1.42 × (1 + .056) × 21.5 = $32.24

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Expected Price  

100.

The Satellite Shoppe has current sales per share of $8.40. The sales per share are expected to increase at an annual rate of 12 percent. The historical P/E ratio is 16.2 and the historical P/S ratio is 7.6. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$59.72

B. 

$66.67

C.  

$71.50

D. 

$115.18

E. 

$129.00

Expected price = $8.40 × (1 + .12) × 7.6 = $71.50

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Expected Price  

101.

Currently, Southern Foods has sales of $1.32 million, net profit of $521,400, and 125,000 shares of stock outstanding. The sales and net profit are each expected to grow by 6 percent annually. The historical P/S ratio is 7.8. What is the expected price of this stock one year from now?   

A. 

$32.54

B. 

$34.49

C. 

$82.37

D. 

$85.15

E.  

$87.31

Expected price = ($1,320,000/125,000) × (1 + .06) × 7.8 = $87.31

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 6.6 Topic: Expected Price  

 

Essay Questions  

102.

Future stock prices that are estimated using any one of the various price ratios will be based on an assumption related to the ratio. What is that assumption?   

Answer will vary Feedback: The assumption is that the future price ratio will be relatively similar to the historical price ratio used in the estimation process.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 06-04 Price ratio analysis. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.6 Topic: Price Ratio Analysis  

103.

Identify three causes for a decrease in a firm's sustainable rate of growth.   

Answer will vary Feedback: Any one of the following will decrease a firm's sustainable rate of growth: 1) a decrease in the retention ratio, 2) an increase in the dividend payout ratio, 3) a decrease in net income, and 4) an increase in the book value of equity, all else constant.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 06-01 The basic dividend discount model. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.2 Topic: Sustainable Growth Rate  

104.

The residual income model for valuing a stock suffers from some of the same estimating errors as the dividend growth model. Identify and explain these estimating errors.   

Answer will vary Feedback: Both the residual income model and the dividend growth model use a growth rate and a discount rate in the computation of an estimated stock value. The discount rate is commonly based on CAPM, which uses a risk-free rate, beta, and the market risk premium. The variables are only known with certainty in hindsight. The dividend growth rate is even more susceptible to estimating errors as it is affected by changes in a firm's earnings as well as changes in the dividend payout ratio. The growth rate is particularly difficult to estimate when a firm adheres to a residual dividend policy.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 06-03 The residual income and free cash flow models. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 6.4 Topic: Residual Income Model  

Chapter 07

Stock Price Behavior and Market Efficiency

 

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following states that investors cannot consistently earn positive excess returns?   

A. 

market return hypothesis

B. 

current market hypothesis

C. 

efficient market hypothesis

D. 

risk-return theory

E. 

excess theory

 

2.

Security A and Security B have similar risks. However, Security A has a higher rate of return than Security B. The return on Security A minus the return on Security B is referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

market return

B. 

abnormal return

C. 

deviated return

D. 

excess return

E. 

real return

 

3.

Which one of the following terms is used to describe a stock price that moves over time creating no discernible pattern?   

A. 

deviated pattern

B. 

dispersed flow

C. 

efficient movement

D. 

overreaction and correction

E. 

random walk

 

4.

Which one of the following is a research method used to study the effects news has on stock prices?   

A. 

polarization

B. 

market analysis

C. 

event study

D. 

news theory

E. 

reaction hypothesis

 

5.

Which one of the following returns is computed as the observed return minus the expected return?   

A. 

visible

B. 

distinct

C. 

abnormal

D. 

subjective

E. 

efficient

 

6.

Which type of trader is defined as one who decides to trade securities based on publicly available information and analysis?   

A. 

public

B. 

informed

C. 

normal

D. 

inside

E. 

block

 

7.

Which one of the following terms best describes the information you know about a company that will have a significant effect on the price of the company's stock once that information is released?   

A. 

material public information

B. 

public information

C. 

abnormal information

D. 

private, non-material information

E. 

material non-public information

 

8.

The day-of-the-week effect is defined as the tendency for which day of the week to have a negative average rate of return?   

A. 

Monday

B. 

Tuesday

C. 

Wednesday

D. 

Thursday

E. 

Friday

 

9.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the phenomenon that states that one month has the greatest tendency for small stocks to earn large returns?   

A. 

January effect

B. 

March effect

C. 

September effect

D. 

October effect

E. 

December effect

 

10.

Which one of the following terms is used to describe a market situation where prices are much higher than either fundamental or rational analysis would tend to support?   

A. 

bear market

B. 

cloud

C. 

inversion

D. 

bubble

E. 

crash aversion

 

11.

Which one of the following terms is used to describe a sudden and significant collapse in market prices?   

A. 

dive

B. 

recession

C. 

crash

D. 

adjustment

E. 

rebound

 

12.

Which one of the following terms is used to identify the NYSE rules which slow or stop trading when the DJIA declines by more than a specified amount during a trading session?   

A. 

order flows

B. 

market timers

C. 

crash helmets

D. 

circuit breakers

E. 

trade barriers

 

13.

Which one of the following is required for a trader to earn excess profits?   

A. 

excessive trading

B. 

excessive research

C. 

market inefficiency

D. 

highly volatile market state

E. 

relatively stable market state

 

14.

Stocks A, B, and C have identical risks. Stock A earns an annual return of 9.9 percent as compared to 9.6 percent returns on stocks B and C. Given this, you can correctly assume that:   

A. 

Stock A is overpriced.

B. 

the market return is 9.75 percent.

C. 

Stock A represents the smallest-sized firm.

D. 

Stock A has a positive excess return.

E. 

Stocks B and C represent firms that are in the process of merging.

 

15.

In an efficient market, stocks with similar risks will:   

A. 

have the same market price.

B. 

pay similar dividends.

C. 

yield the market rate of return.

D. 

produce abnormal returns.

E. 

have similar rates of return.

 

16.

Which one of the following will automatically occur if all investors are rational?   

A. 

All stock prices will be equal.

B. 

Equivalent risk assets will have equal expected rates of return.

C. 

All investors will earn the market rate of return.

D. 

All investors will earn the same rate of return.

E. 

The riskier an asset, the higher its market price will be.

 

17.

Efficient markets tend to exist:   

A. 

only when all investors are rational.

B. 

anytime market volume exceeds the average trading volume.

C. 

only when market volatility is low.

D. 

when rational arbitrage traders dominate irrational traders.

E. 

when arbitrage trading is prohibited.

 

18.

Independent deviations from rationality:   

A. 

only exist when the overall market is overvalued.

B. 

prevent the markets from ever being efficient.

C. 

can create an efficient market.

D. 

are the actions taken by rational arbitrage traders.

E. 

do not exist in an efficient market.

 

19.

The term "independent deviations from rationality" implies that:   

A. 

irrational investors are absent from an efficient market.

B. 

arbitrage traders act independent of each other.

C. 

markets must be inefficient.

D. 

irrational investors behave differently from one another.

E. 

arbitrage traders act together to offset the actions of rational investors.

 

20.

Arbitrage traders:   

A. 

tend to be well-capitalized.

B. 

tend to be irrational investors.

C. 

are dominated by irrational investors in an efficient market.

D. 

lower the efficiency level of a market.

E. 

sell only relatively inexpensive stocks.

 

21.

You are the chief financial officer of Donnelly Industries. On multiple occasions, you have engaged in insider trading but have never been able to earn any abnormal returns. Which form of market efficiency most likely exists given your situation?   

A. 

mild-form

B. 

weak-form

C. 

historical-form

D. 

semi-strong form

E. 

strong-form

 

22.

Which one of the following best describes the type(s) of information included in a strong-form efficient market?   

A. 

historical

B. 

historical and public

C. 

private and public

D. 

current and public

E. 

historical and private

 

23.

If the financial markets were regulated such that the markets maintained strong-form efficiency, then:   

A. 

insider trading laws would be unnecessary.

B. 

all investors would earn equivalent rates of return.

C. 

risk premiums would vanish.

D. 

all investors would become arbitrage traders.

E. 

securities would tend to be continually underpriced.

 

24.

Which of the following are ineffective strategies for producing excess returns if the market is semistrong-form efficient? I. graphing past prices searching for patterns II. watching the daily market movements III. studying the latest analyst's reports IV. analyzing a firm's financial statements   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

25.

You analyze a firm's financial statements and invest based upon the results of this analysis. Which form of market efficiency must exist if you are able to earn excess profits on these investments?   

A. 

weak-form

B. 

historical-form

C. 

semi-strong form

D. 

full-form

E. 

mild-form

 

26.

Amy uses two approaches to trading stocks. First, she trades on what she believes is a repetitive pattern as seen in Delta Co's historical prices. Secondly, she analyzes the financial statements of The Atwater Co. to compute changes in the return on equity as a predictor of future stock prices for that firm. She trades based on both strategies. Amy earns excess profits on her return on equity strategy but not on her historical prices strategy. This suggests that the market is at least _____ efficient but less than _____ efficient.   

A. 

weak-form; mild-form

B. 

mild-form; semistrong-form

C. 

weak-form; semistrong-form

D. 

semistrong-form; full-form

E. 

semistrong-form; strong-form

 

27.

If the market is semistrong-form efficient, then which one of the following statements is true?   

A. 

Neither technical nor fundamental analysis leads to abnormal profits.

B. 

Technical analysts have the ability to earn excess profits but fundamental analysts cannot.

C. 

Fundamental analysts can earn excess profits but technical analysts cannot.

D. 

Both technical and fundamental analysts earn excess profits based on their research.

E. 

No answer can be determined as the form of market efficiency is unrelated to abnormal, or excess returns.

 

28.

Which form of market efficiency exists if the market is efficient only in regard to historical information?   

A. 

mild-form

B. 

weak-form

C. 

historical-form

D. 

semistrong-form

E. 

strong-form

 

29.

Which of the following will lead to excess profits in a semistrong-form efficient market? I. private financial information II. historical price trends III. financial analysts reports IV. unreleased merger plans   

A. 

I only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

II and III only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

I, III, and IV only

 

30.

Research on semistrong-form efficient markets indicates which one of the following is correct?   

A. 

Identifying a stock with repetitive price movements is generally the best method of active investing.

B. 

Future returns on large company stocks tend to closely follow past pricing patterns.

C. 

Buying and holding a broad market index is one of the best investment strategies.

D. 

Predicting future stock prices is relatively easy for academic researchers.

E. 

Trading costs have little, if any, impact on investment returns.

 

31.

If you believe that stock market prices follow a random walk, then:   

A. 

historical price information provides no benefit in predicting future prices.

B. 

there is no financial benefit from investing in the stock market.

C. 

having inside information will not lead to excess profits.

D. 

studying past price movements will lead to excess profits.

E. 

you also believe the market is strong-form efficient.

 

32.

Two weeks ago Ace Electronics announced that it had developed a new chip design which was being considered by major companies for use in future smart phone development. At the close of trading the day before the announcement, Ace common stock closed at $20. On the day following the announcement, Ace closed at $21. Two days after the announcement the stock closed at $22.50. Four days after the announcement the stock traded at $23. Last week, Ace stock traded at $26, a level it has maintained since then. This is an example of a(n):   

A. 

over-reaction and correction.

B. 

underpricing.

C. 

delayed reaction.

D. 

pre-activity action.

E. 

efficient market reaction.

 

33.

Dennison Lumber announced last week that its unpopular CEO had resigned. In response to this announcement, the firm's stock price increased from $17 a share to $23 a share. The following day the price declined to $21 a share and has remained constant at that level. This is an example of a(n):   

A. 

over-reaction and correction.

B. 

underpricing.

C. 

delayed reaction.

D. 

pre-activity action.

E. 

efficient market reaction.

 

34.

Last week, New Plastics announced that it had developed a new plastic container that is stronger and more durable, yet easier to recycle. In response to this announcement, the firm's stock price rose from $21 a share to a high of $27 a share and has remained at that level. This is an example of a(n):   

A. 

over-reaction and correction.

B. 

post-activity reaction.

C. 

delayed reaction.

D. 

pre-activity action.

E. 

efficient market reaction.

 

35.

Which one of the following involves the study of a firm's stock price for the few days surrounding a news announcement?   

A. 

web survey

B. 

market analysis

C. 

event study

D. 

auditing review

E. 

trend study

 

36.

Which one of the following would best reveal how stock prices react when competitive firms merge?   

A. 

financial analysis

B. 

field testing

C. 

risk analysis

D. 

event study

E. 

market survey

 

37.

In an efficient market, daily abnormal returns:   

A. 

are very volatile.

B. 

reflect news within the past week.

C. 

reflect news since the prior trading day.

D. 

remain constant.

E. 

do not exist.

 

38.

How should cumulative abnormal returns react in an efficient market?   

A. 

relatively constant, sharp break, relatively constant

B. 

relatively constant with no breaks

C. 

steadily increasing

D. 

steadily decreasing

E. 

remain constant at zero

 

39.

Which of the following sources of information are used by informed traders? I. financial statements II. inside information III. internet reports IV. analysts reports   

A. 

I and IV only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

III and IV only

D. 

I, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

40.

Which one of the following statements is correct?   

A. 

Company insiders are not permitted to trade their employer's securities.

B. 

Only tippers can be accused of illegal insider trading.

C. 

Tippees are permitted to trade securities based on information they know is private.

D. 

Trading on private information which you just happen to overhear is legal.

E. 

Any trading based on information known to be private is illegal.

 

41.

Ted is an engineer for True Tech and has just discovered a revolutionary method for strengthening metals. He knows this knowledge will add value to True Tech's stock. Ted happens to mention this discovery and its value to his neighbor, Fred. Fred can be charged with insider trading if he:   

A. 

continues to hold the True Tech shares of stock he already owns.

B. 

shares this information with another neighbor.

C. 

sells his shares in True Tech immediately after the news of the discovery is announced.

D. 

provides this information to a friend who will trade the stock and split the profits with him.

E. 

buys shares in True Tech immediately after the news is announced and then shortly thereafter sells the shares at a profit.

 

42.

Which one of the following is most apt to be considered insider trading?   

A. 

Ann overhears Martha say she is being promoted to accounts payables manager and then she purchases shares in Martha's employer.

B. 

Jennifer compiles the financial statements and knows that net income for the latest quarter is significantly below analyst's forecasts but continues to hold shares of her employer's stock.

C. 

Kate is an outside auditor and has found what she believes are significant accounting irregularities in a company's financial reports but owns no shares in the firm.

D. 

Les buys stock in Winter's Wear after he overhears a conversation between the firm's president and vice-president concerning a proposed acquisition.

E. 

Jeff buys shares of stock in his employer's firm through the company retirement plan on a regular monthly basis.

 

43.

Which one of the following items is most apt to be considered material non-public information? Assume that none of this information is known publicly.   

A. 

Barb knows that Sue, an accounting clerk, is planning on resigning on Friday.

B. 

Linda knows a new receptionist has just been hired.

C. 

Wendy knows that her firm's net income is continuing to increase at a steady rate.

D. 

Tracey knows her employer just received patent approval on a key new product.

E. 

Maria is the chief financial officer and knows the firm intends to maintain its current dividend policy.

 

44.

Helena is the chief executive officer of Beltway Holdings (BEH). She owns 1.2 million shares of BEH stock and wishes to sell 10 percent of those shares to diversify her holdings. She follows the SEC requirements, along with those of her firm, and proceeds with the sale on Monday, June 9. On Tuesday, June 10, BEH stock declines by 25 percent. Helena's stock trade is:   

A. 

legal but any future trading in BEH will be prohibited as long as she remains employed by the firm.

B. 

illegal and could subject her to both fines and jail time.

C. 

legal.

D. 

subject to reversal by the SEC.

E. 

subject to a forfeiture of her profits to the SEC.

 

45.

Which one of the following statements related to insider trading is correct?   

A. 

Licensed stockbrokers are exempt from insider trading laws.

B. 

Individuals, such as Martha Stewart, who have been convicted of crimes, can be barred from being executive officers of publicly-traded companies.

C. 

Because of the increased speed of information flows and the improved efficiency of the markets, insider trading laws were abolished in 2006.

D. 

Martha Stewart was convicted of insider trading and subjected both to a fine and a jail sentence.

E. 

An investor who receives advice from an investment advisor is automatically charged with insider trading when the advisor bases his recommendations on private information.

 

46.

Which one of the following relates to the risk-adjustment problem encountered when testing market efficiency?   

A. 

ascertaining how historical prices relate to current stock prices

B. 

determining whether a market reaction was appropriate or overstated

C. 

correctly determining the correct risk-adjustment procedure

D. 

determining what undocumented information existed on any particular trading day

E. 

identifying patterns that occur over time in the pricing of a particular security

 

47.

Which one of the following best describes the current understanding of market efficiency?   

A. 

The market tends to overreact to new information in a manner which can be used to earn abnormal returns.

B. 

Markets under-react to unanticipated events in a manner which can be used to earn excess returns.

C. 

The market appears to be highly inefficient.

D. 

Short-term market movements are difficult, if not impossible, to predict accurately.

E. 

Markets tend to react slowly to unanticipated announcements.

 

48.

If the financial markets are highly efficient, then:   

A. 

investing based on technical analysis is highly recommended.

B. 

holding a diversified, low-cost, passively-managed portfolio is probably your best investment strategy.

C. 

you should adopt an investment strategy based on market timing.

D. 

having a professional manager who actively trades your portfolio is most likely your best investment strategy.

E. 

it doesn't matter which securities you invest in as all securities will provide relatively equal returns.

 

49.

If the markets are efficient, then why is asset allocation still considered important?   

A. 

because the risk-return relationship must still be considered

B. 

because market timing is critical in efficient markets

C. 

because individual security selection is the key to the markets being efficient

D. 

because asset allocation combines market timing with individual security selection

E. 

because the majority of market gains tend to occur only over long periods of time

 

50.

Moving money in and out of the market based on your market expectations is called _____ and tends to lead to returns that are _____ than the overall market return, assuming that the market is relatively efficient.   

A. 

asset allocation; higher

B. 

asset allocation; lower

C. 

market timing; higher

D. 

market timing; lower

E. 

security selection; higher

 

51.

Market timing tends to lead to:   

A. 

fairly consistent abnormal returns.

B. 

increasing profits as experience is gained.

C. 

superior returns but only if you are a professional money manager.

D. 

a rate of return roughly equal to that of the overall market.

E. 

underperforming the overall market.

 

52.

Studies indicate that the Vanguard 500 Index fund tends to:   

A. 

underperform most professional money managers.

B. 

produce a return equal to that of professional managers.

C. 

outperform the average professional money manager, but only over the short-term.

D. 

outperform most professional money managers especially over longer-periods of time.

E. 

support the argument that the stock market is inefficient.

 

53.

Which one of the following statements is correct?   

A. 

Professional money managers outperformed the Vanguard 500 Index Fund on an annual basis more than half the time for the period 1977-2011.

B. 

Purchasing and holding a broad-based index fund is a highly recommended means of investing.

C. 

The number of general equity mutual funds has decreased over the past 20 years due to their underperformance as compared to index funds.

D. 

The survivorship bias lowers the returns earned by professional money managers as a group.

E. 

In an efficient market, there is no need for professional money managers.

 

54.

The day-of-the-week effect refers to which trading day?   

A. 

Monday

B. 

Tuesday

C. 

Wednesday

D. 

Thursday

E. 

Friday

 

55.

Over the past 50 years, which day of the week, on average, has the lowest average rate of return?   

A. 

Monday

B. 

Tuesday

C. 

Wednesday

D. 

Thursday

E. 

Friday

 

56.

The January effect:   

A. 

does not occur in the domestic market every year.

B. 

occurs every year but only for large-company stocks.

C. 

occurs every year but only for small-company stocks.

D. 

is unaffected by institutional investors.

E. 

is unique to the United States.

 

57.

Which of the following are offered as possible causes of the January effect? I. new professional money managers who assume the role at the beginning of the year II. tax loss selling in December III. bonus lock-in effect IV. window dressing   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

III and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

58.

Market prices tend to _____ earnings "surprises".   

A. 

adjust quickly and efficiently to

B. 

overreact and then correct in response to

C. 

overreact and never correct in response to

D. 

ignore

E. 

adjust slowly to

 

59.

Which one of the following statements describes an investment strategy that may lead to profitable results based on current research findings?   

A. 

selling stocks as soon as positive earnings surprises are announced

B. 

selling stocks on Mondays only

C. 

selling small-company stocks in December and repurchasing them in February

D. 

selling stocks on the 25th of the month and repurchasing them on the 5th of the following month

E. 

buying stocks with relatively low P/E ratios

 

60.

Which one of the following statements concerning the stock market is correct?   

A. 

Leverage was one of the contributing factors of the Crash of 1929.

B. 

"Black Monday" refers to October 29, 1929.

C. 

Program trading is cited as the sole cause of the Crash of 1987.

D. 

Generally speaking, market crashes tend to last longer than market bubbles.

E. 

It took the market 10 years to recover from the Crash of 1987.

 

61.

Over the time period of 1929 to 1932, the stock market lost approximately _____ percent of its value.   

A. 

33

B. 

40

C. 

50

D. 

75

E. 

90

 

62.

Approximately how many years did it take for the stock market to recover from the bear market of 1929 to 1932?   

A. 

5

B. 

10

C. 

15

D. 

20

E. 

25

 

63.

Which of the following are offered as factors contributing to the Crash of October 1987? I. bubble bursting II. market volatility III. negative economic signals IV. activities in Congress   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and III only

C. 

II, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

64.

Which of the following occurred during the Crash of 1987? I. market prices were kept up-to-date which increased investors' anxiety II. the market declined another 5 percent within the 2 days following the crash III. trading volume exceeded the exchange's capacities IV. NASDAQ went off-line   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

III and IV only

C. 

I, II and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

65.

Which one of the following occurred following the Crash of 1987?   

A. 

Program trading was barred.

B. 

All market orders were changed to electronic orders.

C. 

Trading is now halted for the day anytime the market declines by 10 percent or more.

D. 

Trading now stops for one hour anytime the market declines by 10 percent.

E. 

Congress decided not to pass any anti-takeover legislation.

 

66.

Which of the following factors contributed to the Crash of 1987? I. irrational investors II. program trading III. panic selling IV. price uncertainty   

A. 

II and IV only

B. 

I, II, and III only

C. 

I, II, and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

67.

Immediately following the Crash of 1987, the stock market:   

A. 

remained in a slump for five years.

B. 

remained flat for an extended period of time.

C. 

had one of the biggest short-term gains ever.

D. 

began a very slow and choppy recovery.

E. 

began a very slow and smooth recovery.

 

68.

If the S&P 500 falls by 20 percent, the NYSE will:   

A. 

do nothing if the drop occurs after 2:30 P.M.

B. 

halt trading for one hour.

C. 

halt trading for one hour if the decline occurs before 3 P.M.

D. 

halt trading for one-half hour if the decline occurs after noon.

E. 

cease trading for the day.

 

69.

If the S&P 500 falls by 7 percent, the NYSE will:   

A. 

halt trading for thirty minutes.

B. 

halt trading for two hours if the decline occurs before 3:25 P.M.

C. 

halt trading for one hour.

D. 

halt trading for one hour if the decline occurs after noon.

E. 

halt trading for 15 minutes if the decline occurs before 3:25 pm.

 

70.

The NYSE circuit breakers are recalculated:   

A. 

every day

B. 

every week

C. 

monthly

D. 

every 6 months

E. 

annually

 

71.

The primary purpose of the NYSE circuit breakers is to:   

A. 

halt short selling.

B. 

encourage program trading.

C. 

limit trading by specialists.

D. 

minimize institutional trading.

E. 

slow a market decline.

 

72.

From the end of 1989 to the spring of 2003, the Nikkei Index declined in value approximately _____ percent.   

A. 

50

B. 

60

C. 

70

D. 

80

E. 

90

 

73.

The Asian stock market crash of 1990 was followed by a:   

A. 

long bull market.

B. 

rapid recovery.

C. 

prolonged flat market.

D. 

short-term decline.

E. 

long bear market.

 

74.

The value of the Amex Internet Index increased by about _____ percent from October 1998 to March 2000 and subsequently declined by about _____ percent by October 2002.   

A. 

100; 50

B. 

200; 75

C. 

400; 80

D. 

500; 90

E. 

600; 80

 

75.

By the end of 2002, the AMEX Internet Index was at a level approximately equal to _____ percent of the index high.   

A. 

75

B. 

50

C. 

25

D. 

17

E. 

9

 

76.

The following are the daily returns for both the overall market and for Dexter Inc. What is the cumulative abnormal return on Dexter, Inc., stock for these 5 days?      

A. 

-0.7 percent

B. 

-0.3 percent

C. 

-0.2 percent

D. 

0.3 percent

E. 

0.6 percent

 

77.

Over the past 5 days, the common stock of Tyler Mfg. had daily returns of 0.2, -0.1, -0.2, 0.3, and 0.1 percent, respectively. For the same 5 days, the market had daily returns of 0.0, 0.1, -0.3, 0.4, and 0.2 percent, respectively. What is the cumulative abnormal return on Tyler Mfg. stock for this time period?   

A. 

-0.2 percent

B. 

-0.1 percent

C. 

0.0 percent

D. 

0.1 percent

E. 

0.2 percent

 

78.

Swenson Co. announced its merger plans on August 25 and had a daily return of 0.8 percent. Tyler Co. announced its merger plans on August 26 and had a daily return of 0.6 percent. The Underwood Co. announced its merger plans on August 27 and had a daily return of -0.5 percent. The daily market returns for August 25 through August 27 were 0.2, 0.3, and -0.4, respectively. What is the combined cumulative abnormal return for the announcement date?   

A. 

0.0 percent

B. 

0.2 percent

C. 

0.6 percent

D. 

0.8 percent

E. 

1.0 percent

 

79.

A.B. Pharmaceutical announced FDA approval for a new drug on October 12. Uptown Drug Co. announced FDA approval for its new drug on October 14. No other information was released that would affect returns over this time period. What is the combined cumulative abnormal return for the 5 day period commencing 2 days prior to the FDA approval announcement date? Use the following data to answer this question. No trading occurred on October 15 or 16.      

A. 

0.6 percent

B. 

1.0 percent

C. 

1.2 percent

D. 

1.3 percent

E. 

1.6 percent

 

 

Essay Questions  

80.

What are some of the key lessons to be learned from historical stock market crashes?   

 

 

 

 

81.

What should the primary role of portfolio managers be given the research to date on their market performance and based on the assumption that markets are efficient?   

 

 

 

 

82.

A trader was found guilty of violating insider trading laws. As part of his sentencing, he had to forfeit the excessive profits earned on the illegal trades. What does this conviction indicate about the current form of market efficiency?   

 

 

 

 

Chapter 07 Stock Price Behavior and Market Efficiency Answer Key  

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

Which one of the following states that investors cannot consistently earn positive excess returns?   

A. 

market return hypothesis

B. 

current market hypothesis

C.  

efficient market hypothesis

D. 

risk-return theory

E. 

excess theory

See Section 7.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.1 Topic: Efficient Market Hypothesis  

2.

Security A and Security B have similar risks. However, Security A has a higher rate of return than Security B. The return on Security A minus the return on Security B is referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

market return

B. 

abnormal return

C. 

deviated return

D.  

excess return

E. 

real return

See Section 7.12

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.2 Topic: Excess Return  

3.

Which one of the following terms is used to describe a stock price that moves over time creating no discernible pattern?   

A. 

deviated pattern

B. 

dispersed flow

C. 

efficient movement

D. 

overreaction and correction

E.  

random walk

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Random Walk  

4.

Which one of the following is a research method used to study the effects news has on stock prices?   

A. 

polarization

B. 

market analysis

C.  

event study

D. 

news theory

E. 

reaction hypothesis

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Event Study  

5.

Which one of the following returns is computed as the observed return minus the expected return?   

A. 

visible

B. 

distinct

C.  

abnormal

D. 

subjective

E. 

efficient

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Abnormal Return  

6.

Which type of trader is defined as one who decides to trade securities based on publicly available information and analysis?   

A. 

public

B.  

informed

C. 

normal

D. 

inside

E. 

block

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Informed Trader  

7.

Which one of the following terms best describes the information you know about a company that will have a significant effect on the price of the company's stock once that information is released?   

A. 

material public information

B. 

public information

C. 

abnormal information

D. 

private, non-material information

E.  

material non-public information

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Material Non-Public Information  

8.

The day-of-the-week effect is defined as the tendency for which day of the week to have a negative average rate of return?   

A.  

Monday

B. 

Tuesday

C. 

Wednesday

D. 

Thursday

E. 

Friday

See Section 7.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.10 Topic: Day-of-The-Week Effect  

9.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the phenomenon that states that one month has the greatest tendency for small stocks to earn large returns?   

A.  

January effect

B. 

March effect

C. 

September effect

D. 

October effect

E. 

December effect

See Section 7.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.10 Topic: January Effect  

10.

Which one of the following terms is used to describe a market situation where prices are much higher than either fundamental or rational analysis would tend to support?   

A. 

bear market

B. 

cloud

C. 

inversion

D.  

bubble

E. 

crash aversion

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Bubble  

11.

Which one of the following terms is used to describe a sudden and significant collapse in market prices?   

A. 

dive

B. 

recession

C.  

crash

D. 

adjustment

E. 

rebound

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Crash  

12.

Which one of the following terms is used to identify the NYSE rules which slow or stop trading when the DJIA declines by more than a specified amount during a trading session?   

A. 

order flows

B. 

market timers

C. 

crash helmets

D.  

circuit breakers

E. 

trade barriers

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Nyse Circuit Breakers  

13.

Which one of the following is required for a trader to earn excess profits?   

A. 

excessive trading

B. 

excessive research

C.  

market inefficiency

D. 

highly volatile market state

E. 

relatively stable market state

See Section 7.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.2 Topic: Efficient Market Hypothesis  

14.

Stocks A, B, and C have identical risks. Stock A earns an annual return of 9.9 percent as compared to 9.6 percent returns on stocks B and C. Given this, you can correctly assume that:   

A. 

Stock A is overpriced.

B. 

the market return is 9.75 percent.

C. 

Stock A represents the smallest-sized firm.

D.  

Stock A has a positive excess return.

E. 

Stocks B and C represent firms that are in the process of merging.

See Section 7.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.2 Topic: Positive Excess Return  

15.

In an efficient market, stocks with similar risks will:   

A. 

have the same market price.

B. 

pay similar dividends.

C. 

yield the market rate of return.

D. 

produce abnormal returns.

E.  

have similar rates of return.

See Section 7.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.2 Topic: Market Efficiency  

16.

Which one of the following will automatically occur if all investors are rational?   

A. 

All stock prices will be equal.

B.  

Equivalent risk assets will have equal expected rates of return.

C. 

All investors will earn the market rate of return.

D. 

All investors will earn the same rate of return.

E. 

The riskier an asset, the higher its market price will be.

See Section 7.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.3 Topic: Rational Investor  

17.

Efficient markets tend to exist:   

A. 

only when all investors are rational.

B. 

anytime market volume exceeds the average trading volume.

C. 

only when market volatility is low.

D.  

when rational arbitrage traders dominate irrational traders.

E. 

when arbitrage trading is prohibited.

See Section 7.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.3 Topic: Market Efficiency  

18.

Independent deviations from rationality:   

A. 

only exist when the overall market is overvalued.

B. 

prevent the markets from ever being efficient.

C.  

can create an efficient market.

D. 

are the actions taken by rational arbitrage traders.

E. 

do not exist in an efficient market.

See Section 7.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.3 Topic: Independent Deviations from Rationality  

19.

The term "independent deviations from rationality" implies that:   

A. 

irrational investors are absent from an efficient market.

B. 

arbitrage traders act independent of each other.

C. 

markets must be inefficient.

D.  

irrational investors behave differently from one another.

E. 

arbitrage traders act together to offset the actions of rational investors.

See Section 7.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.3 Topic: Independent Deviations from Rationality  

20.

Arbitrage traders:   

A.  

tend to be well-capitalized.

B. 

tend to be irrational investors.

C. 

are dominated by irrational investors in an efficient market.

D. 

lower the efficiency level of a market.

E. 

sell only relatively inexpensive stocks.

See Section 7.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.3 Topic: Arbitrage  

21.

You are the chief financial officer of Donnelly Industries. On multiple occasions, you have engaged in insider trading but have never been able to earn any abnormal returns. Which form of market efficiency most likely exists given your situation?   

A. 

mild-form

B. 

weak-form

C. 

historical-form

D. 

semi-strong form

E.  

strong-form

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Strong-form Market Efficiency  

22.

Which one of the following best describes the type(s) of information included in a strong-form efficient market?   

A. 

historical

B. 

historical and public

C.  

private and public

D. 

current and public

E. 

historical and private

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Strong-form Market Efficiency  

23.

If the financial markets were regulated such that the markets maintained strong-form efficiency, then:   

A.  

insider trading laws would be unnecessary.

B. 

all investors would earn equivalent rates of return.

C. 

risk premiums would vanish.

D. 

all investors would become arbitrage traders.

E. 

securities would tend to be continually underpriced.

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Strong-form Market Efficiency  

24.

Which of the following are ineffective strategies for producing excess returns if the market is semistrong-form efficient? I. graphing past prices searching for patterns II. watching the daily market movements III. studying the latest analyst's reports IV. analyzing a firm's financial statements   

A. 

I and III only

B. 

I and IV only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Semistrong-form Efficiency  

25.

You analyze a firm's financial statements and invest based upon the results of this analysis. Which form of market efficiency must exist if you are able to earn excess profits on these investments?   

A.  

weak-form

B. 

historical-form

C. 

semi-strong form

D. 

full-form

E. 

mild-form

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Weak-form Market Efficiency  

26.

Amy uses two approaches to trading stocks. First, she trades on what she believes is a repetitive pattern as seen in Delta Co's historical prices. Secondly, she analyzes the financial statements of The Atwater Co. to compute changes in the return on equity as a predictor of future stock prices for that firm. She trades based on both strategies. Amy earns excess profits on her return on equity strategy but not on her historical prices strategy. This suggests that the market is at least _____ efficient but less than _____ efficient.   

A. 

weak-form; mild-form

B. 

mild-form; semistrong-form

C.  

weak-form; semistrong-form

D. 

semistrong-form; full-form

E. 

semistrong-form; strong-form

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Semistrong-form Efficiency  

27.

If the market is semistrong-form efficient, then which one of the following statements is true?   

A.  

Neither technical nor fundamental analysis leads to abnormal profits.

B. 

Technical analysts have the ability to earn excess profits but fundamental analysts cannot.

C. 

Fundamental analysts can earn excess profits but technical analysts cannot.

D. 

Both technical and fundamental analysts earn excess profits based on their research.

E. 

No answer can be determined as the form of market efficiency is unrelated to abnormal, or excess returns.

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Semistrong-form Efficiency  

28.

Which form of market efficiency exists if the market is efficient only in regard to historical information?   

A. 

mild-form

B.  

weak-form

C. 

historical-form

D. 

semistrong-form

E. 

strong-form

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Weak-form Market Efficiency  

29.

Which of the following will lead to excess profits in a semistrong-form efficient market? I. private financial information II. historical price trends III. financial analysts reports IV. unreleased merger plans   

A. 

I only

B.  

I and IV only

C. 

II and III only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E. 

I, III, and IV only

See Section 7.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.4 Topic: Semistrong-form Market Efficiency  

30.

Research on semistrong-form efficient markets indicates which one of the following is correct?   

A. 

Identifying a stock with repetitive price movements is generally the best method of active investing.

B. 

Future returns on large company stocks tend to closely follow past pricing patterns.

C.  

Buying and holding a broad market index is one of the best investment strategies.

D. 

Predicting future stock prices is relatively easy for academic researchers.

E. 

Trading costs have little, if any, impact on investment returns.

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Market Efficiency  

31.

If you believe that stock market prices follow a random walk, then:   

A.  

historical price information provides no benefit in predicting future prices.

B. 

there is no financial benefit from investing in the stock market.

C. 

having inside information will not lead to excess profits.

D. 

studying past price movements will lead to excess profits.

E. 

you also believe the market is strong-form efficient.

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Random Walk  

32.

Two weeks ago Ace Electronics announced that it had developed a new chip design which was being considered by major companies for use in future smart phone development. At the close of trading the day before the announcement, Ace common stock closed at $20. On the day following the announcement, Ace closed at $21. Two days after the announcement the stock closed at $22.50. Four days after the announcement the stock traded at $23. Last week, Ace stock traded at $26, a level it has maintained since then. This is an example of a(n):   

A. 

over-reaction and correction.

B. 

underpricing.

C.  

delayed reaction.

D. 

pre-activity action.

E. 

efficient market reaction.

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Market Price Reactions  

33.

Dennison Lumber announced last week that its unpopular CEO had resigned. In response to this announcement, the firm's stock price increased from $17 a share to $23 a share. The following day the price declined to $21 a share and has remained constant at that level. This is an example of a(n):   

A.  

over-reaction and correction.

B. 

underpricing.

C. 

delayed reaction.

D. 

pre-activity action.

E. 

efficient market reaction.

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Market Price Reactions  

34.

Last week, New Plastics announced that it had developed a new plastic container that is stronger and more durable, yet easier to recycle. In response to this announcement, the firm's stock price rose from $21 a share to a high of $27 a share and has remained at that level. This is an example of a(n):   

A. 

over-reaction and correction.

B. 

post-activity reaction.

C. 

delayed reaction.

D. 

pre-activity action.

E.  

efficient market reaction.

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Market Price Reactions  

35.

Which one of the following involves the study of a firm's stock price for the few days surrounding a news announcement?   

A. 

web survey

B. 

market analysis

C.  

event study

D. 

auditing review

E. 

trend study

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Event Study  

36.

Which one of the following would best reveal how stock prices react when competitive firms merge?   

A. 

financial analysis

B. 

field testing

C. 

risk analysis

D.  

event study

E. 

market survey

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Event Study  

37.

In an efficient market, daily abnormal returns:   

A. 

are very volatile.

B. 

reflect news within the past week.

C.  

reflect news since the prior trading day.

D. 

remain constant.

E. 

do not exist.

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Abnormal Return  

38.

How should cumulative abnormal returns react in an efficient market?   

A.  

relatively constant, sharp break, relatively constant

B. 

relatively constant with no breaks

C. 

steadily increasing

D. 

steadily decreasing

E. 

remain constant at zero

See Section 7.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Abnormal Cumulative Returns  

39.

Which of the following sources of information are used by informed traders? I. financial statements II. inside information III. internet reports IV. analysts reports   

A. 

I and IV only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

III and IV only

D.  

I, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Informed Trader  

40.

Which one of the following statements is correct?   

A. 

Company insiders are not permitted to trade their employer's securities.

B. 

Only tippers can be accused of illegal insider trading.

C. 

Tippees are permitted to trade securities based on information they know is private.

D. 

Trading on private information which you just happen to overhear is legal.

E.  

Any trading based on information known to be private is illegal.

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Insider Trader  

41.

Ted is an engineer for True Tech and has just discovered a revolutionary method for strengthening metals. He knows this knowledge will add value to True Tech's stock. Ted happens to mention this discovery and its value to his neighbor, Fred. Fred can be charged with insider trading if he:   

A. 

continues to hold the True Tech shares of stock he already owns.

B. 

shares this information with another neighbor.

C. 

sells his shares in True Tech immediately after the news of the discovery is announced.

D.  

provides this information to a friend who will trade the stock and split the profits with him.

E. 

buys shares in True Tech immediately after the news is announced and then shortly thereafter sells the shares at a profit.

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Insider Trading  

42.

Which one of the following is most apt to be considered insider trading?   

A. 

Ann overhears Martha say she is being promoted to accounts payables manager and then she purchases shares in Martha's employer.

B. 

Jennifer compiles the financial statements and knows that net income for the latest quarter is significantly below analyst's forecasts but continues to hold shares of her employer's stock.

C. 

Kate is an outside auditor and has found what she believes are significant accounting irregularities in a company's financial reports but owns no shares in the firm.

D.  

Les buys stock in Winter's Wear after he overhears a conversation between the firm's president and vice-president concerning a proposed acquisition.

E. 

Jeff buys shares of stock in his employer's firm through the company retirement plan on a regular monthly basis.

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Insider Trading  

43.

Which one of the following items is most apt to be considered material non-public information? Assume that none of this information is known publicly.   

A. 

Barb knows that Sue, an accounting clerk, is planning on resigning on Friday.

B. 

Linda knows a new receptionist has just been hired.

C. 

Wendy knows that her firm's net income is continuing to increase at a steady rate.

D.  

Tracey knows her employer just received patent approval on a key new product.

E. 

Maria is the chief financial officer and knows the firm intends to maintain its current dividend policy.

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Material Non-Public Information  

44.

Helena is the chief executive officer of Beltway Holdings (BEH). She owns 1.2 million shares of BEH stock and wishes to sell 10 percent of those shares to diversify her holdings. She follows the SEC requirements, along with those of her firm, and proceeds with the sale on Monday, June 9. On Tuesday, June 10, BEH stock declines by 25 percent. Helena's stock trade is:   

A. 

legal but any future trading in BEH will be prohibited as long as she remains employed by the firm.

B. 

illegal and could subject her to both fines and jail time.

C.  

legal.

D. 

subject to reversal by the SEC.

E. 

subject to a forfeiture of her profits to the SEC.

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Legal Insider Trading  

45.

Which one of the following statements related to insider trading is correct?   

A. 

Licensed stockbrokers are exempt from insider trading laws.

B.  

Individuals, such as Martha Stewart, who have been convicted of crimes, can be barred from being executive officers of publicly-traded companies.

C. 

Because of the increased speed of information flows and the improved efficiency of the markets, insider trading laws were abolished in 2006.

D. 

Martha Stewart was convicted of insider trading and subjected both to a fine and a jail sentence.

E. 

An investor who receives advice from an investment advisor is automatically charged with insider trading when the advisor bases his recommendations on private information.

See Section 7.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.7 Topic: Insider Trading  

46.

Which one of the following relates to the risk-adjustment problem encountered when testing market efficiency?   

A. 

ascertaining how historical prices relate to current stock prices

B. 

determining whether a market reaction was appropriate or overstated

C.  

correctly determining the correct risk-adjustment procedure

D. 

determining what undocumented information existed on any particular trading day

E. 

identifying patterns that occur over time in the pricing of a particular security

See Section 7.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.8 Topic: Testing Market Efficiency  

47.

Which one of the following best describes the current understanding of market efficiency?   

A. 

The market tends to overreact to new information in a manner which can be used to earn abnormal returns.

B. 

Markets under-react to unanticipated events in a manner which can be used to earn excess returns.

C. 

The market appears to be highly inefficient.

D.  

Short-term market movements are difficult, if not impossible, to predict accurately.

E. 

Markets tend to react slowly to unanticipated announcements.

See Section 7.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.8 Topic: Market Efficiency  

48.

If the financial markets are highly efficient, then:   

A. 

investing based on technical analysis is highly recommended.

B.  

holding a diversified, low-cost, passively-managed portfolio is probably your best investment strategy.

C. 

you should adopt an investment strategy based on market timing.

D. 

having a professional manager who actively trades your portfolio is most likely your best investment strategy.

E. 

it doesn't matter which securities you invest in as all securities will provide relatively equal returns.

See Section 7.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.8 Topic: Market Efficiency  

49.

If the markets are efficient, then why is asset allocation still considered important?   

A.  

because the risk-return relationship must still be considered

B. 

because market timing is critical in efficient markets

C. 

because individual security selection is the key to the markets being efficient

D. 

because asset allocation combines market timing with individual security selection

E. 

because the majority of market gains tend to occur only over long periods of time

See Section 7.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.8 Topic: Market Efficiency  

50.

Moving money in and out of the market based on your market expectations is called _____ and tends to lead to returns that are _____ than the overall market return, assuming that the market is relatively efficient.   

A. 

asset allocation; higher

B. 

asset allocation; lower

C. 

market timing; higher

D.  

market timing; lower

E. 

security selection; higher

See Section 7.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.8 Topic: Market Timing  

51.

Market timing tends to lead to:   

A. 

fairly consistent abnormal returns.

B. 

increasing profits as experience is gained.

C. 

superior returns but only if you are a professional money manager.

D. 

a rate of return roughly equal to that of the overall market.

E.  

underperforming the overall market.

See Section 7.8

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.8 Topic: Market Timing  

52.

Studies indicate that the Vanguard 500 Index fund tends to:   

A. 

underperform most professional money managers.

B. 

produce a return equal to that of professional managers.

C. 

outperform the average professional money manager, but only over the short-term.

D.  

outperform most professional money managers especially over longer-periods of time.

E. 

support the argument that the stock market is inefficient.

See Section 7.9

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-03 Market efficiency and the performance of professional money managers. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.9 Topic: Professional Money Managers  

53.

Which one of the following statements is correct?   

A. 

Professional money managers outperformed the Vanguard 500 Index Fund on an annual basis more than half the time for the period 1977-2011.

B.  

Purchasing and holding a broad-based index fund is a highly recommended means of investing.

C. 

The number of general equity mutual funds has decreased over the past 20 years due to their underperformance as compared to index funds.

D. 

The survivorship bias lowers the returns earned by professional money managers as a group.

E. 

In an efficient market, there is no need for professional money managers.

See Section 7.9

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-03 Market efficiency and the performance of professional money managers. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.9 Topic: Professional Money Managers  

54.

The day-of-the-week effect refers to which trading day?   

A.  

Monday

B. 

Tuesday

C. 

Wednesday

D. 

Thursday

E. 

Friday

See Section 7.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.10 Topic: Day-of-The-Week Effect  

55.

Over the past 50 years, which day of the week, on average, has the lowest average rate of return?   

A.  

Monday

B. 

Tuesday

C. 

Wednesday

D. 

Thursday

E. 

Friday

See Section 7.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.10 Topic: Day-of-The-Week Effect  

56.

The January effect:   

A.  

does not occur in the domestic market every year.

B. 

occurs every year but only for large-company stocks.

C. 

occurs every year but only for small-company stocks.

D. 

is unaffected by institutional investors.

E. 

is unique to the United States.

See Section 7.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.10 Topic: January Effect  

57.

Which of the following are offered as possible causes of the January effect? I. new professional money managers who assume the role at the beginning of the year II. tax loss selling in December III. bonus lock-in effect IV. window dressing   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

III and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D.  

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 7.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.10 Topic: January Effect  

58.

Market prices tend to _____ earnings "surprises".   

A. 

adjust quickly and efficiently to

B. 

overreact and then correct in response to

C. 

overreact and never correct in response to

D. 

ignore

E.  

adjust slowly to

See Section 7.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.10 Topic: Earnings Announcement  

59.

Which one of the following statements describes an investment strategy that may lead to profitable results based on current research findings?   

A. 

selling stocks as soon as positive earnings surprises are announced

B. 

selling stocks on Mondays only

C. 

selling small-company stocks in December and repurchasing them in February

D. 

selling stocks on the 25th of the month and repurchasing them on the 5th of the following month

E.  

buying stocks with relatively low P/E ratios

See Section 7.10

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.10 Topic: Market Anomalies  

60.

Which one of the following statements concerning the stock market is correct?   

A.  

Leverage was one of the contributing factors of the Crash of 1929.

B. 

"Black Monday" refers to October 29, 1929.

C. 

Program trading is cited as the sole cause of the Crash of 1987.

D. 

Generally speaking, market crashes tend to last longer than market bubbles.

E. 

It took the market 10 years to recover from the Crash of 1987.

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Bubbles and Crashes  

61.

Over the time period of 1929 to 1932, the stock market lost approximately _____ percent of its value.   

A. 

33

B. 

40

C. 

50

D. 

75

E.  

90

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: 1929-32 Bear Market  

62.

Approximately how many years did it take for the stock market to recover from the bear market of 1929 to 1932?   

A. 

5

B. 

10

C. 

15

D. 

20

E.  

25

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: 1929-32 Bear Market  

63.

Which of the following are offered as factors contributing to the Crash of October 1987? I. bubble bursting II. market volatility III. negative economic signals IV. activities in Congress   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

I and III only

C. 

II, III, and IV only

D. 

I, II, and III only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: 1987 Market Crash  

64.

Which of the following occurred during the Crash of 1987? I. market prices were kept up-to-date which increased investors' anxiety II. the market declined another 5 percent within the 2 days following the crash III. trading volume exceeded the exchange's capacities IV. NASDAQ went off-line   

A. 

I and II only

B.  

III and IV only

C. 

I, II and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: 1987 Market Crash  

65.

Which one of the following occurred following the Crash of 1987?   

A. 

Program trading was barred.

B. 

All market orders were changed to electronic orders.

C. 

Trading is now halted for the day anytime the market declines by 10 percent or more.

D. 

Trading now stops for one hour anytime the market declines by 10 percent.

E.  

Congress decided not to pass any anti-takeover legislation.

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: 1987 Market Crash  

66.

Which of the following factors contributed to the Crash of 1987? I. irrational investors II. program trading III. panic selling IV. price uncertainty   

A. 

II and IV only

B. 

I, II, and III only

C. 

I, II, and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: 1987 Market Crash  

67.

Immediately following the Crash of 1987, the stock market:   

A. 

remained in a slump for five years.

B. 

remained flat for an extended period of time.

C.  

had one of the biggest short-term gains ever.

D. 

began a very slow and choppy recovery.

E. 

began a very slow and smooth recovery.

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: 1987 Market Crash  

68.

If the S&P 500 falls by 20 percent, the NYSE will:   

A. 

do nothing if the drop occurs after 2:30 P.M.

B. 

halt trading for one hour.

C. 

halt trading for one hour if the decline occurs before 3 P.M.

D. 

halt trading for one-half hour if the decline occurs after noon.

E.  

cease trading for the day.

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Nyse Circuit Breakers  

69.

If the S&P 500 falls by 7 percent, the NYSE will:   

A. 

halt trading for thirty minutes.

B. 

halt trading for two hours if the decline occurs before 3:25 P.M.

C. 

halt trading for one hour.

D. 

halt trading for one hour if the decline occurs after noon.

E.  

halt trading for 15 minutes if the decline occurs before 3:25 pm.

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Nyse Circuit Breakers  

70.

The NYSE circuit breakers are recalculated:   

A.  

every day

B. 

every week

C. 

monthly

D. 

every 6 months

E. 

annually

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Nyse Circuit Breakers  

71.

The primary purpose of the NYSE circuit breakers is to:   

A. 

halt short selling.

B. 

encourage program trading.

C. 

limit trading by specialists.

D. 

minimize institutional trading.

E.  

slow a market decline.

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Nyse Circuit Breakers  

72.

From the end of 1989 to the spring of 2003, the Nikkei Index declined in value approximately _____ percent.   

A. 

50

B. 

60

C. 

70

D.  

80

E. 

90

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Asian Crash  

73.

The Asian stock market crash of 1990 was followed by a:   

A. 

long bull market.

B. 

rapid recovery.

C. 

prolonged flat market.

D. 

short-term decline.

E.  

long bear market.

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Asian Crash  

74.

The value of the Amex Internet Index increased by about _____ percent from October 1998 to March 2000 and subsequently declined by about _____ percent by October 2002.   

A. 

100; 50

B. 

200; 75

C. 

400; 80

D.  

500; 90

E. 

600; 80

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Dot.Com Bubble  

75.

By the end of 2002, the AMEX Internet Index was at a level approximately equal to _____ percent of the index high.   

A. 

75

B. 

50

C. 

25

D. 

17

E.  

9

See Section 7.11

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.11 Topic: Dot.Com Bubble  

76.

The following are the daily returns for both the overall market and for Dexter Inc. What is the cumulative abnormal return on Dexter, Inc., stock for these 5 days?      

A.  

-0.7 percent

B. 

-0.3 percent

C. 

-0.2 percent

D. 

0.3 percent

E. 

0.6 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Cumulative Abnormal Returns  

77.

Over the past 5 days, the common stock of Tyler Mfg. had daily returns of 0.2, -0.1, -0.2, 0.3, and 0.1 percent, respectively. For the same 5 days, the market had daily returns of 0.0, 0.1, -0.3, 0.4, and 0.2 percent, respectively. What is the cumulative abnormal return on Tyler Mfg. stock for this time period?   

A. 

-0.2 percent

B.  

-0.1 percent

C. 

0.0 percent

D. 

0.1 percent

E. 

0.2 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.6 Topic: Cumulative Abnormal Returns  

78.

Swenson Co. announced its merger plans on August 25 and had a daily return of 0.8 percent. Tyler Co. announced its merger plans on August 26 and had a daily return of 0.6 percent. The Underwood Co. announced its merger plans on August 27 and had a daily return of -0.5 percent. The daily market returns for August 25 through August 27 were 0.2, 0.3, and -0.4, respectively. What is the combined cumulative abnormal return for the announcement date?   

A. 

0.0 percent

B. 

0.2 percent

C. 

0.6 percent

D.  

0.8 percent

E. 

1.0 percent

Combined cumulative daily abnormal return = [0.8% - 0.2%] + [0.6% - 0.3%] + [-0.5% - (-0.4%)] = 0.8%

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 7.6 Topic: Cumulative Abnormal Returns  

79.

A.B. Pharmaceutical announced FDA approval for a new drug on October 12. Uptown Drug Co. announced FDA approval for its new drug on October 14. No other information was released that would affect returns over this time period. What is the combined cumulative abnormal return for the 5 day period commencing 2 days prior to the FDA approval announcement date? Use the following data to answer this question. No trading occurred on October 15 or 16.      

A. 

0.6 percent

B.  

1.0 percent

C. 

1.2 percent

D. 

1.3 percent

E. 

1.6 percent

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 07-02 The implications of the forms of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 7.6 Topic: Cumulative Abnormal Returns  

 

Essay Questions  

80.

What are some of the key lessons to be learned from historical stock market crashes?   

Answer will vary Feedback: Student answers will vary but should display a basic understanding of market crashes. Students can address causes of crashes, the suddenness of crashes, and the variances in post-crash market behavior.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 07-04 What stock market anomalies; bubbles; and crashes mean for market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 7.11 Topic: Market Crashes  

81.

What should the primary role of portfolio managers be given the research to date on their market performance and based on the assumption that markets are efficient?   

Answer will vary Feedback: The role of portfolio managers is the construction and maintenance of a diversified portfolio designed to meet the needs and risk tolerances of their investors.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 07-03 Market efficiency and the performance of professional money managers. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 7.9 Topic: Professional Money Managers  

82.

A trader was found guilty of violating insider trading laws. As part of his sentencing, he had to forfeit the excessive profits earned on the illegal trades. What does this conviction indicate about the current form of market efficiency?   

Answer will vary Feedback: To earn excess profits on inside information, the market cannot be strong-form efficient. Given the fact that some inside information has entered the marketplace through illegal trading, the market is somewhere between semi-strong and strong-form efficient.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 07-01 The foundations of market efficiency. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 7.4 Topic: Forms of Market Efficiency  

Chapter 08

Behavioral Finance and the Psychology of Investing

 

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

What is the area of finance called that addresses issues such as how reasoning errors affect investment decisions?   

A. 

logical

B. 

individual

C. 

behavioral

D. 

rational

E. 

personal

 

2.

Which one of the following is the basis for prospect theory?   

A. 

Investors react differently to prospective gains and losses.

B. 

Investors make cognitive errors.

C. 

Some investors are irrational.

D. 

Investors react differently depending on the day of the week.

E. 

Investors suffer from money illusion.

 

3.

Which one of the following defines frame dependence?   

A. 

Investors react differently to prospective gains and losses.

B. 

Investors tend to make more cognitive errors when they view investing as gambling.

C. 

Investors tend to be more irrational in bear markets than in bull markets.

D. 

Investors react differently depending on how an opportunity is presented.

E. 

Investors suffer from money illusion in bull markets but not in bear markets.

 

4.

Mental accounting is the process of associating a stock with its:   

A. 

prior day's market value.

B. 

expected value.

C. 

desired value.

D. 

purchase price.

E. 

lowest value.

 

5.

Loss aversion is defined as:   

A. 

the inability to mentally acknowledge a loss on a security.

B. 

selling any security for less than the price paid to acquire it.

C. 

selling a security as soon as it has increased significantly in value.

D. 

the reluctance to sell a security after it has decreased in value.

E. 

the tendency to quickly sell any investment that has decreased in value.

 

6.

Representativeness heuristic is best explained as:   

A. 

the process of assuming events are random even when they are not.

B. 

the creation of patterns in planned events.

C. 

concluding that casual factors cause random events when in fact they do not.

D. 

believing that random events that occur in clusters are truly random.

E. 

overconfidence in one's own skills as an investor.

 

7.

The belief that information you hold is superior to information held by other investors best describes:   

A. 

over-confidence

B. 

the snakebite effect

C. 

the illusion of knowledge

D. 

the clustering illusion

E. 

loss aversion

 

8.

An unwillingness to take a risk after a loss describes:   

A. 

over-confidence

B. 

the snakebite effect

C. 

the illusion of knowledge

D. 

the clustering illusion

E. 

loss aversion

 

9.

Which one of the following is the tendency to believe that random events that occur in clusters are not really random?   

A. 

clustering illusion

B. 

sequential clustering

C. 

random grouping

D. 

representativeness heuristic

E. 

gambler's fallacy

 

10.

Which one of the following best describes heuristics?   

A. 

clustering

B. 

rules of thumb

C. 

grouping

D. 

representativeness

E. 

herding

 

11.

The concept that well-capitalized, rational traders may be unable to correct a mispricing defines which one of the following terms?   

A. 

noise trading bounds

B. 

market bounds

C. 

limits to arbitrage

D. 

implementation limits

E. 

sentiment borders

 

12.

Which one of the following is a trader whose trades are not based on meaningful financial analysis or information?   

A. 

specialist

B. 

arbitrageur

C. 

noise trader

D. 

sentiment trader

E. 

market maker

 

13.

Which one of the following risks is related to irrational beliefs?   

A. 

systematic

B. 

firm-specific

C. 

industry-specific

D. 

sentiment-based

E. 

market

 

14.

Technical analysis is the study of which one of the following as the basis for trading?   

A. 

systematic risk

B. 

historical prices

C. 

dividend growth

D. 

financial statements

E. 

investor's required return

 

15.

Dow theory is a method of predicting future market movements based on which of the following Dow Jones averages? I. industrial II. transportation III. utilities IV. commodities   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

III and IV only

D. 

I and IV only

E. 

I, II, and III only

 

16.

According to Elliott wave theory, market predictions should be based on which one of the following?   

A. 

eight-week repetitive trading patterns

B. 

the tidal waves created by the gravitational pull of the moon

C. 

series of historical market price swings

D. 

an industry's historical rate of growth

E. 

market fads and trends

 

17.

The minimum price at which a security is expected to trade is called the:   

A. 

stop value.

B. 

par value.

C. 

Elliott wave price.

D. 

resistance level.

E. 

support level.

 

18.

The maximum price at which a security is expected to trade is called the:   

A. 

fourth wave.

B. 

stop limit.

C. 

relative point.

D. 

resistance level.

E. 

support level.

 

19.

The measure of performance of one investment compared to another investment is called the:   

A. 

wave height.

B. 

relative arm.

C. 

relative strength.

D. 

bar height.

E. 

support factor.

 

20.

Prospect theory is based on the concept that investors are:   

A. 

always risk takers.

B. 

risk-adverse regarding losses.

C. 

risk-taking regarding losses.

D. 

always risk-averse.

E. 

neutral regarding risk.

 

21.

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding prospect theory?   

A. 

Average investors tend to lose more money than they earn from investing.

B. 

Typical investors feel that losing $1 is twice as painful as the pleasure derived from making $1.

C. 

Investors should focus on gains and losses in individual securities rather than their portfolio's total value.

D. 

Typical investors tend to react irrationally only when focusing on total portfolio value.

E. 

Average investors tend to prefer higher levels of risk.

 

22.

Phil is a contestant on a game show. At this point in the game, he can either accept $500 or spin a wheel for a chance of winning $100,000. Which type of behavior is he displaying if he spins the wheel?   

A. 

forward-looking

B. 

risk-adverse

C. 

prospective

D. 

introspective

E. 

risk-taking

 

23.

Investors tend to make better decisions when looking at a decision:   

A. 

based on historical performance.

B. 

only in respect to potential losses.

C. 

based on individual securities.

D. 

in broad terms.

E. 

based on historical costs.

 

24.

Which one of the following is an example of mental accounting?   

A. 

associating a security's gains or losses based on its purchase price

B. 

calculating the gain or loss on a security on a daily basis

C. 

computing the amount of tax due on the gain from a stock sale

D. 

considering the gain realized when a stock pays a dividend

E. 

comparing the gains and losses on a portfolio to those of the overall market

 

25.

According to the concept of loss aversion, individual investors are most apt to do which one of the following?   

A. 

sell stocks with gains more frequently than stocks with losses

B. 

sell stocks with losses more frequently than stocks with gains

C. 

hold stocks with gains and sell stocks with losses

D. 

sell all stocks after a pre-determined length of time

E. 

hold all stocks unless they decline more than ten percent in value

 

26.

According to the concept of house money, individual investors are most apt to do which one of the following?   

A. 

take more risks with their initial investment than with the gains on that investment

B. 

value money differently depending upon its source

C. 

treat paper profits the same as initial cash investments

D. 

apply the same level of risk-aversion to all investments

E. 

place high value on paper profits but low value on paper losses

 

27.

Peter hesitates when it comes to picking an individual stock to purchase as he feels that he will later realize that a different stock would have been a better investment. Peter is suffering from:   

A. 

money illusion.

B. 

frame dependence.

C. 

regret aversion.

D. 

risk-taking.

E. 

mental accounting.

 

28.

The tendency to overvalue an item because you own it is referred to as which one of the following?   

A. 

endowment effect

B. 

money illusion

C. 

regret aversion

D. 

myopic loss aversion

E. 

sunk cost fallacy

 

29.

Yesterday, Krista stated that Overland stock was only worth $12 a share and since it was selling for $15 a share, she declared it overpriced and refused to buy any shares. This morning, she learned that she is inheriting 3,500 shares of Overland stock from her grandmother. Suddenly, she is saying that Overland stock is a great buy at $15 and is probably worth at least $17 a share. This is an example of which one of the following?   

A. 

endowment effect

B. 

money illusion

C. 

regret aversion

D. 

myopic loss aversion

E. 

sunk cost fallacy

 

30.

Ted constantly ignores the effects of inflation on money. Ted is suffering from which one of the following?   

A. 

endowment effect

B. 

money illusion

C. 

regret aversion

D. 

myopic loss aversion

E. 

sunk cost fallacy

 

31.

Investors who tend to invest too heavily in the securities issued by their employer suffer from the condition known as:   

A. 

overconfidence.

B. 

loyalty adherence.

C. 

status quo.

D. 

local adhesion.

E. 

familiarity.

 

32.

Which one of the following statements appears to be correct based on current research?   

A. 

Single, female investors tend to earn lower returns than their male counterparts.

B. 

Overconfidence tends to result in lower returns.

C. 

Excessive trading tends to increase returns.

D. 

Men tend to trade less frequently than women.

E. 

Investors with higher incomes tend to be more risk-adverse than other investors.

 

33.

The increased cash flows into mutual funds that have recently had superior returns is most associated with which one of the following characteristics?   

A. 

overconfidence

B. 

excess trading

C. 

clustering illusion

D. 

diversification

E. 

risk aversion

 

34.

Tricia has lost money on a particular stock for the past three years. Thus, she believes the stock will have a high positive rate of return this year because earning a good return is long overdue. This assumption is best described as the:   

A. 

law of small numbers.

B. 

house money effect.

C. 

gambler's fallacy.

D. 

false consensus.

E. 

recency bias.

 

35.

Four of the last five stocks your investment adviser recommended have outperformed the market. Thus, you believe that if you continue to follow her advice, that 80 percent of your investments will outperform the market over the long term. This belief is based on the:   

A. 

gambler's fallacy.

B. 

law of small numbers.

C. 

law of large numbers.

D. 

clustering illusion.

E. 

positive performance illusion.

 

36.

According to the theory of recency bias, investors tend to believe the financial markets will:   

A. 

gravitate to their long-term average rates of return.

B. 

react over the next year in direct opposition to the performance of the prior year.

C. 

have a maximum of three years of positive annual returns before declining somewhat.

D. 

continue to perform as they have over the past couple of years.

E. 

tend to reverse direction at least every five years.

 

37.

Which one of the following is a characteristic of the self-attribution bias?   

A. 

believing what you wish to believe

B. 

placing too much weight on information which you can gather easily

C. 

believing that other investors agree with your thinking

D. 

taking credit for the wins and blaming the losses on bad luck

E. 

believing that your recent performance is an indication of your future performance

 

38.

Which of the following are impediments to the correction of a security's mispricing? I. sentiment-based risk II. implementation costs III. firm-specific risk IV. noise trader risk   

A. 

II only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

39.

Which one of the following market sentiment index (MSI) values represents the best buying opportunity?   

A. 

0.16

B. 

0.29

C. 

0.48

D. 

0.61

E. 

0.82

 

40.

Which one of the following market sentiment index (MSI) values indicates that all polled investors were bearish?   

A. 

-1

B. 

0

C. 

1

D. 

50

E. 

100

 

41.

Which one of the following indicates the long-run direction of the market according to Dow Theory?   

A. 

daily fluctuations

B. 

secondary reaction

C. 

monthly changes

D. 

primary trend

E. 

tertiary trend

 

42.

What is the primary purpose of Dow theory?   

A. 

to measure the level of investor optimism and pessimism

B. 

to analyze daily market movements

C. 

to identify and measure market waves

D. 

to eliminate market corrections

E. 

to signal changes in the market's primary direction

 

43.

According to Dow theory, which one of the following is the primary means of eliminating secondary market trends?   

A. 

corrections

B. 

confirmations

C. 

continuations

D. 

conversions

E. 

coordinated trades

 

44.

If you are a proponent of the Elliott wave theory, you are most apt to do which one of the following?   

A. 

sell on wave 2

B. 

sell on wave 3

C. 

buy on wave A

D. 

buy on wave 2

E. 

buy on wave 5

 

45.

According to technical analysis, which one of the following is best seen as a buying opportunity?   

A. 

a breakout of a resistance level

B. 

an MSI value of 0.1 or less

C. 

a downward sloping advance/decline line

D. 

a flat advance/decline line

E. 

top of Elliott wave 5

 

46.

You recently heard a news announcer state that the market is approaching its support level. Which one of the following is the best interpretation of that statement?   

A. 

The market is approaching the lowest level that is reasonably expected.

B. 

The federal government will step in to help the market retain its value should the market slip much further.

C. 

The market is almost at a peak and is expected to start declining in the near future.

D. 

The market is almost to the point where trading will be suspended temporarily.

E. 

The market is almost equivalent in value to the international markets so price stabilization is expected.

 

47.

Which one of the following advance/decline lines is the most bullish signal?   

A. 

relatively flat

B. 

slightly upward sloping

C. 

slightly downward sloping

D. 

steeply upward sloping

E. 

steeply downward sloping

 

48.

Which of the following are bullish indicators? I. flat advance/decline line II. breakout of a support level III. Arms ratio of .38 IV. heavy advancing volume   

A. 

I and II only

B. 

III and IV only

C. 

I and III only

D. 

II and III only

E. 

I and IV only

 

49.

If the closing tick of the day is +32, this means that the:   

A. 

DJIA ended the day up 32 basis points.

B. 

discount rate at the end of the day was 3.20 percent.

C. 

number of stocks closing on an uptick was 32.

D. 

number of stocks closing on an uptick exceeded those closing on a downtick by 32.

E. 

number of stocks closing on an uptick was 32 more than on the prior trading day.

 

50.

Which one of the following Arms values is the most bearish?   

A. 

.28

B. 

.45

C. 

.88

D. 

1.03

E. 

1.26

 

51.

For the past year, a particular stock has a relative strength value of 1.03 as compared to the market. This means that the stock:   

A. 

increased in value 3 percent more than the market for the day.

B. 

has 3 percent more risk than the average security.

C. 

outperformed the market for the period.

D. 

had 3 percent higher trading volume on a growth basis as compared to the market.

E. 

is selling for 103 percent of the market value per share.

 

52.

A "block trade" is a trade in excess of how many shares?   

A. 

1,000

B. 

5,000

C. 

10,000

D. 

50,000

E. 

100,000

 

53.

Which one of the following statements is correct concerning an open-high-low-close bar chart?   

A. 

The prices indicated by the two horizontal lines are the maximum and minimum daily prices.

B. 

The upper trendline indicates the support level.

C. 

If the overall price movement is downward, the lower trendline is called the channel line.

D. 

If the overall price movement is upward, the upper trendline is called the head line.

E. 

The final price of the day is indicated by a horizontal line to the left side of the vertical line.

 

54.

According to technical analysts, pricing patterns such as the head and shoulders are indicators of potential:   

A. 

reversals from the main trend line.

B. 

upcoming corrections which will return the market to the current main trend line.

C. 

increasing strength for the main trend line.

D. 

decreasing market activity.

E. 

increasing market activity.

 

55.

Which one of the following is correct concerning a head and shoulders top pattern?   

A. 

The outside of the right shoulder is a bullish signal.

B. 

The shoulders are higher than the head.

C. 

The left shoulder must be higher than the right shoulder, but lower than the head.

D. 

A piercing of the neckline is a reversal signal.

E. 

The trendline must be relatively flat throughout the pattern.

 

56.

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding moving averages?   

A. 

The 50-day moving average reflects the long-term trend of the market.

B. 

An exponential moving average is a weighted average.

C. 

Moving averages are used primarily to measure trading volume.

D. 

Short-term and long-term moving averages always move in the same direction.

E. 

Moving averages are generally computed using average daily prices.

 

57.

Assume the 50-day moving average is currently intersecting the 200-day moving average. Also assume the 50-day average is downward sloping and the 200-day average is upward sloping. Which one of the following statements is accurate based on this information?   

A. 

The 50-day moving average is bullish.

B. 

The short-term forecast is bullish.

C. 

The long-term trend may be preparing to change.

D. 

The long-term outlook is bearish.

E. 

The short-term trend will change to match the long-term trend.

 

58.

Bollinger bands:   

A. 

graphically reflect the differences between two moving averages.

B. 

graphically depict the relative strength of a security as compared to the market.

C. 

are a graphical representation of an exponential moving average.

D. 

depict a 2-standard deviation bound around a moving average.

E. 

are equal to the 20-day moving average plus or minus one standard deviation.

 

59.

A stock's price has been relatively constant for an extended period of time. In this instance, the Bollinger bands are:   

A. 

relatively close to each other.

B. 

non-existent.

C. 

vertical.

D. 

steeply upsloping.

E. 

steeply downsloping.

 

60.

Investors who use the MACD indicator as a signal for trading are most apt to buy a security when the MACD:   

A. 

equals zero.

B. 

is equal to 1.0.

C. 

rises above the signal line.

D. 

parallels the signal line.

E. 

falls below the signal line.

 

61.

Which of the following are considered in the computation of money flows? I. last trade price II. current trade price III. volume of each trade IV. time of each trade   

A. 

I and IV only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

I, II, and III only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

 

62.

Assume a stock's price remains relatively stable while the money flow becomes highly positive. Which one of the following is most expected given this scenario?   

A. 

price decrease

B. 

stable price

C. 

price increase

D. 

increasing trading volume

E. 

decreasing trading volume

 

63.

Fibonacci numbers:   

A. 

are all odd numbers of increasing value.

B. 

result in a golden mean which has an approximate value of 1.618.

C. 

are the square roots of the products of the two previous numbers in the series.

D. 

result in a phi which is approximately equal to .382.

E. 

are a series of numbers which are equal to the product of the two previous numbers.

 

64.

Some technical analysts use Fibonacci numbers to predict:   

A. 

primary trend breakthroughs.

B. 

market turnarounds.

C. 

secondary market trend lines.

D. 

relative performance values.

E. 

resistance and support levels.

 

65.

Which one of the following is seen as a bearish indicator?   

A. 

decreased short selling

B. 

increased buying by odd-lot traders

C. 

shorter skirt lengths

D. 

a Super Bowl win by a National Football League team

E. 

tight Bollinger bands

 

66.

A survey of 64 of your fellow classmates determines that 19 of them are bullish on the market while the remainder is bearish. What is the market sentiment index for this group of individuals?   

A. 

.28

B. 

.33

C. 

.44

D. 

.58

E. 

.70

 

67.

A recent survey indicates that 1,731 people are bearish on the market for every 1,000 that are bullish. What is the value of the market sentiment index based on this information?   

A. 

.36

B. 

.43

C. 

.57

D. 

.63

E. 

.75

 

68.

Given the following information, what is the value of the advance/decline line on the third day of this 3-day period?      

A. 

-277

B. 

-198

C. 

+202

D. 

+326

E. 

+409

 

69.

Given the following information, what is the value of the advance/decline line on the second day of this 3-day period?      

A. 

-889

B. 

-804

C. 

-294

D. 

+147

E. 

+402

 

70.

Given the following information, what is the value of the closing Arms?      

A. 

.82

B. 

.84

C. 

.92

D. 

1.11

E. 

1.22

 

71.

Given the following information, what is the value of the closing Arms?      

A. 

0.29

B. 

0.36

C. 

0.42

D. 

2.81

E. 

3.45

 

72.

Last year, Kathy purchased 3 shares of stock A at $50 a share. At the same time, she purchased 5 shares of stock B at $35 a share. Today, stock A is valued at $65 a share and stock B is worth $42 a share. What is the relative strength of stock A as compared to stock B?   

A. 

.84

B. 

.88

C. 

.93

D. 

1.04

E. 

1.14

 

73.

What is the 3-day simple moving average as of day 5, given the following information?      

A. 

$35.28

B. 

$35.35

C. 

$35.41

D. 

$35.57

E. 

$35.62

 

74.

What is the 4-day simple moving average as of day 7, given the following information?      

A. 

$42.88

B. 

$43.13

C. 

$43.22

D. 

$43.31

E. 

$44.61

 

75.

What is the 3-day exponential moving average as of day 4 assuming that a weight of 70 percent is placed on the most recent price?      

A. 

$50.81

B. 

$50.84

C. 

$50.87

D. 

$50.90

E. 

$50.94

 

76.

What is the 3-day exponential moving average as of day 5 assuming that a weight of 60 percent is placed on the most recent price?      

A. 

$39.04

B. 

$39.07

C. 

$39.13

D. 

$39.22

E. 

$39.28

 

77.

Given the following information, what is the net money flow at the end of the trading day?      

A. 

-213,500

B. 

-103,000

C. 

91,200

D. 

187,600

E. 

257,800

 

78.

Given the following information, what is the net money flow at the end of the trading day?      

A. 

-290,500

B. 

-85,100

C. 

322,200

D. 

235,000

E. 

421,400

 

79.

The series of Fibonacci numbers contains the sequential values of 610 and 987. What is the next number in this series?   

A. 

1,264

B. 

1,364

C. 

1,419

D. 

1,597

E. 

1,633

 

80.

The price of a stock increased from $32 to $38. Using phi, what are the primary and secondary support areas for the stock?   

A. 

$35.33; $33.67

B. 

$33.67; $35.33

C. 

$35.71; $34.29

D. 

$38.14; $36.99

E. 

$36.99; $38.14

 

81.

Altoona Train stock increased from $18 a share to $25 a share. Based on phi, what are the primary and secondary support areas for this stock?   

A. 

$21.46; $19.19

B. 

$21.67; $20.38

C. 

$21.79; $20.11

D. 

$22.12; $20.58

E. 

$22.33; $20.67

 

 

Essay Questions  

82.

Draw a basic Elliott Wave Pattern. Identify each wave and indicate the waves that are "corrective" and those that are "impulsive".   

 

 

 

 

83.

Explain the basics of prospect theory and provide an example that illustrates this theory.   

 

 

 

 

84.

Give some examples of how overconfidence affects investor behavior along with the results that might be expected based on that behavior.   

 

 

 

 

Chapter 08 Behavioral Finance and the Psychology of Investing Answer Key  

Multiple Choice Questions  

1.

What is the area of finance called that addresses issues such as how reasoning errors affect investment decisions?   

A. 

logical

B. 

individual

C.  

behavioral

D. 

rational

E. 

personal

See Section 8.1

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.1 Topic: Behavioral finance  

2.

Which one of the following is the basis for prospect theory?   

A.  

Investors react differently to prospective gains and losses.

B. 

Investors make cognitive errors.

C. 

Some investors are irrational.

D. 

Investors react differently depending on the day of the week.

E. 

Investors suffer from money illusion.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Prospect theory  

3.

Which one of the following defines frame dependence?   

A. 

Investors react differently to prospective gains and losses.

B. 

Investors tend to make more cognitive errors when they view investing as gambling.

C. 

Investors tend to be more irrational in bear markets than in bull markets.

D.  

Investors react differently depending on how an opportunity is presented.

E. 

Investors suffer from money illusion in bull markets but not in bear markets.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Frame Dependence  

4.

Mental accounting is the process of associating a stock with its:   

A. 

prior day's market value.

B. 

expected value.

C. 

desired value.

D.  

purchase price.

E. 

lowest value.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Mental Accounting  

5.

Loss aversion is defined as:   

A. 

the inability to mentally acknowledge a loss on a security.

B. 

selling any security for less than the price paid to acquire it.

C. 

selling a security as soon as it has increased significantly in value.

D.  

the reluctance to sell a security after it has decreased in value.

E. 

the tendency to quickly sell any investment that has decreased in value.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Loss Aversion  

6.

Representativeness heuristic is best explained as:   

A. 

the process of assuming events are random even when they are not.

B. 

the creation of patterns in planned events.

C.  

concluding that casual factors cause random events when in fact they do not.

D. 

believing that random events that occur in clusters are truly random.

E. 

overconfidence in one's own skills as an investor.

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Representativeness Heuristic  

7.

The belief that information you hold is superior to information held by other investors best describes:   

A. 

over-confidence

B. 

the snakebite effect

C.  

the illusion of knowledge

D. 

the clustering illusion

E. 

loss aversion

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Illusion of Knowledge  

8.

An unwillingness to take a risk after a loss describes:   

A. 

over-confidence

B.  

the snakebite effect

C. 

the illusion of knowledge

D. 

the clustering illusion

E. 

loss aversion

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Snakebite Effect  

9.

Which one of the following is the tendency to believe that random events that occur in clusters are not really random?   

A.  

clustering illusion

B. 

sequential clustering

C. 

random grouping

D. 

representativeness heuristic

E. 

gambler's fallacy

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Clustering Illusion  

10.

Which one of the following best describes heuristics?   

A. 

clustering

B.  

rules of thumb

C. 

grouping

D. 

representativeness

E. 

herding

See Section 8.5

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.5 Topic: Heuristics  

11.

The concept that well-capitalized, rational traders may be unable to correct a mispricing defines which one of the following terms?   

A. 

noise trading bounds

B. 

market bounds

C.  

limits to arbitrage

D. 

implementation limits

E. 

sentiment borders

See Section 8.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-03 Sentiment-based risk and limits to arbitrage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.6 Topic: Limits to Arbitrage  

12.

Which one of the following is a trader whose trades are not based on meaningful financial analysis or information?   

A. 

specialist

B. 

arbitrageur

C.  

noise trader

D. 

sentiment trader

E. 

market maker

See Section 8.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-03 Sentiment-based risk and limits to arbitrage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.6 Topic: Noise Trader  

13.

Which one of the following risks is related to irrational beliefs?   

A. 

systematic

B. 

firm-specific

C. 

industry-specific

D.  

sentiment-based

E. 

market

See Section 8.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-03 Sentiment-based risk and limits to arbitrage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.6 Topic: Sentiment-Based Risk  

14.

Technical analysis is the study of which one of the following as the basis for trading?   

A. 

systematic risk

B.  

historical prices

C. 

dividend growth

D. 

financial statements

E. 

investor's required return

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Technical Analysis  

15.

Dow theory is a method of predicting future market movements based on which of the following Dow Jones averages? I. industrial II. transportation III. utilities IV. commodities   

A.  

I and II only

B. 

II and III only

C. 

III and IV only

D. 

I and IV only

E. 

I, II, and III only

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Dow Theory  

16.

According to Elliott wave theory, market predictions should be based on which one of the following?   

A. 

eight-week repetitive trading patterns

B. 

the tidal waves created by the gravitational pull of the moon

C.  

series of historical market price swings

D. 

an industry's historical rate of growth

E. 

market fads and trends

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Elliott Wave Theory  

17.

The minimum price at which a security is expected to trade is called the:   

A. 

stop value.

B. 

par value.

C. 

Elliott wave price.

D. 

resistance level.

E.  

support level.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Support Level  

18.

The maximum price at which a security is expected to trade is called the:   

A. 

fourth wave.

B. 

stop limit.

C. 

relative point.

D.  

resistance level.

E. 

support level.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Resistance Level  

19.

The measure of performance of one investment compared to another investment is called the:   

A. 

wave height.

B. 

relative arm.

C.  

relative strength.

D. 

bar height.

E. 

support factor.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Relative Strength  

20.

Prospect theory is based on the concept that investors are:   

A. 

always risk takers.

B. 

risk-adverse regarding losses.

C.  

risk-taking regarding losses.

D. 

always risk-averse.

E. 

neutral regarding risk.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Prospect theory  

21.

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding prospect theory?   

A. 

Average investors tend to lose more money than they earn from investing.

B.  

Typical investors feel that losing $1 is twice as painful as the pleasure derived from making $1.

C. 

Investors should focus on gains and losses in individual securities rather than their portfolio's total value.

D. 

Typical investors tend to react irrationally only when focusing on total portfolio value.

E. 

Average investors tend to prefer higher levels of risk.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Prospect theory  

22.

Phil is a contestant on a game show. At this point in the game, he can either accept $500 or spin a wheel for a chance of winning $100,000. Which type of behavior is he displaying if he spins the wheel?   

A. 

forward-looking

B. 

risk-adverse

C. 

prospective

D. 

introspective

E.  

risk-taking

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Risk-Adverse Behavior  

23.

Investors tend to make better decisions when looking at a decision:   

A. 

based on historical performance.

B. 

only in respect to potential losses.

C. 

based on individual securities.

D.  

in broad terms.

E. 

based on historical costs.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Frame Dependence  

24.

Which one of the following is an example of mental accounting?   

A.  

associating a security's gains or losses based on its purchase price

B. 

calculating the gain or loss on a security on a daily basis

C. 

computing the amount of tax due on the gain from a stock sale

D. 

considering the gain realized when a stock pays a dividend

E. 

comparing the gains and losses on a portfolio to those of the overall market

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Mental Accounting  

25.

According to the concept of loss aversion, individual investors are most apt to do which one of the following?   

A.  

sell stocks with gains more frequently than stocks with losses

B. 

sell stocks with losses more frequently than stocks with gains

C. 

hold stocks with gains and sell stocks with losses

D. 

sell all stocks after a pre-determined length of time

E. 

hold all stocks unless they decline more than ten percent in value

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Loss Aversion  

26.

According to the concept of house money, individual investors are most apt to do which one of the following?   

A. 

take more risks with their initial investment than with the gains on that investment

B.  

value money differently depending upon its source

C. 

treat paper profits the same as initial cash investments

D. 

apply the same level of risk-aversion to all investments

E. 

place high value on paper profits but low value on paper losses

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: House Money  

27.

Peter hesitates when it comes to picking an individual stock to purchase as he feels that he will later realize that a different stock would have been a better investment. Peter is suffering from:   

A. 

money illusion.

B. 

frame dependence.

C.  

regret aversion.

D. 

risk-taking.

E. 

mental accounting.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Regret Aversion  

28.

The tendency to overvalue an item because you own it is referred to as which one of the following?   

A.  

endowment effect

B. 

money illusion

C. 

regret aversion

D. 

myopic loss aversion

E. 

sunk cost fallacy

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Endowment Effect  

29.

Yesterday, Krista stated that Overland stock was only worth $12 a share and since it was selling for $15 a share, she declared it overpriced and refused to buy any shares. This morning, she learned that she is inheriting 3,500 shares of Overland stock from her grandmother. Suddenly, she is saying that Overland stock is a great buy at $15 and is probably worth at least $17 a share. This is an example of which one of the following?   

A.  

endowment effect

B. 

money illusion

C. 

regret aversion

D. 

myopic loss aversion

E. 

sunk cost fallacy

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Endowment Effect  

30.

Ted constantly ignores the effects of inflation on money. Ted is suffering from which one of the following?   

A. 

endowment effect

B.  

money illusion

C. 

regret aversion

D. 

myopic loss aversion

E. 

sunk cost fallacy

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Money Illusion  

31.

Investors who tend to invest too heavily in the securities issued by their employer suffer from the condition known as:   

A.  

overconfidence.

B. 

loyalty adherence.

C. 

status quo.

D. 

local adhesion.

E. 

familiarity.

See Section 8.2

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.3 Topic: Overconfidence  

32.

Which one of the following statements appears to be correct based on current research?   

A. 

Single, female investors tend to earn lower returns than their male counterparts.

B.  

Overconfidence tends to result in lower returns.

C. 

Excessive trading tends to increase returns.

D. 

Men tend to trade less frequently than women.

E. 

Investors with higher incomes tend to be more risk-adverse than other investors.

See Section 8.3

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.3 Topic: Overconfidence  

33.

The increased cash flows into mutual funds that have recently had superior returns is most associated with which one of the following characteristics?   

A. 

overconfidence

B. 

excess trading

C.  

clustering illusion

D. 

diversification

E. 

risk aversion

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Clustering Illusion  

34.

Tricia has lost money on a particular stock for the past three years. Thus, she believes the stock will have a high positive rate of return this year because earning a good return is long overdue. This assumption is best described as the:   

A. 

law of small numbers.

B. 

house money effect.

C.  

gambler's fallacy.

D. 

false consensus.

E. 

recency bias.

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Gambler's Fallacy  

35.

Four of the last five stocks your investment adviser recommended have outperformed the market. Thus, you believe that if you continue to follow her advice, that 80 percent of your investments will outperform the market over the long term. This belief is based on the:   

A. 

gambler's fallacy.

B.  

law of small numbers.

C. 

law of large numbers.

D. 

clustering illusion.

E. 

positive performance illusion.

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Law of Small Numbers  

36.

According to the theory of recency bias, investors tend to believe the financial markets will:   

A. 

gravitate to their long-term average rates of return.

B. 

react over the next year in direct opposition to the performance of the prior year.

C. 

have a maximum of three years of positive annual returns before declining somewhat.

D.  

continue to perform as they have over the past couple of years.

E. 

tend to reverse direction at least every five years.

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Recency Bias  

37.

Which one of the following is a characteristic of the self-attribution bias?   

A. 

believing what you wish to believe

B. 

placing too much weight on information which you can gather easily

C. 

believing that other investors agree with your thinking

D.  

taking credit for the wins and blaming the losses on bad luck

E. 

believing that your recent performance is an indication of your future performance

See Section 8.4

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.4 Topic: Self-Attribution Bias  

38.

Which of the following are impediments to the correction of a security's mispricing? I. sentiment-based risk II. implementation costs III. firm-specific risk IV. noise trader risk   

A. 

II only

B. 

II and IV only

C. 

I, III, and IV only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E.  

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 8.6

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-03 Sentiment-based risk and limits to arbitrage. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.6 Topic: Limits to Arbitrage  

39.

Which one of the following market sentiment index (MSI) values represents the best buying opportunity?   

A. 

0.16

B. 

0.29

C. 

0.48

D. 

0.61

E.  

0.82

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Market Sentiment Index  

40.

Which one of the following market sentiment index (MSI) values indicates that all polled investors were bearish?   

A. 

-1

B. 

0

C.  

1

D. 

50

E. 

100

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Market Sentiment Index  

41.

Which one of the following indicates the long-run direction of the market according to Dow Theory?   

A. 

daily fluctuations

B. 

secondary reaction

C. 

monthly changes

D.  

primary trend

E. 

tertiary trend

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Dow Theory  

42.

What is the primary purpose of Dow theory?   

A. 

to measure the level of investor optimism and pessimism

B. 

to analyze daily market movements

C. 

to identify and measure market waves

D. 

to eliminate market corrections

E.  

to signal changes in the market's primary direction

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Dow Theory  

43.

According to Dow theory, which one of the following is the primary means of eliminating secondary market trends?   

A.  

corrections

B. 

confirmations

C. 

continuations

D. 

conversions

E. 

coordinated trades

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Dow Theory  

44.

If you are a proponent of the Elliott wave theory, you are most apt to do which one of the following?   

A. 

sell on wave 2

B. 

sell on wave 3

C. 

buy on wave A

D.  

buy on wave 2

E. 

buy on wave 5

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Elliott Wave Theory  

45.

According to technical analysis, which one of the following is best seen as a buying opportunity?   

A.  

a breakout of a resistance level

B. 

an MSI value of 0.1 or less

C. 

a downward sloping advance/decline line

D. 

a flat advance/decline line

E. 

top of Elliott wave 5

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Resistance Level  

46.

You recently heard a news announcer state that the market is approaching its support level. Which one of the following is the best interpretation of that statement?   

A.  

The market is approaching the lowest level that is reasonably expected.

B. 

The federal government will step in to help the market retain its value should the market slip much further.

C. 

The market is almost at a peak and is expected to start declining in the near future.

D. 

The market is almost to the point where trading will be suspended temporarily.

E. 

The market is almost equivalent in value to the international markets so price stabilization is expected.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Support Level  

47.

Which one of the following advance/decline lines is the most bullish signal?   

A. 

relatively flat

B. 

slightly upward sloping

C. 

slightly downward sloping

D.  

steeply upward sloping

E. 

steeply downward sloping

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Advance/Decline Line  

48.

Which of the following are bullish indicators? I. flat advance/decline line II. breakout of a support level III. Arms ratio of .38 IV. heavy advancing volume   

A. 

I and II only

B.  

III and IV only

C. 

I and III only

D. 

II and III only

E. 

I and IV only

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Technical Indicators  

49.

If the closing tick of the day is +32, this means that the:   

A. 

DJIA ended the day up 32 basis points.

B. 

discount rate at the end of the day was 3.20 percent.

C. 

number of stocks closing on an uptick was 32.

D.  

number of stocks closing on an uptick exceeded those closing on a downtick by 32.

E. 

number of stocks closing on an uptick was 32 more than on the prior trading day.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Closing Tick  

50.

Which one of the following Arms values is the most bearish?   

A. 

.28

B. 

.45

C. 

.88

D. 

1.03

E.  

1.26

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Arms  

51.

For the past year, a particular stock has a relative strength value of 1.03 as compared to the market. This means that the stock:   

A. 

increased in value 3 percent more than the market for the day.

B. 

has 3 percent more risk than the average security.

C.  

outperformed the market for the period.

D. 

had 3 percent higher trading volume on a growth basis as compared to the market.

E. 

is selling for 103 percent of the market value per share.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Relative Strength  

52.

A "block trade" is a trade in excess of how many shares?   

A. 

1,000

B. 

5,000

C.  

10,000

D. 

50,000

E. 

100,000

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Block Trade  

53.

Which one of the following statements is correct concerning an open-high-low-close bar chart?   

A. 

The prices indicated by the two horizontal lines are the maximum and minimum daily prices.

B. 

The upper trendline indicates the support level.

C.  

If the overall price movement is downward, the lower trendline is called the channel line.

D. 

If the overall price movement is upward, the upper trendline is called the head line.

E. 

The final price of the day is indicated by a horizontal line to the left side of the vertical line.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Price Channel  

54.

According to technical analysts, pricing patterns such as the head and shoulders are indicators of potential:   

A.  

reversals from the main trend line.

B. 

upcoming corrections which will return the market to the current main trend line.

C. 

increasing strength for the main trend line.

D. 

decreasing market activity.

E. 

increasing market activity.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Head and Shoulders Pattern  

55.

Which one of the following is correct concerning a head and shoulders top pattern?   

A. 

The outside of the right shoulder is a bullish signal.

B. 

The shoulders are higher than the head.

C. 

The left shoulder must be higher than the right shoulder, but lower than the head.

D.  

A piercing of the neckline is a reversal signal.

E. 

The trendline must be relatively flat throughout the pattern.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Head and Shoulders Pattern  

56.

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding moving averages?   

A. 

The 50-day moving average reflects the long-term trend of the market.

B.  

An exponential moving average is a weighted average.

C. 

Moving averages are used primarily to measure trading volume.

D. 

Short-term and long-term moving averages always move in the same direction.

E. 

Moving averages are generally computed using average daily prices.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Exponential Moving Average  

57.

Assume the 50-day moving average is currently intersecting the 200-day moving average. Also assume the 50-day average is downward sloping and the 200-day average is upward sloping. Which one of the following statements is accurate based on this information?   

A. 

The 50-day moving average is bullish.

B. 

The short-term forecast is bullish.

C.  

The long-term trend may be preparing to change.

D. 

The long-term outlook is bearish.

E. 

The short-term trend will change to match the long-term trend.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Moving Averages  

58.

Bollinger bands:   

A. 

graphically reflect the differences between two moving averages.

B. 

graphically depict the relative strength of a security as compared to the market.

C. 

are a graphical representation of an exponential moving average.

D.  

depict a 2-standard deviation bound around a moving average.

E. 

are equal to the 20-day moving average plus or minus one standard deviation.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Bollinger Bands  

59.

A stock's price has been relatively constant for an extended period of time. In this instance, the Bollinger bands are:   

A.  

relatively close to each other.

B. 

non-existent.

C. 

vertical.

D. 

steeply upsloping.

E. 

steeply downsloping.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Bollinger Bands  

60.

Investors who use the MACD indicator as a signal for trading are most apt to buy a security when the MACD:   

A. 

equals zero.

B. 

is equal to 1.0.

C.  

rises above the signal line.

D. 

parallels the signal line.

E. 

falls below the signal line.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: MACD  

61.

Which of the following are considered in the computation of money flows? I. last trade price II. current trade price III. volume of each trade IV. time of each trade   

A. 

I and IV only

B. 

II and III only

C.  

I, II, and III only

D. 

II, III, and IV only

E. 

I, II, III, and IV

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Money Flow  

62.

Assume a stock's price remains relatively stable while the money flow becomes highly positive. Which one of the following is most expected given this scenario?   

A. 

price decrease

B. 

stable price

C.  

price increase

D. 

increasing trading volume

E. 

decreasing trading volume

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Money Flow  

63.

Fibonacci numbers:   

A. 

are all odd numbers of increasing value.

B.  

result in a golden mean which has an approximate value of 1.618.

C. 

are the square roots of the products of the two previous numbers in the series.

D. 

result in a phi which is approximately equal to .382.

E. 

are a series of numbers which are equal to the product of the two previous numbers.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Fibonacci Numbers  

64.

Some technical analysts use Fibonacci numbers to predict:   

A. 

primary trend breakthroughs.

B. 

market turnarounds.

C. 

secondary market trend lines.

D. 

relative performance values.

E.  

resistance and support levels.

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Fibonacci Numbers  

65.

Which one of the following is seen as a bearish indicator?   

A. 

decreased short selling

B.  

increased buying by odd-lot traders

C. 

shorter skirt lengths

D. 

a Super Bowl win by a National Football League team

E. 

tight Bollinger bands

See Section 8.7

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Remember Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Technical Indicators  

66.

A survey of 64 of your fellow classmates determines that 19 of them are bullish on the market while the remainder is bearish. What is the market sentiment index for this group of individuals?   

A. 

.28

B. 

.33

C. 

.44

D. 

.58

E.  

.70

MSI = (64 - 19)/45 = .70

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Market Sentiment Index  

67.

A recent survey indicates that 1,731 people are bearish on the market for every 1,000 that are bullish. What is the value of the market sentiment index based on this information?   

A. 

.36

B. 

.43

C. 

.57

D.  

.63

E. 

.75

MSI = 1,731/(1,731 + 1,000) = .6338

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Market Sentiment Index  

68.

Given the following information, what is the value of the advance/decline line on the third day of this 3-day period?      

A. 

-277

B. 

-198

C. 

+202

D. 

+326

E.  

+409

Value of A/D line = 1,315 + 1,650 + 1,300 - 1,416 - 1,128 - 1,312 = +409

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Advance/Decline Line  

69.

Given the following information, what is the value of the advance/decline line on the second day of this 3-day period?      

A.  

-889

B. 

-804

C. 

-294

D. 

+147

E. 

+402

Value of A/D line = 1,211 + 1,360 - 1,806 - 1,654 = -889

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Advance/Decline Line  

70.

Given the following information, what is the value of the closing Arms?      

A. 

.82

B.  

.84

C. 

.92

D. 

1.11

E. 

1.22

Arms = (621,433,125/1,310)/(851,325,120/1,512) = .8425

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Arms  

71.

Given the following information, what is the value of the closing Arms?      

A. 

0.29

B. 

0.36

C. 

0.42

D.  

2.81

E. 

3.45

Arms = (2,408,493,040/2,463)/(318,106,250/914) = 2.81

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Arms  

72.

Last year, Kathy purchased 3 shares of stock A at $50 a share. At the same time, she purchased 5 shares of stock B at $35 a share. Today, stock A is valued at $65 a share and stock B is worth $42 a share. What is the relative strength of stock A as compared to stock B?   

A. 

.84

B. 

.88

C.  

.93

D. 

1.04

E. 

1.14

Relative strength = (3 × $65)/(5 × $42) = .9286

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Relative Strength  

73.

What is the 3-day simple moving average as of day 5, given the following information?      

A. 

$35.28

B.  

$35.35

C. 

$35.41

D. 

$35.57

E. 

$35.62

3-day moving average as of day 5 = ($35.01 + $35.16 + $35.89)/3 = $35.35

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Simple Moving Average  

74.

What is the 4-day simple moving average as of day 7, given the following information?      

A. 

$42.88

B. 

$43.13

C. 

$43.22

D.  

$43.31

E. 

$44.61

4-day moving average as of day 7 = ($44.61 + $42.83 + $42.65 + $43.13)/4 = $43.305

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Simple Moving Average  

75.

What is the 3-day exponential moving average as of day 4 assuming that a weight of 70 percent is placed on the most recent price?      

A. 

$50.81

B. 

$50.84

C.  

$50.87

D. 

$50.90

E. 

$50.94

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 8.7 Topic: Exponential Moving Average  

76.

What is the 3-day exponential moving average as of day 5 assuming that a weight of 60 percent is placed on the most recent price?      

A. 

$39.04

B.  

$39.07

C. 

$39.13

D. 

$39.22

E. 

$39.28

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 8.7 Topic: Exponential Moving Average  

77.

Given the following information, what is the net money flow at the end of the trading day?      

A. 

-213,500

B.  

-103,000

C. 

91,200

D. 

187,600

E. 

257,800

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Money Flow  

78.

Given the following information, what is the net money flow at the end of the trading day?      

A. 

-290,500

B. 

-85,100

C.  

322,200

D. 

235,000

E. 

421,400

 

Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Money Flow  

79.

The series of Fibonacci numbers contains the sequential values of 610 and 987. What is the next number in this series?   

A. 

1,264

B. 

1,364

C. 

1,419

D.  

1,597

E. 

1,633

Next number = 610 + 987 = 1,597

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Fibonacci Numbers  

80.

The price of a stock increased from $32 to $38. Using phi, what are the primary and secondary support areas for the stock?   

A. 

$35.33; $33.67

B. 

$33.67; $35.33

C.  

$35.71; $34.29

D. 

$38.14; $36.99

E. 

$36.99; $38.14

Primary support = $38 - [($38 - $32) × .382] = $35.71 Secondary support = $38 - [($38 - $32) × .618] = $34.29

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 8.7 Topic: Fibonacci Numbers  

81.

Altoona Train stock increased from $18 a share to $25 a share. Based on phi, what are the primary and secondary support areas for this stock?   

A. 

$21.46; $19.19

B. 

$21.67; $20.38

C. 

$21.79; $20.11

D. 

$22.12; $20.58

E.  

$22.33; $20.67

Primary support = $25 - [($25 - $18) × .382] = $22.33 Secondary support = $25 - [($25 - $18) × .618] = $20.67

 

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Blooms: Apply Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 8.7 Topic: Fibonacci Numbers  

 

Essay Questions  

82.

Draw a basic Elliott Wave Pattern. Identify each wave and indicate the waves that are "corrective" and those that are "impulsive".   

Answer will vary Feedback: Students should draw a pattern similar to Figure 8.4 in the textbook. Waves 1-5 are "impulsive" and waves A-C are "corrective".

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-04 The wide array of technical analysis methods used by investors. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.7 Topic: Elliott Wave Pattern  

83.

Explain the basics of prospect theory and provide an example that illustrates this theory.   

Answer will vary Feedback: Prospect theory is the basic idea that investors respond more strongly to a loss than to a gain. For example, an investor may feel that it takes a gain of $3 to offset the pain of losing $1.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-01 Prospect theory. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.2 Topic: Prospect theory  

84.

Give some examples of how overconfidence affects investor behavior along with the results that might be expected based on that behavior.   

Answer will vary Feedback: Overconfidence tends to cause investors to trade too frequently, which increases trading costs. Overconfidence also causes investors to invest too heavily in their employer's securities as well as securities of firms with which they are familiar. These actions cause investor's portfolios to be too concentrated in certain securities and lack sufficient diversification. Regardless of how overconfidence is displayed, it tends to lower investor returns.

 

Blooms: Understand Learning Objective: 08-02 The implications of investor overconfidence and misperceptions of randomness. Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 8.3 Topic: Overconfidence  

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