geology questions

Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: D

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Exam 1

1. The moment magnitude scale depends on a. the rupture area, slip magnitude, and shear

rigidity of rock b. the length of the fault c. the depth of the earthquake d. the amplitude of shaking

2. The particle motions of P-waves a. are perpendicular to the wave propagation

direction. b. are retrograde elliptical. c. are horizontal. d. are compression only. e. involve dilations and compressions in

direction of wave propagation.

3. Which of the following statements is TRUE about plate boundaries and their earthquakes? a. Divergent plate boundaries produce very large

earthquakes, transform boundaries produce small events, and convergent boundaries produce large-to-intermediate sized earthquakes.

b. Divergent boundaries produce small to moderate sized earthquakes, transform boundaries produce moderate to large earthquakes, and convergent boundaries produce the largest earthquakes.

c. Divergent boundaries are rare but they do produce the largest events.

d. Convergent boundaries and transform boundaries both produce the magnitude 9.0 events in equal numbers.

4. A magnitude 6.0 earthquake will affect the largest area of shaking in which region below? a. Northeast United States b. California along the San Andreas Fault c. In the state of Nevada in the western United

States d. In the state of Utah in the western United

States

5. The intraplate earthquakes in New Madrid, Missouri in 1811 and 1812 a. where very small and not felt widely. b. were larger than magnitude 7.0, felt as far

away as Boston, and occurred in a failed rift zone.

c. occurred where the Pacific and North American plates meet.

d. were not as large as magnitude 7.0, with felt shaking confined mainly to the regions of the midwestern United States.

6. The enormous earthquake of March 11, 2011 in Japan was greater than 9.0 because a. it occurred on a major transform fault zone. b. it occurred on a major normal fault in a

divergent plate boundary zone. c. slip occurred on a large area of fault patch

with a slip of one centimeter. d. slip occurred on a large area of fault patch

with a large amount of slip of as much as half a football field (50 meters)

7. Which of the following will most likely lead to a Natural Disaster? a. A magnitude 3.0 earthquake beneath New

York City b. A magnitude 8.0 very far from any populated

region c. A magnitude 7.5 with an epicenter 10

kilometers from downtown Tokyo d. An earthquake with a maximum felt intensity

of V e. An earthquake at a mid-ocean ridge

8. An earthquake initiates at 35°N, 108° W, and depth Z = 10 km. What is its epicenter? a. 10 km b. 35° N c. 35° N, 108° W d. 108° W e. the waves that radiate from the source

Name: ______________________ ID: D

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9. An example of the presently active early stages of continental rifting can be found in a. Mid continent of North America b. East Africa c. India-Eurasia d. Andes Mountains of South America

10. What is TRUE below about the seismic energy release between 1900 - 2011? a. 90% of the energy release was taken up by

thousands of small earthquakes. b. 10% of the energy release was taken up by

hundreds of magnitude 9.0 events. c. All of the energy release was taken up by the

4 largest events d. As much as 50% of the energy release was

taken up by the 4 largest megathrust events (Chile, Alaska, Sumatra, and 2011 Japan).

e. 50% of the energy release was taken up by millions of small magnitude 2.0 events.

11. A magnitude 7 earthquake has how much higher amplitude of ground motion than a magnitude 6 earthquake on a seismogram? a. twice as high b. 10 times higher c. 32 times higher d. about 100 times higher e. about 1,000 times higher

12. The magnetic stripes of the seafloor are considered evidence of seafloor spreading and ____. a. subduction in the rift valleys b. spreading centers in the trenches c. changes in the Earth's axis of rotation d. periodic reversals in the polarity of Earth's

magnetic field e. periodic collapses of Earth's gravitational

field

13. Intensity of ground shaking depends on a. the e.q. magnitude, distance from focus,

duration of shaking, and soil or bedrock conditions

b. the earthquake magnitude only c. the duration of shaking only d. the length of the fault but not the area or slip

of the fault e. how many city structures will be affected

14. Example(s) of divergent plate boundary zones is/are a. The Himalayas and Tibet b. The central and eastern United States c. Turkey d. East African Rift and Red Sea e. The subduction zone west of Chile, South

America and Alaska subduction

15. Which of the following statements is NOT true about oceanic and continental crust a. continental crust is thick (30 - 50 km) and

oceanic crust is thin (3-7 km) b. oceanic crust is less dense than continental

crust c. oceanic crust is more dense than continental

crust d. oceanic crust is generally younger (few

hundred My maximum age) and continental crust can be very old (few billion yrs)

16. You determine from satellite imagery that there are two ~500 km fault segments in Antarctica that ruptured in the 12th century. What information do you need to determine which one produced the bigger earthquake? a. The ages of both ruptures b. The distance of movement that occurred

along each fault and the area for each fault c. The direction of plate movement. d. They should have produced similar magnitude

EQ’s because they have the same length. e. a record of the intensity of shaking

experienced by penguins in the 12th Century

17. The best response to take during an earthquake if you are inside a building is to a. run out of the building as fast as possible

because the building may collapse b. run for the exits while looking up so that you

can spot and dodge falling objects c. lay flat onto the floor facing upward with

arms and legs fully extended d. drop down to the ground, take cover by

getting under a sturdy desk or table, and hold on until shaking stops

Name: ______________________ ID: D

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18. An earthquake initiates at 35°N, 108° W, and depth Z = 10 km. Where was the focus? a. 35°N, 108° W b. below the fault c. 35°N, 108° W, Z = 10 km d. the epicenter

19. Which of the following is NOT true about strike-slip faults? a. The fault plane is near-vertical. b. Rocks on one side of fault plane slip laterally

past rocks on the other side of fault. c. Strike-slip faults are commonly associated

with transform plate boundaries. d. Strike-slip faults accommodate pure

compression in convergent plate boundaries.

20. Plate tectonics is driven by a. the release of the Earth’s internal heat. b. external sources of heat, such as the sun. c. the rotation of the planet. d. ocean waves. e. early impacts in the early history.

21. The east coast of the United States is in compressional stress and has had a. some large earthquakes, including the 1886

Charleston earthquake of M > 7.0. b. no known earthquakes. c. some earthquakes but only small ones less

than M=4. d. thousands of magnitude 8.0 and greater over

the last 100 years.

22. What is needed to measure the “Richter” magnitude? a. The measred amplitude of ground shaking and

the known distance from focus b. The fault offset c. The fault area d. only the distance from the focus e. The felt intensity of shaking, such as: “hey

my chimney fell down!”

23. The Pacific Northwest in Oregon and Washington overly a zone where a. there are no earthquake hazards because there

is no plate boundary zone there. b. there are earthquake hazards caused by the

San Andreas Fault. c. there are only hazards associated with storms

and flooding. d. there is a subduction zone where all of the slip

is taken up by silent slip mechanisms and there is no accummulated strain and no earthquake related hazards.

e. there is a subduction zone where a large portion of the slip is accumulating along a major locked subduction thrust fault.

24. Which earthquake waves arrive first? a. P waves b. S waves c. Love waves d. shear waves e. surface waves

25. The type of fault that is found in divergent plate boundaries is a. normal fault b. thrust fault c. strike-slip fault d. nobody’s fault

26. What is needed to locate an earthquake? a. One seismic station b. The time separation between the P wave

arrival and the S wave arrival. c. Knowledge of the shaking intensity. d. The time separation between the P wave and

S wave at three separate stations. e. The depth must be known.

27. The San Andreas Fault in California is an examle o f a. a strike-slip fault along a transform boundary. b. a thrust fault along a convergent plate

boundary. c. a normal fault at a divergent plate boundary. d. a thrust fault along a transform boundary. e. a normal fault along a transform boundary.

Name: ______________________ ID: D

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28. Mid-ocean ridge spreading centers are a. where lithosphere is formed and constitute a

divergent plate boundary zone. b. where ocean lithosphere is destroyed and

constitutes a convergent plate boundary. c. not found anywhere on Earth but they are

observed on other planets in the solar system. d. found in the Earth’s core. e. places where there is no life and no heat.

29. What best describes the magnitude-frequency relationship? a. Small events occur more frequently and large

events occur less frequently b. Large events and small events occur in

roughly equal amounts c. There are more large events than small

events d. The combined energy released in small events

far exceeds the energy released in the very largest events

e. The smallest events are very rare, whereas the largest events are relatively common.

30. A magnitude 7.0 has how much more energy than a magnitude 5.0? a. twice the energy b. 10 times the energy c. about 100 times the energy d. about 1000 times the energy

31. The explanation for why shaking is felt over larger areas (for a given magnitude earthquake) in the central and eastern United States in comparison with the western United States is: a. It is the ease of wave propagation through

the North American Craton with less attenuation of energy in comparison with the western United States

b. Earthquakes are bigger in the central and eastern United States than in the west.

c. There is lower attenuation of energy in the west but high attenuation in the east.

d. The west is composed only of soil with no bedrock.

e. The east is composed of lousy soft soil with no bedrock.

32. If there are 100 U-235 atoms at the initial time then after two half-lives there will be a. 100 U-235 atoms and 25 Pb-207 atoms b. 50 U-235 atoms and 50 Pb-207 atoms c. 25 U-235 atoms and 75 Pb-207 atoms d. 0 U-235 atoms and 100 Pb-207 atoms

33. Magnetic strips or magnetic anomalies on the ocean floor are: a. symmetric about the mid-ocean ridge b. a result of periodic reversal of the Earth’s

magnetic field c. a recording of the creation of ocean

lithosphere through time d. all answers for this question are valid

34. The type of fault found in convergent plate boundaries is a. normal fault b. abnormal fault c. thrust fault d. strike-slip fault e. only vertical faults

35. Which body wave cannot travel through liquid? a. The P-wave b. The surface wave c. The compressional wave d. waves that are good for surfing e. S-waves

36. Body waves consist of a. surface waves b. Rayleigh waves c. P-waves only d. S-waves only e. P-waves and S-waves

37. The Basin and Range in Utah and Nevada involves a. a major transform fault zone with large thrust

earthquakes. b. high hazard from snakes but not earthquakes. c. no seismic hazard because there is no active

tectonics there. d. thrust fault earthquakes in an area of

continental convergence. e. Normal fault earthquakes in an area of

continental spreading.

Name: ______________________ ID: D

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38. The Haiti earthquake a. occurred on a normal fault in the Caribbean

and was a magnitude 7.0 b. occurred on a strike-slip fault and was about a

magntiude of ~7.0 or greater c. was a pure thrust fault event and caused major

damage because it was the largest event ever recorded

d. had a low death toll because it was a small earthquake in a region with few earthquakes historically

e. produced very little damage because of the solid construction design in the region

39. Which of the following is the best way to minimize future losses from flooding through land use planning? a. Let the ‘buyer beware’ when it comes to land

use and construction in flood prone areas. b. discourage building in flood prone areas by

charging very high prices for properties there.

c. Keep it a secret that the area is flood prone and encourage construction. Then when the area floods it will teach a valuable lesson to all.

d. Conduct a detailed analysis of where flooding is likely to occur and restrict development there.

40. Earthquake early warning systems will be useful for a. giving us several hours warning to prepare or

leave the region b. controlling speeding trains, shutting down gas

lines and factory lines, enabling time for rapid personal protection.

c. allowing time to stop the earthquake through use of fluid injection into the fault zones

d. providing months of warning thereby giving you the chance to obtain earthquake insurance.

e. nothing, as it can only provide a few seconds of warning for you to run out of the building before shaking starts

41. Surface waves a. travel through the core b. travel just as fast as P-waves c. arrive last and have low amplitude compared

to P-waves d. arrive last and usually have the greateast

amplitude of ground shaking

42. Which of the following is TRUE? a. Continental crust is thinner than oceanic b. Oceanic crust is thicker than continental and

more dense than continental c. Oceanic crust is less dense than continental

crust d. Oceanic crust is 3-7 km thick and

Continental crust is 30 - 50 km thick e. Oceanic crust rarely subducts

43. Magnetic stripes on the seafloor a. were created by the Sun’s rays. b. tell scientists that the plates do not move

over long periods of geologic time. c. formed all at once in a single event. d. were painted by ancient people with unusual

artistic merit. e. help scientists determine when sections of

oceanic crust formed and how fast the plates are moving or spreading apart.

44. The three types of plate boundary zones are a. transform, convective, and conductive b. convergent, divergent, and transform c. convergent, divergent and subduction d. transform, stationary, and moving e. fast moving, super fast moving, and

slow-sluggish moving

Name: ______________________ ID: D

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45. Which of the following is true about earthquake magnitudes? a. a magnitude increase of 1 involves an

amplitude increase of 1 and an energy increase of 10.

b. a magnitude of 8 is smaller than a magnitude of 6

c. a magnitude of 6 is larger than a magnitude 5 by one energy unit

d. a magnitude increase of 1 equals 32 times increase in amplitude

e. a magnitude increase of 1 equals 32 times as much energy released and 10 times as much ground shaking amplitude

46. The widely felt shaking from the 1811 and 1812 New Madrid, Missouri earthquakes is an example o f a. the high attenuation or loss of seismic energy

in the central and eastern United States b. how well instrumented the region was back

then c. how folklore can become exaggerated d. the low attenuation of seismic energy in the

central and eastern United States

47. Which of the following is NOT a source of the Earth’s internal heat? a. Accretion b. Formation of the Earth’s Moon c. Differentiation of the Earth d. Solar radiation e. Radioactive decay of elements within the

Earth’s interior

48. The San Andreas Fault in California a. is a major transform fault with no known

large strike-slip earthquakes in its history. b. is a major transform fault with some

moderate earthquakes but no large earthquakes larger than 7.0 in its history.

c. is a major convergent plate boundary zone. d. is a major oceanic divergent plate boundary

zone and that is why California is going to fall off into the ocean.

e. is a major transform fault with some moderate earthquakes and two known large earthquakes in its recent history of 1857 Fort Tejon and 1906 San Francisco

49. The largest earthquakes in the world happen as megathrust events in subduction zones. The reason these earthquakes are so large is due to: a. the very large area (width times length) of

locked fault zone and large slip within this area.

b. the small area of locked fault zone but large amount of slip.

c. the low attenuation of seismic energy. d. the fact that volcanoes give off additional

energy during the earthquakes.

50. The theory that explains earthquakes is a. the elastic rebound theory b. the theory of special relativity c. the theory of geomagnetic reversals d. the theory of evolution

Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: A

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Exam II GEO 107

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following statements about basalt is NOT true? a. Basalt, like most dark magmas, has a high amount of silica. b. Basalt has a black/brownish-black color. c. Basalt has low viscosity. d. Basalt is commonly found in ocean spreading centers e. Basalt is at the more fluid end of the spectrum.

____ 2. Eruptions dominated by basalt compositions are found where? a. along convergent margins involving oceanic and continental crust b. over continental hotspots c. along divergent boundaries at mid-oceanic ridges d. between plates along transform boundaries e. none of these

____ 3. High silica content magmas involve explosive eruptions because a. the viscosity is high and gas content is low b. the viscosity is high and gases cannot escape easily c. the viscosity is low and gases escape easily d. the melting temperatures are so high compared to low silica magmas

____ 4. The relative viscosity of magma can be ordered from LOWEST to HIGHEST as: a. Andesite, Basalt, Rhyolite b. Basalt, Rhyolite, Andesite c. Basalt, Andesite, Rhyolite d. Rhyolite, Andesite, Basalt e. Rhyolite, Basalt, Andesite

____ 5. Which magma is expected to have the highest viscosity and the highest silica content a. rhyolite b. basalt c. andesite d. granite

____ 6. Volcanic mudflows are caused when which of the following combine? a. rocks and lava b. water and dirt c. ash and water d. ash and lava e. calcium carbonate and liquid nitrogen

____ 7. A higher percentage of silica in a melt tends to produce a. a higher viscosity magma b. a higher pressure in the melt c. a lower viscosity magma d. mild and gentle volcanic eruptions

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 8. What two main factors result in more violent eruptions? a. higher viscosity and narrow enough vent b. a large enough volcano with low-viscosity magma c. more water and higher viscosity of the magma d. not too much water and low enough viscosity such as basalt e. strong rocks around the vent and more water

____ 9. Volcanic flows from Cinder Cone eruptions have what characteristics? a. They flow down the sides of the cinder cone b. They are basalt composition and flow out the base of the cinder cone c. They are rhyolite composition and flow out the base of the cinder cone d. They are basalt composition and they violently explode in catastrophic pyroclastic

flows

____ 10. What are harmonic tremors? a. a rare mountain building event b. a type of lava flow c. a low-frequency rolling ground movement d. a variation of a surge e. volcanic eruptions

____ 11. Which of the two main volcanic gases is heavier than air, collects in low areas, and can asphyxiate people or animals if it is in high concentrations? a. hydrogen b. water vapor c. ethane d. helium e. carbon dioxide

____ 12. What processes produces oceanic crust? a. basalt eruption caused by pressure decrease and upwelling mantle beneath mid-ocean

ridge b. andesite eruption due to introduction of volatiles beneath mid-ocean ridge c. rhyolite eruption due to pressure reduction melting d. Pressure increase below the mid-ocean ridge

____ 13. Which of the following can be used to determine a possible or emminent eruption a. seismometers to measure seismic activity and harmonic tremors b. tiltmeters to measure bulge on flanks of volcano c. Global Positioning System Measurements d. all the listed measurments given in this question

____ 14. What are the two most abundant gases in magmas? a. hydrogen and methane b. carbon dioxide and oxygen c. methane and helium d. water vapor and carbon dioxide e. water vapor and oxygen

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 15. Temperature has an effect on magma viscosity in that a. higher temperature tends to increase the viscosity b. higher temperature causes melting but no change in viscosity c. higher temperature causes melting but no change in viscosity d. higher temperature tends to lower the viscosity

____ 16. What caused the Tsunami in the March 11, 2011 Japan E.Q.? a. uplift of the sea floor above the strike-slip fault b. uplift of the seafloor, simultaneous with subduction of the Pacific Plate c. collapse of a Japan volcano following eruption phase d. uplift of the sea floor above the normal fault

____ 17. Which of the following is true about Andesite magma a. It has a 50% silica composition and is commonly found in ocean spreading centers b. It has a 60% silica composition and is commonly found above subduction zones c. It has a 70% silica composition and is commonly found above subduction zones d. It has a 60% silica composition and forms shield volcanoes with peaceful eruptions

____ 18. When water is introduced into the mantle via subduction zones, what are the effects? a. the melting temperature increases b. the melting temperature does not change but the viscosity increases c. the pressure decreases d. the melting temperature decreases

____ 19. Highly explosive magmas are controlled by which of the following? a. high silica content and high water b. high iron content and low water c. high magnesium content and high water d. high silica content and low water e. low silica content and high water

____ 20. The Fire Triangle involves a. a pile of sticks designed for controlled burns b. 1. Radiant heat, 2. fuel, and 3. oxygen c. a large feature sometimes observed in major filres d. 1. atmosphere, 2. Carbon dioxide, and 3. water e. 1. fire retardant, 2. water, 3. carbon dioxide

____ 21. Which of these is NOT a Cascade volcano of Western North America? a. Mount Hood b. Mount St. Helens c. Mount Vesuvius d. Mount Rainier e. none of these

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 22. Following the May 1980 eruption of Mount St. Helens, Washington, thousands of trees lay on the ground, all parallel to one another. Why? a. A giant landslide from the volcano toppled them. b. Thermal winds during the eruption toppled them. c. A big earthquake at the beginning of the eruption shook them down. d. A lateral blast at the beginning of the eruption blew them all down. e. Huge mudflows racing downslope flattened them.

____ 23. What is the best way to avoid a mudflow? a. Crawl up into a ball. b. Climb a tree. c. Jump over it. d. Climb up the valley wall. e. Run away from it as fast as you can.

____ 24. Which of the following could never happen? a. A violent pyroclasitic eruption of silica rich rhyolite on the big island of Hawaii b. A violent pyroclasitic eruption of silica rich rhyolite in Yellowstone c. A violent pyroclasitic eruption on Mt. Vesuvius d. A violent pyroclasitic eruption on a Cascade volcano in the U.S. e. A violent pyroclasitic eruption on Mt. Pinatubo

____ 25. If you are at the beach and feel a large earthquake, what should you do, and when should you do it? a. Immediately get into the nearest house for protection. b. Immediately call the nearest civil defense office to find out where it happened. c. Wait until the commotion dies down, and turn on the TV to find out where it

happened. d. Carefully scan the horizon to see if a tsunami wave formed. If you see one, run

inland. e. Immediately run up slope as far as possible.

____ 26. Why do shield volcanoes have very gently sloping sides? a. Their andesite and rhyolite have low viscosity because of their water content, and

spread over a low slope. b. Their basalt flows have low viscosity, so the lava solidifies as gentle slopes. c. Their basalt magmas blow out violently from all of their pent up steam. d. Their andesite composition produces huge ash flows that spread over a large area. e. Their basalt ash spreads out widely in the strong winds over the open ocean.

____ 27. What type of magma is likely to erupt in the Cascade volcanoes? a. andesite and rhyolite due to subduction of volatiles and interaction of magma with

continental crust b. basalt due to pressure reduction melting above the subduction zone there c. carbon dioxide gas explosions through transform fault fissures d. andesite magma above the mid-ocean ridge that lies below the volcanoes

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 28. A reduction in pressure while keeping temperature constant a. can produce partial melt. b. increases the melting temperature. c. has no effect on the production of melt d. will never produce partial melt.

____ 29. What are the approximate wavelengths of tsunami waves? a. 10 kilometers b. 360 kilometers c. 1 kilometer d. 10 meters e. 100 meters

____ 30. Which of the following statements is correct about the island of Hawaii a. Hawaii is a stratovolcano b. Hawaii is the tallest mountain in the world if you consider its height from base level

to its peak c. Hawaii is composed of basalt above a subduction zone d. Hawaii is composed of rhyolite above subduction zones

____ 31. Which of the following statements about volatiles is true? a. Water content determines the violence of a volcanic eruption. b. Carbon dioxide is the most abundant gas in volcanoes. c. Water exposed to high temperatures of magma becomes a solid. d. Magmas that contain little water erupt violently. e. Volatiles come out of solution at only very high pressures

____ 32. What type of magma is going to be produced above hot spots that lie beneath oceanic crust? a. andesite b. none, as no melting can occur there c. basalt d. rhyolite

____ 33. Mt. Pelee, Martenique in West Indies produced an eruption in 1902 that a. produced deadly Carbon dioxide gases that asphyxiated all people and animals b. produced Lahars, but no damage to ships in the harbour c. produced massive pyroclastic flow that wiped out St. Pierre and also burned ships in

the harbour d. produced a basalt flow that partially buried the northen half of St. Pierre

____ 34. A massive tsunami on the east coast of the United States could be generated by a. subduction below the United Kingdom that would generate a wave that crosses the

Atlantic b. a big pillow basalt eruption along the mid-ocean ridge in the Atlantic c. a big earthquake in Sumatran Trench d. a volcano flank collapse of one of Canarie Islands

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 35. Which of the following can produce melting of rock a. an increase in temperature above the solidus b. introduction of water into the mantle through subduction process c. reduction in pressure while keeping temperature constant d. basalt rich magma introduced into silica rich rock at base of continental crust e. all of the answers for this question

____ 36. Which is the most dangerous location for a tsunami hazard? a. a rocky point protruding into the ocean in deep water b. a straight stretch of coast directly exposed to the open sea c. a large boat 300 kilometers offshore d. a small boat in the deep ocean e. a bay with a nice sandy beach at its end

____ 37. How does pahoehoe lava differ from aa lava? a. Pahoehoe is basalt, and aa is andesite. b. Pahoehoe has a ragged top, and aa is smooth on top. c. Pahoehoe is full of gas holes, and aa is solid lava. d. Pahoehoe is ropy-looking, and aa is rough with jagged surfaces e. Pahoehoe is rhyolite, and aa is basalt.

____ 38. The tectonic setting of the Japan E.Q. of 2011 is a. a transform fault b. a mid-ocean ridge c. subduction d. there is no plate boundary there

____ 39. What are the approximate times between tsunami wave crests? a. 10 to 35 minutes b. 10 to 12 hours c. 30 seconds to 1 minute d. 1 to 3 minutes e. 2 to 3 hours

____ 40. What threat exists in regard to Mt. Ranier in Washington State a. very little threat because flows can be halted using fire hoses b. rapid burial of subdivisions from low viscosity basalt flows c. Strombolian type eruptions that blanket the region in hot ash d. Mudflows burying subdivisions

____ 41. In 1700 a large tsunami was generated where? a. In the South Pacific b. In the Japan Trench c. In the subduction of the Juan de Fuca plate beneath North America (Cascadia) d. In China

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 42. Which of the following statements is completely TRUE about the nuclear reactor accident in Japan casued by the March 11, 2011 Tsunami a. The reactor never shut down because there was no warning from the earthquake b. Although there was early warning, there were no back-up batteries for running the

cooling system c. There was early warning, but they lacked back-up batteries and generators for the

cooling system d. Early warning shut the reactor down, but the Tsunami buried the generators (shutting

them off) and the back-up batteries for the cooling system lost power after about 9 hours

e. The generators were in a safe place from the Tsunami but they eventually ran out of gas and there was therefore no way to run the cooling system once the generators ran out of gas

____ 43. Where are volcanoes likely to be least abundant a. above hot spots b. above subduction zones c. in zones of continental collision d. above divergent plate boundaries

____ 44. What is magma that is forcefully ejected into the atmosphere as particles? a. lava b. pyroclastic c. plutonic d. pahoehoe e. none of these

____ 45. Pompeii was buried in 79 AD by an eruption of a. Mount Pelee b. Mount Lassen c. Mount Vesuvius d. Mount Ranier

____ 46. Which of the following locations five kilometers from the crater of a volcano would likely be safe from a large ash flow, if any? a. behind a large tree with an 80-centimeter-diameter (2 1 2 feet) trunk b. far side of a five-kilometer-wide lake c. far side of a steep-sided, 100-meter-high hill d. none of these answers: ash flows can flow over large hills, can cross large expanses of

water, and can fell very large trees e. inside your car

____ 47. Which of the following is NOT true about the eruption of Mount Pinatubo in 1991 a. A Plinean eruption with huge plume of ash reaching heights of 35 - 40 km b. Dust and SO2 generated by the Pinatubo eruption encircled the Earth, scattering

incoming sunlight and reducing global temperature c. Deadly basalt flows were generated, blanketing a region equivalent to the size of the

state of New York d. Lahars were generated e. Pyroclastic flows were generated

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 48. Of the following magma types, which has the highest silica content a. Pillow Basalts b. Basalt c. Andesite d. Rhyolite

____ 49. Landslides can be caused by a. removal of support at the base of slope b. adding load to the top of the slope c. weak layers, such as clay d. all of these answers in this question

____ 50. What is the average speed of tsunami waves in the deep ocean? a. the speed of light b. 7-8 km/hour c. the speed of an Olympic sprinter d. 700-800 km/hour e. 70-80 km/hour

Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: A

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Exam III GEO 107

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Global data sets of temperatures over the past 1000 years show a. dramatic cooling suggesting we will enter the next ice age within a decade or two b. temperatures were following a negative trend prior to 1900 but show a dramatic

positive upturn around 1900 c. temperature increases globally of 10° C d. no substantial changes over the past 100 years e. a gradual temperature increase over time

____ 2. Which of the following will impact the Earth with the highest amount of energy? a. a feather dropped from a height of 10 feet b. a 2 million kilogram asteroid c. a 1 kilogram asteroid d. a 1 million kilogram comet e. a 100 kilogram comet

____ 3. The asteroid belt, orbiting the sun, contains asteroids in a belt between the orbits of ____. a. Jupiter and Saturn b. Earth and Mars c. Mercury and Venus d. Venus and Earth e. Mars and Jupiter

____ 4. The storm surge from a hurricane is caused by a. global warming b. the low pressures near the eye and high winds which mound the seawater up c. high tides coinciding with arrival of tornadoes d. the heavy rain e. pressure only and winds have no effect

____ 5. The problem with New Orleans is that a. the levees cannot withstand a category 5 hurricane and the area continues to sink b. there is not enough good music there c. there is not enough good food there d. the city continues to experience uplift e. they have summers that are not hot enough for swimming

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 6. Hurricane Sandy’s storm track was unusual because a. it moved into the Gulf of Mexico where it hit New Orleans and then traveled across

the U.S. into the Northeast b. it was not unusual c. it traveled along the coastline and then diverted east out into the deep Atlantic,

eventually making landfall in Sandy Bay, Greenland d. instead of curving eastward out into the Atlantic, it made a sharp left-turn and

collided with New Jersey coast e. it collided with Florida where it fizzled out

____ 7. What temperature proxies do scientists use to determine temperatures of the past a. the types of fossil fish and the temperatures of the waters they swam in b. the thickness of mamoth bones c. Carbon-14 dating d. oxygen isotopes and tree ring widths e. fossil dung droppings from different species

____ 8. What are comets made of? a. high magnesium and iron rocks b. close-packed hydrogen c. ice and some rock d. nickel-iron e. ice

____ 9. Which of the following is true about general circulation of oceans and the Gulf Stream in general a. Warm currents in the North Atlantic warm Europe b. Currents are confined only to equitorial regions c. The Gulf Stream in the Atlantic is a section of very cold water d. The Golf Stream should be avoided, as it swallows up many a long shots on the

ninteenth hole e. Cold currents in the North Atlantic are causing an ice age in North America

____ 10. The NASA GRACE gravity mission data shows what is happening? a. the Earth has been loosing its gravity very slowly due to temperature increases from

global warming b. The ice mass in both Greenland and Antarctica has been decreasing over the past 10

years c. The ice mass in Greenland and Antarctica has been increasing dramatically over the

past 10 years d. The ice mass in Greenland is increasing but the ice mass in Antarctica is decreasing e. sea level is falling in most places

____ 11. An example of anthropogenic source of greenhouse gas is a. heating of the upper atmosphere b. lightening storms c. Volcanoes d. burning of fossil fuels e. Earthquakes

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 12. Areas most at risk in the United States from Hurricane are a. New Jersey, Delaware, Maryland, and Virginia coasts b. Southern California and Oregon c. Florida, Georgia, South Carolina and North Carolina coastlines d. west Texas e. Eastern coast of Maine

____ 13. In the Greenhouse effect a. long wavelength radiation is blocked by greenhouse gases b. the Milankovich cycles spin out of control c. the albedo is reduced through increaseed growth of forests d. Short wavelength radiation is blocked by greenhouse gases e. the world freezes over if greenhouse gases get too high

____ 14. What is Albedo? a. a measure of how reflective the surface is b. the influence of heat on the ocean c. The effect of solar winds on the magnetic field d. the color of snow in summer e. a measure of the magnitude of solar radiation coming from the sun

____ 15. Hurricanes in the North Atlantic are most frequent in the months of a. May, June, July b. August, September, October c. December, January, February d. March, April, May e. June only and all other months only rarely have hurricanes

____ 16. Climate over the past 500,000 years can be sumarized as a. warm periods that last 100,000 years with brief periods of glaciation lasting 10,000

years b. dominated by clacial periods lasting 250,000 years and interglacials lasting 100,000

years c. a 100,000 year cycle with glacial periods lasting 70,000 - 100,000 and brief warm

interglacials lasting about 20,000 years d. nearly constant temperature until recently e. the climate has been pleasant and until recently palm trees grew in Antarctica

____ 17. The Coriolis Effect influences air motion in the Northern Hemisphere in which way? a. air travels in straight north-south directions b. air travels in straight east-west directions c. air moving towards the North Pole bends westward d. air moving towards the North Pole bends eastward e. air moving towards the equator bends eastward

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 18. A strong influence on hurricane paths in the North Atlantic is: a. the position of the mysterious ‘Bermuda Triangle’, which has been known to swallow

hurricanes without a trace b. where strong tornadoes are positioned c. the size and position of the ‘Bermuda High’, a north Atlantic high pressure zone d. the size and position of the ‘Bermuda Low Pressure Zone’, a zone of constant storms

in north Atlantic e. none of these

____ 19. High speed impacts of very large objects (>2 km diamter asteroid/comet) actually create a. very large diamonds the size of a bowling ball b. sonic booms but nothing else c. craters but the evidence of these dissapear within about 10 years due to erosion

effects d. very little damage e. very small diamonds

____ 20. The process by which plants give up moisture to the air is called ____. a. sublimation b. evaporation c. evapotranspiration d. transpiration e. none of these

____ 21. How might you expect the loss of sea ice in the arctic to affect temperatures in the region? a. Less solar energy is retained and the entire ice cap will melt within a few weeks b. Less solar energy is retained but no cooling will occur c. Less solar energy is retained and there will be a cooling effect d. More solar energy is retained and there will be a warming effect e. There will be no temperature change from melting sea ice

____ 22. What of the following is true about atmospheric carbon dioxide levels? a. Carbon dioxide levels have been gradually decreasing while sea level is rising b. Carbon dioxide levels have been constant over the past 150 years c. Carbon dioxide levels are high today, but they have recently been reduced due to

emmissions control laws in cars d. Carbon dioxide is not a greenhouse gas, but it does block incoming solar radiation e. Carbon dioxide levels are higher now than they have been for more than 800,000

years

____ 23. The Milankovich cycles are important because they a. control how much solar radiation is received at the poles b. predict future global climate change precisely c. predict climate variations precisely d. predict the concentrations of greenhouse gases e. predict how much surface reflectivity will occur

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 24. Eccentricity describes a. the tilt of the Earth’s spin axis b. the magnetic field variation c. how unusual and unpredictable the climate can be d. the wobble of the Earth’s spin axis e. the shape of the Earth’s orbit around the sun (circular to elliptical)

____ 25. Of the following, which mass extinction is thought to have been caused by a large impact off of the Yucatan Peninsula? a. the end-Cretaceious period when the dinosaurs dissapeared b. The Permian-Triassic boundary c. The Triassic-Jurassic boundary d. The Cambrian Explosion e. The great extinction 4.0 billion years ago

____ 26. Greater rainfall totals from hurricanes is likely to occur from a. slow moving storms b. fast moving storms c. category 5 hurricanes only d. tropical storms, but not hurricanes e. the eye of the hurricane

____ 27. A rock that enters Earth's atmosphere and survives to reach the ground is a(n) ____. a. comet b. meteorite c. asteroid d. space rock e. meteor

____ 28. Roughly what depth of flowing stream is dangerous to drive through? a. 10 cm (4 inches) b. 30 cm (1 foot) c. 60 cm (2 feet), since water would then be over the axels d. 180 cm (6 feet), since water would then be above the roof of the car e. 120 cm (4 feet), since water would then be window height

____ 29. How does heat transfor work on Earth? a. Solar radiation is received near the poles in summer and this heat travels south and

north to heat the planet evenly. b. Solar radiation is received in the summers and this heats the planet nearly evenly c. Heat transfers through underground steam tunnels. d. The majority of solar radiation is absorbed near equator and convection (atmosphere

and ocean) redistributes that heat. e. Solar radiation heats the Earth and this drives plate tectonics.

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 30. In regard to hurricane Katrina a. most damage occurred to offshore oil rigs, but New Orleans escaped disaster b. many factors of the disaster were predicted c. it was only a category 1 storm with very little damage to New Orleans d. the storm damage was greatest from the high winds but flooding provided very little

damage e. the storm damage was completely unexpected because few realized that New Orleans

was below sea level

____ 31. How fast do asteroids travel in space? a. about 15 to 40 km per minute b. about 2 to 4 km per minute c. about 15 to 25 km per second d. about 2 to 4 km per second e. about 150 to 400 km per second

____ 32. The El Nino has what effect on hurricane frequency? a. all of these answers b. No effects c. fewer hurricanes due to cooling effect on Atlantic sea temperatures d. more hurricanes due to higher ocean temperatures e. more hurricanes due to increased Coriolis effect

____ 33. The factors needed for a thunderstorm are: a. Localized afternoon ground heating causing hot air to rise b. Cold air pushing under warm air along a cold front c. All answers provided d. Warm air e. Moist air

____ 34. Where do hurricanes striking North America originate? a. near-equatorial latitudes off the west coast of Africa b. the central Pacific Ocean, near the equator c. in the steamy jungles of the Congo, in western Africa d. in the Gulf of Mexico e. off the north Coast of South America, near the equator

____ 35. What makes New Orleans so vulnerable to hurricanes? a. levees prevent flooding but also prevent deposition of new layers of sand and mud

that would build up land level b. the city has subsided 6 m below sea level c. levees can fail from heavy rains+wind+storm surge d. because it is below sea level, failure of levees will result in much of the city (80% or

more) being flooded in 20 - 25 feet of water. e. all of these

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 36. Which of the following are true? a. Much of what is now Canada and the northern midwest and northeast U.S. was under a

massive ice sheet during the last ice age over 20,000 years ago b. all of these c. Presently we are in an interglacial period d. Sea level during the last glacial period was 130 meters lower than today e. Long Island was formed by the advance of the last ice sheet

____ 37. A 100 year flood has a a. a 5 percent chance of occurrence in any given year b. a 1 percent chance of occurrence in any given year c. a 100 percent chance of occurrence in any given year d. 10 percent chance of occurrence in any given year e. a very high probability of occurring next year

____ 38. The following is true for atmoshperic pressure and air motion a. Air flows from low pressure centers to high pressure centers. b. The atmosphere has an even pressure distribution everywhere. c. High pressure centers are rare and are associated with very little air flow. d. Low pressure centers are created by cold dense air flowing downward. e. Rising air creates an area of low pressure. Air near the ground flows toward

low-pressure center to replace rising air.

____ 39. What should you do to avoid being killed by lightning if caught out in the open in a storm with no place to take cover? a. Crouch with your feet apart. b. Stand very still, so your target is smaller. c. Run for cover under the nearest dry tree. d. Crouch down on the balls of your feet with your feet together. e. Lie flat on the ground, so you are as low as possible.

____ 40. Which isotope is preferentially locked up into the ice during colder periods a. Oxygen-18 b. Iron c. Uranium-238 d. Oxygen-16 e. Purple

____ 41. Where does a tropical cyclone or hurricane get its energy? a. in the heat and moisture rising from a low pressure cell of the equatorial ocean b. from high temperatures of a humid high pressure weather cell near the equator c. from high summer temperatures over humid equatorial jungles d. from heat of the sun shining off a hot desert near the equator e. none of these

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 42. Where in a hurricane is the atmospheric pressure lowest, and approximately how low can that be? a. lowest in the eye; as low as 1,200 millibars b. lowest just outside the eye wall; as low as 6000 millibars c. lowest in the zone of high winds, midway between the eye and its outer fringes; as low

as 980 millibars d. lowest in the center of the eye; as low as 920 millibars e. lowest in the zone of high winds, on the outer edges of the hurricane, as low as 1000

millibars

____ 43. Which of the following would be true about flood plains and urbanization a. Flood planes are good places to put schools, housing projects, and other long-term

structures. b. Flood planes are poor areas for agriculture c. A river can and will occupy its flood plain during times of heavy flooding. d. Flood planes are no longer dangerous places to build because modern levees are able to

prevent flooding for all cases. e. Flood planes are not natural and result from urbanization

____ 44. Why are storms found at both warm fronts and cold fronts? a. Where a warm front collides with a cold front, the friction between them generates

heat and storms. b. In both cases, the warm, more-humid air rises rapidly over cold air, cooling,

condensing, and raining. c. In both cases, the northward-moving front goes to the right, so the storm cell formed

turns counterclockwise. d. Warm and cold airs do not mix easily because of their different densities, so the

turbulence causes storms. e. Warm fronts concentrate static positive charges; cold air concentrates negative

charges. They storm where the two collide.

____ 45. Measurements show that a. Carbon dioxide levels are unchanged from the last 1 million years b. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rapidly decreasing over the past century c. All greenhouse gases have been at a constant level for thousands of years and have

not changed d. We are now entering a new Ice Age e. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rapidly increasing over the past century

____ 46. What are shatter cones? a. cones that look like volcanoes but actually result from impacts b. cones formed from volcanism that were once thought to be caused by impacts c. the shape of comet tails named after the famous Shatter comet d. streaked cones of rock radiating down (closed upward) and out from the point of

impact e. volcanic glass that fell from great heights

Name: ______________________ ID: A

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____ 47. Hurricanes need the following to form a. warm moist air, warm sea temperatures, strong low pressure b. high pressure, dry air, and cooler sea temperatures c. cool Atlantic temperatures d. low pressure air flow out of Canada e. heavy snow winters

____ 48. Tornadoes can develop with what factors? a. warm, moist air from Gulf colliding with cold dry air out of Canada, together with

presence of mesocyclone or presence of strong wind shear b. warm, moist air from the North colliding with cold dry air out of the Southern Gulf,

together with presence of hail and strong winds c. all of these d. cold low pressure zones colliding with warm high pressure zones, along with very dry

air masses in the collision. e. none of these

____ 49. Which of the following places is a hurricane or typhoon NOT likely to form a. Atlantic ocean at 10° N b. In the Indian Ocean at 10° S c. In the Pacific Ocean at 10° S d. Pacific Ocean just north of Papua New Guinnea at 10° N e. Off of the coast of Ireland at 50°N

____ 50. The Milankovich cycles involve a. solar radiation cycles lasting 29,500 years b. sea level rise, followed by sea level fall, followed by sea level rise c. temperature cycles lasting 11 years in relation to sun spot activity d. high powered gear systems making them ideal for racing e. Eccentricity of the Earth, The wobble of the Earth, The tilt of the Earth