Corporate Finance Help - Canadian

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MC 7:

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Using a payback period investment criterion tends to bias us toward what kind of investments?

Select one:

a. riskier investment

b. less risky investments

c. longer-term investments

d. shorter-term investments

e. lower return investments

Question 2

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If the cutoff point were forever, then the discounted payback rule would be the same as which of the following investment criteria?

Select one:

a. Net Present Value

b. Profitability Index

c. Average Accounting Return

d. Internal Rate of Return

e. both a and b

Question 3

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Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the average accounting return criterion?

Select one:

a. it is not a true rate of return

b. it uses an arbitrary benchmark cutoff rate

c. it is based on book values and not market values

d. it may lead to incorrect decisions when comparing mutually exclusive investments

e. none of the above

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Ultimately, a good capital budgeting criterion must tell us two things. What are they?

1. It should tell us if a particular project is a good investment.

2. If there is more than one good mutually exclusive project, it should tell us which one to take.

3. If there is more than one investment criteria used, it should tell us which one is best.

Select one:

a. I and II

b. I and III

c. II and III

d. I, II, and III

e. None of the choices are valid.

Question 5

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To break-even in an accounting sense, a firm would use the _________ investment criterion.

Select one:

a. net present value

b. profitability index

c. payback period

d. discounted payback period

e. none of the above

Question 6

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A project has an initial cash outlay of $750,000 and an annual cash inflow of $220,000 for the next 5 years. The assets involved in the project can be sold for $50,000 when the project is completed. The required rate of return on the project is 15%. Should the project be accepted based on the NPV rule?

Select one:

a. No, the project should not be accepted as the NPV is -$37,385.

b. No, the project should not be accepted as the NPV is -$12,526.

c. Yes, the project should be accepted as the NPV is $0.

d. Yes, the project should be accepted as the NPV is $12,333.

e. Yes, the project should be accepted as the NPV is $37,474.

uestion 7

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ABC Company has a project that will yield cash inflows of $50,000, $60,000, $70,000, $60,000, and $50,000 in the next 5 years. The project requires an initial cash outlay of $205,000 and a required return of 11%. The company uses the payback period investment criterion. Should ABC invest in this project if its payback cutoff is 4 years?

Select one:

a. Yes, because the payback period of 2 years and 4 months is shorter than the payback cutoff.

b. No, because the payback period of 3 years and 4 months is shorter than the payback cutoff.

c. Yes, because the payback period of 3 years and 5 months is shorter than the payback cutoff.

d. No, because the payback period of 4 years and 4 months is longer than the payback cutoff.

e. Yes, because the payback period of 4 years and 5 months is longer than the payback cutoff.

Question 8

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DEF Ltd. has the opportunity to invest in a project with the cash flow stream below. What is the discounted payback period on this project if the required return is 15%?

Year	Cash Flow
0	-$1,000,000
1	$450,000
2	$550,000
3	$350,000
4	$350,000

Select one:

a. 2 years and 8 months

b. 2 years and 10 months

c. 3 years and 8 months

d. 3 years and 10 months

e. 4 years and 8 months

Question 9

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GHI Inc. has a project with the following payoff structure and a required return of 16%. What is the IRR of this project and should the firm accept or reject it?

Year	Cash Flow
0	-$1,250,000
1	$450,000
2	$550,000
3	$350,000
4	$350,000

Select one:

a. 14%; accept

b. 14.5%; reject

c. 15%; accept

d. 15.5%; reject

e. 16%; accept

Question 10

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A project has an initial cash outlay of $100,000 and cash inflows of $20,000 for the next 10 years. If the required return is 10%, what is the profitability index of this project and should it be accepted or rejected?

Select one:

a. 2; accept

b. 1.35; reject

c. 1.58; accept

d. 1.74; reject

e. 1.23; accept

MC 8:

Question 1

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1. Given initial investment of $500,000, project life of 5 years, salvage of $50,000, CCA rate of 20%, tax rate of 40%, and required return of 15%, what is the undepreciated cost of capital at the end of Year 3? Remember to use the half-year rule.

Select one:

a. $360,000

b. $288,000

c. $230,400

d. $200,000

e. $184,320

Question 2

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The overhead costs of maintaining a corporate jet for senior executives is considered a/an ________ of a project.

Select one:

a. financing cost

b. sunk cost

c. opportunity cost

d. side effect

e. incremental cash outflow

Question 3

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Cash flow from assets has three components. What are they?

1. Sunk costs

2. Overhead costs

3. Operating cash flow

4. Capital spending

5. Additions to net working capital

6. CCA tax shields

Select one:

a. I, II, and III

b. II, III, and IV

c. III, IV, and V

d. IV, V, and VI

e. III, IV, and VI

Question 4

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The phrase "winner's curse" refers to the phenomenon that

Select one:

a. in a competitive bidding process, the winning bidder is the one who makes the biggest mistake.

b. in a competitive market, a company with a patented process is always in danger of having it stolen.

c. in a price war, the company that emerges as the winner is the one that loses the most money.

d. in any new equity issue, existing shareholders will always lose.

e. in any new bond issue, new bondholders will always lose.

Question 5

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Which of the following is NOT a definition of operating cash flow?

Select one:

a. OCF = EBIT + Depreciation - Taxes

b. OCF = (Sales - Costs)(1 - Tc) + (Depreciation x Tc)

c. OCF = Sales - Costs - Taxes + Depreciation

d. OCF = Net Income + Depreciation

e. All of the above are definitions of OCF.

Question 6

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Which of the following is NOT a common pitfall in identifying incremental project cash flows?

Select one:

a. Sunk costs

b. Financing costs

c. Forecasting risk

d. Erosion

e. Government intervention

Question 7

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The idea that we only need to look at a project's incremental cash effects on a company when evaluating that project for capital investment is commonly referred to as

Select one:

a. Discounted Cash Flow Approach.

b. Gordon Principle.

c. Capital Asset Pricing Model.

d. Incremental Cash Flow Approach.

e. Stand-alone Principle.

Question 8

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A project requires the purchase of equipment worth $2 million. The project will yield annual cost savings of $300,000 for the next 7 years, but it will require an initial net working capital investment of $250,000. The equipment can be depreciated at a CCA rate of 30%, and at the end of the seventh year, it can be sold for $200,000. If other projects with similar risk require a rate of return of 15%, and the firm's marginal tax rate is 38%, what is the present value of the depreciation tax shields from this project?

Select one:

a. $398,175.36

b. $422,956.52

c. $454,575.71

d. $473,623.19

e. $525,619.19

Question 9

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A company needs to replace its aging equipment and can choose between two alternatives. Equipment X will cost $2 million and yield an annual cost saving of $300,000 for 5 years. Equipment Y will cost 3 million and yield an annual cost saving of $350,000 for 8 years. In both cases, the equipment can be depreciated at a CCA rate of 30%, and both have zero value at the end of their lives. If the required return is 15%, and the firm's marginal tax rate is 35%, which equipment should be chosen?

Select one:

a. Y because it has a higher NPV

b. X because it has a higher NPV

c. Y because it has a higher EAC

d. X because it has a lower EAC

e. Either X or Y can be chosen because they are mutually exclusive.

Question 10

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A project requires the purchase of equipment worth $2 million. The project will yield annual cost savings of $300,000 for the next 7 years. The equipment can be depreciated at a CCA rate of 30%, and at the end of the seventh year, it can be sold for $200,000. The project will necessitate an initial $150,000 increase in receivables, $90,000 increase in inventory, and $250,000 increase in payables, but these will be recovered at the end of the project. If other projects with similar risk require a rate of return of 15%, and the firm's marginal tax rate is 38%, what is net impact of the changes in current assets and current liabilities on the project's NPV?

Select one:

a. NPV will increase by $6,240.

b. NPV will decrease by $6,240.

c. NPV will increase by $10,000.

d. NPV will decrease by $10,000.

e. NPV will increase by $31,604.

MC 9:

Question 1

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Assuming no taxes and straight-line depreciation, the internal rate of return at the accounting break-even point is equal to

Select one:

a. +100%.

b. 0%.

c. -100%.

d. positive infinity.

e. negative infinity.

Question 2

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The _________ the degree of operating leverage, the higher the danger from __________ risk.

Select one:

a. lower; operating

b. higher; forecasting

c. lower; forecasting

d. higher; financial

e. lower; financial

Question 3

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A project that always breaks even on a cash basis has

1. a payback exactly equal to its life

2. a negative NPV

3. an IRR of zero

4. a payback of infinity

5. an NPV equal to its initial outlay

6. an IRR of -100%

7. a zero NPV

8. a discounted payback equal to its life

9. an IRR equal to its required return

Select one:

a. I, II, and III only

b. II, IV, V, and VI only

c. VII, VIII, and IX only

d. I, II, and VI only

e. I, VI, and VII only

Question 4

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A situation in which units in a company are allocated a specified amount of financing for capital budgeting is called

Select one:

a. capital management.

b. discounted cash flow budgeting.

c. soft rationing.

d. hard rationing.

e. managerial option.

Question 5

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A new project requires variable cost of $3 and fixed cost of $100,000. Sales per year are estimated to be 100,000 units at $7 per unit. Depreciation is straight-line at $50,000 per year. Ignoring taxes, what is the operating cash flow for this project?

Select one:

a. $250,000

b. $300,000

c. $340,000

d. $350,000

e. $400,000

Question 6

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Given the following information, calculate the accounting break-even sales quantity. Assume straight-line depreciation and ignore taxes. Initial investment = $250,000 Project life = 5 years Unit price = $200 Unit variable cost = $125 Annual Fixed cost = $60,000 Required return = 12%

Select one:

a. 667

b. 800

c. 1,200

d. 1,467

e. 1,725

Question 7

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Given the following information, calculate the financial break-even sales quantity. Assume straight-line depreciation and ignore taxes.

Initial investment = $250,000 Project life = 7 years Unit price = $200 Unit variable cost = $125 Annual Fixed cost = $60,000 Required return = 12%

Select one:

a. 800

b. 1,277

c. 1,467

d. 1,531

e. 1,725

Question 8

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Given the following information, calculate the cash break-even sales quantity. Assume straight-line depreciation and ignore taxes. Initial investment = $1,000,000 Project life = 10 years Unit price = $300 Unit variable cost = $150 Annual Fixed cost = $200,000 Required return = 15%

Select one:

a. 667

b. 1,334

c. 1,667

d. 2,000

e. 2,662

Question 9

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XYZ Ltd. has a DOL of 2. What will happen to the firm's OCF if sales were to decrease by 15%?

Select one:

a. OCF will increase by 15%

b. OCF will increase by 30%

c. OCF will decrease by 30%

d. OCF will decrease by 15%

e. OCF will remain unchanged

Question 10

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Marple Inc., is planning to invest in equipment to produce widgets. The equipment will cost $1.5 million, has a CCA rate of 30%, and will have no value by the end of the fifth year. The project is forecasted to yield sales of 10,000 units of widgets per year for the next 5 years. Each widget will cost $45 to produce and will sell for $100. Fixed costs of production will total $20,000 per year. However, the marketing department reports that sales quantity may have forecasting error of plus or minus 10%. The production department reports that variable cost could vary by plus or minus 15%, and fixed costs could vary by plus or minus 5%. If the required rate of return of similar projects is 13% and the marginal corporate tax rate is 35%, what is the NPV in the worst case scenario?

Select one:

a. -$210,018

b. -$113,997

c. $10,600

d. $56,896

e. $159,204

MC 11:

Question 1

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Suppose we find that the returns on Stock A are perfectly and negatively correlated with returns on Stock B. If we plot the returns on A against the returns on B, all the points will plot on the same line. This line would have a slope of

Select one:

a. 0.

b. 1.

c. 2.

d. -1.

e. negative infinity.

Question 2

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Suppose we know that the returns on two assets (Asset A and Asset B) are perfectly and positively correlated. The expected return on Asset A is 25% and the expected return on Asset B is 20%. The standard deviations of returns on Asset A and Asset B are 45% and 10%, respectively. If we want to form a portfolio with 40% in Asset A and the rest in Asset B, what is the standard deviation of this portfolio?

Select one:

a. 5.76%

b. 22%

c. 24%

d. 28.5%

e. 48.99%

Question 3

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For a well-diversified portfolio, the ______________ risk is negligible.

Select one:

a. systematic

b. unsystematic

c. default

d. forecasting

e. market

Question 4

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Given the information below, when we compare the two securities, Security B has

	Standard Deviation	Beta
Security A	40%	0.50
Security B	20%	1.50

Select one:

a. a higher risk premium.

b. a lower risk premium.

c. a higher risk premium and higher total risk.

d. a lower risk premium and lower total risk.

e. none of the above.

Question 5

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Diversification reduces risk as long as

Select one:

a. correlations between returns on individual assets are greater than one.

b. correlations between returns on individual assets are less than one.

c. covariances between returns on individual assets are greater than one.

d. covariances between returns on individual assets are less than one.

e. standard deviations of returns on individual assets are all positive.

Question 6

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If an asset plotted above the Security Market Line, its price would

Select one:

a. remain the same.

b. go into free fall.

c. fall.

d. rise.

e. rise rapidly and then fal

Question 7

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The characteristic line of a security relates the expected return on the security to

Select one:

a. different returns on the market.

b. different returns on the risk-free asset.

c. its historical returns.

d. betas of different securities in the market.

e. historical standard deviations.

Question 8

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Suppose a stock has a beta of 1.3. The risk-free rate is 4%, and the market risk premium is 8.6%. Based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model, what is the expected return on this stock?

Select one:

a. 5.2%

b. 5.98%

c. 9.98%

d. 12.6%

e. 15.18%

Question 9

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Which of the following events would lead to higher unsystematic risk?

1. Short-term interest rates increase unexpectedly.

2. The interest rate a company pays on its short-term debt borrowing is increased by its bank.

3. A manufacturer loses a multimillion dollar product liability suit.

Select one:

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. II and III

e. I, II, and III

Question 10

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You own a portfolio that has $700 invested in Stock A and $2,400 invested in Stock B. If the expected returns on Stock A is 11% and on Stock B is 18%, what is the expected return on the portfolio?

Select one:

a. 12.58%

b. 14.50%

c. 16.25%

d. 16.42%

e. 29.00%

MC 12:

Question 1

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The cost of capital of a risky project must be

Select one:

a. lower than the T-bill rate.

b. higher than the T-bill rate.

c. the same as the T-bill rate.

d. lower than the market risk-premium.

e. higher than the market rate.

Question 2

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The cost of capital associated with a project depends on

Select one:

a. the whims of investors.

b. the management of the company that requires the funds.

c. the risk of the project.

d. the debt-equity ratio of the company that requires the funds.

e. the stability of the financial market.

Question 3

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Two methods of determining the cost of equity are the

Select one:

a. dividend growth method and the security market line method.

b. dividend growth method and the stock pricing method.

c. security market line method and the stock pricing method.

d. dividend growth method and the debt-equity method.

e. stock pricing method and the debt-equity method.

Question 4

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To estimate the cost of equity using the dividend growth model, we need which of the following pieces of information?

1. BE

2. D0

3. Rm

4. P1

5. Rf

6. P0

7. g

Select one:

a. I, II, and III

b. I, II, III, and IV

c. II, VI, and VII

d. II, IV, and VII

e. All of the information is required.

Question 5

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According to the Security Market Line (SML) method, expected return on a risky asset depends on

Select one:

a. risk-free rate.

b. market risk-premium.

c. beta of the asset.

d. market rate of return.

e. All of the above

Question 6

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You are trying to estimate the cost of equity for XYZ Ltd. You know that the company has an estimated beta of 1.25. You have found the Government of Canada 30-day T-Bill rate of 4.5%, and the market risk premium of 5.5%. What is the cost of equity for XYZ Ltd.?

Select one:

a. 11.38%

b. 11.13%

c. 10.13%

d. 17.00%

e. 5.50%

Question 7

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We have the following information on the capital structure of Harthaway Corporation. What is the market value weight of the firm's common equity? Debt: Number of bonds = 10,000 Par value = $1,000 Coupon rate = 9% (semi-annual coupons) Time to maturity = 10 years Market value = 98% of par Common Equity: Number of shares outstanding = 1,000,000 Par value = $1 Price per share = $3.50 Dividends per share = $0.70 Preferred Equity: Number of shares outstanding = 50,000 Price per share = $20 Dividend yield = 5%

Select one:

a. 7%

b. 8.5%

c. 14.5%

d. 24.5%

e. 68.5%

Question 8

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The Marquiz Inc., has an outstanding bond issue of 100,000 bonds with a par value of $1,000 each, coupon rate of 11% with semi-annual coupon payments, and 7 years to maturity. Each bond is currently valued at 102% of par. What is the yield to maturity on this bond?

Select one:

a. 5.29%

b. 5.50%

c. 10.59%

d. 10.87%

e. 11.00%

Question 9

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Given the following information on XYZ Ltd., what is its WACC? Debt: Number of bonds = 10,000 Par value = $1,000 Coupon rate = 9% (semi-annual coupons) Time to maturity = 10 years Market value = 98% of par Common Equity: Number of shares outstanding = 1,000,000 Par value = $1 Price per share = $3.50 Dividends per share = $0.70 Preferred Equity: Number of shares outstanding = 50,000 Price per share = $20 Dividend yield = 5% Other information: Tax rate = 40% Equity beta = 1.2 Market risk premium = 16% Risk-free rate = 5%

Select one:

a. 9.07%

b. 10.10%

c. 11.63%

d. 12.65%

e. 24.20%

Question 10

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ABC Corp. has a debt-equity ratio of 2. Newly issued bonds by the company must have a yield to maturity of 8%, whilst newly issued equity will yield 18%. With newly issued debt and equity, the investment dealer's spreads will be 5% and 8%, respectively. The company's marginal tax rate is 38%. If ABC Corp. wants to raise money for a $1 million project, how much money must it raise in total?

Select one:

a. $1,000,000

b. $1,060,000

c. $1,063,830

d. $1,086,957

e. $1,127,660

MC 13:

Question 1

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How a firm raises capital depends a great deal on which of the following factors?

1. Firm's reputation

2. Size of the firm

3. Reputation of the firm's investment dealers

4. Firm's life cycle stage

5. Firm's growth prospects

6. Capability of the firm's investment dealers

Select one:

a. I, II, and III

b. I, III, and V

c. II, IV, and V

d. II, V, and VI

e. IV, V, and VI

Question 2

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What is the specialty of a venture capital firm?

Select one:

a. seeking out entrepreneurs with new profitable ideas

b. investing shareholders' money in new businesses

c. pooling funds from various sources and investing them

d. setting up joint ventures

e. borrowing money from financial institutions and lending it to new entrepreneurs.

Question 3

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A seasoned new issue of equity refers to the

Select one:

a. timed issue of new shares over a regular interval so as to reduce the effects on share prices.

b. issue of new shares by a firm that has already issued shares in the past.

c. issue of new shares accompanied by a preliminary prospectus.

d. purchase of new shares from the issuing company by an investment dealer for resale to the public.

e. issue of new shares during a particular season of the year.

Question 4

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A regular underwriting is

Select one:

a. the purchase of securities from the issuing company by an investment banker for resale to the public.

b. the underwriter buying the entire issue and assuming full financial responsibility for any unsold shares.

c. the underwriter selling as much of the issue as possible without guaranteeing any particular amount of the money to the issuer.

d. one underwriter buying securities from an issuing firm and selling them directly to a small number of investors.

e. a syndicate buying the entire issue and assuming full financial responsibility for any unsold shares.

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In a rights offering, the shareholders have three choices

1. exercise and subscribe to the entitled shares.

2. sell the rights.

3. do nothing and let the rights expire.

Which of these choice(s) would result in a decrease in a shareholder's wealth?

Select one:

a. I only

b. III only

c. I and II

d. I and III

e. None of the choices

Question 6

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Cameron Camera has proposed a rights offering in which the stockholders will be allowed to buy one new share for every two that they own, at a subscription price of $35 per share. The stock is currently selling for $80 per share. What is the price of each right during the ex-rights period?

Select one:

a. $15.00

b. $35.00

c. $50.00

d. $62.00

e. $65.00

Question 7

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Dilution of ownership of existing shareholders can be avoided by using a/an

Select one:

a. bond issue.

b. rights offering.

c. initial public offering.

d. investment dealer.

e. warranty.

Question 8

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Widget & Us Ltd. needs to raise $6.5 million for a new project via a rights offering. The company currently has 5 million shares of common stock outstanding that sell for $7.50 per share. Its underwriter has set a subscription price of $3 per share and will charge the company a 5% spread. If you currently own 1,000 shares of stock in the company and decide not to participate in the rights offering, how much money can you get by selling your rights?

Select one:

a. $650.00

b. $939.76

c. $1,094.93

d. $1,409.64

e. $2,192.31

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The Running Man Gym Equipment Inc., held a rights offering on January 2, 2011. Each right was valued at $0.50, while the cum-right share price was $3.00. Two rights were required to buy each new share. Before the rights offering, the firm had 10 million shares outstanding. If the company only received 90% of the total proceeds from the rights offering, what was the percentage flotation cost on the net proceeds?

Select one:

a. 10%

b. 11.11%

c. 15%

d. 22.22%

e. $750,000

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Texas-based Entech Solar Inc. held a rights offering to sell 2 million shares at a subscription price of $1.00 per share. The company had 10 million shares of common stock outstanding prior to the rights offering. The shares of the company were trading at a cum-right price of $2.00 per share. The net proceeds to the company were estimated to be $1,900,000 if the rights offer were fully subscribed. Suppose we own 100,000 shares in Entech Solar. How would our wealth change if we did nothing during this rights offering?

Select one:

a. Wealth will decrease by $16,667.

b. Wealth will decrease by $18,333.

c. Wealth will decrease by $20,000.

d. Wealth will increase by $16,667.

e. Wealth will increase by $18,333.

MC 14:

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A firm can consider its capital restructuring decisions in isolation from its investment decisions because

Select one:

a. investment decisions affect operations while capital restructuring decisions affect financing decisions.

b. a company's assets are not directly affected by capital restructuring decisions.

c. investment decisions and capital restructuring decisions are mutually exclusive.

d. investors demand a separation of these two decisions due to agency conflicts.

e. investment and capital restructuring decisions use different sets of criteria and discount rates.

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What is the guiding principle for financial managers in capital structure decisions?

Select one:

a. Choose the capital structure that will minimize the cost of debt.

b. Choose the capital structure that will minimize corporate taxes.

c. Choose the capital structure that will maximize the value of the firm's shares.

d. Choose the capital structure that will minimize financial distress costs.

e. Choose the capital structure that will minimize the impacts on ownership proportions.

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Calculate the degree of financial leverage for ABC Co., which has an EBIT of $3,000,000 and interest expense of $800,000. Ignore taxes

Select one:

a. DFL = 0.27

b. DFL = 0.73

c. DFL = 1.36

d. DFL = 2.75

e. DFL = 3.75

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The M&M Proposition II without taxes states that

Select one:

a. the value of a firm is independent of its capital structure.

b. a firm's cost of equity is a positive linear function of its capital structure.

c. the riskiness of a firm's equity depends on its business risk and financial risk.

d. the value of a firm is equal to the value of an unleveraged firm with the same EBIT, plus the present value of the interest tax shield.

e. a firm's cost of equity is independent of its capital structure.

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A measure of the systematic risk of the firm's assets is sometimes called the

Select one:

a. unlevered beta.

b. total beta.

c. risk premium.

d. market beta.

e. equity beta.

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Which of the following is not an indirect bankruptcy cost?

Select one:

a. bondholders filing for bankruptcy protection

b. loss of asset value as management try to avoid bankruptcy

c. sales lost due to disruption in normal operations

d. loss of positive NPV projects due to lack of funding

e. lawyers' fees from bankruptcy filing and administration

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In the Static Theory of Capital Structure, the difference between the static theory optimal value of the firm and the M&M value without taxes is

Select one:

a. the loss in value from the possibility of financial distress.

b. the gain from leverage, net of financial distress costs.

c. the gain from leverage.

d. the financial distress costs.

e. the present value of tax shield on debt.

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In a normal liquidation situation, ___________ are lower than common stockholders on the priority list of claims on liquidation proceeds.

Select one:

a. preferred stockholders

b. contributions to employee benefit plans

c. consumer claims

d. unsecured creditors

e. no other claims

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ABC Company expects an EBIT of $4,000 every year forever. It can borrow at 10%, but it currently has no debt. Its cost of equity is 14%, and the corporate tax rate is 30%. Suppose ABC borrows $6,000 and uses the proceeds to buy back stock. What is the value of ABC according to M&M Proposition I with taxes?

Select one:

a. $21,800

b. $2,800

c. $20,000

d. $43,810

e. $18,200

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Under which of the following conditions will financial leverage provide no benefits? (Note: TC = corporate tax rate, TS = personal tax rate on equity distributions, and Tb = personal tax rate on interest income.)

Select one:

a. (1 - TS) x (1 - Tb) = 1 - TC

b. (1 - TC) x (1 - TS) > 1 - Tb

c. (1 - TC) x (1 - Tb) > 1 - TS

d. (1 - TC) x (1 - TS) = 1 - Tb

e. (1 - TC) x (1 - Tb) = 1 - TS

MC 15:

uestion 1

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Which of the following is not a factor that induces a firm to pay higher dividends?

Select one:

a. higher corporate tax rate

b. higher transaction costs on buying and selling shares

c. shareholders' desire for current income

d. more restrictive debt covenant

e. higher personal tax rates on interest income

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Share repurchases

Select one:

a. reduce earnings.

b. reduce EPS.

c. reduce the number of outstanding shares.

d. increase earnings.

e. have no effect on the firm.

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When will the price on a company's shares change once it has declared a dividend?

Select one:

a. on the record date

b. on the declaration date

c. two business days after the record date

d. two business days before the payment date

e. two business days before the record date

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You own 1,000 shares of a firm's common stock. The firm has a total of 250,000 shares outstanding, with each share being priced at $2 per share. The firm has just declared a 5-for-4 stock split. How many shares will you end up with, and what will be the price per share after the stock split?

Select one:

a. 800 shares; $2

b. 1,000 shares; $2

c. 1,250 shares; $2

d. 1,250 shares; $1.60

e. 1,500 shares; $1.60

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Aunt Jemima owns 250 shares in Oohay Corporation common stock. Oohay has just declared a stock dividend. If Aunt Jemima ends up with 325 shares afterwards, what percentage stock dividend was declared?

Select one:

a. 20%

b. 25%

c. 30%

d. 35%

e. 40%

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Which of the following is NOT a feature of a cyclical dividend policy?

Select one:

a. stable dividend payout

b. stable dividends per share

c. cyclical dividend yield

d. cyclical amount of dividends paid

e. none of the above

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A cash dividend and stock repurchase will produce the same effect on

Select one:

a. Equity value.

b. P/E ratio.

c. Net Income.

d. none of the above

e. all of the above

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From the shareholders' point of view, which of the following may cause a change in percentage ownership?

Select one:

a. a stock repurchase

b. a stock split

c. a stock dividend

d. a reverse stock split

e. a bond issue

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PQR Inc. has a debt-equity ratio of 1.6 and 1 million shares outstanding. The firm's pro-forma Income Statement for the next year indicates that its Net Income will be $560,000. If the company proposes to invest 60% of its earnings in projects, what is the dividend per share?

Select one:

a. $0.34

b. $0.43

c. $0.56

d. $0.90

e. $1.46

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STU Mobility Inc. will pay $2 per share in cash dividends 1 year from now, and a liquidating dividend of $65 per share 2 years from now. The required return on similar common stocks is 15%. If you own 1,000 shares of the 100,000 total shares outstanding in STU, but you want to have constant dividend payout in the next 2 years, how much homemade dividends can you get in each year?

Select one:

a. $3,130.23

b. $3,350.00

c. $32,500.00

d. $31,302.33

e. $33,500.00

END