PSY 525

ISBN 13: 978-0-205-48350-1

Authorts): Cecil R. Reynolds and Ronald B. Livingston

Publisher: Pearson

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. Performance on pure tests are assessed based on time, while pure _ tests are assessed based on d ifficu Ity.

a. speed; power

b. power; speed

c. achievement; maximum performance

d. maximum performance; achievement

2. Which scores would be interpreted appropriately for measuring a student's mastery of a specific domain of knowledge?

a. Norm-referenced scores

b. Criterion-referenced scores

c. Standardized-referenced scores

d. Projective-referenced scores

3. A classroom teacher gives her students a final exam that is the basis for 50 of their final grade in the course. This is an example of which type of evaluation?

a. Projective evaluation

b. Summative evaluation

c. Formative evaluation

d. Feedback evaluation

4. The majority of assessment information collected by most teachers comes from:

a. professionally developed tests.

b. state-wide tests.

c. performance tests.

d. teacher made tests.

5. Susan has been evaluated and determined to be learning disabled. This is an example of:

a. assignment.

b. classification.

c. placement

d. selection.

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6. The Scholastic Achievement Test (SAT) is arn).

a. pure speed test.

b. maximum performance test.

c. typical response test.

d. projective test.

7. If the range of one or both variables is restricted, the resulting correlation coefficient will likely:

a. be decreased.

b. be increased.

c. remain the same.

d. either increase or decrease depending on the calculations.

8.

Correlation imply causation.

a. does

b. does not

c. might, depending on the scale of measurement

d. none of the above

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9. The correlation between two variables is 0.70. Using the concept of the coefficient of determination, the proportion of variance that is determined or predictable from

the relationship between the two measures is:

a.

14.

b.

30.

c.

49.

d.

70.

10. A special mathematical procedure for predicting scores on one variable (criterion or Y) given a score on another (predictor or X) is:

a. correlational analysis.

b. linear regression.

c. regression analysis.

d. prediction constant.

11. Why would a psychologist feel that the variance might be difficult to interpret?

a. It is a non I i near transformation.

b. It is an area transformation.

c. It may be a negative number.

d. It uses squared raw score units.

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12. In a normal distribution, what percentage of scores will fall between one standard deviation below the mean and one standard deviation above the mean?

a. 16

b. 34

c. 68

d. 84

13. The" Flyn n Effect" refers to:

a. decreases in IQ observed during the 20th century.

b. decreases in SAT scores observed during the 20th century.

c. increases in SAT scores observed during the 20th century.

d. increases in IQ observed during the 20th century.

14.

Wechsler subtest scaled scores have a mean of

a. 0; 1

b. 10; 3

c. 50; 10

d. 500; 100

and a standard deviation of .

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15. The norms for a standardized intelligence test describe the:

a. ideal level of performance.

b. minimum acceptable level of performance.

c. performance of a specified group.

d. performance of a successfu I grou p.

16. A percentile rank of __ indicates performance at the median of the reference group.

a. 49

b. 49.5

c. 50

d. 51

17. interpretations can be appl ied to a wider variety of tests than _

interpretations.

a. Criterion-referenced; norm-referenced

b. Norm-referenced; criterion-referenced

c. Both are about equal in their applications.

d. None of the above

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18. CEEB (SAT/GRE) scores have a mean of __ and a standard deviation of .

a. 0; 1

b. 50; 10

c. 100; 15

d. 500; 100

19. Sally's obtained score on a statistics exam is 75. The SEM is 2. With what confidence interval would we capture her true score 68 of the time?

a. 71 to 79

b. 73 to 77

c. 69t081

d. 70t080

20. The average of all possible split-half coefficients is known as:

a. Coefficient alpha.

b. correlation coefficient.

c. alternate form reliability.

d. Spearman-Brown coefficient.

21. The Spearman-Brown formula is used to:

a. correct a split-half reliability coefficient.

b. estimate construct reliability.

c. perform a curvi I i near transformation of the scores.

d. perform a I i near transformation of the scores.

22. is a result of transient events in the test taker (fatigue, illness, etc.) and the

testing environment (temperature, noise level, etc.).

a. Administration error

b. Content sampling error

c. Temporal instability

d. Systematic measurement error

23. The rei iabi I ity index reflects the correlation between:

a. true scores and observed scores.

b. true scores and measurement error.

c. observed scores and measurement error.

d. true scores and true scores.

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24. What happens to the size of confidence intervals as reliability coefficients increase?

a. They decrease.

b. They increase.

c. They remain the same.

d. It is indeterminate: it depends on the construct being measured.

25. is a useful index when comparing the reliability of the scores produced by

different tests, but when the focus is on interpreting the test scores of individuals, the _____ is more practical.

a. Reliability Coefficient; Standard Error of Measurement

b. Standard Error of Measurement; Rei iabi I ity Coefficient

c. Standard Error of Estimate; Coefficient Alpha

d. Standard Error of Estimate; Rei iabi I ity Coefficient

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1.

There exists a relatively sophisticated validation technique referred to as that

combi nes convergent and divergent strategies.

a. analysis of variance

b. factor analysis

c. linear regression

d. multitrait-multimethod matrix

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2. Which factor analytic method analyzes only shared variance while excluding unique and error variance?

a. Component Factor Analysis

b. Confirmatory Factor Analysis

c. Principal Component Analysis

d. Principal Factor Analysis

3. After examinees complete a math reasoning test, they are interviewed by researchers on what processes and strategies they engaged in when completing the test. Which

type of validity evidence are these researchers collecting?

a. Validity evidence based on consequences of testing.

b. Validity evidence based on test content.

c. Validity evidence based on relations to other variables.

d. Validity evidence based on response processes.

4. Which type of validity evidence can best be strengthened by the use of a table of specifications?

a. Validity evidence based on consequences of testing.

b. Validity evidence based on test content.

c. Validity evidence based on relations to other variables.

d. Validity evidence based on response processes.

5. is the most common approach to establishing the validity of academic

achievement tests.

a. Validity evidence based on consequences of testing.

b. Validity evidence based on test content.

c. Validity evidence based on relations to other variables.

d. Validity evidence based on response processes.

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6. Test-criterion validity evidence is an example of:

a. validity evidence based on consequences of testing.

b. validity evidence based on test content.

c. validity evidence based on relations to other variables.

d. validity evidence based on response processes.

7. What percentage of the Exam i nation for Professional Practice on Psychology covers the Biological Basis of Behavior content area?

a. 5

b. 11

c. 21

d. 32

8. Performance on the EPPP is reported in which score format?

a. Raw scores

b. Scaled scores

c. T scores

d. Z scores

9. What is Step 2 of the United States Medical Licensing Examination?

a. Clinical knowledge and clinical skills

b. Computer based multiple-choice assessment

c. Computer based multiple-choice assessment with computer based case simulation

d. Patient simulations

10. An important test-taking skill to teach students is:

a. "Do not answer questions you are not sure of."

b. "Never return to a question and change your answer."

c. "Get through the test as quickly as possible."

d. "Make informed guesses by process of elimination."

11. The National Assessment of Educational Progress provides a comprehensive assessment of students' achievement at certain critical periods in their academic experience. These grade levels are:

a. 2nd, 6th, and 10th.

b. 4th, 8th, and 12th.

c. 5th, 7th, and 11th.

d. 6th, 8th, 12th.

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12. What law mandates that any institution that receives federal funds must ensure that individuals with disabilities have equal access to all programs and services provided by the institution?

a. No Child Left Behind Act 2001

b. Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973

c. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004

d. The Education of All Handicapped Children Act of 1975

13. Deductive and inductive logic are considered the hallmarks of which broad ability domain under CHC theory?

a. Comprehension-knowledge

b. Fluid reasoning

c. Processing ability

d. Static reasoning

14. The Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales is normed for individuals between the ages

of and

a. 2; 85

b. 3; 94

c. 6; 16

d. 16; 89

15. Regarding research on intelligence, Cattell is best known for:

a. identifying seven Primary Mental Abilities.

b. P-A-S-S Theory

c. C-H-C Theory

d. Two-Factor Theory, which hypothesizes the existence of crystallized and fluid intelligence

16. Which intelligence theory has served as the foundation for most modern IQ tests?

a. CHC Theory

b. PASS Theory

c. Spearman's two-factor model

d. Wechsler's theory of general and fluid intelligence

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17. Which intelligence test is co-normed with a supplementary memory scale?

a. Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales

b. Stanford-B i net I ntell igence Scales, 5th ed it ion

c. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, 3rd edition

d. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, 4th edition

18. The Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales produce which of the following factor scores?

a. Fluid reasoning

b. Short-term memory

c. Verbal I ntell igence Index

d. Verbal IQ

19. The most widely used projective drawing technique is the:

a. Bicycle Drawing Task

b. Draw-A-Person test

c. House- Tree-Person

d. Kinetic Family Drawing

20. Who developed a comprehensive system that integrated the most empirically supported features of the existi ng systems for scori ng the Rorschach I nkblot test?

a. Binet

b. Exner

c. Freud

d. Woodworth

21. Which collaboration between a client and a psychologist begins with the client identifying the questions they need answered in their life to better deal with their current struggles, then attempts to answer those questions using psychological tests?

a. Ipsative Assessment

b. Oblique Assessment

c. Practical Assessment

d. Therapeutic Assessment

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22.

The is an example of a theoretically based contemporary objective personality

test.

a. MMPI-2

b. Rorschach Inkblot Test

c. MMPI-2-RF

d. MCMI-III

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23. Which personality test contains scales such as neuroticism and agreeableness?

a. MCMI-III

b. Thematic Apperception Test

c. MMPI-2

d. NEO Personality Inventory

24. Which personality test examines dichotomies, such as Thinking - Feeling, that are thought to reflect personal preferences?

a. Rorschach Ink Blot Test

b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

c. MMPI-2

d. Neo Personality Inventory

25. There is research supporting the psychometric properties of projective

personality tests. These instruments remain among clinicians.

a. considerable; unpopular

b. considerable; popular

c. little; unpopular

d. little; popular

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. The Vineland - II Expanded Interview Form is recommended for use with which population?

a. Low functioning individuals

b. High functioning individuals

c. Secondary school students

d. All of the above

2. Dr. Hancock plans to administer the CASE to an 82 year old female that he suspects may have intelligence and neuropsychological deficits. Which screening scale should he look at to determine if further neuropsychological testing is warranted?

a. Adaptive scale

b. Cognitive Competency scale

c. Daily Functioning scale

d. Intelligence scale

3.

The screening version of the CASE does not include the scale.

a. Infrequency

b. Social Desirability

c. Validity scale

d. None of the above

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4. An advantage of direct observation over behavior rating scales is that direct observation provides:

a. true nominal scale data.

b. true ordinal scale data.

c. true interval scale data.

d. true ratio scale data.

5. A crucial component of a direct observation system that contributes to good inter-rater rei iabi I ity is:

a. momentary time sampling.

b. multiple observers.

c. specific operational definitions of behavior.

d. well defined antecedents and consequences.

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6. Continuous performance tests are highly sensitive to symptoms associated with abnormalities of the:

a. auditory cortex.

b. executive control system.

c. primary motor cortex.

d. visual cortex.

7. When validating selection methods and tools, Hoffman, et al (1991) found that ____ showed correlations around zero.

a. self-appraisals

b. supervisor rankings

c. supervisor ratings

d. work samples

8. A rater completes a Likert-type scale on an employee's performance. This type of rating system is:

a. absolute.

b. highly biased.

c. criterion based.

d. relative.

9. Which set of guidelines was developed by the Society of Industrial and Organizational Psychology?

a. Guidelines for the Validation of Selection Procedures

b. Principles for the Validation and Use of Personnel Selection Procedures, 4th edition

c. Strong I nterest I nventory, Revised Ed ition

d. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures

10. Which prominent female psychologist, who worked for Aetna Life Insurance Company, was one of the first to note the potential advantages of using a battery of tests, rather than a

si ngle test?

a. Dr. Elsie Oschrin Bregman

b. Dr. Lillian Moller Gilbreth

c. Dr. Marion A. Bills

d. Dr. Mary H.S. Hayes

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1l. Which of the Big 5 Personality Dimensions refers to being imaginative, cultured, and artistically sensitive?

a. Agreeableness

b. Conscientiousness

c. Extraversion

d. Openness to Experience

12. Which personnel selection method is most likely to result in differences by race or gender?

a. Assessment Centers

b. Cognitive Ability Tests

c. Interviews

d. Work Sample Tests

13. On the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery, the hypothesized localization of the Finger Tapping and Grip Strength tests is the:

a. frontal lobes.

b. occipital lobes.

c. parietal lobes.

d. temporal lobes.

14. The Auditory Perception Test on the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery is used to assess sensory-perceptual skills that are hypothesized to be located in the:

a. frontal lobe.

b. occipital lobe.

c. parietal lobe.

d. temporal lobe.

15. A neuropsychological instrument used to assess attention is:

a. the Boston Naming Test - 2.

b. Conner's Continuous Performance Test - III.

c. the Stroop Test.

d. the Tower of London.

16. Which of the following dementi as produces significant motor disturbance?

a. Alzheimer'S Disease

b. Frontal lobe dementia

c. Parkinson's dementia

d. Vascular dementia

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17.

______ is/are the most common cause of brain injury due to toxins.

a. b. c. d.

Alcohol

Heavy metals Methamphetamine Pesticides

18. An existing neuropsychological test that is quite resistant to brain damage and can serve as a measure of effort is:

a. digit span backward.

b. digit span forward.

c. phonemic fluency.

d. semantic fluency.

19. Which Supreme Court case most recently outlined the criteria of admissibility of scientific evidence?

a. Atkins v. United States

b. Atkins v. Virginia

c. Daubert v. Merrill Dow

d. Plessy v. Texas

20.

In clinical settings are primary, whereas forensic evaluations more commonly

address _

a. broad issues; narrowly defined issues or events

b. narrow issues; broad issues or events

c. narrow issues; only legal issues

d. subjective personality tests; objective personality tests

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21. In what context is the threat of conscious and intentional distortion greatest?

a.

Clinical

b.

Counseling

c.

Forensic

d.

School

22. What has been found to be predictive of high error rates in clinical diagnoses?

a. Lack of neuroimaging studies conducted

b. A clinician with extremely high levels of confidence

c. A clinician new to the field

d. The administration of neuropsychological tests

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23.

Studies on the Flynn Effect have observed an increase of points per year in average

IQs.

a. 0.2

b. 0.3

c. 0.5

d. 0.8

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24. Who is credited with discovering that the presence of an audience enhances your performance if you are very familiar with a task but decreases your performance if you have Ii m ited or no ta lent for the task?

a. Norman Triplett

b. Rensis Li kert

c. Robert Zajonc

d. Wilhelm Wundt

25. An individual with a mild traumatic brain injury who had initial, temporary deficits now reports severe memory loss and an inability to return to work. This is technically referred to as:

a. faking.

b. malingering.

c. perjury.

d. feigning.

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. Which court case resulted in the use of IQ tests with Black children being prohibited in California public schools?

a. Diana v. State Board of Education

b. Larry P. v. Riles

c. Marshall v. Georgia

d. PASE v. Hannon

2. What is one significant benefit of having minority judges review the items?

a. They are particularly good at identifying biased items.

b. Then can identify items that will likely be misunderstood.

c. They can identify items that are offensive.

d. They can identify examiner biases.

3. What is the result if the same slope but different intercepts are found for different ethnic groups in a prediction bias study?

a. Homogeneity of regression

b. Parallel regression lines that produce constant bias in prediction

c. Nonparallel regression lines

d. Confluent regression lines

4. Test applications that result in valid predictions for one group, but invalid predictions in another group are referred to as:

a. b. c. d.

having cultural validity.

havi ng differential predictive val idity. measuring homogeneous constructs. homogeneity of regression.

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5.

______ is present when a test makes more valid predictions for one group than for

another.

a. Differential rei iabi I ity

b. Differential validity

c. Heterogeneous rei iabi I ity

d. Heterogeneous validity

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6. When using Item Response Theory to identify biased items, one typically compares the ___ of two different groups yielding an index of Differential Item Function.

a. means

b. standard deviations

c. item characteristic curves

d. factor structures

7. Fuchs (2002) notes that one of the prominent strategies for examining the validity of

assessment accommodations is to look for of the accommodation between

examinees with and without disabilities.

a. common effects

b. differential effects

c. oblique effects

d. orthogonal effects

8. What is one guideline provided by Dr. Phillips regarding test accommodations?

a. Accommodations must be the same for all students with disabilities.

b. Any accommodation requested must be granted.

c. 3-months is considered adequate notice in most assessment programs.

d. Accommodations should be individualized.

9. Which accommodation is NOT allowed by the Texas Education Agency?

a. Calculators during certain tests

b. Read i ng aloud to the student the read i ng portion of the test

c. Oral administration of the math test

d. Signing the prompt on the writing test

10. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act requires that public schools provide students with disabilities atn):

a. Cost Effective Public Education.

b. Equal Opportunity Public Education.

c. Free Appropriate Public Education.

d. Limited Cost Public Education.

11. What is the main limitation of using an alternate assessment in providing an assessment accommodation?

a. It is difficult to find satisfactory alternate assessments.

b. Generalizing results is not possible with alternate assessments.

c. Only students with severe disabilities can use alternate assessments.

d. Results tend to be less psychometrically sound.

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12. Courts have ruled that test administrators are not required to grant accommodations:

a. on high-stakes assessments.

b. to students with mild disabilities.

c. that involve mod ifications of setti ng.

d. that invalidate the interpretation of scores.

13. According to research by Grove and Meehl (1996), which approach to interpreting assessment data is more accurate?

a.

Actuarial

b.

Clinical

c.

Impression istic

d.

Qualitative

14. Grove and Meehl postulated several reasons clinicians have not adopted statistical approaches for i nterpreti ng assessment information. Wh ich reason did the authors state was the biggest culprit?

a. Fear of being replaced by a computer

b. Attachment to specific psychological theories

c. An education that does not instill a preference for scientific inquiry

d. Belief that actuarial approaches dehumanize clients

15. It is a best practice to select assessments with normative data that are representative of

the population.

a. general

b. minority

c. target

d. diverse

16. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the test taker?

a. Preparing for the assessment

b. Following the directions

c. Not i nterferi ng with the performance of other students

d. I nterpreti ng the resu Its

17. Allowing your personal impressions of an examinee to influence your evaluation of their performance, in either a positive or negative manner, is referred to as a/the:

a. test bias.

b. expectancy effect.

c. self-fulfilling prophecy.

d. prejudice.

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18. Cautioning users, in a clear and prominent language, against the most likely misinterpretations and misuses of data that arise out of the assessment development

process is a responsi bi I ity of a professional who assessments.

a. develops

b. takes

c. scores

d. markets

19. The student will be able to correctly describe each step in the completed geometric proof.

This is an example of an objective at which level of Bloom's Taxonomy?

a. Analysis

b. Comprehension

c. Evaluation

d. Synthesis

20. After the test blueprint coverage is constructed, what is the next step in test development?

a. Complete reliability studies.

b. Determine and describe the item formats.

c. Plan validity studies.

d. Complete analyses for detecting biased items.

2l. When writing items for a new test, what "rule of thumb" has been verified repeatedly over decades of test development?

a. Draft the exact number of items you expect to need on the test.

b. Draft at least twice as many items as you expect to need on the test.

c. Draft at least three times as many items as you expect to need on the test.

d. Draft at least four times as many items as you expect to need on the test.

22. What is the first step in deciding on a sampling plan?

a. Administer the test to the individuals in the sample.

b. Describe the target population.

c. Determine the percentage of people with specific characteristics needed to make the sample representative.

d. Obtain a true random sample of the population.

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23. What type of score should be used if an examiner wants to compare the examinee's score to a reference group?

a. Cut-scores

b. Criterion-referenced scores

c. Raw scores

d. Standard scores

24. What type of score would be appropriate to answer the question: "Has John's performance in language arts reached a predetermined level?"

a. Criterion-referenced score

b. Norm-referenced score

c. I RT-based score

d. Standard score

25. Inter-rater reliability is particularly important with:

a. speed tests.

b. tests producing norm-referenced scores.

c. tests producing criterion-referenced scores.

d. tests that require subjective judgment in scoring.

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