pPSY 540 final

ISBN-I0: 0205666272, ISBN-13: 9780205666270

Authors: Neil R. Carlson

Publisher: Allyn & Bacon

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. The portion of a neuron that carries information toward the cell body is the

a. dendrite

b. axon terminal

c. presynaptic membrane

d. soma

e. glial membrane

2. The physical gap that carries a neural message between two nerve cells is the

a. glial junction

b. axon contact

c. synapse

d. dendritic apposition

e. neural gap

3. Synapses are most commonly formed between atn) and a(n) _

a. axon terminal; dendrite

b. dendrite; soma

c. soma; glial

d. glial; dendrite

e. dendrite; axon terminal

4. The membrane of a nerve cell is comprised of _

a. protein molecules

b. vesicle remnants

c. a double layer of lipid molecules

d. cytoplasm

e. a single layer of lipid molecules interfaced with a layer of protein molecules.

5. The neuron is the most common nerve cell type in the central nervous system.

a. apolar

b. multiglial

c. unipolar

d. bipolar

e. multipolar

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6. A key function of the nerve cell is to transmit sensory information.

a. apolar

b. multipolar

c. unipolar

d. bipolar

e. C and D are correct.

7. Loss of dendritic branches on temperature and touch.

a. bipolar neurons

b. multipolar neurons

c. unipolar neurons

d. apolar neurons

e. motor neurons

. would be expected to impair the ability to sense

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8. Neurotransmitter molecules are most commonly secreted from the _

a. gl ial cell

b. dendrite

c. axon terminal

d. dendritic apposition

e. soma

9. A key function of specialized lipid molecules located in the nerve cell is to _

a. detect the presence of hormones outside the cell

b. form the membrane

c. form channels to carry ions in and out of the cell

d. transport molecules into the cell

e. transport vesicles within the neuron

10. Match up the internal cell structure with the function most closely associated with that structure.

a. Nucleolus; Production of cytoplasm

b. Ribosomes; Production of DNA

c. Lipid bilayer; Production of ribosomes

d. Nucleolus; Production of ribosomes

e. mR NA; Production of cytoplasm

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11. Cross-sections that resemble those of a salami and are perpendicular to the neuraxis are

produced by a section of the human brain.

a. transverse

b. horizontal

c. sagittal

d. frontal

e. A and D are correct.

12. In which view of the brain would one be able to note the presence of a specific structure in both hem ispheres?

a. Cross-medial

b. Frontal

c. Sagittal

d. Parasagittal

e. Either A or D are correct.

13. A section is made through the human brain and is parallel to the ground,

and a section through the spinal cord is parallel to the ground.

a. transverse; horizontal

b. horizontal; transverse

c. sagittal; midsagittal

d. frontal; coronal

e. parasagittal; midsagittal

14. A section made perpendicular to the ground and parallel to the neuraxis

through a human brain divides the brain into two symmetrical halves.

a. parasagittal

b. horizontal

c. midsagittal

d. frontal

e. A and B are correct.

15. The is formed by the cranial nerves and spinal nerves, plus the peripheral

ganglia.

a. Enteric Nervous System

b. Automatic Nervous System

c. Peripheral Nervous System

d. Somatic Nervous System

e. Central Nervous System

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16. Which of the following is true of fuel use by the brain?

a. Brain cells are able to use all fuels other than glucose.

b. The brain is always the last in line for new fuel.

c. The flow of blood to the brain depends on its momentary activity.

d. Interruption of blood flow for even a few seconds impairs brain function.

e. A and C are correct.

17. The brain and spinal cord form the _

a. Systemic Nervous System

b. Automatic Nervous System

c. Peripheral Nervous System

d. Somatic Nervous System

e. Central Nervous System

18. The bony covering that provides protection for the brain is termed the _

a. vertebral column

b. skull

c. blood-bone barrier

d. meninges

e. All of the above are correct.

19. The is a tough protective sheath that covers the brain and that lies closest to

the skull.

a. dura mater

b. pia mater

c. dorsa mater

d. subarachnoid membrane

e. midsagittal sinus

20. The brain floats within fluid, which is contained within the _

a. intracellular; pia mater

b. cerebrospinal; subarachnoid space

c. cerebrospinal; blood vessels

d. interstitial; subarachnoid space

e. extracellular; dura mater

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21. The is the middle layer of the brain meninges.

a. dura mater

b. pia mater

c. dorsa mater

d. arachnoid membrane

e. midsagittal sinus

22. In the peripheral nervous system, the and the fuse together to

form a single sheath that protects the spinal and cranial nerves and the autonomic ganglia.

a. dura mater; pia mater

b. arachnoid layer; dura mater

c. meninges; dura mater

d. arachnoid membrane; pia mater

e. glla, astrocytes

23. The four hollow and interconnected spaces within the brain form the _

a. choroid plexi

b. supra-arachnoid spaces

c. ventricles

d. meninges

e. spinal aqueducts

24. Which of the following is true of CSF?

a. CSF is produced within the venous sinuses.

b. CSF flows from the lateral ventricles toward the fourth ventricle.

c. CSF is produced in the fourth ventricle and flows toward the fifth ventricle.

d. CSF is a by-product of nerve cell activity.

e. CSF production is sped up during a seizure.

25. Brain CSF is secreted by the _

a. choroid plexus

b. subarachnoid villi

c. neurons of the hypothalamus

d. meninges

e. spinal aqueducts

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26. CSF flows from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle via the _

a. choroid plexi

b. subarachnoid spaces

c. massa intermedia

d. arachnoid granu lations

e. cerebral aqueduct

27. CSF is reabsorbed via the _

a. arachnoid granulations

b. choroid plexus

c. foramen of Magendie

d. nodes of Ranvier

e. dura mater

28. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding CSF?

a. CSF is produced by the choroid plexus.

b. The total brain volume of CSF is about 125 ml.

c. CSF functions to cush ion the brai n agai nst sharp movements.

d. More than 12 hours is required to replace half of the CSF volume in a human brain.

e. Loss of CSF would result in compression of brain tissue onto the ventral skull surface.

29. CSF is produced within the and reabsorbed into the blood by the

a. subarachnoid villi; choroid plexus

b. blood-brai n barrier; choroid plexus

c. gut; ventricles

d. ventricles; arachnoid granulations

e. Band C are correct.

30. Interruption of the flow of CSF through the brain ventricles results in _

a. anencephalus

b. ischemic stroke

c. Parkinson's disease

d. ALS

e. hydrocephalus

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3l. The perceptual attribute of best corresponds to the relative purity of a light

stimulus.

a. saturation

b. brightness

c. hue

d. threshold

e. contrast

32. Hue is to wavelength as saturation is to _

a. brightness

b. intensity

c. concentration

d. purity

e. threshold

33. Variation in the of a light will result in variation in the perception of

a. wavelength; brightness

b. saturation; brightness

c. wavelength; saturation

d. intensity; purity

e. wavelength; hue

34. The is me memorane that prevents a contact lens from slipping into the

space behind the eyeball.

a. iris

b. cornea

c. conjunctiva

d. vitreous humor

e. sclera

35. The term refers to the bony cavities that contain our eyes.

a. orbit

b. optic disk

c. optic sinus

d. conjunctiva

e. optic ossicle

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36. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the size of the _

a. optic orbits

b. lens

c. sclera

d. pupil

e. conjunctiva

37. Damage to the muscles that connect the orbits with the sclera would be expected

to _

a. reduce the diameter of the pupil

b. impair movements of an eye

c. change the rate of eye-blinking

d. impair the ability of a person to blink to an air puff

e. increase the diameter of the pupil

38. The rods and cones are collectively referred to as _

a. photoreceptors

b. the hemiretina

c. the fovea

d. ganglion cells

e. vitreous humor

39. The process ur accomruonatton InVOlVeS _

a. the lens becoming smaller as one ages

b. contraction of the ciliary muscles to constrict the pupil

c. contraction of the ciliary muscles to dilate the pupil

d. hardening of the lens as one ages

e. the lens becoming more rounded to focus on near objects

40. A unique feature of the fovea is that it _

a. mediates vision in dim light

b. contains mostly cone photoreceptors

c. is devoid of photoreceptors

d. contains mostly rods

e. is unable to distinguish fine detail

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41. Rods in the retina _

a. allow us to detect colors

b. are good at detecting fine details in the visual field

c. are more sensitive to light than are cones

d. are most numerous at the optic disk

e. are fewer in number than are cones

42. The retinal optic disk is _

a. a region within retina that has the best visual acuity

b. where the rods are most densely packed

c. where the cones are most densely packed

d. where axons leave the eye and joi n the optic nerve

e. where visual signals begin to diverge laterally

43. Axons that arise from the cells form the optic nerve.

a. horizontal

b. bipolar

c. ganglion

d. amacrine

e. photoreceptors

44. The explanation for our "blind spot" in the visual field is that _

a. the lens cannot focus all of the visual field onto the retina

b. blood vessels collect together and enter the eye at the blind spot

c. rods are less sensitive to light than are cones

d. retinal cells die with age and overuse, resulting in blind spots

e. there are no photoreceptors in the retina where the axons exit the eye

45. Which of the following is true of the primate retina?

a. There are three different rod types within the retina.

b. The ganglion cells exhibit the greatest number of neuron types in the retina.

c. The retina contains one type of cone.

d. Photoreceptors form synapses with ganglion cells.

e. The retina contains about 55 different neuron types.

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46. A unique feature of the retinal circuitry is that _

a. there are more cones than rods in the retina

b. light must pass through the circuitry in order to stimulate the photoreceptors.

c. the rods are packed together at the center of the retina.

d. rods send signals through cones, which then activate the ganglion cells.

e. photoreceptors do not influence the activity of surrounding nerve cells.

47. The cells receive information from the photoreceptors and pass it on to the

ganglion cells.

a. amacrine

b. horizontal

c. bipolar

d. cones

e. photopigments

48. Which of the following do NOT belong together?

a. Rods; Sensitive to low levels of light

b. Cones; Provide excellent visual acuity

c. Cones; Provide information about hue

d. Rods; Most prevalent in the central retina

e. Blind spot; Lack of photoreceptors

49. Which of the following neuron types transmit information in a plane parallel to the surface of the reti no?

a. Amacrine

b. Multipolar

c. Bipolar

d. Unipolar

e. Nociceptor

50. Another name for the eardrum is the _

a. outer membrane

b. basilar membrane

c. tectorial membrane

d. tympanic membrane

e. pinna

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51. The ossicles are found within the _

a. outer ear

b. inner ear

c. Organ of Corti

d. pinna

e. middle ear

52. The cochlea is located within the _

a. outer ear

b. inner ear

c. Organ of Corti

d. pinna

e. middle ear

53. The ossicles are _

a. receptive cells in the inner ear

b. positioned with i n the pi n na of the ear

c. auditory receptors

d. tiny bones located within the middle ear

e. neurons that innervate the middle ear

54. The malleus, incus, and stapes _

a. are ti ny bonos located with i n the outer ear

b. are located within the middle ear

c. provide a mechanical advantage for transferring sound energy to the inner ear

d. are the formal names for the oval, round, and tympanic membranes, respectively

e. Band C are correct.

55. The mechanical stimulus that induces movements of the hair cells is the _

a. movement of the stapes against the oval window

b. contraction of the muscle fibers within the middle ear

c. movement of the malleus against the round window

d. movement of the stapes against the round window

e. movement of the scala tympani

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56. Movement of the basilar membrane farthest away from the oval window is maximal for a

a. very low pitch

b. low pitch

c. medium pitch

d. high pitch

e. very high pitch

57. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Organ of Corti?

a. Hair cells

b. Basilar membrane

c. Tympanic membrane

d. Tectorial membrane

e. Deiters's cells

58. Deafness caused by blockage of the can be treated _

a. oval window; by cochlear implants

b. round window; by drilling a tiny hole to create a round window

c. pinna; the fenestration surgical procedure

d. middle ear; high doses of ampicillin

e. scala media; by cochlear implants

59. The hair-like appendages that extend from the ends of the auditory receptors are known as

a. cilia

b. rods

c. intrafusal fibers

d. extrafusal fibers

e. villi

60. The ratio of inner to outer hair cells In the human cochlea is approximately _

a. 1: 1 b.4:1 c. 1:4 d.4:2 e.2:7

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61. The force that causes the tips of the hair cells to bend in response to movement of the basilar

membrane arises from the _

a. linkage between the hair cells and the tectorial membrane

b. mechanical linkage between the hair cells and the tympanic membrane

c. movement of the round window

d. movement of the hair cells through the tectorial membrane

e. movement of fluid past the tips of the hair cells

62. Adjacent cilia on a hair cell are joined together by _

a. strands of actin

b. the outer edges of the tectorial membrane

c. tip links

d. insertional plaques

e. intrafusal fibers

63. The receptor potential of a hair cell is triggered by movements that _

a. allow the entry of sodium ions into the hair cell

b. open a channel to potassium in the insertional plaque

c. allow the efflux of potassium ions out of the hair cell

d. close a channel to potassium in the insertional plaque

e. allow chloride ions to flow into the cilia

64. Whether ion channels open or close within the hair cell, cilia _

a. is a function of the voltage of the cilia membrane

b. reflect the action of a second messenger within the cilia

c. is controlled by ionotropic membrane receptors

d. reflects tension exerted by the tip links on the insertional plaques

e. involves the breakdown of cyclic AMP

65. The branch of the eighth cranial nerve that conducts auditory signals to the brain is

called the _

a. auditory lemniscus

b. Organ of Corti

c. somatoacoustic nerve

d. trigeminal nerve

e. cochlear nerve

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66. Which of the following is true of the neurons of the cochlear nerve?

a. The neurons of this nerve are of the bipolar type.

b. The cell bodies of these neurons are located within the medulla.

c. The neurons of this nerve are of the multipolar type.

d. These nerve cells are hyperpolarized by release of transmitter from the hair cells.

e. These cells conduct local potentials. which can produce action potentials in downstream nerve cells.

67. Which of the following is true of hair cells?

a. Most afferent axons form connections with the outer hair cells.

b. Damage to the inner hair cells impairs hearing.

c. Outer hair cells playa more important role in hearing than do inner hair cells.

d. Thin unmyelinated axons form connections with inner hair cells.

e. Thick myelinated axons form connections with outer hair cells.

68. A mutation that resulted in the loss of inner hair cells within the Organ of Corti would be

expected to result in _

a. a difficulty in locating the source of a sound

b. impairment of hearing

c. the inability to detect differences in sound intensity

d. the inability to detect differences between different musical instruments

e. All of the above are correct.

69_ The neurotransmitter at the afferent synapses of the auditory nerve is • which

acts to produce within the nerve axons.

a. acetylcholine; EPSPs

b. GABA; EPSPs

c. glutamate; IPSPs

d. glutamate; EPSPs

e. acetylcholine; IPSPs

70. The term refers to an aqueous solution whose solute concentration is less

than that of the intracellular fluid.

a. hypertonic

b. isotonic

c. hypovolemic

d. cytoplasmic

e. hypoton ic

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71. A key reason why the volume of blood must be regulated within certain limits is that

a. reduced blood volume causes water to move out of cells

b. reduced blood volume causes water to move into cells

c. low blood volume leads to better pumping action in the heart

d. low blood volume leads to heart failure

e. high blood volume leads to low blood pressure

72. A correctional mechanism for low blood volume involves _

a. the movement of urine into the blood through the kidney

b. movement of water into cells

c. a fasting pumping action in the heart

d. a slower pumping action in the heart

e. contracti ng the m use les of the arteries and vei ns

73. To maintain proper fluid balance the body contains two sets of receptors, one that measures

the volume of the and the other that records the volume of the

a. cerebrospinal fluid; cells

b. extracellular fluid; cells

c. blood; cells

d. interstitial fluid; intravascular

e. sodium ions; blood

74.

_______ thirst refers to drinking provoked by the loss of blood plasma.

a. Intravascular

b. Volumetric

c. Extravascular

d. Osmometric

e. Transvascular

75. Water loss from the body through evaporation results in _

a. a loss of interstitial fluid

b. an increased concentration of solute within the interstitial fluid

c. movement of water out of the cells

d. loss of water from the plasma

e. All of the above are correct.

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76. Osmoreceptors are specialized ne rons that detect _

a. changes in solute concentration of the interstitial fluid around the cell

b. the concentration of renin within the blood

c. angiotensin concentration in blood

d. osmotic pressure within the blood plasma

e. blood plasma solute concent ation

77. Osmoreceptors change their firing rate in response to _

a. the angiotensin concentration in blood

b. the concentration of renin within the blood

c. movement of water out of the osmoreceptor as the interstitial fluid becomes hypertonic

d. osmotic pressure within the blood plasma

e. blood plasma volume

78. A potent stimulus for producing osmometric thirst involves _

a. evaporation from the lungs during the winter months

b. vomiting during illness

c. loss of blood after an automobile trauma

d. ingestion of a bag of salted potato chips

e. perspiration

79. The location of osmoreceptors within the brain is within the _

a. zone i ncerta

b. area postrema

c. supraoptic nucleus

d. nucleus accumbens

e. lamina terminalis

80. The regions of the lamina terminalis contain osmoreceptors.

a. medial and dorsal

b. OVLT and subfornical organ

c. area postrema and OVLT

d. commissural

e. posterior

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8l. Activation of the anterior cingulate cortex would be expected to _

a. blunt fluid intake in response to a hypotonic fluid challenge

b. lower blood pressure

c. produce overeating to obesity

d. produce thirst

e. result in a hypotonic blood volume

82. Imaging studies in humans given a hypertonic thirst challenge suggests that the ______ is involved in the unpleasantness of osmometric thirst, while the ______ detects the tonicity of the blood plasma.

a. anterior cingulate cortex; lamina terminalis

b. insular cortex; medial amygdala

c. lamina terminalis; anterior cingulate cortex

d. subforn ical forn ical organ; area postrema

e. medial amygdala; insular cortex

83. Which of the following activates the hypovolemic thirst system without an action on osmometric thirst?

a. Evaporation of water from the lungs

b. Vomiting during illness

c. Loss of blood after an automobile trauma

d. Ingestion of a bag of salted potato chips

e. Band C are correct.

84. An important physiological effect of angiotensin II is to _

a. promote the consumption of water

b. increase the release of hormones that cause the kidneys to conserve water and sodium.

c. increase blood pressure

d. promote the consumption of salt

e. All of the above are correct.

85. The two stimuli that evoke hypovolemic thirst are and _

a. increased blood flow to the kidneys; lack of renin in the blood

b. loss of intracellular water; reduced stimulation of atrial baroreceptors

c. increased sodium within the preoptic region; loss of intracellular water

d. reduced blood flow to the kidneys; reduced stimulation of atrial baroreceptors

e. lack of renin in the blood; lack of All in the blood

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86. Reduced activation of stretch receptors within the is a stimulus for

volumetric thirst.

a. lamina terminalis

b. kidney

c. area postrema

d. cardiac atria

e. liver

87. The fact that young Billy (chapter anecdote) craved the ingestion of salt is due to his

a. lack of aldosterone, leading to loss of sodium into the urine

b. hypothalamic damage

c. excessive secretion of aldosterone

d. impaired secretion of angiotensin II

e. lack of renin, leading to loss of sodium into the urine

88. Angiotensin II within the blood stimulates drinking by acting on cells within the

a. subfornical organ

b. nucleus of the solitary tract

c. lateral hypothalamus

d. kidney.

e. atria of the heart

89. A drug that blocks the would be expected to lower blood pressure.

a. synthesis of serotonin

b. formation of angiotensi n II from angiotensin I

c. degradation of angiotensin II

d. osmometric system

e. secretion of ghrelin

90. A benign tumor arising from cells found within the dura mater would be termed a(n)

a. duroma

b. glioma

c. meningioma

d. metastatic carcinoma

e. astrocytoma

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9l. A(n) is an example of a malignant tumor derived from glial cells.

a. meningioma

b. pinealoma

c. angioma

d. metastatic 01 igodendrocytoma

e. Band C are correct.

92. The tumor found in Mrs. R. was noted to be a(n) _

a. meningioma

b. pinealoma

c. angioma

d. metastatic 01 igodendrocytoma

e. astrocytoma

93.

_______ is characterized by periodic bouts of abnormally high excitation of

cerebral neurons.

a. Parkinson's Disease

b. Seizure Disorder

c. Tay-Sachs Disease

d. Alzheimer's Disease

e. Encephalitis

94. A convulsion occurs when a seizure _

a. is triggered by oxygen deprivation

b. involves the motor cortex

c. has been triggered by a toxic chemical

d. involves a loss of consciousness

e. is of the petit mal type in children

95. Partial seizures _

a. are more severe than generalized seizures

b. involve the motor system

c. involve widespread brain regions

d. originate from a definite focus or source within the brain

e. are accompanied by convulsions

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96. A simple partial seizure _

a. causes a loss of consciousness

b. is the most severe form of seizure disorder

c. involves all brain regions

d. can cause changes in, but not loss of, consciousness

e. involves widespread brain regions

97. The tonic phase of a grand mal seizure begins _

a. when the cortex is inhibited by messages sent from diencephalic structures

b. when an aura is produced within the cerebellum

c. when neurons in the motor cortex start firing continuously

d. with an excessive release of glutamate in the hippocampus

e. with a suppression of glycine release within the brain stem

98. In contrast to simple partial seizures, complex partial seizures involve _

a. a loss of consciousness

b. alteration (but not loss) of consciousness

c. a definite focus

d. most of the brain

e. scarred brai n tissue

99. A grand mal seizure does NOT _

a. involve motor convulsions

b. have a clonic phase

c. preceded by an aura

d. involve a "spell of absence"

e. have a tonic phase

100. During the of a grand mal seizure, the person experiences

a(n) _

a. tonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles

b. clonic phase; aura involving lights

c. clonic phase; contraction of all skeletal muscles

d. tonic phase; eye-rolling and facial grimaces

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