ANYONE WILLING TO TAKE MY ONLINE 30 QUESTION 1HR MC EXAM FOR BIO 100 ON BIOESPRESSO.COM?
fiendin
bio_modulestests_1.zipBIO modulesTests.docx
this is all the modules put together. so just CTRL + F. most questions are exactly the same as on the test
Module 4: Cells
1A: The nicotine in a cigarette activates which structure? A: Nicotine receptors on the plasma membrane
1B: A:
2A: Cells in the prostate continue to grow in a 22 year old male. They break through the prostate lining and travel throughout the body. For the cells to develop and reproduce, which cell organelle directs this activity? A: Nucleus
2B: If this organelle does not receive oxygen, what happens to the cell? A: The Cell dies
3A: If a group of cells does not have enough ATP, what happens to the organ? A: It decreases its activity
3B: Heart cells contain nicotine receptors. A: True; nicotine attaches to the receptors.
4A: Cells that transport oxygen and carbon dioxide between lungs and tissues are: A: Red blood cells
4B: Membrane-spanning proteins that link cells together are called: A: E-cadherin
5A: The fundamental unit of life is: A: Cell
5B: Which organelle is responsible for ATP production in the cell? A: Mitochondria
6A: The moat represents what in an idealized biological world? A: Capillary
6B:In order to build a computer, a crew of geniuses must come together and create some sort of complex directions for how the computer must be built. They send these to a factory where more geniuses carefully put them together and send them off to the warehouses where they will be shipped. In a cell, what factory like organelle is responsible for putting the directions from the nucleus together to make proteins? A: Endoplasmic reticulum
7A: When you feel happy, a chemical is released in the brain that goes to your pleasure center. For this chemical to have its effect, it must interact originally with which of the following? A: Plasma membrane receptor
7B: The Cell Membrane regulates the internal environment of the cell by which method A: Having receptors on its surface that when activated, will allow various substances to enter and having specific chemicals that allows certain substances to enter and leave
8A: The fluid inside the cell is called: A: Intracellular fluid
8B: White blood cells… A: Defend the body against foreign invaders
9A: The rough ER functions in synthesis of A: Proteins
9B:A set of flattened sacs that function in the packaging and processing of newly synthesized proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum is A: Golgi complex
10A: Concerning the feedback presentation. if the amount of testosterone made by the cell was 10 mg rather than 300 mg, what kind of feedback signal would go to comparator? (Low levels of testosterone are found in men suffering from prostate cancer). A: Positive
10B: Some chemicals are produced by the Golgi complexes in the neurons in your brain and then are sent into your blood. A: True ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Module 5: Water
1A: A person is crossing the desert and runs out of water. He has to go 10 miles before he gets some more water. He has his 4 year old son with him. What hormone will be released in both of them to protect the body water levels? A: Antidiuretic hormone
1B: If you drink caffeine which causes an inhibition of the release of Antidiuretic hormone, what occurs? A: You have an increase in urine production
2A: A football player is sweating profusely during a game on a hot, dry day. What part of the cell controls the movement of water into her cells? A: Cell Membrane
2B: Three Mexican fisherman were reported to have spent 9 months floating in the ocean. If they had drunk salt water, what would have happened to their cells. A: Salt water is hypertonic and it would draw water from the cells of the fisherman causing a dehyration state
3A: Antidiuretic hormone is released from which structure? A: Brain
3B: A friend of yours has been drinking all night and comes home and vomits most of the night. She ends up with the dry heaves. In the morning she is very thirsty. The sensation of thirst is due to which of the following? A: Decrease in extracellular volume
4A: Similar to the process in animal cells, plasmolysis is a process in plant cells where the cytoplasm of the cell shrinks while it is in a hypertonic environment. What is the name of the similar process in animal cells? A: Crenation
4B: A SDSU tennis player is drinking Gatorade and her opponent is drinking oxygenated water in Borrego Springs where the temperature is 120F. The SDSU student wins the match. This proves which of the following? A: The data is not sufficient to draw any conclusions.
5A: Water is considered to be important since A: It is the chemical solvent needed for all chemical reactions in the cell
5B: The term "concentration gradient" is defined as: A:The gradual difference in concentration of a solution between areas of high concentration and low concentration
6A: The movement of solute molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration that does not require energy is A: diffusion
6B: The movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is A: wrong diffusion
7A: A hypo-osmotic solution is: A: A solution that has less electrolytes and more water than the other solution.
7B: Channels in the plasma membrane of cells that only allow water to pass are A: aquaporins
8A: Plant cells exposed to a hypertonic salt solution will do which of the following? A: Crenate
8B: In the scenario presented in the modules about the overheated US calvary and the football player dying from lack of water. What caused their death. (Assume for this question, that the American Indians did not directly kill the soldiers?) A: Dehydration led to an increase in body temperature that led to heart failure
9A: In all biological systems, which feedback loops are working on maintaining the output? A: Both at the same time
9B: Feedback loops occur in which systems? A: All of these
10A: The principle means of passive transport is ________. A: diffusion
10B: Isotonic refers to: A: An isotonic cell is in a state of equilibrium with its surroundings in terms of water and solute concentration --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Module 6: Glycolysis 1a: The adjective,glycolytic,refers to which condition? A: --Chemical reactions that do not require oxygen- called anaerobic 1b: The brain requires glucose to function. It is known since antiquity that cuttingoff air supply to the brain results in death. Therefore, is glycolysis the solemeans of producing energy in the neurons?(Think question... not in themodule) A: --Since oxygen is required for normal function of the brain, glycolysis cannot be the solemeans of metabolic energy to the brain. 2a: A 35 year old African American male is swimming in 8 feet of water and getsa cramp in his leg. He can not swim anymore and drowns. What caused thecramps? A: --Gycolysis in his leg muscle producing lactic acid 2b: It is a hot day and you are on the soccer team. You are running down fieldand you get cramps in both of the muscles in the back of your legs. You stumble. The coach comes to help you and rubs your legs. You are able tohobble off the field. Rubbing your legs does what? A: --Increases blood flow that assists in the removal of lactic acid 3a: The greatest amount of ATP is produced as a result of which chemical reaction? A: OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION. 3b: Methanogens are.... A:--primitive archaebacteria that use carbon dioxide instead of oxygen to produce ATP. 4a: If there is no need for additional ATP from glycolysis, the ATP that is producedwill stop glycolysis. This process is called? A: --Negative feedback 4b: The first method for making ATP is.... A: converting ADP to ATP 5a: In the event that ATP is not needed, (in other words, you have enoughenergy), what happens? A: --ATP will inhibit enzymes in the glycolytic pathway. 5b: Lactic acid which may be the explanation for skeletal muscle fatigue isproduced directly from which molecule? A: --pyruvate 6a: Substrate phosphorylation refers to which condition? A: Production of ATP by converting ADP directly to ATP in the cytoplasm 6B: Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in which organelle? A: --Mitochondria 7a: Glycolysis as a chemical reaction is coupled with which other chemical reaction which requires oxygen? A: 7b: In glycolysis, sugar is broken down into which molecule that is the gatewayto the krebs cycle? A: --Pyruvate or pyruvic acid 8aThe metabolic pathway that occurs in the absence of oxygen to produce ATP is A: Glycolysis 8b: The production of ATP by direct phosphorylation of ADP A: ---substrate level phosphorylation 9a: The process in which oxygen is used to generate energy from food moleculesis A: -- aerobic respiration 10a: The synthesis of ATP coupled with electron transport is A:--Oxidative phosphorylation 10B: All cells do not have the same sensitivity to lack of oxygen. Brain, heart,intestinal and kidney cells have a great need of oxygen than muscle cells.lMuscle cells can go 20 minutes without oxygen, but brain and heart cellscan go no more than 3 minutes. Brain and heart cells need a high level of oxygen since?(Another thought question) A: --They require more energy(ATP) than muscle cells -----------------------------------------------------------
Module 7: Oxidative Phosphorylation
1A: In the treatment of patients, Oxygen masks give oxygen to the patient. This oxygen does what? A: Indirectly produces ATP
1B: A person is very fatigued. You give me oxygen and state that will give him energy by way of glycolysis. That is incorrect since A: By definition, glycolysis is an anaerobic set of chemical reactions.
2A: The space between the outer and inner membrane of the mitochondria is called? A: intermembrane space
2B: Cells that need more ATP for their specific function will have which of the following? A: Large number of mitochondria
3A: Jonathan was lost out in the woods. He was able to find fresh water but there was nothing he could eat that would not make him sick. Will Jonathan be able to survive a 30 days without eating? A: Yes, you can survive for 30 days without eating any food since the fat and protein in your body can be metabolized to give you the ATP you need.
3B: ___________ is the diffusion of hydrogen ions through ATPsynthase which subsequently causes ATP synthase to combine a phosphate ion with ADP. A: Chemiosmosis
4A: In the condition of oxidative phosphorylation, what is phosphorylated? A: ADP
4B: There are diseases in which the mitochondria is deficient, meaning that it does not function properly. If the mitochondria is deficient, what happens to the cells in which it is located? A: Cells do not function properly and at a reduced level of activity since there is small amounts of ATP.
5A: What structure inside the mitochondria is responsible for directly producing ATP? A: ATP synthase
5B: Which chemical structure is responsible for production of ATP from your food? A: Hydrogen ions
6A: The energy in the food you eat, is transferred to the cytochrome system in the mitochondria by a process of ? A: Oxidation of both NADH and FADH.
6B: The classic definition of fatigue is the production of which product? A: Lactate
7A: You are running to catch a football in a SDSU vs UW-Madison game. If you catch the ball, you will win the game. Your eyes are following the ball so you can catch it. What directly fuels muscles of the eyeball to follow the football? A: ATP in your eye muscle cells
7B: You have been eating nothing but beans as you transition over towards being a vegetarian. Your friends say that the proteins in beans cannot be beneficial as glucose since beans do not give you much energy. This is incorrect, since A: Protein is metabolized into both pyruvate and Acetyl CoA which will eventually produce ATP
8A: The enzyme that couples proton movement across the inner mitochodrial membrane with ATP synthesis A: ATP Synthase
8B: The space between the inner membrane and the outer membrane of the mitochondrion is A: intermembrane space
9A: Folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane A: cristae
9B: The matrix is A: the space inside the inner membrane of the mitochondria
10A: A metabolic cycle fueled by Acetyl CoA that produces most of the NADH and FADH for ATP production A: Krebs Cycle
10B: The Mitochondrial Matrix is: A: The space inside the inner membrane of a mitochondria which contains enzymes for aerobic respiration. ---------------------------------------------------------------
Module 8: Loss of Oxidative Phosphorylation
1A: What is needed to perform cellular work? A: ATP
1B: The oxygen carrying molecule of red blood cells is: A: Hemoglobin
2A: Carbon Monoxide (CO) is harmful to our health because: A: It has a higher affinity for hemoglobin (HB) then O2 does and does not allow O2delivery to mitochondria
2B: If Carbon Monoxide (CO) binds to hemoglobin instead of oxygen (O2) the end result is: A: Death
3A: In the case of carbon monoxide poisoning, which system is most affected so as to minimize ATP prodution A: Delivery of oxygen to the cells
3B: A young man is clinically depressed and attempts to commit suicide by carbon monoxide poisoning. He had a hose attached to his exhaust and the other end was in his car. Luckily he was pulled from the car. He survived but he has a pronounced motor problem. He walks slowly, and cannot move fast. His symptoms are similar to which conditon? A: Parkinsonism
4A: The brain produces a chemical called dopamine that plays a major role in our sensation of pleasure. The dopamine is produced in the neurons of the pleasure center of the brain and are released at the terminal ending of these neurons. ATP is essential for its dopamine release and uptake in the brain. Uncle Joe suffered a stroke in the pleasure center and is now recovering. However, he is depressed. His depression may be due to which of the following? A: Decrease in dopamine production due to decrease in ATP production
4B: Which of the following metabolic poisons is the easiest to recover from? A: Dinotrophenol
5A: If an aerobic organism is not longer able to get oxygen, what happens to its pH? A: Becomes more acidotic
5B: A fish is given an injection of cyanide poisoning. Will the fish have the same reaction as a human? A: Yes, since the metabolic machinery is the same between the fish and human. The fish will die.
6A: Which system can go the longest in terms of time without oxygen? A: Skeletal Muscle cells
6B: If you wished to design a poison that would have the most lethal, immediate effect on an organism, which systems would you target? A: Blood flow and mitochondria in heart cells
7A: Which part of the aerobic pathway in neurons can be interrupted so that ATP can continue to be produced. A: None. All pathways need to work together to support the neurons
7B: Acidosis occurs when the blood pH falls below: A: 7.35
8A: In most cases in which there is a decrease in oxygen to aerobic systems, what will continue to be produced? A: Lactic Acid
8B: The poison, fluoroacetate, causes the body to have convulsions, and cardiacand respiratory collapse. Why is it that this poison is refered to as"Suffocation from within"? A: All of the above.
9A: A poison that disrupts ATP production by interupting the function of complex IV in the electron transport system A: Cyanide
9B: An antibiotic that kills bacterial cells by interupting the function of ATP synthase A: oligomycin
10A: These structures "carry" electrons in the electron transport system A: cytochromes
10B: Anoxia is defined as A: low levels of oxygen -----------------------------------------------------------------
Module 9: ATP
this whole module thanks to ben, therefore, he is not gay anymore
1A: ATP is located where? A: Anywhere in the cell where chemical reactions occur
1B: _________ is the adding of a phosphate (PO4) group to a molecule. A: Phosphorylation
2A: The biochemical energy that is stored in the ATP molecule is found where? A: the gamma phosphate to cause conformational change in the chemical reactants
2B: ATP is related chemically to which other biological molecules A: DNA, RNA, NAD, NADP
3A: One of the most important properties of proteins is their ability to undergo "conformational change" which means? A: proteins are structurally flexible and can undergo slight changes in shape
3B: What is it called when oxygen (02) and hemoglobin are transferred in the blood? A: oxyhemoglobin
4A: What process must ATP undergo to promote the chemical union of actin and myosin? - Lose a high energy phosphate by way of hydrolysis
4B: ________ causes brain cells to become excitable. A: glutamate
5A: The process that cleaves a phosphate molecule from ATP is called: A: Hydrolysis
5B: The study of energy is called: A: Thermodynamics
6A: The nucleotide found in ATP is: A: Adenine
6B: How does ATP interact with protein? A: It changes the shape of the protein to allow a chemical reaction to occur
7A: The sugar found in ATP is: A: Ribose
7B:How many phosphate groups are attached to ATP? A: 3
8A: What is the final electron acceptor in the Electron Transport System (ETS)? A: Oxygen (O2)
8B: When having a heart attack, your heart muscle does not contract. Why is this? A: ATP is not replenishing itself
9A: Carbon dioxide is produced where in the cell? A: mitochondria
9B: Blood pH is 7.4. If oxygen is not present, what happens to blood pH? A: decreases
10A: Reactive Oxygen species are produced where in the body? A: all cells
10B: Energy currency is required for: A: Anabolism and Catabolism -------------------------------------------------------
Module 10: Photoshynthesis
1A: Which part of the chloroplast is responsible for the light dependent phase (LDP)? A: Thylakoids
1B: The "head" of a chlorophyll molecule is a ring called a A: porphyrin
2A: The primary neural location that cocaine has its effects is ? A: Nucleus accumbens
2B: The neurotransmitter found in insects that is similar to dopamine is? A: Octopamine
3A: Cocaine is a byproduct of which system? A: Light Independent Phase (LIP)
3B: More than likely, the production of Cocaine by plants is to do which of the following? A: Be an Insecticide.
4A: For light to act in photosynthesis, it must activate which photosystem? A: Photosystem II and then Photosystem I
4B: What enzyme is common to both plant and animal cells in production of ATP? A: ATP synthase
5A: Which of the two major categories of the chemical reactions in photosynthesis is oxygen the byproduct? A: Light dependent phase (LDP)
5B: When NADP gains a hydrogen ion, it is: A: Reduced
6A: The light dependent phase (LDP) does which of the following? A: Produces oxygen
6B: What does ATP synthase need to produce ATP? A: H+
7A: The major organelle in the plant cell that is responsible for the light dependent phase is? A: Chloroplasts
7B: What molecules feed into the Calvin Cycle? A: ATP and NADPH
8A: The green photosynthetic pigment found in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria is A: chlorophyll
8B: What are the disc shaped membrane bound sacs found inside chloroplasts that contain chlorophyll and enzymes for the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A: thylakoids
9A: A: Stroma.
9B: A plant organelle that contains chlorophyll and is the site of protein synthesis A: chloroplasts
10A: What molecule is split to produce the electrons that are used by photosystems I and II to produce NADPH? A: h20
10B: The most abundant protein on earth is A: Rubisco. ------------------------------------------
Module 11:
1A: Dr. Pozos really loves baked potato chips. Where does his first chip start to chemically digest? A: mouth
1B: Dr. Pozos really loves starchy boiled potatoes. After chewing his food what will be the next organ that will continue to chemically digest the potato? A: stomach
2A: ____________ increase the absorptive area and the surface area of the intestinal wall A: villi
2B: Covalent bonds are defined by: A: Bonds that form between atoms as a result of sharing electrons.
3A: Which of the following is a NOT characteristic of bile? A: It is produced in the gallbladder
3B: Bile salts produced in the liver ASSIST in the breakdown of lipids by acting as an emulsifying agent. What is an emulsifying agent? A: an agent that will chemically interact with both lipids and water, thus stabilizing the interface between lipid (oil) or water droplets in suspension
4A: Matt one of Dr. Pozos' assistants had gastric bypass surgery a few years ago and lost a lot of weight. Based on this illustration which part of his digestive tract was completely bypassed? (Hint: Use WebMD) A: duodenum
4B: Matt one of Dr. Pozos' assistants has an abnormally large pancreas. Which one of the following images is of a pancreas? (Hint: Use google) A:
5A: Carbon atoms can form up to _____ covalent bonds by sharing electrons with other atoms. A: Four
5B: Priscilla was in the laboratory one night when she accidentally ingested a mutagenic chemical. This chemical acted directly on her Islets of Langerhans and caused them to turn into endothelial cells. What consequences would this have on her body? A: Her body would quit producing insulin and glucagon and she would have trouble controlling her glucose metabolism.
6A: Carbon atoms form _______ bonds with hydrogen or other carbon atoms to become stable under the octet rule and are termed organic compounds. A: covalent
6B: Connective tissue serosa is best defined as: A: The outermost layer of the digestive tract.
7A: Which one of the following are the four types of macromolecules? A: proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates
7B: The small intestine is divided into three parts: A: The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
8A: All of the following are true about the liver EXCEPT: A: It produces iron and some vitamins
8B: Which of the following is not one of the four macromolecules in biology? A: water
9A: Which definition bet describes Hydrolysis? A: A chemical reaction in which a large molecule is split by a water molecule.
9B: What are Pepsins? A: Protease enzymes that break proteins into smaller amino acids called peptides.
10A: Which of the following is false? (use google or wikipedia if necessary) A: RNA consists of connected subunits that contain a base, a sugar, and a calcium
10B: Which of the following is false? (use google or wikipedia if necessary) A: carbohydrates are made from monomers or polymers of hydrophobic hydrocarbons --------------------------------------------------------------
Module 12: Proteins
1A: What are proteins broken down into before they can be absorbed into the body by digestion? A: amino acids
1B: Why are proteins broken down into amino acids before they can be absorbed in the body by digestion? A: So that they are small enough to cross the lining of the gut
2A: ________ helps set up the counter current system in the nephrons. A: urea
2B: Trypsin: A: hydrolyzes peptides into amino acids
3A: Hemoglobin is a protein that... (see google or wikipedia for help) A: Carries oxygen in the blood
3B: Amyloid beta is a protein that... (see google or wiki for help) A: Is the main constituent of amyloid plaques in the brains of Alzheimer's disease patients
4A: Which one of the following molecules is a protein? A: A
4B: Secondary Structure refers to: A: The folding of a polypeptide in to alpha-helix or beta-pleated sheets
5A: How would the metabolism of freshly eaten proteins be affected if your stomach did not contain pepsin or hydrochloric acid? A: the proteins will not be broken down into peptides before entering the small intestine
5B: The eight (10 for juveniles) amino acids that must be obtained from the diet are called... A: essential amino acids
6A: The small intestines, liver, and kidney can all generate ammonia from... A: amino acids
6B: Dr. Pozos surgically removed the kidney's of his helper Priscilla. How will this effect Priscilla's liver? A: The liver will be overworked with an excess of ammonia and urea and will more than likely fail
7A: To change the primary structure of a protein one would have to... A: alter the sequence of amino acids
7B: Where would you predict the hydrophobic amino acid Isoleucine to be on the tertiary structure of a protein that is normally found in blood? A: buried within the globular domain away from water
8A: Urea is synthesized in the liver and transported through the blood... A: to be excreted in urine
8B: Which one of the following is false? A: Urea is more toxic than ammonia
9A: Dehydration synthesis between amino acids forms a water molecule from the loss of _____ from the amino group and the loss of _____ from the carboxyl group. A: H; OH
9B: The exact sequence of amino acids dictates the __________ of each protein. A: all of these
10A: Dr. Pozos is a mad protein scientist. In his spare time he gets alanine, serine, and tryptophan (amino acids) to form peptide bonds with one another. What should he call these molecules that he has made? A: polypeptides
10B: Dr. Pozos is a mad protein scientist. In his spare time he incubates protein with proteases (enzymes that break apart proteins) and determines what the products of this reaction are. He saw that he frequently gets small molecules that contain peptide bonds between the amino acids leucine and serine (amino acids). What should he call these molecules that he has made? A: dipeptides --------------------------------------------
Module 13: Carbohydrates
1A: Dr. Pozos lives a pretty sedentary lifestyle. He has a weight of 185 pounds and is 5 feet and 10 inches tall. What is his BMI and is he overweight? (find a BMI calculator on-line) A: 26.5 and overweight
1B: _________ defines a saccharide polymer containing a small number (typically 3 to 10) of component sugars, also known as simple sugars. A: Oligosaccharide
2A: Dr. Lane just finished running a marathon and needs to consume calories immediately or she will faint. However, she left her wallet at home and has very little money on her. Which of the following would be the most inexpensive source of calories for her? A: a potato
2B: What is another word for Carbohydrate? A: Saccharide
3A: You stuff yourself silly every week at an all-you-can-eat pizza buffet (commonly referred to as carbohydrate heaven) because it was cheap and you have limited monetary resources. Your body has plenty of ATP available to the cells so the acetyl-CoA you have made will be used to make... A: fatty acids
3B: You stuff yourself silly every week with baked potatoes bought because they are cheap and you have limited monetary resources. Your body has plenty of ATP available to the cells so the acetyl-CoA you have made will be used to make... A: fatty acids
4A: Dr. Monroe wants to prevent Priscilla, the chair of biology, from digesting carbohydrates. Which organ should she remove from Priscilla that produces the enzymes needed for carbohydrate digestion? A: pancreas
4B: Actor Patrick Swayze (Dirty Dancing, Ghost, Donnie Darko) died from complications associated with pancreatic cancer. How was his digestion of carbohydrates affected due to limited use of his pancreas? A: may have been reduced because there is no amylase and maltase
5A: Dr. Pozos was in motorcycle accident with a clown and lost a lot of blood. The hospital he was taken to only had type O blood. Dr. Pozos' blood type is B. Like all scientists Dr. Pozos carries with him an enzyme that degrades oligosaccharides. Given what you know of blood types from the module what would you predict would happen to Dr. Pozos if he was given a blood transfusion with type O treated with this enzyme? A: He would live with no anticipated immune complications from the type O transfused blood.
5B: ______ Diabetes is a condition in which the _______ no longer produces insulin. A: Type I; pancreas
6A: Matt really loves Fritos. One day he got so excited he accidentally swallowed a hand full of them without even chewing. How will this affect the digestion of this salty carbohydrate? A: they will probably digest slower than normal because they were not exposed tosalivary amylase
6B: How does a cell keep glucose from escaping without breaking down the molecule? A: phosphorylation
7A: Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats can all be broken down into A: acetyl-CoA
7B: Which of the following is a highly branched starch consisting of several thousand glucose molecules? A: amylopectin
8A: Cellulose is a carbohydrate that provides structural support for A: all of the choices are correct
8B: Cellulose is a carbohydrate that provides structural support for... A: none of the above
9A: The complete oxidation of glucose, including the TCA cycle, in the cells releases energy in the form of... A: ATP
9B: Insulin stimulates the conversion of carbohydrates into _____, diminishes the breakdown of fat, and________ amino acid uptake. A: fat; increases
10A: Dr. Pozos discovered recently discovered a toxin that when taken orally causes the body to cease block the release of insulin after eating a meal. What disease is this toxin mimicking? A: type I diabetes
10B: How does your body get energy when you are fasting? A: The body mobilizes fat reserves for ATP synthesis to supply the body with energy. ----------------------------------------------------
Module 14: Lipids
1A: When lipids are ingested as food they are emulsified by __________, and broken into fatty acids by__________. A: bile salts; pancreatic lipase
1B: A molecule formed from one glycerol and three fatty acid subunits by dehydration synthesis is a... A: triglyceride
2A: Fats and oils differ in their A: saturation of fatty acids
2B: The definition "A secretion that forms a waterproof coating over leaves, stems, and certain fruits of some terrestrial plants" is termed: A: cutin
3A: Adipose tissue cells consist of fat globules in the form of triglycerides which can occupy... A: most of the cell volume
3B: The main use of Acetyl-CoA is: A: to convey the carbon atoms within the acetyl group to the citric acid cycle to be oxidized for energy production.
4A: If Dr. Pozos developed a condition where his body could not produce ketone bodies, how would this effect him when he is fasting? A: He would not be able to use any of his fat reserves for energy
4B: Which of the following has the most unsaturated fatty acids? A: Olive Oil
5A: Fatty acids make fats and oils by bonding to... A: Glycerol
5B: How would changing the polar phosphate group on a phospholipid to a non-polar group affect its physical/chemical properties? A: it would make the molecule completely hydrophobic and would cease to function as a cell membrane component
6A: "Loose connective tissue in which fat cells accumulate" defines which term/ A: adiposer tissue
6B: In humans, fatty acids are predominantly formed in the _________________________. A: liver, adipose tissue, and mammary glands during lactation
7A: Matt has eaten half a pound of sugar on a dare from Dr. Monroe the body builder. Name the process that the EXCESS sugars will undergo to be stored in the body. A: lipogenesis
7B: Adipose tissue cells consist of fat globules which can occupy up to ___ of the cell volume. A: 90%
8A: Polyunsaturated fats present in plant oils that our bodies do not synthesize are called... A: essential fatty acids
8B: Dr. Villa wants to prevent Dr. Pozos' body from breaking down lipids for digestion. To accomplish this which organ should he remove that produces a lipid hydrolyzing enzyme? A: Pancreas
9A: In the small intestines fatty acids, cholesterol, and glycerides combine in epithelial cells to form complex structures called... A: chylomicrons
9B: All of the following are true about bile EXCEPT: A: It is synthesized in the gallbladder
10A: Which one of the following has been hydrogenated to be solid at room temperature? A: margarine
10B: Matt, Dr. Pozos' personal chef, has secretly been adding the lipid docosahexaenoic acid in place of butter to his dinners. How will this affect his health? A: decrease in strokes ------------------------------------------------------
Module 15: DNA
1A: The cellular information to make a protein is stored long-term as this type of molecule. A: DNA
1B: These macromolecules are different forms of cellular information required to run the cell. A: dna, rna, and proteins.
2A: DNA is stored within cells as A: Long strands of double stranded DNA wrapped around proteins as chromosomes
2B: Which of the following is NOT true about an organism's genome? A: It is organized as lots of pieces of double stranded DNA.
3A: A: Phosphate Group
3B: A DNA double helix is formed through the interactions of this part of anucleotide. A: Nitrogenous base
4A: Every cell in your body contains __________ percent of your genome. A: 100
4B:If we isolated DNA from your skin cells and your liver cells, they would have __________ DNA A: identical
5A: From the website associated with the module, how much DNA resides in each cell of the human body? A: 6 feet
5B: According to the website associated with the module, how many genes are estimated to exist in the human genome? A: at least 30,000
6A: If you wanted to make a copy of DNA in the lab, which protein would you need to complete the synthesis of a new strand of DNA? A: DNA polymerase
6B: What is the difference between the functions of the protein in Figure 9 and DNA polymerase shown in Figure 10? A: The protein in Figure 9 unwinds double stranded DNA to create a template strand
7A: Which property of nucleotides allows DNA to make exact copies of itself? A: Base Pairing
7B: Two double stranded DNA molecules are made from DNA replication. Which of the following statements is true about the 2 new DNA molecules? A: Both molecules contain one original strand and one new strand
8A: Create the correct opposite strand for TGCACCA. A: ACGTGGT
8B: Create the correct opposite strand for GACGTTA. A: CTGCAAT
9A: A: All of these
9B: The intense UV light from the San Diego sun can lead to distorted DNA within a cell. This type of DNA damage can have which of the following consequences? A: All of these
10A: A gene is __________, which contains the information to make ____________. A: Gene, protein
10B: A: a sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA; a protein Antibodies are... ---Recognize and bind to specific antigens DNA is stored within cells as ---Long strands of double stranded DNA wrapped around proteins aschromosomes Where does the influenza virus settle in your body? ---Respiratory system Which is the strongest type of influenza virus? ---A This part of the nucleotide binds two nucleotides together to form a singlestrand of DNA. ----Phosphate groupFigure 9 DNA Polymerse? ---The protein in Figure 9 unwinds double stranded DNA tocreate a template strand A gene is __________, which contains the information to make ____________. ---asequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA; a protein ----------------------------------------
Module 16: Gene Expression
1A: Using the table, which amino acid is encoded by the sequence CAU? A: HIS
1B: What does it mean for a gene to be expressed? In other words, what does “gene expression†really mean? A: Information in a gene is made into protein
2A: How did scientists know the genetic code was in sets of three nucleotides? A: A three-letter code provides enough codes to make all 20 amino acids while single and paired nucleotides did not provide enough codes.
2B: __________ refers to the DNA strand that forms the template for the transcribed mRNA. A: Non-coding strand
3A: Within a stretch of DNA, one ______ encodes for one________. A: gene, protein
3B: A: Gly, Pro, Ile, Tyr.
4A: Transcribe the following DNA sequence into mRNA: TGACCTGAA A: ACUGGACUU
4B: From the following double stranded DNA sequence, transcribe the correct mRNA molecule (Remember which is the template strand): 5’-TTCCAGATAGCC-3’ 3’-AAGGTCTATCGG-5’ A: UUCCAGAUAGCC
5A: A: Unwinding DNA and synthesizing a complementary strand to the template strand
5B: This region (a) tells RNA polymerase where to bind to DNA while this region (b) tells RNA where to start transcription: A: (a) promoter, (b) start site
6A: The final product of transcription is: A: single stranded RNA
6B: Transcription of a gene has just finished. What happens next? A: mRNA is transported out of the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis
7A: A: storing genetic code
7B: In the molecule, _____ is the part that is complementary to the sequence on mRNA. A: anti-codon
8A: How does tRNA bring the correct amino acid to the translation complex for protein synthesis A: The two features of tRNA molecule, the anti-codon and the specific binding of one amino acid, allows tRNA to bring in the correct amino acid
8B: Which of the following is true about translation? A: The tRNA with the UAC anti-codon is always the first tRNA bound to the translation complex.
9A: Put the following steps in the correct order for translation? 1. methionine is transferred to the next tRNA 2. mRNA binds to the ribosome 3. the ribosomes moves to the next codon 4. tRNA carrying methionine binds to the start codon 5. the process continues until the ribosome reaches a stop codon 6. a tRNA with the corresponding anti-codon for the next codon binds A: 2,4,6,1,3,5
9B: How does translation know when to end? A: When the ribosome reaches UAA, UAG, or UGA codons
10A: While working hard on a science project in the lab, you realize your sample is contaminated with an unknown protein. You have to figure out what this protein is or you will fail your science class. You decide to sequence the DNA and it has the following sequence: 5’ – CAGTTAGCCAAT – 3’. What is the sequence of the protein made from this piece of DNA? A: Gln, Leu, Ala, Asn
10B: You are working on a crime scene and have discovered a piece of DNA. The protein it encodes will break the case and you will be promoted to lead detective. After sequencing the DNA you know the DNA sequence is 5’ – AAATGCCCCTAT – 3’. What are the amino acids of the mystery protein? A: Lys, Cys, Pro, Tyr. Which is the amino acid sequence coded for with the following nucleotidesequence? GGCCCAAUUUAU ---Gly, Pro, Ile, Tyr -----------------------------------------------
Module 17:
1A: Which of the following is NOT a way nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins? A: One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can lengthen an amino acidsequence.
1B: The following is the result of what type of DNA mutation? Glu, Pro, Lys ----> Glu, Pro, STOP A: substitution
2A: Which of the following nucleotide sequences would NOT cause a frameshift inthe sequence TAAGCC? A: TATGCG
2B: A nucleotide sequence was mutated during replication and the amino acid sequence changed from His, Gly, Val, … to His, Val, … What was the likely cause of this change in amino acid sequence? A: The three nucleotides encoding Gly were deleted in the nucleotide sequence.
3A: You have a young patient in your office complaining of sudden pain in his joints and abdomen. He also describes often feeling tired and weak. You draw a blood sample for a few tests. You suspect he may have a genetic disorder. Which mutation do you hypothesize to be the cause of your young patient’s symptoms? A: substitution in the hemoglobin beta chain gene.
3B: After running some tests, you find a valine instead of glutamic acid in your patient’s hemoglobin beta gene. This is consistent with which of the following symptoms? A:Shortness of breath and fatigue
4A: Which of the following is NOT true of sickle cell anemia? A: The amino acid substitution causes a truncated hemoglobin protein that is nonfunctional that causes the sickling of red blood cells.
4B: What is a possible reason the HBB mutation evolved to cause sickle cell anemia? A: The mutation may have occurred to give humans an advantage over malaria because sickle-shaped cells are more resistant to malarial infection.
5A: A young patient is experiencing difficulty in breathing and is coughing up thick mucous. Your patient also appears to be malnourished. You suspect a devastating genetic disease and get a DNA sample. How will you know if your hypothesis is correct? A: The DNA sequence shows a deletion of the nucleotides that encode phenylalanine in the CFTR gene that leads to cystic fibrosis.
5B: Which of the following is true of the mutation that causes cystic fibrosis? A: The mutation occurs in a chloride channel that maintains the balance between sodium and chloride ions within the cells.
6A:After sequencing DNA from a patient, you observe a loss of the nucleotidesthat encodes phenylalanine in the CTFR gene. This mutation is consistentwith all of the following symptoms EXCEPT: A: acute chest syndrome
6B: From the website on sickle cell anemia, how is sickle cell anemia inherited? A: People get two copies of the sickle cell gene – one from each parent.
7A: Both sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis manifest their specific diseases because: A: the mutated proteins have lost their normal functions
7B: "Nucleotide insertions and deletions can lead to a shift in the way the nucleotide sequence is read." These are called: A: frameshifts
8A: The HBB mutation observed in sickle cell anemia causes the disease by all of the following ways EXCEPT: A: The mutated hemoglobin is degraded and no longer functions.
8B: The loss of function of the CFTR protein causes ____________________, which directly causes the thick mucous in the lungs and pancreas of cystic fibrosis patients. A: cells that line the lung and pancreas to lose their ability to maintain a balance between sodium and chloride ions within the cell
9A: Gene therapy uses the following information to design a treatment for a given disease: A: a given disease is caused by a mutation in one specific gene
9B: All of the following are ways gene therapy can correct a mutated gene EXCEPT: A: all of these are correct
10A: Viruses are used to deliver gene therapy because: A: they can recognize specific cells and inject genetic material into them.
10B: How is it that a mutation in DNA stored inside the nucleus of a cell can cause a disease affecting multiple organs? A: The mutated DNA is expressed in multiple cells through the process of transcription and translation, and the altered protein causes the disease wherever the DNA was expressed. ---------------------------------------------
Module 18:
1A: Which of the following is a purpose of cell division? A: All of these
1B: Which of the following is not a purpose of cell division? A: Energy Production
2A: Which of the following is not necessary for the cell cycle to proceed? A: Gastulation
2B: How many chromatids does each chromosome have during G1? A: 1
3A: How many chromatids does each chromosome have during G2? A: 2
3B: A: microtubules
4A: Gametes are produced by the process of A: meiosis
4B: At which step of the cell cycle are microtubules made? A: G2
5A: A defect exists in a cell that results in the failure of microtubules to bind kinetochores. Which of the following is the most likely result? A: Cyclin-dependent kinases do not phosphorylate their target molecule
5B: A defect exists in a cell that results in cyclin dependent kinases that areconstitutively (always) active. Which of the following is the most likelyresult? A: Cancerous Cells develop
6A: Homologous recombination A: Occurs during Prophase I
6B: During Prophase I of meiosis, sister chromatids pair together in a processcalled A: synapsis
7A: Meiosis involves __________ round(s) of DNA replication and _________ round(s) of cell division. A: one, two
7B: What are the 4 requirements for Cell Division? A: replication, segregation, cytokinesis, signal
8A: Meiotic nondisjunction can result in A: trisomy
8B: Cyclin-dependent-kinases have no activity unless A: they are bound to cyclin
9A: What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture? A: Anaphase
9B: What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture? A: interphase
10A: What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture? A: prophase
10B: What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture? A: metaphase Which proto-oncogene acts as a growth factor receptor and when mutated isimplicated in hereditary forms of thyroid cancer? ---RET -------------------------------------------------------------
Module 19: Cancer
1A: Cancer involves A: all of these
1B: A drug is developed that blocks angiogenesis. It will have the following effect(s) on cancer cells A:
2A: Angiogenesis is A: Required to bring nutrients to the inside of large tumors
2B: Which of the following is not a characteristic of dysplasia? A: well defined tumor boundaries
3A: Necrosis is A: none of these
3B: Apoptosis A: all of these
4A: The ability of cancer to spread to new tissues is called A: metastasis
4B: Which one of the following is not a stage of metastasis A: meiotic drive
5A: Your doctor checks your DNA and informs you that he found proto-oncogenes. Should you A: do nothing
5B: An oncogene A: always promotes cell cycle progression
6A: A tumor suppressor gene A: stops cell cycle progression
6B: Chemotherapy A: causes cancer cells to kill themselves
7A: A:
7B: A chemical that induces DNA mutations is known as a A: carcinogen
8A: Which of the following increases the risk of cancer A: all of these
8B: Which of the following decreases cancer risk? A: A Healthy Diet
9A: If you have a p53 mutation, chemo- and radiation therapy may be less effective than normal because A: your cells cannot induce apoptosis
9B: You have a mole growing on your arm. Which of the following characteristics would suggest it may be cancerous? A: all of these
10A: A:
10B: A mutation in a single tumor suppressor gene A: increases cancer risk Suppose there is a family with a history of colon cancer where the mutationresponsible for that family's predisposition is known. If a family memberwithout cancer undergoes genetic testing and finds out that he did notinherit the mutated copy of the gene, that result tells us... ---That his risk of cancer will be the same as the average person in the population. Both radiation therapy and chemotherapy cause ---two of these -----------------------------
Module 20: Genetics
1A: Genes are: A: Portions of DNA molecules that determine characteristics of living things and how those characteristics transmit from one generation to the next
1B: Addition of methyl groups to DNA will: A: Block RNA polymerase from attaching to DNA
2A: Recessive alleles are expressed: A: Only when two recessive alleles exist together in an individual
2B: The inherited genetic code of an organism is called: A: genotype
3A: Histone deacetylation results in: A: gene silencing
3B: Mechanisms of epigenetic modification include: A: DNA methylation
4A: DNA methylation results in: A: gene silencing
4B: DNA is densely packed in the nucleus. One way this is acheived is by coiling around proteins called A: histones
5A: Epigenetics refers to: A: Changes in gene function that occur without DNA mutations, and that are passed on
5B: Mendel's law of independent assortment is caused by the process of A: homologous recombination
6A: The term phenotype refers to: A: the observable characteristics of an individual which result from expression of genes
6B: A Punnett Square A: All of these
7A: If attached earlobes is a trait carried in a recessive allele, how many attached earlobes alleles must one individual have to show the phenotype? A: 2
7B: The inherited modification in the expression of a gene, which is not directly related to the nucleotide sequence of that gene, is called A: Epigenetic Inheritance
8A: A heterozygous individual with free earlobes must have: A: two different alleles
8B: If the allele for free earlobes is the dominant allele, a heterozygous individual will have which phenotype: A: free earlobes
9A: Methylation of a tumor suppressor gene may lead to
A:
NOT
all of these
9B: The different forms of a gene are called: A: alleles
10A: In a diploid cell, there are: A: Two alleles for each characteristic
10B: A homozygous dominant person with free earlobes mates with someone with attached earlobes. The offspring has free earlobes. What is this person's genotype? A: Ff --------------------------------------------
Module 21: Early Embryonic Development
1A: If sperm were not able to make ATP, which function would be most directly affected? A: Motility
1B: The most important protein within the egg’s zona pellucida is called ZP3, which is required for species-specific sperm recognition and binding. Imagine that the DNA encoding the sperm-binding region of the ZP3 gene is mutated. What would be the most obvious effect? A: Failure of sperm attachment to the zona pellucida
2A: The structure labeled "A" is required for which of the following events? A: Zona pellucida penetration.
2B: The indicated structure is important for which aspect of fertilization or development?
A:
NOT
Protecting the embryo
NOT
Regulation of sperm entry
3A: Early embryonic cell divisions are called __________. A: cleavage
3B: A hallmark of cleavage is A: all of these.
4A: Gastrulation is defined by which of the following? A: Stage of embryonic development following cleavage, hallmarked by movement of cells through the primitive streak to establish the three germ layers.
4B: At __ weeks a human baby is named a fetus. A: 8
5A: The indicated structure can give rise to ________. A: placenta
5B: Embryonic stem cells are harvested from which embryonic stage? A:
6A: The purpose of implantation is to _________. A: establish a physical connection to the mother.
6B: Alcohol and drug abuse by pregnant women can cause severe birth defects. However, alcohol and drug use during the first week or two of pregnancy does not seem to have any adverse effects on embryonic development. This is likely because ________. A: the embryo has not established a connection to the mother's blood supply yet.
7A: Cleavage stage cell divisions include which phases of the mitotic cell cycle? A: S and M.
7B: Imagine that scientists removed 2 blastomere cells from a young 8-cell stage embryo in order to perform a genetic test. How would this impact the embryo’s development? A: There will not be a major impact on the embryo’s development.
8A: Which of the following cannot form from mesoderm? A: Brain
8B: If the indicated germ layer became damaged during development and the cells could no longer assemble properly, which of the following would fail to form? A: Lining of the digestive tract
9A: According to the module, the blue line in the image marks the _______ axis. A: anterior-posterior
9B: Which of the following describes the axial location of your heart? A: anterior, ventral, left
10A: Hox genes are required for ________. A: anterior-posterior differentiation
10B: A teratoma is a type of tumor (it can be either benign or cancerous) made up of jumbled mixture of cells that resemble different tissue types. A doctor removes a teratoma from a young woman and finds evidence of hair, lung tissue, brain tissue, and bone. From which germ layer did this woman’s teratoma originate? A: All of these A genetic syndrome exists where male babies are born with an extra Y chromosome,resulting in an XYY genotype. Which of the following reproductive errors correctlyexplains this genetic anomaly? ---Meiotic chromosome non-disjunction Compensatory regeneration is characterized by? ---The cell division of adult differentiated cells to produces cells similar to themselves ---------------------------------------------------
Module 22: Development of Organ Systems
1A: _______ is the acquisition of characteristic changes in cell size, shape, and function. A: Differentiation
1B: Differentiated cells form: A: tissues
2A: Human embryonic stem cells from the inner cell mass are at which level of potency? A: Pluripotent, because they can form all cell types in the future embryo’s body, but not extra-embryonic tissues
2B: Has the blastocyst stage embryo, shown below, gone through differentiation yet A: Yes, because trophoblast cells have a different function than cells of the inner cell mass.
3A: This diagram is from your module. Which numbered protein can be considered tissue-specific? A: All of these
3B: Heart cells and liver cells function differently because _________. A: none of theseexplanations is plausible
4A: Which letter in the diagram below indicates a structure important for tissue-specific gene expression? A: A, B, and C
4B: Hox genes are _______. A: all of these
5A: Mesoderm instructing a region of endoderm to become the stomach is an example of ________. A: cell communication
5B: Which of the following can cause a cell to differentiate? A: All of these
6A: Increasing complexity during embryonic development is represented by which of the following progressions? A: stem cells -->differentiated cells -->tissues -->organs
6B: During embryonic development, do organs assemble into tissues? A: No, tissues assemble into organs
7A: The indicated structure becomes the _______ later in development. A: brain and spinal cord
7B: Which of the following is true about the indicated structure? A: Derives from ectoderm and Requires Hox genes for differentiation
8A: Which organ derives from the foregut? A: All of these
8B: The lining of the trachea and lungs derive from ________. A: the foregut
9A: Which two organ systems derive from a common precursor structure? A: Digestive system and respiratory system
9B: A: none of these
10A: Which of the following is not a characteristic of stem cells? A: Carries out a specialized function
10B: The fetus ________. A: must produce surfactant before its lungs can function ----------------------------------
Module 23: Development & Society
1A: A:
1B: Which of the following is not a teratogen? (Use Google if necessary.) A: None of these
2A: Which of the following statements about retinoic acid is false? A: It does not harm the embryo if present in excess amounts
2B: Mothers of the children shown below took what drug during pregnancy? A: Thalidomide
3A: The ultimate goal of therapeutic cloning is to _______. A: create stem cells for future disease treatments
3B: Which of the following is true of reproductive cloning? A: It has potential use in the agriculture industry
4A: A:
4B: Creating identical versions of a prize-winning bull is an example of _______. A: reproductive cloning
5A: Stem cell research is useful for ________. A: All of these
5B: Stem cell research has the potential to cure which of the following? A: All of these
6A: The most common source of embryonic stem cells is ________. A: the inner cell mass of embryos created by in vitro fertilization
6B: Which class of cells has the greatest potential for researchers in terms of differentiation? A: Embryonic stem cells
7A: Induced pluripotent stem cells are a promising breakthrough for stem cell research because ______. A: All of these
7B: The key to generating induced pluripotent stem cells is _______. A: expressing ES cell-specific transcription factors
8A: Which of the following is an advantage of using adult stem cells rather than embryonic stem cells to develop disease treatments? A: They avoid the ethical problems associated with embryonic stem cells and they have been used successfully in the past
8B: Current U.S. policy allows use of federal money to conduct what type of research? A: Stem cell research on ethically-derived stem cell lines
9A: What is the greatest ethical barrier to stem cell research? A:Embryos are destroyed in the process of making ES cells
9B: What is a major concern with current embryonic stem cell-based therapies? A: They can result in unregulated cell growth (cancer) in animal models
10A: Which of the following observations provides evidence in support of evolution? A: All of these
10B: Hox genes provide evidence for evolution because ________ is similar in flies and humans. A: All of these ----------------------------------------------------------
Module 24: Evolution
1A: What is the best definition of evolution? A: a change in the genetic composition of population over successive generations
1B: What was the theory put forward by Lamarck? A: Transformism
2A: Which of the following is an important concept in Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection? A: descent with modification
2B: The theory of natural selection was simultaneously invented by Charles Darwin and …. A: Alfred Russel Wallace
3A: Why did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species? A: Darwin was conerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory
3B: Within a population and due to competition between individuals, those individuals with an advantageous trait will survive to pass their genes on to the next generation. This idea is called …. A: natural selection
4A: Which of the following does NOT provide evidence for evolution? A: a geographical distribution of ecosystems
4B: Which of the following is evidence for Darwin's theory of common descent? A: all of these
5A: Evidence for the evolution of life comes from all of the following except …. A: creationism
5B: The fossil record is incomplete because …. A: of all these reasons
6A: Which of the following are least likely to be found as a fossil? A: Uromi’s heart muscle
6B: The movement of tectonic plates influences evolution by …. A: changing the locations of continents, causing some species to be geographically isolated from others.
7A: Which of the following statements about the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat is INCORRECT? A: They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor
7B: What is the relationship between Uromi’s hand and the hand of Uromi’s dog Kaluu? A: They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor
8A: Through studying hox genes or homeobox genes molecular biologist have uncovered that .. A: hox genes direct the building of bodies according to definite detailed plans between very diverse animal species.
8B: Homeobox genes …. A: code for segmented body plan of an animal
9A: Molecular evidence …. A: can be used to infer evolutionary relationships among organisms.
9B: Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense? A: a tiger who has many cubs, twelve of which live to adulthood
10A: Which of these is the most scientifically effective criticism of Darwin's original theory? A: It lacks a theory of heredity
10B: The two theories combined in the synthetic theory of evolution, or neo-Darwinism, are …. and …. A: natural selection, Mendelian inheritance. -----------------------------------------------
Module 25: Natural Selection
1A: Darwin should be credited with …. A: proposing natural selection as a mechanism of evolution.
1B: For evolution to take place there must be …. A: any of these
2A: Which of these following statements is TRUE? A: Natural selection has been demonstrated to occur in wild populations.
2B: Until the beginning of the last century, both too small and too large babies had higher risks of death, selecting for average babies. This kind of selection is known as …. A: Stabilizing selection.
3A: A population of Sri Lankan brown cockroaches lives on a forest floor. They suffer heavy predation from chameleons. Because their heads are small, the chameleons are unable to eat the very largest adult cockroaches, and instead prey upon small and medium sized adults. What type of selection does the chameleons impose on the roaches? A: directional selection
3B: When both sides of the bell curve is favored and the middle is not, what type of selection is this? A: Disruptive selection
4A: In the Origin of Species, Darwin began his arguments using …. as an example. A: pigeons
4B: The basic steps in the artificial selection include …. A: all of these
5A: Mutations can be caused by …. A: all of these.
5B: Mutations are …. A: a source of new genetic material.
6A: Mutations are heritable only if they occur …. A: in reproductive cells
6B: Gene Flow …. A: increases the genetic variation in a population.
7A: Hunting in the 1980s reduced the population of Northern elephant seals and their genetic variation. Their population size to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Their population has since rebounded to over 30,000 but they have much less genetic variation than a population of southern elephant seals that was not so intensely hunted. This result in genetic changes of the population is called …. A: bottleneck effect.
7B: The Afrikaner population of Dutch settlers in South Africa is descended mainly from a few colonists. Today, the Afrikaner population has an unusually high frequency of the gene that causes Huntington’s disease, because those original Dutch colonists just happened to carry that gene with unusually high frequency. This result in genetic changes of the population is called ….. A: founder effect
8A: Which of the following statements is NOT true? A: Fitness refers to the strongest who survive
8B: Which of the following statements is NOT true? A: Traits that are advantageous often do not persist in a population
9A: Examples of microevolution are …. A: all of these
9B: Which statement below is NOT true: A: Macroevolution does not happen due to mutations, genetic drift or geneflow.
10A: The tree of life represents …. A: all of these
10B: Which of the following statements is NOT true: A: Humans have zero probability of becoming extinct because we are special. ---------------------------------------
Module 26: Evolution & Us
1A: Hominids …. A: are members of the family of humans or human like species.
1B: Why is it difficult to come up with an exact count of the number of hominid species? A: Because of all of these reasons.
2A: Which of the below statements is NOT TRUE about human evolution? A: Humans evolved from biological processes that are different from the processes that govern the evolution of all life on Earth.
2B: A:
3A: Bipedalism is important in hominid development because …. A: of all of these reasons.
3B: What type of environmental change is associated with transition to bipedality? A: The climate becoming significantly cooler and drier.
4A: Which of the following is NOT an adaptation for upright bipedal movement? A: The canine teeth are smaller than that of apes.
4B: Which of the following is NOT TRUE
A:
NOT
The recent rapid evolution of humans resulted in the ability to use fire, develop language and domesticate plants and animals.
5A: If the earths climate changed into significantly warmer conditions than present, given that increase in body surface area increases heat dissipation, what kinds of humans would you expect in the deep future? Assume that all humans have to live in natural environmental conditions. i.e. not inside buildings. A: Thinner and taller build compared to present humans.
5B: Which of the following mutations will be favored and selected if the earth’s atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations significantly increased above the present day 385 parts per million, decreasing the percentage of oxygen in air? A: Hemoglobin F mutation that increases transport efficiency of oxygen in low oxygen environments. It’s normal role is to provide the fetus with oxygeon, but the mutation, which is rare, increases the production of Hemoglobin F in adults with out causing disease.
6A: Neanderthal fossils have been found in …. A: Europe
6B: A:
7A: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Neanderthal and Cro- Magnon man? A: Only Cro-Magnon made necklaces and jewelry
7B: Evidence for the evolution of humans comes from all of the following except …. A: creationism.
8A: Which if the following statements about sickle-cell anemia is false? A: The sickle-cell disease will be immediately wiped out if a vaccine for malaria is found.
8B: The ability to perform a safe C-section has liberated human childbirth from natural selection directed against too small a maternal pelvis and too large a fetal head. Fetal head size is correlated with fetal birth weight and IQ. If the practice of having more and more human babies born with the assistance of C-section operations continues, what kind of changes would the populations with C-section assisted birth will NOT have? A: Lower IQ.
9A: A:
9B: Your friend has just learned about evolution and drug resistance and gives you the following advice. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT? A: the one about Mucus
10A: Maintaining the diversity of crop species is important because of all of the following reasons except … A: Maintaining diversity results in lower number of variants in crop genes.
10B: Genetic marking of captive bread parrots using legal means can help in conservation of wild populations because …. A: owners who can not get insurance without the DNA certificate will be less likely to buy the illegally traded wild parrots. Neanderthal behavior did not include …. ---settlement in permanent villages. Maintaining the diversity of crop species is important because of all of thefollowing reasons except … --Maintaining diversity results in lower number of variants in crop genes. The ability to perform a safe C-section has liberated human childbirth fromnatural selection directed against too small a maternal pelvis and too large a fetal head. Fetal head size is correlated with fetal birth weight and IQ. If thepractice of having more and more human babies born with the assistance of C-section operations continues, what kind of changes would the populationswith C-section assisted birth will NOT have? ---Lower IQ. ------------------------------------------
Module 27: Central Nervous System
1A: Dr. Pozos just listed 7 one-word facts on how water is essential to life. Approximately how long can you potentially remember all 7 facts without looking or studying them again? (This question is according to the module) A: 2-3 minutes after he lists them
1B: Dr. Pozos just posted a list of 20 one-word facts on how water is essential to life. Approximately how many of these words can you potentially remember 5 minutes later? (This question is according to the module) A: 3-4 words
2A: What is/are the difference(s) between short-term and long-term memory? A: all of these are correct
2B: Why would seeing a picture of a witch trigger a childhood memory about Halloween? A: the information is linked by association in your brain
3A: Neurotransmitters can be relayed from neurons to which kind of cells? A: all of these are correct
3B: Short-term memory requires what molecular process? A: signaling through neurotransmitters
4A: Neurotransmitters are A: chemical messages
4B: Which of the following is true about neurotransmitters? A: they are chemical messages used by neurons to communicate with other cells
5A: What processes contribute to long-term potentiation? A: all of these are correct
5B: Why does long-term potentiation strengthen the connection between two neurons? A: the subsequent signals are stronger and longer than the initial signal
6A: What is not a potential way to lose your short-term memory? A:drinking a lot of caffeine boosts acetylcholine production in your basal forebrain
6B: Why do Alzheimer’s patients lose their short-term memory? A: plaques and tangles form in the hippocampus, blocking neuronal communication
7A: Dr. Pozos partied like a rock star the night before, but now cannot remember that he danced on the table with a lampshade on his head. How did the alcohol affect his ability to remember? A: all of these are correct
7B: A:
8A: How does sleep help improve our memories? A: your mind replays the events of the day, reinforcing new memories
8B: What happens when you are sleep deprived? A: it is harder for new memories to be transferred to long-term memory
9A: Which beverage would affect memory recall tasks the most? A: a 16 oz. Monster Energy drink
9B: Why does drinking a lot of caffeine negatively affect our memory? A: caffeine increases acetylcholine levels when they are usually decreased during sleep
10A: You have a cumulative final exam for Bio100. What is the best way to study for the test? (This question is according to the module) A: try to associate things you don’t know with things you already know
10B: Nina studied for the Bio100 final over 5 days and scored an “Aâ€. Zachpulled an all-nighter before the exam and scored a “Câ€. Based on what youlearned about memory, what is the most likely reason for the difference ingrades? A: Zach did not get enough sleep, which impaired his ability to recall information ------------------------------------------------------
Module 28: Peripheral Nervous System
1A: Turning up the volume on your radio affects sound waves in which manner? A: increases the amplitude of the wave
1B: A:
2A: What is the purpose of the ossicles? A: they convert sound waves into sound pressure
2B: What is the purpose of the cochlea? A: it converts sound pressure into electrical impulses
3A: How does a cochlear implant work? A: it stimulates the auditory nerve
3B: Which of the following is not true about the auditory cortex? A: it receives signals directly from the hair cells
4A: Dr. Pozos just got turned away from American Idol, even though he trained to have relative pitch. What is the most likely explanation for his inability to sing? A: he cannot control his vocal cords, even though he knows the correct note to sing
4B: Jennifer Lopez just insulted a contestant on American Idol because they sang horribly out of key. What is the most likely explanation for the bad performance? A: the contestant cannot imitate or remember the correct musical notes to sing
5A: Which is true about the autonomic nervous system? A: all of these are correct
5B: The autonomic nervous system controls which bodily functions? A: your heart beat and digestion
6A: Why do you experience an physiological and emotional response to music you like? A: norepinephrine levels rise, controlling your sympathetic system
6B: What is the function of the sympathetic system? A: it controls the “fight or flight†response
7A: Which of the following neurotransmitters turns the reward circuit OFF? A: GABA
7B: Which of the following neurotransmitters turns the reward circuit ON? (Choose all that apply) A: endorphins, dopamine
8A: Which nerves are part of the somatic sensory system? A: all of these are correct
8B: Which of the following functions is part of your somatic sensory system? (Choose all that apply)* A: perception of tension, perception of pain
9A: Which of the following is true about nociceptors? A: they are distinct from mechanosensory receptors
9B: "Also known as the "fight or flight" system and is dominant when you need immediate energy." This defines the following term: A: Sympathetic System
10A: Which of the following influences your perception of pain? A: all of these are correct
10B: Which of the following influences your perception of pain? A: all of these are correct -----------------------------------------
Module 29: Smooth & Skeletal System
1A: Which of these colors have the highest frequency? A: violet
1B: Which of these kinds of electromagnetic waves has the lowest frequency? A: infrared light
2A: What do cones do? A: perceive the color of light waves
2B: What are rods? A: a type of neuron in your eye
3A: Which of the following is not a part of a skeletal muscle cell? A: motor neurons
3B: Which of the following are contained in the sarcomeres? (Choose ALL that apply) A: myosin, actin
4A: Which of the following is true about muscle contraction? A: the process requires ATP
4B: How do thick and thin filaments slide past each other to cause muscle contraction A: myosin hydrolyzes ATP to create a “power strokeâ€
5A: Which of the following muscles are under the control of the autonomic nervous system? (Select ALL that apply) A: cardiac muscles, smooth muscles
5B: What is the difference between smooth and skeletal muscle? (Select ALL thatapply) A: smooth muscles are not as organized as skeletal muscles are&&smooth muscles are under control of the autonomic nervous system while skeletalmuscles are under the control of the somatic nervous system
6A: What kind of muscle is an example of a muscle controlled by a fast motor unit? A: your calf muscle
6B: What is a slow motor unit? A: one neuron controlling few muscle fibers
7A: Many states, including California, have a hands-free cell phone law (you cannot hold the phone in your hand while driving). Does this law decrease the risk of distraction while driving? A: No, speech processing and production required for phone conversation interferes with the driver’s ability to concentrate and is riskier than talking to a passenger
7B: Several lobbyists want to enact a “no texting while driving†law. Will this helpdecrease the risk of crashing? A: Yes, a no-texting law will keep your brain’s processing power focused on the task of driving
8A: What is happening when we are “multitasking� A: your brain is rapidly switching between several tasks
8B: What happens in your brain when you try to multitask? A: all of these are correct
9A: How is driving under the influence different from multitasking? A: alcohol suppresses processing power in the brain
9B: Which activity increases your risk of crashing while driving the most? A: putting on makeup using the rearview mirror
10A: What are mirror neurons? A: neurons that signal both when we perform or watch an activity
10B: How does the activity of mirror neurons in autistic patients differ from those of normal patients? A: the neurons do not signal when the autistic patient watches an activity ---------------------------------------------------------
Module 30: Cardiovascular
1A: What is the role of the right atrium? A: Receive deoxygenated blood from the circulation
1B: _______represents ventricular depolarization which is usually 0.06 to 0.1 sec in duration suggesting that this depolarization occurs very fast. A: QRS Complex.
2A: The _____ is in charge of maintaining the heart's rhythm by providing an electrical stimulus to set the rate at which cardiac muscle contracts. A: SA node
2B: "The anatomical and physiological union of cardiac cells" defines which of the following terms? A: Syncytium
3A: Which part of the circulatory system has the most blood? A: Venous
3B: Blood leaving the aorta goes to which organ first? A: Heart
4A: The electrocardiogram represents? A: Cardiac muscle contraction and relaxation.
4B: The QRS complex represents? A: Ventricular depolarization
5A: After the signal is generated from the SinoAtrial node, it goes next to ? A: Atrial ventricular node.
5B: Once the purkinje fibers fire(depolarize) what occurs? A: Ventricular muscle contracts
6A: The first action you do as you begin to do CPR is? A: Call 911
6B: _________conveys blood from all parts below the diaphragm. A: Inferior Vena Cava
7A: Ventricular fibrillation has what kind of ECG? A: it does not have a normal ECG
7B: The following definition defines which term? Any of the tendons extending from the papillary muscles to the atrioventricular valves and preventing the valves from moving into the atria during ventricular contraction. A: Chordae Tendineae
8A: Which part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest volume? A: aorta
8B: A:
9A: You start doing CPR on Dr. Pozos. You stop since you have to answer your cell phone. As a result of stopping CPR, what occurs? A: Stopping CPR causing major damage to the cardiac cells since these cells cannot survive without blood flow for any period of time.
9B: When does blood from the coronary arteries flow through cardiac tissue? A: During diastole
10A: What is the correct order of operations before the heart muscle contracts? A: 1. SA node is depolarized 2. SA signals AV node 3. AV node signals Purkinje fiber 4. Purjinke fiber innervates ventricles number 5. Cardiac muscle contracts
10B: The AV valves are anchored in the ventricles by small strands of tissue called: A: chordae tendinaea extra questions from past years #8. Which part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest pressure? ---Vena cava #9.a Heart disease is the leading cause of death in which group? ---men and women #10.b The AV valves are anchored in the ventricles by small strands of tissue called: ---chordae tendinaea 11. How do heart cells die during a heart attack? --They are oxygen deprived -----------------------------------------------
Module 31: Blood Pressure Control
1A: Stronger muscle contraction that increases cardiac output: A: Inotropy
1B: Beta Blockers are: A: Used primarily to reduce the heart rate or force in the prevention, management, or treatment of angina, hypertension, or arrythmias
2A: As your heart rate increases, what happens to cardiac output? A: Goes Up
2B: According to the module, what percentage of the population suffers with high blood pressure? A: 25%
3A: Stroke Volume refers to which of the following? A: Amount of blood ejected during systole from the aorta.
3B: Preload refers to which of the following? A: Amount of blood in the ventricles before contraction
4A: Afterload refers to which of the following? A: Blood pressure against which the ventricles have to contract against
4B: Contractility refers to which of the following? A: the force produced by the muscle for a given muscle length
5A: If you lose a lot of blood and become hypotensive, which is most affected? A: preload
5B: ___________ decreases blood pressure by way of influencing both heart and blood vessels. A: PNS
6A: When a person loses a large amount of blood, transfusions of saline water are sometimes used. These volumes of fluid will affect? A: preload
6B: Blood pressure is determined by which two factors? A: cardiac output and peripheral resistance
7A: Hypertension is a major medical problem because ? A: it causes heart attacks by way of afterload
7B: Stage 2 Hypertension is defined as? A: 160/100
8A: You are told you have high diastolic and/or systolic pressure. This is very dangerous and in most cases patients do not know the cause of their hypertension. This is called essential HT. Secondary HT is when? A: The cause of hypertension is the result of a real or endocrine disorder
8B: Low blood pressure is less dangerous than high blood pressure. A: true
9A: If the blood pressure to the brain is increasing, what occurs? A: Parasympathetic nervous system activation
9B: Receptors in the carotid sense blood pressure. The reason those receptors are located in the carotid arteries is because? A: Brain tissue must be constantly perfused with blood
10A: Pressure receptors in the carotid are sensitive to which of the following? A: Rate of change in blood pressure
10B: A giraffe swings its head down low and up high very fast. It has a long, long neck. How does it get the blood to its brain? (only one answer makes sense.. think!!) A: It has valves in its carotid arteries to propel the blood into the brain -----------------------------------------------
Module 32: Capillaries
1A:The term "autoregulation" refers to which of the following? A: Blood flow to certain blood vessels remains constant independent of perfusion pressure if it (pressure)does not exceed a certain range
1B: Arteries have three layers: A: an outer layer of tissue, a muscular middle, and an inner layer of epithelial cells
2A: An AV shunt has which specific function? A: Connection between arteriole and venule that bypasses the capillary bed
2B: __________have tight junctions between endothelial cells and restrict movement of solutes though the capillaries. A: Continuous Capillaries
3A: Precapillary sphincters A: are composed of smooth muscle and are controlled by the sympathetic nervous system
3B: Precapilliary sphincters control which of the following? A: Blood flow into certain parts of the capillary bed
4A: In the case of a decrease in environmental temperature, so the temperature is 0 F, which of the following occurs? A: Precapillary sphincters to the skin constrict and direct the blood to the muscles.
4B: There is an athlete running in a 110 F hot environment in the desert. What happens to his precapillary sphincters in his heart? A:They basically always stay open to maintain adequate oxygen to the cardiac tissue
5A: Oncotic pressure is another name for ? A: Osmotic pressure recorded in the capillary bed
5B: Which side of the capillary bed has the higher oncotic pressure? A: venule side
6A: Which side of the capillary bed has the highest hydrostatic pressure? A: Arterial
6B: Passive transport? A: Following Gradient
7A: Lymph is basically which of the follwing? A: Filtrate of the capillaries
7B: Lymph returns to the circulation by which route? A: Right Atrium
8A: If there is more oncotic pressure in the tissue surrounding the capillaries rather in the capillaries what will occure? A: Fluid will flow into the tissue surrounding the capillaries
8B: _________ refers to the force exerted by the particles in solution A: Oncotic pressure
9A: The cell type in the capillaries that carries oxygen to the cells outside the capillary are? A: red blood cells
9B: Osmosis hydrates A: tissues
10A: Capillary beds are found in all of the biological entities listed below except for? A: All cells in the body must be in close proximity to capillaries
10B: Metabolites are delivered by A: Molecules -------------------------------------------------
Module 33: Respiration / Ventilation
1A: During inspiration, the pressure in the alveoli becomes ? A: more negative
1B: During expiration, what occurs to the diaphragm? A: The diaphragm moves into the thoracic cavity
2A: You are on the crew team and you are rowing very fast. You are huffing and puffing. During this strenous exercise, which muscles are involved in producing a positive pressure in the thoracic cavity during inspiration? A: During inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity is negative- not positive.
2B: Surrounding the alveolii are the branches of the pulmonary artery and vein. The pulmonary artery brings what kind of blood back to the heart? A: the pulmonary artery does not carry blood to the heart. The pulmonary vein carries blood back to the heart from the lungs.
3A: The muscle that controls the diameter of the bronchus is? A: smooth muscle
3B: If the smooth muscle contracts, what happens to the diameter of the bronchii? A: it gets smaller
4A: The lung blood volume can be used for ? A: reservoir of blood, metabolic processor and a filter.
4B: After an asthma attack, what happens to a person's airways? A: They fill with mucus
5A: A person ingests a large amount of sulfur gas that ruins his pulmonary capillary endothelial cells. The permeability of the capillary increases leading to A: permeability edema
5B: The amount of air that stays in the lungs during normal breathing is called: A: Functional Residual Volume
6A: Edema in the lungs refers to which of the following? (Think about what you've learned!) A: additional interstitial fluid
6B: When the left ventricle is having difficulty contracting, what happens in the pulmonary alveoli? A: Fluid in the capillary/alveolii space increases
7A: The control of ventilation is similar to the control of heart rate since? A: ventilation requires neural input and respiratory muscles cannot contract by themselves. Hence ventilation and control of heart rate are not the same.
7B: If the ventilation rate is too low it is called A: bradypnea
8A: The driving force to move blood into the pulmonary circulation from the left atrium is? A: no force is involved since this is not the correct circulation pathway.
8B: When the phrenic nerve that controls the diaphragm fires, what occurs? A: inspiration
9A: For air to enter the lungs it must go from pharynx immediately followed by? A: larynx
9B: The chemical on the inside of the alveoli that allows it to keep its round shape is? A: surfactant
10A: Pulmonary volumes refer to? A: The amount of air that can be measured to indicate the funtionality of the lungs during inspiration and expiration.
10B: The term ventilation/perfusion refers to ? A: the junction of the pulmonary circulation and the alveoli ------------------------------------------
Module 34: Cellular Communication
1A: What types of signals are sent from one cell to another cell? A: Extracellular signals
1B: Cancer cells are dangerous because they A: All of these answers are correct
2A: _________ are bound to other cellular receptors. A: ligands
2B: ___________ transmit outside information to promote a response from the cell. A: intracellular signals
3A: Within the pituitary GnRH, which is secreted from the hypothalamus, acts on cells. In response to GnRH, what hormones are secreted A: FSH and LH
3B: The following correctly illustrates the sequence of events between the sending of a signal by one cell and the response to that signal by another cell: A: Ligand is synthesized-> Ligand is released -> Ligand is transported to the target cell -> Ligand binds to the receptor->Signaling pathway is activated
4A: Cell receptors can be located: A: Inside the cell and on the surface of a cell
4B: One of the characteristics of Acromegaly is NOT: A: wide-set eyes
5A: In order for cells to communicate, ligands are used by binding to receptors which then turns “onâ€, and the signaling into the target cell begins. Other than receptors, what other device can the ligands bind to in order for cell communication to start? A: The receptors can also be ion channel
5B: Which cellular response would take longer to implement? A: Changes in gene expression
6A: Which receptors are expressed on which cell type is determined by: A: None of these answers are correct
6B: A signaling pathway may consist of multiple proteins relaying a message until the signal reaches the final target protein that modifies the cellular response. What happens if cells do not have this signaling pathway? A: A cell may activate a built-in suicide program
7A: Hormones are used by the ___________system and neurotransmitters are used by the _________system. A: Endocrine and Nervous
7B: Autocrine signaling often occurs at the same time as paracrine signaling if A: the signaling cell expresses a receptor for the signaling molecule that it releases.
8A: Signaling is triggered by: A: Binding and conformational change
8B: In the lock and key example of signal molecules, which is the lock and which is the key? A: the receptor is the lock and the signal is the key
9A: Signaling specificity is achieved by: A: Expression of specific combinations of receptors by the target cell and using specific combinations of extracellular signal molecules to generate a particular response
9B: Which of the following are hormones? (Refer to google or Wikipedia for further assistance) A: oxytocin and testosterone
10A: In a cancer cell, it can move from one area of the body to another and starts to uncontrollably divide. Why do the cells start to divide uncontrollably? A: The signaling pathway is not working and the cell did not receive the A, B, and C signals to stop dividing.
10B: In molecules, shorter distance traveling is referred to as A: paracrine signaling -----------------------------------------------------------
Module 35: Hormones & Menstruation
1A: Insulin: A: When secreted, causes an decrease in blood glucose levels
1B: _________ is created by the hypothalamus and sends signals to begin the secretion of LH and FSH A: GnRH
2A: A hormone acting on a neighboring cell is an example of _______signaling. A: Paracrine
2B: It is 3 am and Megan is having contractions. She is going into labor and her husband Darrell is rushing her to the Hospital. Since hormones are controlled by feedback loops, which positive feedback loop is Megan most likely going through right now? A: The baby’s head is stretching the uterus and cervix signaling oxytocin. This causes contractions and moves the baby down further causing more stretching and signaling more oxytocin secretion.
3A: A hormone acting on the same cell that secreted it is an example of __________signaling. A: Autocrine
3B: The regulation of secretion of GnRH by progesterone, estrogen, or testosterone is an example of a _______feedback loop and the regulation of oxytocin secretion by stretching of the uterus is an example of a __________feedback loop. A: Negative, positive
4A: A steroid hormone: A: All of these answers are correct
4B: Negative feedback loops A: Regulate hormone levels, insure that the end product is self-limiting and are more common than positive feedback loops
5A: Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: A: Follicle stimulating hormone
5B: Why do females go through the process of the menstrual cycle? A: To prepare the uterus for pregnancy
6A: Type I diabetes mellitus occurs when A: The body does not secrete enough insulin
6B: Which is the correct definition of Autocrine? A: None of these
7A: The birth control pill A: Contains progesterone and estrogen that inhibit GnRH secretion
7B: Alice is a sexually active 21-year-old female. She takes oral contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. Alice is a very organized person that has time schedules for everything, including when she takes her pill. Recently she went on weekend trip with a guy and forgot to take her pills with her. What toll could this have had on her body? A: Her body could have produced LH and FSH which could possibly lead to ovulation and possible pregnancy.
8A: Anabolic steroids A: Act by increasing muscle mass
8B: The follicular phase causes estrogen levels to _________. A: constantly increase
9A: GnRH and LH A: Regulate reproduction and Regulate estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone levels
9B: Let us suppose that Barry Bonds has been using anabolic steroids. What are some side effects that he could potentially experience? A: all of these answers are correct
10A: Which are the 3 phases in the ovarian cycle? (select ALL that apply) A: Follicular, Luteal, Ovulation
10B: The process of lutenization causes the formation of which structure(s): A: corpus luteum -----------------------------------------------------------------
Module 36: Depression
1A: Depression effects how you: A: All of these.
1B: The following are symptoms of depression: A: Both sleeping too much AND not being able to sleep
2A: It has been a week since Hector’s girlfriend broke up with him. He would rather stay home in bed and mope around instead of hanging out with his friends and go surfing. Should Hector be diagnosed with clinical depression? A: No, he most likely just has the blues and will get over it in a week but if it persists longer than that, clinical depression may develop.
2B: Depression is NOT related to which of the following disorders A: acromegaly
3A: When a person is born, they are born with a blank slate and are influenced by the environment. Depression can set in once their social environment is not longer supporting them and no longer influences their behavior. Which of the psychosocial theories believe this? A: Behavioral
3B: Depression is predisposed by... A: genetics
4A: Psychoanalytic theories of depression were based on which principle? A: Depression is caused by unconscious conflicts between human instincts
4B: Stressful life events are a cause of depression is the basis of which of the following theories? A: Environmental theories
5A: Which type of cell is the target of antidepressant drugs? A: Neuron
5B: _______ a type of antidepressant drug that extend the effect of serotonin by inhibiting the reabsorption of serotonin by neurons. A: SSRI
6A: The presynaptic neuron releases nerurotransmitters into what area? A: The synapse
6B: What do behaviorists believe in terms of depression? A: It occurs when an individual's behavior is no longer being reinforced
7A: The influx of which cation ultimately triggers neurotransmitter release?} A: Ca2+
7B: Andrea has suffered from depression since her pet passed away 4 months ago. She is currently taking MAOI's to treat her depression. Andrea has been battling the flu since yesterday morning. Last night Andrea took some medicine to help her stuffy nose and coughing. What does Andrea have to be careful about? A: All of these
8A: MAOIs are used to treat depression by what mechanism? A: Blocking the breakdown of neurotransmitters.
8B: Which are associated with the effects of MAOIs? A: Three of these
9A: What are potential side effects of MAOIs? A: Both Death AND Stroke
9B: Prozac is a: A: SSRI
10A: How is signaling terminated once a neurotransmitter is released? A: All of these
10B: If one parent has a major depressive disorder what is the risk of a child having depression? A: 25-30% --------------------------------------------
Module 37: Innate Immune System
1A: Human cells come in different sizes and shapes. Cells of the immune system protect you from the outside world. What are cells originating from white blood cells that kill infected host cells by piercing holes in the host-cell membranes called? A: Natural Killer Cells
1B: Our immune system constantly guards our bodies from foreign entities. However, immune defenses are complex and therefore, divided into two branches. Name these two branches. A: Innate immunity/adaptive immunity
2A: Humans and many organisms have coevolved and mutually benefit from certain activities. We have organisms living on our bodies at all times. These organisms are referred to as normal flora. What is the major component of the normal flora of humans? A: Bacteria
2B: In our first line of defense, skin keeps microbes out on the surface by providing a nearly impenetrable physical barrier. In addition, it produces a powerful hydrolytic enzyme that keeps microbes away. What is the name of this enzyme? A: Lysozyme
3A: Viruses such as the flu virus can enter through the respiratory tract so cells of the lining of the respiratory tract secrete sticky mucus that trap microbes before they can reach the lungs. What do we call the organelles found along these lining and responsible for guarding and removing these microbes? A: Cilia
3B: There are clear symptoms observed in infected individuals. For instance, those who contract H1N1 are said to suffer from elevated temperatures immediately. What is the first response to any infection? A: An inflammatory response
4A: The inflammatory response is carefully controlled and mediated by many biological factors because if it malfunctions, it can damage healthy tissue. Name the most common manifestation of infection and inflammation. A: A fever
4B: Cells of the innate immune system are phagocytes and natural killer cells. What is the main difference between these types of cells? A: NK cells do not kill invading microbes, but infected host cells
5A: Our innate immune system has the ability to protect us from pathogenic organisms. One method of protection is the killing of microbes by ingesting them. What is this process called? A: Phagocytosis
5B: Dendritic cells are long lived phagocytic cells and reside in an immature state in most tissues, where they recognize and phagocytize pathogens and other antigens. What else is true about these cells? A: They are involved in both innate and adaptive immunity responses
6A: Define an antigen. A: A chemical substance capable of stimulating an immune response
6B: The immune system is composed of two branches. They are very successful at proving critical defenses against pathogenic microbes. What is a key characteristic of the innate immune branch? A: Its defenses are considered non-specific
7A: The lysozyme removes most bacteria in our foods through the saliva in our mouth, how does it do this? A: It protects us against infection by breaking down the polysaccharide walls of different bacteria.
7B: Many different cells constitute the immune system. However, they all arise from a common early precursor cell that also produces red blood cells. What do we call these cells? A: Hematopoietic stem cell
8A: Most microorganisms are not pathogenic and coexist with humans. However, a small percentage of these microbes can be lethal. What is a classic example of a disease caused by a protozoan? A: Malaria
8B: What is the purpose of secondary metabolites produce by normal flora in your body? A: To inhibit adhesion, and growth of the certain microbes
9A: What is the largest organ in the human and body and what is its function? A: The skin and serves as a barrier
9B: The human body has developed mechanisms to deal with undesired microorganisms. These normal processes are utilized effectively to remove pathogens. Give an example of such mechanisms employed by our bodies. A: Vomiting
10A: The immune system is run by a very effective network of cells derived from lymphoid organs. What are the primary lymphoid organs? A: Thymus and bone marrow
10B: Our immune system is able to recognize a variety of antigens and quickly neutralizes them. However, the immune system can also break down causing a broad array of diseases such as autoimmune disorders. What is the fundamental cause for this problem? A: The immune system loses the ability to recognize itself ----------------------------------------------------------
Module 38: Adaptive Immune System
1A: Innate immunity and adaptive immunity have a close relationship in order to carefully defend you from pathogens. However, they play different roles in the process. What is a key feature of adaptive immunity? A: Its ability to recognize specific pathogens
1B: What is the relationship between the circulatory system and the immune system? A: Cells of the immune system use the circulatory system as a medium to patrol the body
2A: Blood is a medium of transportation for cells of the immune system. What percentage of circulating lymphocytes can be found in the peripheral blood? A: 20–50%
2B: Three elements that allow the adaptive immune system to be a successful protector are: A: Specificity, adaptiveness and memory
3A: Cells of the immune system undergo maturation, division, and differentiation in different organs. Where does further division take place? A: Secondary lymphoid organs
3B: The spleen belongs to the secondary peripheral lymphoid organs and it is found in the upper left quadrant of the human abdomen. It also weights about 150 grams, a rather small organ. What is the function of the spleen? A: In addition to stimulating an immune response, it filters the blood to remove abnormal red cells and invading microorganisms
4A: The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins act as signposts that display fragmented pieces of an antigen on the host cell's surface. These antigens may be self or nonself. What action is taken if these antigens are recognized as self? A: No action is taken in healthy individuals
4B: The adaptive immune system uses various strategies to kill attacking microbes. Two of these mechanisms are cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity. What is cell-mediated immunity? A: Refers to macrophages engulfing antigens, and displaying parts of them on their surface
5A: There are two types of white blood cells that comprise the adaptive immune system. These cells can remember the microbes they encounter by recognizing very specific cell surface markers on those microbes. What are these cells? A: T-cells and B-cells
5B: B cell receptors can be bound to the surface of the B-cell or secreted into the bloodstream. B-cell receptors are also known as antibodies. What are antibodies? A: A receptor or protein that will bind a specific antigen on the surface of a microbe
6A: A Y-shaped molecule composed of two identical light chains (short in the outer structure) and two identical heavy chains (long). They are extremely specific when biding to antigens. What is this molecule? A: B-cell receptor
6B: Australian immunologist Frank Macfarlane Burnet developed a theory about cells of the immune system. It describes how the adaptive immune system is able to develop memory. What is the main concept of this theory? A: It describes the cloning of two types of lymphocytes, one clone combats infection immediately, while the other is longer lasting
7A: The word antibody comes from the German word antikörper. Antibodies are highly specialized molecules able to recognize a broad range of antigens. Where do they come from? A: A specialized plasma cell
7B: How come we use vaccines against viruses and not antibiotics? A: Vaccines can prevent a disease by virtue of adaptive immunity while antibiotics interfere with metabolic processes that exist in bacteria, but not in viruses
8A: A lymphocyte is a critical component of our immune system. What is a Lymphocyte? A: A type of white blood cell
8B: The immune system is made out of a team of cells distributed throughout the body, but these cells can be found in pockets of tissue where they mature and circulate in a vigilant mode. In addition, during infection this organ expands due to B-cell proliferation. Name this organ. A: Lymph node
9A: A typical term used by epidemiologists is herd immunity. What is herd immunity? A: It provides protection to unvaccinated individuals by virtue of most individuals been immune to a disease
9B: During the cell developing process T and B cell clones that would respond to self-antigens are eliminated or suppressed. What is this proper procedure known as? A: Natural immunological tolerance
10A: Name one direct weapon used by microbes against the adaptive immune system. A: Antigen shifting
10B: We have seen a large number of individuals develop allergies over the past 30 years in the US. What are allergies? A: An exaggerated immune response to a harmless antigen to environmental triggers ----------------------------------------------
Module 39: Infectious Disease
1A: There are many STDs and they are common among teenagers globally. A common STD is pubic lice or crabs. Name the pathogen that causes this disease. A: A parasite (Phthirius pubis)
1B: The main tool used to diagnose infectious diseases is microbiological culture. A sample is taken from potentially diseased tissue or fluid and tested for the presence of an infectious agent. Name the medium used to grow most pathogenic bacteria. A: A nutrient called Agar
2A: Some infectious diseases are transmitted directly from one individual to another. What do we call an agent that facilitates this transfer? A: A vector
2B: Opportunistic diseases are typically caused by microbes that are in contact with the host. For instance, they are responsible for killing AIDS patients. These microbes belong to an opportunistic agent group. What is the other important group called? A: Primary pathogens
3A: Infectious diseases are spread throughout the world. Name the agents responsible for causing human illnesses. A: Pathogenic Microbial Agents
3B: Sexually transmitted diseases are very successful at spreading from one person to another. Name one important reason for this fact. A: Mucous membranes differ from skin in that they allow certain pathogens into the body
4A: How does the human body protect itself from viruses and other disease causing agents found in planet earth? A: Innate immunity and adaptive immunity
4B: The most deadly STD is HIV, but many other viruses can be deadly. Name the most common sexually transmitted infection. A: Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
5A: Microbes have developed an array of weapons to be able to go from host to host. These virulent factors are divided into several groups, but one important group is the one produced by bacteria. Name the subgroups within this bacterial group. A: Endotoxins & Exotoxins
5B: Bacteria use a variety of mechanisms to take control over its host. One mechanism is the production of toxins. A specific toxin produced by certain type of bacteria is the lipopolysaccharide (LPS). What type of toxin is LPS? A: Endotoxin
6A: In order to avoid the spread of infectious diseases several measurements can be taken? Washing your hands prior to eating is a good way of preventing the spread of flu viruses. Name an important method for avoiding H. Pylori. A: Making sure your food and water come from clean sources
6B: Some molecules secreted by microbes allow them to attach to their host or to evade the host’s defense mechanism. What do we called these molecules? A: Virulence factors
7A: Over the past 100 years our society has made great advances in the discovery and implementation of medications such as antibiotics. However, we have had a rise in bacterial resistance. Name one of the most important reasons for this problem. A: Over use of antibiotics
7B: The construction of new villages and housing developments in rural areas forces animals to live in dense populations and creates opportunities for microbes to mutate generating what type of microbes? A: Superbugs following the antigenic shift theory
8A: In 2009, The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention announced the threat of a new virus. The WHO declared it a pandemic in the early summer of 2009? What pathogen was described? A: H1N1
8B: Swine flu was declared a pandemic sometime in June of 2009. This virus had extended the globe rapidly. Many countries were taking serious precautions such as checking body temperatures at airports and quarantined all those individuals with temperatures higher than 100 degrees F. Identified were the only two known antivirals effective for treatment: A: Zanamivir & Tamiflu
9A: Two of the greatest discoveries of the 20th Century was the discovery of the enzyme lysozyme in 1923 which we use to protect our bodies from bacteria, and the discovery of an antibiotic substance known as penicillin from the fungus Penicillium notatum in 1928. Who was responsible for these achievements? A: Alexander Fleming
9B: What specific term refers to the genetic strain that enables a flu strain to jump from one animal species to another, including humans? A: Antigenic shift
10A: A retrovirus known as Human Immunodeficiency Virus causes AIDS. What is HIV considered? A: A Pandemic Disease
10B: Sir Alexander Fleming was a Scottish biologist and pharmacologist. Fleming published many articles on bacteriology, immunology and chemotherapy. What is he known for? A: Discovery of penicillin --------------------------------------------
Module 40: HIV / AIDS
1A: A virus can reproduce outside a host cell if: A: a virus can never reproduce outside a host cell
1B: Which of the following does the HIV virus have: A: Capsid
2A: What is the function of Reverse Transcriptase? A: To make a DNA copy of the viral RNA.
2B: _________ on the HIV virus attaches to ______on the host cell . A: gp120, CD4
3A: In all experiments, including clinical trials, a control needs to be used to determine if the experimental conditions are effective. In the clinical trial you read about testing the effectiveness of Metformin in reducing the development of Type II diabetes, what was the control? (According to Dr. Stone's Science and You) A: The inactive placebo.
3B: Thinking back to your previous lectures, which of the following would allow the HIV virus to change in such a way that it would become resistant to an anti-retroviral drug?(According to Dr. Stone's Science and You) A: Mutation
4A: Patients with advanced HIV infection are vulnerable to opportunistic infections because of: A: A depletion of CD4+ T-cells
4B: A patient comes into the doctor’s office for a routine check-up. A blood test reveals that the patient is HIV positive. However, the patient is experiencing no major signs of illness. The patient is in what stage of HIV infection. A: Clinically asymptomatic stage
5A: Sally is an HIV patient. She goes to the doctor’s because she is having trouble breathing. Her CD4 test show that her CD4 cell count is 150 cells per microliter. Sally is in what stage of HIV infection. A: Clinical AIDS
5B: Buddy wakes up one morning and discovers a rash on his body. His doctor is surprised he has this because it is not normally found in young individuals. A HIV test reveals that Buddy is HIV positive and his CD4 cell count is around 500. What stage of HIV infection is Buddy in? A: Symptomatic HIV infection
6A: Harry engaged in risky activity that may have lead to exposure to HIV. Two and a half weeks later, he had an HIV test done and it showed a positive result. Which test most likely was done? A: PCR test
6B: Shirley is taking on anti-retroviral drug. After a few months, the drug stops working. Why is this? A: HIV mutated and became resistant to the drug
7A: How does an Integrase inhibitor work against the HIV virus? A: It prevents viral DNA from being inserted into host DNA.
7B: A patient takes a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor for HIV treatment. How does this drug work? A: prevents viral DNA from being made from the viral RNA
8A: How does a Protease inhibitor work to treat HIV infection? A: It prevents the release of new viral particles.
8B: A nurse in the hospital is checking on a HIV patient. While she was examining the patient, the patient coughs, and some spit lands on her hand. Was HIV transmitted to the nurse? A: No, HIV cannot be transmitted through spit and the skin
9A: HIV is transmitted through: A: sexual contact, blood, and pregnancy
9B: An HIV infected person is in the asymptomatic stage. Because they are experiencing no symptoms and are on multiple antiretroviral treatments, they go on to have unprotected sex. Does this person still remain infectious? A: Yes
10A: HIV is known as a retrovirus because A: RNA is synthesized to DNA
10B: Sally is HIV positive and Wally is not. Sally accidently cut Wally’s gum with her braces while they were french kissing. Is it possible for Wally to become infected with HIV? A: Yes ---------------------------------------------
Module 41: Drug Addiction
1A: Often drug development is carried out by pharmaceutical companies, whose main interest is to make a huge profit. Who is responsible for making sure these drugs are safe before they are put on the market? A: Food and Drug Administration
1B: Lil C had a wild night out. He felt like he was going a million miles an hour and had a euphoric feeling all night. Lil C mostly likely took what type of drug? A: Stimulants
2A: Depressants and narcotics are called downers because they share similarities in the way they affect the brain. What is their main difference? A: Narcotics can serve as painkillers
2B: ______ is the key player in the reward system of the brain. A: Dopamine
3A: Hallucinogens are well known for their ability to alter reality, but they also share similarities with stimulants. How are they similar? A: Speed up the CNS
3B: A:
4A: Drug abuse usually follows 4 steps of drug use. This is known as the spectrum of psychoactive drugs. What 4 steps are part of this spectrum? A: Beneficial, casual, problematic, chronic dependence
4B: While the different classes of drugs have different targets in the brain, all classes of drugs will A: increase dopamine release
5A: The main neurotransmitter in the reward system of the brain is A: Dopamine
5B: Dopamine neurons are activated in order to activate the reward pathway. Examples are eating something yummy such as cake and cookies. What explains this situation? A: Reward system is used to promote the learning of adaptive behavior that enables survival
6A: Cocaine leads to positive reinforcement to the reward system in the brain because it: A: Blocks dopamine reuptake
6B: Billy ingests a couple of ecstasy pills. He will start to feel the effects in A:
7A: The rate at which a drug is distributed in the body depends on: A: all of these
7B: Why is intravenous injection of drugs the fastest way to overdose? A: Because the concentration of the drug builds up so quickly
8A: A period of medical treatment, usually including a 9-12 step program, during which a person is helped to overcome physical and psychological dependence on alcohol or drugs is known as part of the __________ process. A: Detoxification
8B: What syndrome is characterized by signs and symptoms that appear when a drug addict suddenly discontinues or decreases the drug dose? A: Withdrawal
9A: Drug addiction is defined as A: pathological condition in which one compulsively uses a drug, despite its negative effects
9B: Drug abuse can have some drastic consequences that can lead to death. What are other consequences of drug abuse? A: All of these
10A: T/F Drug use during pregnancy not only leads to detrimental effects to the baby, but withdrawal symptoms as well. A: True
10B: In accordance to the spectrum of psychoactive drug use, which of the following scenarios would be considered problematic use? A: All of these Several factors influence how drug users experience the drug effects.However, the 4 more important factors are: --Pharmacological, cultural, social, and contextual ----------------------------------------------------------
Module 42: Diabetes / Obesity
1A: Sally was pregnant and developed diabetes. She most likely has __________ diabetes. A: Gestational
1B: Glucose is the primary source of energy for the cells. Your blood glucose level ________ after a meal. A: increases
2A: Frank has not eaten all day. In order to maintain enough energy for his body, his _________ begins to break down __________ in order to make more ________, a process known as _______________. A: liver, glycogen, glucose, gluconeogenesis
2B: he _________ secretes _____________ when blood glucose levels are high inorder to lower blood glucose levels. A: pancreas, insulin
3A: In the pancreas, __________ cells produce insulin and _________ produceglucagon. A: beta, alpha
3B: There is an influx of glucose into the cells when ___________ binds to its receptor and causes ________ to translocate to the plasma membrane of the cells. A: insulin, Glut-4 transporter
4A: Once glucose is release into the blood stream, insulin is discharged from the pancreas and A: All of these
4B: A patient comes into the clinic and tests reveal that they have autoantibodies that attack the beta cells of the pancreas and therefore, this patient lacks the production of ___________. This patient has ______ diabetes. A: insulin, Type I
5A: Over the past few years, Shirley had an increase in thirst, hunger, and fatigue. She is also starting to have blurred vision. When she goes to the doctor, the doctor tells her that she is insulin resistant. She has ____________ diabetes. A: Type II
5B: It is well known that Diabetes has a profound effect on the circulatory system. It can cause both macrovascular and microvascular disease. What are some of the complications associated with microvascular problems? A: diabetic neuropathy, diabetic nephropathy, diabetic retinopathy
6A: What are the components of adipose tissue? A: fat cells
6B: What are the main roles of adipose tissue? A: Store fat and insulate the body
7A: The body mass index is defined as A: an individual’s body weight divided the square of his or her height
7B: Name the most popular causes of obesity. A: excessive caloric intake, and lack of physical activity
8A: Obese patients suffer from many health complications such as diabetes and heart disease. However, one of their silent challenges is: A: feelings of depression and rejection
8B: Treatments for both obesity and diabetes are: A: all of these
9A: The plate method is a diet that helps you lose weight and maintain a healthy weight. How is the food distributed? A: 50% fruits/vegetables, 25% protein, 25% carbohydrates
9B: Medications for Type II Diabetes are designed to: A: Increase the sensitivity (response) of cells to insulin
10A: A diabetic patient is complaining of tingling, decreased sensitivity to pain, and cold feet. The patient has: A: Diabetic neuropathy
10B: Michael has proteinuria, this is a hallmark symptom for: A: Diabetic nephropathy ---------------------------------------
Module 43: Chemical Ecology
1A: Which of the following is NOT one of the three main "rules" of ecology? A: Responsible use of resources today protects the future world.
1B: Select the three basic rules of ecology. A: There is no such thing as a free lunch. Everything must go somewhere. Everything is connected to everything else.
2A: ____________ are organisms of the same species that live in the same place at the same time. A: Populations
2B: _____________ include all organisms living together in the same place. A: Communities
3A: A flea attached to a dog's back and deriving its nutrients from the dog's blood engages in which kind of relationship with the dog? A: Parasitism
3B: "Cleaner fish" are small fish that live in close association with bigger fish. "Cleaner fish" remove harmful microbes from the larger fishes skin, and the big fish provides the "cleaner fish" with a safe place to live. Which type of relationship is this? A: Mutualism
4A: In photosynthesis, there is sunlight, Co2, H20, minerals, and plant sugars.... what else is missing? A: Oxygen
4B: What controls a the size of a community? A: The amount of productivity which then is determined by the amount of available sunlight.
5A: _______________ capture energy from the sun and convert this energy into organic matter. They provide all of earth's energy. A: Primary producers
5B: ________________ are able to carry out photosynthesis and make all earth's energy. A: Primary producers
6A: Refer to figure 5, what does it say in the middle green box? A: Mutualism
6B: What is an example of mutualism? A: The remora fish and sharks
7A: The organisms Figure 7 are engaged in commensalism, which is _______________. (Select ALL that apply) A: a relationship in which one organism helps another, but there is no benefit or harm inreturn a type of symbiosis
7B: The organisms in figure 6 are engaged in mutualism, which is ________. (Select ALL that apply
A:
wrong
a type of symbiosis
8A: Herbivores are also known as __________. A: primary consumers
8B: Carnivores are also known as ____________. A: secondary consumers
9A: In which of the following cycles is carbon dioxide consumed by plants and released by animals? A: oxygen cycle
9B: In which of the following cycles is carbon dioxide released by animals during respiration? A: oxygen cycle
10A: Organisms producing either large numbers of small offspring or low numbers of large offspring is an example of ___________ in nature. A: tradeoffs
10B: Many mammals have optimized their reproductive strategy by producing a few, relatively large young instead of a large number of small offspring. This is an example of ___________. A: tradeoffs ----------------------------------------------------
Module 44: Chemical Ecology 2
1A: The skunk is best known for its production of ________. A: chemical defenses
1B: White fungus produces molecules that prevent the darker fungus from overtaking it. The molecules produced by the white fungus are known as ______________. A: chemical defenses
2A: Steve and his group of hooligans were throwing rocks at a bee hive. The bees became angry and all started to attack them. Which molecules triggered the organized aggressive bee behavior? A: alarm pheromones
2B: Little Johnny was playing outside one day when he noticed a trail of ants. He decided to run his finger through the trail and the ants toward the end of the line started to senselessly run around in circles as if they were lost. What made some of these ants confused? A: Ants release alarm pheromones so when they saw Johnny they started to trigger a “fight or flight†response.
3A: _____________ is the study of how chemical signals influence interactions between organisms. A: Chemical Ecology
3B: ____________ are molecules that influence interactions between organisms. A: Chemical signals
4A: Which of the following is NOT an example of chemical defense? A: An egg that releases compounds detected by sperm
4B: Which of the following is NOT an example of a chemical attractant? A: A compound produced by a bacterium that inhibits nearby fungi.
5A: It is the mating season for the Monarch butterfly. A female has sent out her pheromones to attract males since she is ready to mate. Will her pheromones cause other males of similar butterfly species to be attracted to her? A: No. Sex pheromones are very specific to insure reproductively compatible species will mate.
5B: When we use herbs such as basil, thyme, sage, and cilantro in our cooking we notice their distinct flavors. The real purpose of these flavors is to discourage predators from eating them. What kind of chemical communication is this? A: Chemorepellent
6A: Which ecological event is shown in figure 14? A: evolutionary arms race
6B: Which ecological event is shown in figure 13? A: natural selection and evolution of defenses
7A: Chemical defenses are especially high at locations with _________________. A: high biodiversity
7B: Sites of ____________ are characterized by high rates of herbivory, competition, and predation. These conditions favor evolution of chemical defenses. A: high biodiversity
8A: Nucleic acids, amino acids, and carbohydrates are _________. A: primary metabolites
8B: _____________ are directly involved in the growth and reproduction of organisms. A: Primary metabolites
9A: Pederin is found in beetles and thought to protect beetles against their enemies. Pederin is a __________. A: secondary metabolite
9B: Callophycoic acid is a molecule made by a seaweed that protects it against attack by pathogens. Callophycoic acid is a ________________. A: secondary metabolite
10A: Moths and other insects choose mates based on the ____________ of pheromones (Select ALL that apply)* A: chemical structure Ratio
10B: Scientist believe that chemical signaling has evolved over time through natural selection. They noticed that there was an abundance of species that have chemical signaling in places of high biodiversity. Why might you think that in rain forests and coral reefs there are many species with chemical signaling? A: There are high levels of herbivory, predation and competition within these areas. ----------------------------------
Module 45: Chemical Ecology 3
1A: Androstadienone is ___________________. A: none of the above.
1B: Androstadienone _______________. A: has not yet been proven to play a role in human mating.
2A: In the accessory olfactory system there is the accessory olfactory bulb, neurons, and the vomeronasal organ. What is missing? A: Hypothalamus
2B:In the accessory olfactory system there is the accessory olfactory bulb, neurons, and the hypothalamus. What is missing? A: Vomeronasal organ
3A: Over _____ of all human drugs can be traced back to a natural chemical signaling molecule. A: 75%
3B: How do insect traps successfully control insects that are harmful to crops? A: It contains sex pheromones that attract and capture insects.
4A: Select the proper order of detection and response to a pheromone in most mammals. A: 1. vomeronasal organ, 2. neurons, 3. accessory olfactory bulb, 4. hypothalamus
4B: Which of the following lists the process of detection/response to pheromone molecules in the right order? A: 1. vomeronasal organ, 2. neurons, 3. accessory olfactory bulb, 4. hypothalamus
5A: Humans do not possess a functional ___________. A: vomeronasal organ
5B: Most mammals possess a __________. A: Most mammals possess all of the above.
6A: _________ is a body of knowledge that lacks in reproducibility and does not adhere fully to the scientific method. A: Pseudoscience
6B: A body of knowledge that is claimed to be scientific but lacks supporting evidence and reproducibility is known as _________________. A: Pseudoscience
7A: Dr. Martha McClintock did a study dealing with menstrual synchrony in women. She concluded that women give off pheromones during menstruation so when women spend a lot of time together they will begin to have the same menstrual cycle. What pheromones are said to be responsible for this? A: Primers
7B: Every time Kristen feels like she is getting a cold she goes to the doctor and asks for antibiotics to help her feel better. Unfortunately, she uses them quite often and notices she has been getting sick a lot more. What could have made her more prone to getting sick even though she was taking antibiotics? A: Since she uses the antibiotics a lot and “super bugs†have evolved, the bacteria have become antibiotic resistant
8A: Which of the following are known to result from fish exposure to man-made estrogen molecules? A: all of the above
8B: Fish exposure to man-made estrogen molecules is known to result in __________. A: none of the above
9A: You have already taken Bio 100 and are an expert in Chemical Ecology now. Dr. Pozos wants to do an experiment where he compared the brains of humans and animals. He notices that the vemeronasal organ that detects pheromones in animals is not used in the human brain but feels humans can detect pheromones. What will you tell Dr. Pozos? A: You tell him that it is believed that humans detect pheromones through the main olfactory system used for smell
9B: In animals, the main olfactory system is responsible for detection of only a handful of pheromone signals. What handles the vast majority of the pheromone signals? A: Accessory olfactory system
10A: Solid scientific evidence exists for a role of pheromones in which of the following human behaviors? A: menstrual cycle synchronization in women living in close proximity
10B: Your friend Cordelia tells you that she gets all the boys because she gives off a strong pheromone that attracts them. You do not believe her because… A: There is no solid scientific evidence that shows human female pheromones attract mates.
--------------------------------------------- test1: 1a: Biology can be studied in a non-scientific method. This involves which of the following? A: Using many subjects but having no controls
2a: This molecule controls the production of enzymes: A: wrong: It is a protein wrong: It is RNA, the ancestor to DNA
3a: The nicotine in a cigarette activates which structure? A:Nicotine receptors on the plasma membrane of brain cells
4a: A hyperosmotic solution is: A:a solution separated from another by way of semipermeable membrane in which the hyperosmotic solution has more electrolyes and less water than the other solution
5a: In the event that ATP is not needed, (in other words, you have enough energy), what happens? A: ATP will continue to be made
6a: A new coach tells his team that the reason they get fatigued is because they do not have enough oxygen in their blood to go for 3 minutes without oxygen. To get more oxygen, they need to ? A:Their fatigue is more than likely not due to a lack of oxygen in the blood. Coach needs to study biology
7a: In most cases in which there is a decrease in oxygen to aerobic systems, what will continue to be produced? A:Lactic Acid
8a: What enzyme is common to both plant and animal cells in production of ATP? A:ATP synthase
9a: What has to exist for ATP synthase to directly produce ATP? A:A proton gradient
10a: Dr. Pozos was mistakenly given the wrong: medication for controlling his cholesterol levels. He was given peristaltinol, a drug that affects peristalsis. This drug causes the rings of circular muscles to contract in front of food material and to relax in back of it really fast. What would this do to him as he eats his dinner? A:He would be continually vomiting until the drug wore off.
11a: Why are proteins poken down into amino acids before they can be absorbed in the body by digestion? A:So that they are small enough to cross into the cells of the gut
12a: Matt's blood sugar levels are very low because he just finished swimming across the English Channel. His liver needs to mobilize its stored glucose to the rest of his body. What must be done to enable glucose to leave his liver cells? A:secrete pancreatic amylase
13a: All of the following are true about bile EXCEPT: A:It is synthesized in the gallbladder
14a: Amylase is an enzyme found in Saliva. Which system is responsible for its development? A:Cell Nucleus and its DNA
15a: Cyanide is a metabolic poison that works at which site? A: Electron transport complex
15b: The peptide bond is important for proteins because it is the bond that links the amino acids together to form the polypeptide. Matt is dying to hear which covalently bonded atoms would be removed to make a peptide bond? A:-H, -OH
16a: "The diffusion of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase which subsequently causes ATP synthase to combine phosphate ion with ADP" defines which of the following words? A:Chemiosmosis
16b: The term oxidative phosphorylation refers to which of the following? A:A process in which a phosphate is added to adenosine diphosphate powered Hydrogen ion activating the ATP synthase pump.
17b: The adjective, glycolytic, refers to which condition? A:Chemical reactions that do not require oxygen- called anaerobic
18a: What chemical structure inside the mitochondria is responsible for directly producing ATP? A:ATP synthase
18c: Secretin directly produces which of the following? A:Hydrochloric Acid
19a: The energy in the food is transferred to the cytochrome system from the Kreb's cycle in the mitochondria by a process of ? A: Wrong Oxidation of NADH
19b: A metabolic cycle fueled by Acetyl CoA that produces most of the NADH and FADH for ATP production is which of the following? A:Krebs Cycle
20a: For light to act during photosynthesis, it must activate which photosystem? A:Photosystem II and then Photosystem I
20b: Which of the two major categories of the chemical reactions in photosynthesis produce oxygen? A:Light dependent phase (LDP)
21a: What molecule(s) feed into the Calvin Cycle? A: wrong: NADH
21c: Three men are adrift in a boat in the Pacific Ocean. Their blood is which of the following? A: Isotonic
22b: What is the main characteristic of a covalent bond? A:it shares electrons
22c: The major output(s) of all livings systems are? A:Reproduction and ATP generation
23a: In the case of boxing, imagine that the skeletal muscle of the arm is the controlled system. What initially determines the amount of force in the arm- from a feedback point of view? A:The controller located in the pain
23c: There are a number of hormones that are produced to control appetite. These hormones have their effect on which group of cells? A: wrong:: Stomach cells
24a: Which gas is a metabolic product of photosynthesis A:Oxygen
24c: The drug, nicotine, that you smoke is a byproduct of which reaction? A:Dark Reaction
25a: "A protein that catalyzes a chemical reaction" defines which of the following terms? A:Enzyme
25b: Lactic acid in your muscles is the byproduct of which metabolic system? A:Glycolysis
26b: In the case of temperature regulation, imagine that the skeletal muscles are the controlled system. If the comparator senses that the output temperature is too low, it will cause the muscles to? A:Contract to generate heat
26c: You have two solutions in contact with each other by way of a semipermeable membrane. Which one is hypertonic? A: wrong The one that has less electrolytes in solution than the other
27b: The intestinal solution is hypertonic relative to blood. What will happen to the the patient? A:Fluid will leave the blood and enter the intestinal tract causing diarrhea
27c: You inject a hypotonic solution into a patient in her veins. What happens to her red blood cells? A: Nothing happens to red blood cells since they are protected from osmotic changes since they carry oxygen
28a: What are the four main types of biological macromolecules? A:nucleic acids, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates
28c: Which of the biomolecules has the longest digestion time? In other words, how long does it take for the biomolecule to be catabolized? A: wrong: Protein
29a: A hypertonic cell is floating in hypotonic solution. What happens to the cell? A: wrong: Produces lipids
29b: Dr. Pozos is giving an interview on the nightly news about biology. The interviewer seems amazed at the versatility of proteins and asks, "What does a protein NOT do?" Dr. Pozos feels you should handle this question. What would the answer be? A: wrong: Act as a source of nitrogen for other molecules in the body
30a: The carbon-nitrogen bond that connects amino acids together in a protein is referred to as the... A: peptide bond
30c: The carbon dioxide that we exhale(peathe out) is produced by way of which metabolic pathway? A: Krebs cycle also called Citric Acid cycle
31b: A person is very fatigued. You give her oxygen and tell her that oxygen will give her energy by way of glycolysis. That is an incorrect statement since: A: By definition, glycolysis is an anaerobic set of chemical reactions
31c: The setpoint for your body's temperature is in terms of degrees Centigrade. What will the units of the output be? A: Degrees Centigrade
TEST 2
----------------------------------------------------------- test2: 1a: If you wanted to make a copy of DNA in the lab, which protein would you need to complete the synthesis of a new strand of DNA? DNA polymerase
2a. This region (a) tells RNA polymerase where to bind to DNA while this region (b) tells RNA where to start transcription: (a) promoter, (b) start site
3a. How is it that a mutation in DNA stored inside the nucleus of a cell can cause a disease affecting multiple organs? The mutated DNA is expressed in multiple cells through the process of transcription and translation, and the altered protein causes the disease wherever the DNA was expressed.
4a. A defect exists in a cell that results in cyclin dependent kinases that are constitutively (always) active. Which of the following is the most likely result? Cancerous cells develop
5a. A drug is developed that blocks angiogenesis. It will have the following effect(s) on cancer cells: All of these
6a. Methylation of a tumor suppressor gene may lead to loss of cell cycle regulation
7a. A genetic syndrome exists where male babies are born with an extra Y chromosome, resulting in an XYY genotype. Which of the following reproductive errors correctly explains this genetic anomaly? Meiotic chromosome non-disjunction
8a. The fetus ________. must produce surfactant before its lungs can function
9a. Which of the following is not a teratogen? None of these
10a Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense? a tiger who has many cubs, twelve of which live to adulthood.
11a Which of these following statements is TRUE? Natural selection has been demonstrated to occur in wild populations.
12a. Which of the below statements is NOT TRUE about human evolution? Humans evolved from biological processes that are different from the processes that govern the evolution of all life on Earth.
13a What is the best definition of evolution? wrong: change in genetic material in an individual.
13b. Which came first in the development of homo sapiens? bipedalism
14a Which source of stem cells has nearly limitless potential for differentiation, and avoids most of the ethical issues associated with stem cell research? Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS)
14b Fetal alcohol syndrome is an example of a birth defect that can be caused by ________. failure to abstain from alcohol during pregnancy
15b Which of the following observations provides evidence in support of evolution? All of these
16a The genetic code is used to translate ____________________ into __________________________? Nucleotides, amino acids
16c Transfer RNA does which of the following? wrong: Brings proteins to the ribosome
17a How does tRNA bring the correct amino acid to the translation complex for protein synthesis? The two features of a tRNA molecule, the anti-codon and the ability to bind one amino acid, allows tRNA to bring in the correct amino acid
17b Transcription of a gene has just completed. What are the next steps (in the correct order) to complete expression of that gene? mRNA moves into the cytoplasm and is translated into protein.
18a The monomers of DNA are ___________ and are made of ______________. nucleotides; a pentose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base
18b Which of the following is the correct set of combinations used in DNA nucleotide base pairing?(A= adenine, T=thymine, G=Guanine and C= cytosine) A and T, G and C
19b Which of the following is NOT a way nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins? One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can lengthen an amino acid sequence.
19c As was discussed in class, skin color is an example of? Demonstrates how the central dogma is expressed due to environmental influences
20b A cell is getting ready to divide and is starting DNA replication. During this process, helicase unzips the double helix by breaking the bonds between the ________________, the part of the nucleotides that is responsible for the formation of the double helix. phosphate group and pentose sugar
20c You go to visit your friend in the hospital who has a cancerous growth in the brain. The cancer is continue to spread throughout his body according to his physician. Which of the following processes will the physician try to stop the growth of the cancer? Mitosis
21a A close friend has recently been diagnosed with a genetic disease wants to better understand how gene therapy works. You tell him that gene therapy uses the following information to design a treatment for a given disease: Most diseases have a genetic origin in which one or more genes are mutated
21b Which of the following concepts were NOT included in Lamark’s Transformism? Species are transformed because of natural selection of traits favorable to the environment that are then inherited to the offspring.
21c Which is the correct sequence? wrong Chromosome to DNA to Gene
22a What is the primary function of S phase? DNA replication
22c Punnett's square is which of the following? Example of all possible combinations of alleles
23a A family of molecules that helps regulate the cell cycle are known as Cyclin-dependent kinases
23b The common theme in the development of all cancers is mutation
24b Genes that cause rapid cell cycle progression are called carcinogens
24c In the development of the fetus, which of the following is directly responsible for causing the development of the body plan? Gastrulation
25a A genotype is: The genetic basis of a trait
25b Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that: Alleles of one gene separate independently from those of another
26a If only one copy of an allele is sufficient to cause a phenotype, than the allele is: Dominant
26b Hitchhiker’s thumb is a recessive trait. If a homozygous recessive person and heterozygous person mate, what is the chance their child will have hitchhiker’s thumb? wrong: 25%
26c Mutations cause disruptions in human function by which of the following? Producing protein that has an abnormal three dimensional structure which prevents normal function
27a The combination of natural selection and Mendelian genetics is called …. Neo-Darwinism
27b The common theory for evolution is that: all living systems have a genetic code
28c As discussed in class, the function of the placenta is to do which of the following? Bring oxygen to the fetus by way of diffusion. The blood of the mother does not enter the growing fetus
29a Blood, muscle, and kidneys derive from which germ layer established during gastrulation? B
29c Neanderthal hominoids had which of the following characteristics? wrong: Ability to speak
30a Which of the following cell types is considered pluripotent? Embryonic stem cells
30b Epigenetic modifications: wrong: Can be inherited from your parents
31a What is the name given to the embryonic stage shown below? Zygote
31c In most cases, dealing with human fertilization, only one sperm is able to fertilize the egg. This process is produced by a system that promotes Negative feedback
TEST 3
---------------------------------------- test3: 1a: How does alcohol cause blackouts for social drinkers? A: wrong: none of these are correct
2a: Increasing the frequency of a sound wave does what to the sound? A: increases the tone 3a: What is the difference between smooth and skeletal muscle? (Select ALL that apply) A: smooth muscles are under control of the autonomic nervous system while skeletal muscles are under the control of the somatic nervous system smooth muscles are not as organized as skeletal muscles are
4a: Which part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest pressure? A: Vena cava 5a: Stroke Volume refers to which of the following? A: amount of blood ejected during systole from the aorta
6a: Which side of the capillary bed has the higher oncotic pressure? A: venule side 7a: During expiration, what occurs to the diaphragm? A: The diaphragm moves into the thoracic cavity
8a: The following correctly illustrates the sequence of events between the sending of a signal by one cell and the response to that signal by another cell: A: Ligand is synthesized-> Ligand is released -> Ligand is transported to the target cell -> Ligand binds to the receptor->Signaling pathway is activated 9a: Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: A: Follicle stimulating hormone
10a: Which type of cell is the target of antidepressant drugs? A: A neuron 11a: Fedor Emelianenko just delivered a knock-out punch to Brett Rogers during a fight. Brett Rogers cannot remember events that happened before the knock-out. What is this an example of? A: retrograde amnesia 11b: The definition of Anterograde Amnesia is: A: the impairment in storing new memories.
12b: Why does the process of short-term memory use neurotransmitters? A: wrong: neurotransmitters can travel more easily between cells than RNA or protein can
12c: Which of the following bring oxygen directly to the neurons? A:Capillaries 13a: What is/are the difference(s) between short-term and long-term memory? A: all of these are correct 13c: Drinking large amounts of ethanol will alter short term memory. This observation suggests that? A: Ethanol must influence the connections between neurons
14c: You are listening to some of your favorite "tunes" and eating a great sandwich. The proteins in the sandwich must get directly to the cells by way of which system. A: Capillaries 15b: _______represents ventricular depolarization which is usually 0.06 to 0.1 sec in duration suggesting that this depolarization occurs very fast. A: QRS Complex 16a: You are aiming for a perfect score on the “hard†level for a Rockband song. What processes are involved in achieving a perfect score? A: wrong coordination of the auditory and frontal cortex
16c: You are texting on your cell phone and you look up and immediately rear-end the car in front of you. Your heart rate increases. Which of the following increases it? A: Autonomic sympathetic fibers 17b: Which factors hinder our ability to make decisions? A: competition and diversion of brain activity
18a: Fainting is also referred to as: (choose the BEST answer) A: syncope 19a: If there is a positive pressure in the thorax, what happens to the lung? A: It deflates 19b: The p wave of the electrocardiogram is associated with? A: Atrial contraction
20a: Angina refers to which condition? A: Low oxygen to cardiac muscle
20b: You start doing CPR on Dr. Pozos. You stop since you have to answer your cell phone. As a result of stopping CPR, what occurs? A: Stopping CPR causing major damage to the cardiac cells since these cells cannot survive without blood flow for any period of time. 21a: If heart rate stays the same, and stroke volume decreases, cardiac output will A: Decrease 21b: When the left ventricle is having difficulty contracting, what happens in the pulmonary alveoli? A: Fluid in the capillary/alveolii space increases
22b: The right atrium receives blood from? A: both superior and inferior vena cava 23b: The coronary arteries supply oxygen to which tissue? A: both cardiac and pacemaker cells 23c: The coronary arteries are derived from which structure? A: Aorta
24c: In the middle ages, young men were castrated so that they could have powerful voices but sing in the high frequency range. These men were called the "castrati" and were honored . The castration would have decreased which hormones? A: Hormones in the testes that would have supported male development 25b: Which of the following biological processes are controlled by signaling? A: wrong Growth
26a: Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: A: Follicle stimulating hormone 26c: You are studying for you exam and your friend says that when a cell sends a signal back to itself that the chemical is considered to be an hormone. A: wrong: She is wrong because a hormone never affects the cell that produce it 27a: Depression affects how you: A: All of these 27b: Depression is not related to which of the following disorders: A: acromegaly
28b: Extracellular signals only ________ specific receptors and cells only _________ certain receptors A: bind to; express 29c: For a hormone to have its effect, it must leave the group of cells producing it and go through which part of the circulation system to have its effect on its target cells A: wrong Lymph 30a Which organ in the brain secretes growth hormone: A: The anterior pitutitary
30b: What is the definition of a signaling pathway? A: A group of gene products (proteins) that work together in a specific cellular process
