MARKETING ASSIGNMENT

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exam.zip

exam 2.docx

  Question 1

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The OSU studies concluded that leaders exhibit two main types of behavior: structure behavior and consideration behavior.

Question 1 answers

True

False

Question 2 text   Question 2

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Fiedler suggests when there is a mismatch between the type of situation in which leaders find themselves, and the leaders style of leadership:

Question 2 answers

leaders should shift to situations for which they are best suited

the situation should be changed

immediate training is necessary no matter how long it may take

any leadership style is appropriate

the leaders should be flexible enough to adapt to the new situation

Question 3 text   Question 3

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The OSU studies concluded that leaders exhibit two main styles of behavior:

Question 3 answers

employee-centered behavior and job-centered behavior

structure behavior and consideration behavior

boss-centered behavior and subordinate-centered behavior

consideration behavior and job-centered behavior

structure behavior and employee-centered behavior

Question 4 text   Question 4

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The life cycle theory of leadership maintains that:

Question 4 answers

as a manager becomes more mature, he/she should become more participatory

the organization should match the individual with a specific leadership situation

a manager's leadership style should be independent of the follower's maturity levels

the leader's abilities will peak when the leader is 45 years old, and decline thereafter

a manager's leadership style will be effective only if it is appropriate for the maturity level of the followers

Question 5 text   Question 5

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According to the characteristics of the emerging leader versus characteristics of the manager, which of the following would be associated with the leader?

Question 5 answers

problem-solving

independent

consulting

stabilizing

authoritative

Question 6 text   Question 6

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Under which of the following conditions would Fiedler say a considerate leader would be most effective?

Question 6 answers

good leader-member relations, high task structure, and strong leader position power

moderately poor leader-member relations, high task structure, and weak leader position power

moderately poor leader-member relations, weak task structure and weak leader position power

good leader-member relations, high task structure, and weak leader position power

good leader-member relations, weak task structure, and weak leader position power

Question 7 text   Question 7

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Which approach to leadership suggests successful leadership requires a unique combination of leaders, followers, and leadership situations?

Question 7 answers

transformational leadership

the trait approach

the situational approach to leadership

contingency approach

the contemporary leader approach

Question 8 text   Question 8

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According to the Vroom-Yetton-Jago Model, when a manager and subordinates meet as a group to discuss the situation, and the group makes the decision, it is the ________ decision style.

Question 8 answers

CI

AII

CII

GII

Question 9 text   Question 9

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Which of the following is a situational leadership theory?

Question 9 answers

the trait approach

the Ohio State studies

superleadership

the Michigan Studies

path-goal theory

Question 10 text   Question 10

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According to the OSU studies, the behavior that reflects friendship, mutual trust, respect, and warmth in the relationship between leader and follower is:

Question 10 answers

consideration behavior

structure behavior

job-centered behavior

employee-centered behavior

unstructured behavior

Question 11 text   Question 11

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The only real difference between Maslow and Alderfer is that Maslow identified three levels of needs and Alderfer identified five.

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True

False

Question 12 text   Question 12

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Theory X is a set of essentially positive assumptions about human nature.

Question 12 answers

True

False

Question 13 text   Question 13

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Process theories of motivation are explanations that emphasize people's internal characteristics.

Question 13 answers

True

False

Question 14 text   Question 14

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According to McClelland's Acquired Needs Theory, an individual with which of the following need profiles would be comfortable in competitive situations and enjoy her decision-making role?

Question 14 answers

high need for power

low need for achievement

high need for achievement

low need for power

low need for affiliation

Question 15 text   Question 15

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Incorporating motivators into a job situation is:

Question 15 answers

total quality management

job rotation

job enrichment

job enlargement

project management

Question 16 text   Question 16

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All of the following are advantages of flextime EXCEPT:

Question 16 answers

decreased absenteeism and turnover

improved employee attitude and morale

increased production

ease of scheduling meetings and coordinating projects

accommodation of working parents, and leisure-time activities of employees

Question 17 text   Question 17

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A reward that consists of the elimination of an undesirable consequence of behavior is:

Question 17 answers

positive reinforcement

negative reinforcement

termination

punishment

extinction

Question 18 text   Question 18

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An individual's early experiences will determine which of McClelland's three needs are the most highly developed, and therefore dominate their personality.

Question 18 answers

True

False

Question 19 text   Question 19

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The correct order of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is:

Question 19 answers

physiological, social, esteem, security, self-actualization

self-actualization, social, esteem, security, physiological

social, physiological, self-actualization, esteem, security

physiological, security, social, esteem, self-actualization

security, physiological, social, esteem, self-actualization

Question 20 text   Question 20

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Motivation theories that emphasize how individuals are motivated are:

Question 20 answers

behavior modification theories

job design theories

content theories

monetary incentive theories

process theories

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In general, managers can sharpen their communication skills by focusing solely on the content of the message.

Question 21 answers

True

False

Question 22 text   Question 22

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Being critical of others can actually have a positive effect on listening.

Question 22 answers

True

False

Question 23 text   Question 23

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The grapevine is the network of informal organizational communication.

Question 23 answers

True

False

Question 24 text   Question 24

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Verbal communication is the sharing of information without using words to encode thoughts.

Question 24 answers

True

False

Question 25 text   Question 25

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The process of guiding the activities of the organization in appropriate directions is called:

Question 25 answers

communicating

managing

influencing

leading

motivating

Question 26 text   Question 26

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In the influencing subsystem, which of the following factors is interrelated to leading?

Question 26 answers

motivating

encouraging creativity and innovation

considering groups

leading, motivating and considering groups are all interrelated

none of the above are interrelated

Question 27 text   Question 27

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In interpersonal communication, the destination's reaction to a message, is known as:

Question 27 answers

feedback

the communication process

critique

listening

feedforward

Question 28 text   Question 28

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In order to encourage upward formal communication, managers should:

Question 28 answers

have formal discussions with employees every Friday afternoon

eliminate existing grievance procedures

establish a closed-door policy

utilize suggestion systems

accept and ignore attitudes

Question 29 text   Question 29

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Employees frequently cite the company grapevine as being the most reliable and credible source of information about company events.

Question 29 answers

True

False

Question 30 text   Question 30

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________ is an interpersonal communication system in which the information the source intends to share with the destination and the meaning the destination derives from the transmitted message are different.

Question 30 answers

Unsuccessful Communication

Noise

Macrobarriers to Communication

Successful Communication

Question 31 text   Question 31

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Which stage of team development is characterized by a focus on solving organizational problems and meeting assigned challenges?

Question 31 answers

performing

forming

norming

adjourning

storming

Question 32 text   Question 32

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The acceptance stage is the first stage of formal group development and is where members often mistrust one another initially.

Question 32 answers

True

False

Question 33 text   Question 33

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Once the interest or concern that caused an interest group to form has been eliminated, the group tends to disband.

Question 33 answers

True

False

Question 34 text   Question 34

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Not all groups in organizations are teams, but all teams are groups.

Question 34 answers

True

False

Question 35 text   Question 35

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Once the problem that brought the problem-solving team together has been addressed, the team is disbanded.

Question 35 answers

True

False

Question 36 text   Question 36

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A formal group is a group that:

Question 36 answers

is formed by the affiliation of the group members

is psychologically aware of each other

is normally unstructured and undefined

is formed by the common interests of group members

was formed by management to perform organizational tasks

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Most executives think committees are a waste of time.

Question 37 answers

True

False

Question 38 text   Question 38

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A group qualifies as a team only if its members focus on helping one another to accomplish organizational objectives.

Question 38 answers

True

False

Question 39 text   Question 39

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Groupthink is the mode of thinking group members engage in when the desire for agreement and the "we-feeling" is so dominant it overrides realistic alternative problem solutions.

Question 39 answers

True

False

Question 40 text   Question 40

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A group is three or more people who interact with one another, are psychologically aware of one another, and perceive themselves to be a group.

Question 40 answers

True

False

exam 3.docx

  Question 1

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Job analysis is a process of obtaining all pertinent job facts, and produces job descriptions and job specifications.

Question 1 answers

True

False

Question 2 text   Question 2

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One of the advantages of promotion from within is that it encourages employees to work harder in hopes of being promoted.

Question 2 answers

True

False

Question 3 text   Question 3

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One of the advantages of luring an individual away from a competitor and hiring that individual is that the competitor will be weakened somewhat by the loss of the individual

Question 3 answers

True

False

Question 4 text   Question 4

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The purpose of training is to:

Question 4 answers

increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior

serve as a recruitment tool

serve as a basis for promotion

increase the compensation of individuals

educate future managers

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Vocational interest tests attempt to measure an individual's interest in performing various kinds of jobs.

Question 5 answers

True

False

Question 6 text   Question 6

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The most widely used external source of human resources is:

Question 6 answers

the readership of certain publications

current employees

competitors

employment agencies

educational institutions

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________ is the process of outlining who will follow whom in various organizational positions.

Question 7 answers

Performance inventory development

Succession planning

Developing a management manpower replacement chart

Performance appraising

Question 8 text   Question 8

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The process of developing qualities in human resources that will enable them to be more productive is:

Question 8 answers

recruitment

testing

training

performance appraisal

selection

Question 9 text   Question 9

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Coaching involves moving an individual from job to job to enable the person to gain an understanding of the organization as a whole.

Question 9 answers

True

False

Question 10 text   Question 10

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The four-step training process sequence is correctly described as:

Question 10 answers

designing, determining, evaluating, and administering

determining, designing, evaluating, and administering

determining, designing, administering, and evaluating

designing, determining, managing, and administering

determining, evaluating, designing, and administering

Question 11 text   Question 11

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The system or network of interpersonal relationships that exists within an organization is its:

Question 11 answers

responsibility structure

formal structure

informal structure

communication structure

authority structure

Question 12 text   Question 12

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Classical organizing theory comprises the cumulative insights of early management writers on how organizational resources can best be used to enhance goal attainment.

Question 12 answers

True

False

Question 13 text   Question 13

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Division of labor is the assignment of various portions of a particular task among a number of organization members.

Question 13 answers

True

False

Question 14 text   Question 14

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The formal structure of an organization is represented primarily by:

Question 14 answers

the organization chart

its overall management system

its bureaucracy

Graicunas' formula

its organizing subsystem

Question 15 text   Question 15

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Traditionally, an organization chart:

Question 15 answers

is like a square

shows the customer at the top of the chart

is a depiction of the organization's informal structure

is a pyramid form

is shaped like a circle

Question 16 text   Question 16

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________ is the degree to which workers' activities are difficult and involved.

Question 16 answers

Geographic continuity

Similarity of functions

Coordination

Complexity of functions

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________ is defined as the relationship among organizational resources as outlined by management.

Question 17 answers

Vertical dimensioning

Formal structure

Informal structure

Horizontal dimensioning

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Bureaucracy can be characterized as a management system with detailed procedures, rules, and a clearly outlined organizational hierarchy with impersonal relationships among organization members.

Question 18 answers

True

False

Question 19 text   Question 19

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Which of the following factors would be a factor that would tend to increase the span of management?

Question 19 answers

Work of subordinates need much coordination

Subordinates are physically distant

Subordinates have complex tasks

Subordinates have similar functions

Question 20 text   Question 20

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Which of the following is NOT a main step in the organizing process?

Question 20 answers

establish major tasks

reflect on plans and objectives

evaluating plans for completeness

allocate resources and directives for subtasks

divide major tasks into subtasks

Question 21 text   Question 21

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The best rationale for modifying an existing organization is to increase:

Question 21 answers

profit

revenues

organizational effectiveness

customer service

employee morale

Question 22 text   Question 22

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A change agent is an individual outside the organization who tries to modify an existing organizational situation.

Question 22 answers

True

False

Question 23 text   Question 23

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According to the model developed by Hellriegel and Slocum, a company is certain to fail if it has low stability and low adaptability.

Question 23 answers

True

False

Question 24 text   Question 24

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Stress is seldom significantly reduced until the stressor has been coped with or withdrawn from the environment.

Question 24 answers

True

False

Question 25 text   Question 25

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The study of organizational change is extremely important because all managers at all levels are faced with the task of keeping their organizations stable and resisting change.

Question 25 answers

True

False

Question 26 text   Question 26

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In addition to change, some degree of stability is a prerequisite for long-term organization success.

Question 26 answers

True

False

Question 27 text   Question 27

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The most extensive degree of virtuality is a:

Question 27 answers

virtual team

virtual corporation

virtual office

virtual training center

all are equally extensive degrees of virtuality

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Stabilizing an organization is part of the process of modifying an existing organization to increase organizational effectiveness.

Question 28 answers

True

False

Question 29 text   Question 29

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Stress is the bodily strain that an individual experiences as a result of coping with some environmental factor.

Question 29 answers

True

False

Question 30 text   Question 30

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Employee resistance to change exists because:

Question 30 answers

individuals fear some type of personal loss

everyone else resists the change

employees prefer lower prestige

it is easier for the employee to resist the change than comply

the old ways are better

Question 31 text   Question 31

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Which of the following is most likely if an organization is decentralized?

Question 31 answers

there is a narrow span of management

there is little accountability

there is a minimal amount of delegation

there is a high degree of delegation

there is a lack of authority held by middle managers

Question 32 text   Question 32

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The three main types of authority that can exist within an organization are:

Question 32 answers

line, functional, and formal

line, staff, and functional

formal, informal, and functional

staff, informal, and formal

line, staff, and formal

Question 33 text   Question 33

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The most basic method of dividing job activities is the functional similarity method.

Question 33 answers

True

False

Question 34 text   Question 34

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Centralization refers to the situation in which a minimal number of job activities and a minimal amount of authority are delegated to subordinates.

Question 34 answers

True

False

Question 35 text   Question 35

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When two or more employees are uncertain as to who is responsible for a task, only one outcome is possible.

Question 35 answers

True

False

Question 36 text   Question 36

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The obligation to perform assigned activities is termed:

Question 36 answers

responsibility

a job description

answerability

authority

accountability

Question 37 text   Question 37

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The key manager dimension that is concerned with managers who ensure that any gaps between their areas and those of other managers are securely filled is:

Question 37 answers

behavior with upper management

behavior with people outside the organization

behavior with subordinates

personal attitudes and values

behavior with other groups

Question 38 text   Question 38

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Even though a manager may delegate a task to another employee, the manager still remains responsible for the completion of the task.

Question 38 answers

True

False

Question 39 text   Question 39

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Organizational members should be obligated to perform only those activities that lead to goal attainment.

Question 39 answers

True

False

Question 40 text   Question 40

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A very small organization increases the opportunity for delegation.

Question 40 answers

True

False

exam 4.docx

 Question 1

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Which retail institution is often part retailer and part wholesaler?

Question 1 answers

off-price retail chain

factory outlet

flea market

membership club

Question 2 text   Question 2

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The use of boutiques by department stores to highlight designer clothing most closely resembles the strategy of a _____.

Question 2 answers

specialty store

retail catalog showroom

variety store

full-line discount store

Question 3 text   Question 3

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A food-oriented retailer in which general merchandise accounts for 25 percent to 40 percent of total store sales is a _____.

Question 3 answers

superstore

combination store

box store

warehouse store

Question 4 text   Question 4

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Low merchandise continuity and opportunistic buying characterize _____.

Question 4 answers

retail catalog showrooms and combination stores

superstores and combination stores

variety stores and membership clubs

off-price chains and membership clubs

Question 5 text   Question 5

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Which retail institutions fit the scrambled merchandising concept?

Question 5 answers

warehouse store and conventional supermarket

warehouse store and box (limited-line) store

convenience store and conventional supermarket

combination store and superstore

Question 6 text   Question 6

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Which statement concerning scrambled merchandising is correct?

Question 6 answers

Supermarkets have not engaged in scrambled merchandising.

Retailers typically trade up as part of scrambled merchandising.

Scrambled merchandising is contagious.

Scrambled merchandising typically occurs at the innovation stage of the retail life cycle.

Question 7 text   Question 7

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A retailer tries to appeal to consumers' one-stop shopping needs through _____.

Question 7 answers

the retail life cycle

vertical marketing systems

the wheel of retailing

scrambled merchandising

Question 8 text   Question 8

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Manufacturers may prefer to sell their closeouts, canceled orders, and out-of-season merchandise to factory outlets rather than off-price chains because _____.

Question 8 answers

off-price chains can generate high profit margins

off-price chains have too much power

factory outlets generate low short-term cash flow

greater control results in less disturbance to traditional channels

Question 9 text   Question 9

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A factory outlet represents an example of a(n) _____.

Question 9 answers

independent vertical marketing system

partially integrated vertical marketing system

fully integrated vertical marketing system

distorted vertical marketing system

Question 10 text   Question 10

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Other retailers' canceled orders, manufacturers' irregulars and overruns, and end-of-season items form the core of merchandise at which retail institution?

Question 10 answers

off-price chain

box (limited-line) store

full-line discount store

factory outlet

Question 11 text   Question 11

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Which institution can be classified as either a wholesaler or retailer?

Question 11 answers

off-price chain

factory outlet

membership club

department store

Question 12 text   Question 12

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The competitive advantage of a category killer is based on _____.

Question 12 answers

width of assortment

depth of assortment

low prices

convenience of location

Question 13 text   Question 13

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Which retail institution is organized into specific divisions for purposes of buying, promotion, customer service, and control?

Question 13 answers

department store

variety store

full-line discount store

retail catalog showroom

Question 14 text   Question 14

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A form of research in which present behavior or the results of past behavior are viewed and recorded is _____.

Question 14 answers

a survey

experimentation

observation

simulation

Question 15 text   Question 15

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Which of the following is not a survey?

Question 15 answers

observation

mail questionnaires

telephone questionnaires

person-to-person interviewing

Question 16 text   Question 16

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Information previously gathered for other purposes than the problem or issue under study is _____.

Question 16 answers

primary data

syndicated data

secondary data

a marketing research system

Question 17 text   Question 17

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Experiments generally utilize _____.

Question 17 answers

a semantic differential

mechanical observation

multidimensional scaling

a controlled environment

Question 18 text   Question 18

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Ongoing studies are made available to many clients for a fee by _____.

Question 18 answers

commercial research houses

the U.S. government (federal)

channel members

the Business Periodicals Index

Question 19 text   Question 19

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The use of a control group is a common aspect of which data collection technique?

Question 19 answers

a survey

an experiment

observation

simulation

Question 20 text   Question 20

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Which type of consumer behavior topic can be best studied using observation?

Question 20 answers

the store image of a new discounter

perceived risk related to sneaker purchasing behavior

consumer cognitive dissonance subsequent to the purchase of a new home

the average time spent in a convenience store

Question 21 text   Question 21

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The information needs of retail managers are collected, organized, and stored on a continuous basis in _____.

Question 21 answers

observation

retail research

an experiment

a retail information system

Question 22 text   Question 22

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Participation by incorrect respondents is a major problem in which survey?

Question 22 answers

telephone survey

personal survey

mail survey

observation

Question 23 text   Question 23

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A retailer seeks to determine the quality of sales personnel presentations. An appropriate primary data collection technique is _____.

Question 23 answers

observation

a mail survey

an experiment

simulation

Question 24 text   Question 24

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A common major disadvantage of secondary data is the _____.

Question 24 answers

unsuitable units of measurement

long time period required to collect data

high cost for data collection

known source and control over data collection

Question 25 text   Question 25

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A retailer needs to determine its customers' attitudes in conjunction with a legal court case. The retailer should utilize _____.

Question 25 answers

a nonprobability sample

observation

a probability sample

an experiment

Question 26 text   Question 26

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Which of the following is not a role of the Web from the vantage point of the retailer?

Question 26 answers

to furnish customer service in the form of E-mail and "hot links"

to replace mail, phone, and fax communications

to reach geographically dispersed consumers, including foreign consumers

to provide information to consumers

Question 27 text   Question 27

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A major disadvantage to the use of a blind mailing is the _____.

Question 27 answers

high mailing-list cost

low response rate

high paper costs per unit

inability to purchase an appropriate list

Question 28 text   Question 28

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A customer data base can more easily be developed and maintained in all forms of direct marketing than in other forms of retailing because _____.

Question 28 answers

goods are shipped to a customer's home or office

consumer concern for privacy is high

consumer responses to promotions are typically high

high direct marketing clutter exists

Question 29 text   Question 29

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While a retailer maintains a Web site, customers at the site would be unable to know if an item listed is still available. What type of site does the retailer have?

Question 29 answers

stage 1: brochure Web site

stage 2: commerce Web site

stage 4: the "webified" store

stage 5: site integrated with manufacturer systems

Question 30 text   Question 30

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Which of the following are characteristics of direct marketing?

Question 30 answers

exposure to a good or service through a nonpersonal medium and ordering via mail, phone, fax, or computer

exposure to a good or service through a nonpersonal medium and ordering via personal interaction

exposure to a good or service through a personal medium and ordering via mail, phone, fax, or computer

exposure to a good or service through a personal medium and ordering via personal interaction

Question 31 text   Question 31

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Which of the following is an example of direct marketing?

Question 31 answers

a final consumer being exposed to a good or service through a Web-based ad

a final consumer being exposed to a good or service through a door-to-door salesperson

a final consumer being exposed to a good or service through a referral by a neighbor

a final consumer being exposed to a good or service through a referral by a department store's salesperson

Question 32 text   Question 32

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Direct marketers are most affected by which federal legislation?

Question 32 answers

Robinson-Patman Act

30-day rule

Green River ordinances

blue laws

Question 33 text   Question 33

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From a consumer's perspective, a video kiosk most closely resembles a(n) _____.

Question 33 answers

vending machine

point-of-sale system

Web browser

ATM

Question 34 text   Question 34

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Which statement concerning global direct marketing is not correct?

Question 34 answers

There is a decreasing acceptance of nonstore retailing outside the United States.

Outside the United States, annual direct sales are in the hundreds of billions of dollars.

Eddie Bauer and Lands' End are among the firms with a significant international presence.

There are direct marketing trade associations in such diverse countries as Australia, China, Brazil, and Russia.

Question 35 text   Question 35

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Vending machine transactions are not considered part of direct marketing because _____.

Question 35 answers

vending machines are located in offices, restaurants, and factories

consumers are solicited via in-person selling efforts

the transaction is not via mail, phone, fax, or computer

the average transaction is too low

Question 36 text   Question 36

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Which of the following is not a major benefit to direct marketing for a retailer?

Question 36 answers

Startup costs can be very low.

Customers are given a convenient method of shopping.

A very large geographic area can be inexpensively covered.

Products can be examined prior to purchase.

Question 37 text   Question 37

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The fastest-growing form of direct marketing is _____.

Question 37 answers

direct selling

vending machines

airport retailing

Web-based retailing

Question 38 text   Question 38

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The system to process a direct marketing order is referred to as _____.

Question 38 answers

outsourcing

logistics

inventory management

order fulfillment

Question 39 text   Question 39

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Local advertising is ineffective in reaching _____.

Question 39 answers

baby boomers

Generation X consumers

outshoppers

bachelors

Question 40 text   Question 40

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Which retail institution is most likely to appeal to a concentrated market segment?

Question 40 answers

department store

specialty store

conventional supermarket

superstore

Question 41 text   Question 41

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Consumer researchers that argue that a consumer's shopping behavior is difficult to categorize due to situational factors (such as immediacy of need) or degree of involvement favor use of which lifestyle factor?

Question 41 answers

gender roles

poverty of time

component lifestyles

consumer sophistication and confidence

Question 42 text   Question 42

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Which of the following is an element of perceived risk?

Question 42 answers

physical risk

reference group risk

purchase risk

lifestyle risk

Question 43 text   Question 43

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The average annual U.S. household after-tax income is about _____.

Question 43 answers

$10,000

$15,000

$30,000

$45,000

Question 44 text   Question 44

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The element of perceived risk that relates to the effect of a purchase on one's self-esteem is _____ risk.

Question 44 answers

psychological

social

physical

performance

Question 45 text   Question 45

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A cue or drive meant to motivate or arouse a person to act is a _____.

Question 45 answers

commercial cue

social cue

want

stimulus

Question 46 text   Question 46

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Further purchase and re-evaluation are components of which stage in the consumer decision process?

Question 46 answers

information search

evaluation of alternatives

purchase act

post-purchase behavior

Question 47 text   Question 47

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The opposite of in-home shopping, on a convenience dimension, is _____.

Question 47 answers

routine decision making

outshopping

store loyalty

mapping

Question 48 text   Question 48

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Which stimulus provides retailers with the greatest degree of control?

Question 48 answers

problem awareness

social cue

physical drive

commercial cue

Question 49 text   Question 49

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A major advantage of the use of social versus commercial cues to consumers is based upon _____.

Question 49 answers

the use of lifestyle demographic factors

degree of cognitive dissonance

believability

post-purchase behavior

Question 50 text   Question 50

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Which of the following is not considered as a stimulus?

Question 50 answers

a physical drive

a motive

a commercial cue

a social cue

exam 5.docx

 Question 1

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Small retailers can obtain volume discounts and buying power similar to chain organizations through _____.

Question 1 answers

cooperative buying

resident buying offices

an inside buying organization

a centralized buying organization

Question 2 text   Question 2

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Which retail assortment strategy is used by a specialty store?

Question 2 answers

narrow and shallow

narrow and deep

wide and shallow

wide and deep

Question 3 text   Question 3

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A vertical fashion trend occurs when a fashion is _____.

Question 3 answers

passed from the lower to the upper social classes

accepted by the general public while retaining its basic form

accepted by one market segment only

accepted by an upscale market segment, but undergoes basic changes before it is sold to the general public

Question 4 text   Question 4

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A retailer requires a merchandise management organization in which sales personnel are closely supervised. An appropriate organization focuses on _____.

Question 4 answers

merchandising

separate buying and selling functions and staff

a centralized buying organization

a decentralized buying organization

Question 5 text   Question 5

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The major difference between vertical and horizontal fashion trends is based on _____.

Question 5 answers

the initial group which accepts the trend

whether the product changes form

the initial group which accepts the trend and whether the product changes form

the degree of fashion innovativeness

Question 6 text   Question 6

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A common difficulty in the handling of many substitute goods or services is that _____.

Question 6 answers

inventory turnover may increase

one-stop shopping may not be promoted

scrambled merchandising is achieved

overall sales may not increase

Question 7 text   Question 7

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In which product life-cycle stage do product sales reach their maximum?

Question 7 answers

growth

introduction

maturity

decline

Question 8 text   Question 8

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A chain retailer can maximize its buying power advantages through use of a(n) _____.

Question 8 answers

informal buying organization

resident buying office

decentralized buying organization

centralized buying organization

Question 9 text   Question 9

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Which of the following productivity measures would not be part of category management?

Question 9 answers

sales per capita

sales per linear foot of shelf space

direct product profitability

return on inventory investment

Question 10 text   Question 10

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What type of products generate high sales levels for a short time period?

Question 10 answers

fashion merchandise

assortment merchandise

seasonal merchandise

fad merchandise

Question 11 text   Question 11

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The selling of both major appliances and extended warranties for them by an appliance dealer illustrates _____.

Question 11 answers

trading up

selling complementary goods

scrambled merchandising

selling substitute goods

Question 12 text   Question 12

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A major advantage of a merchandising philosophy is the _____.

Question 12 answers

specialization of functions

superior management of selling staff

higher morale for in-store personnel

integrated buying and selling effort

Question 13 text   Question 13

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A retailer can purchase a private-label bread for $.59 a loaf. The bread sells for $.89. Total direct retailing costs for the bread (warehouse costs, direct labor, and spoilage) equal $.10 per loaf. In addition, $.05 per loaf is charged for administrative overhead. What is the direct product profitability per loaf?

Question 13 answers

$.20

$.30

$.45

The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

Question 14 text   Question 14

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A retailer's ending retail book value of inventory is $130,677. A physical inventory (at retail) equals $133,237. The retailer _____.

Question 14 answers

has a stock overage of $2,560

has a short shortage of $2,560

switched from FIFO to LIFO

switched from LIFO to FIFO

Question 15 text   Question 15

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Which statement concerning reduction planning is not correct?

Question 15 answers

Changes in pilferage control will affect reduction planning.

Reductions can include markdowns, employee discounts, and stock shortages.

Reduction planning is crucial in the cost method of retail accounting.

Merchandise carryover from one period to another affects the magnitude of reductions.

Question 16 text   Question 16

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A furniture retailer has a beginning-of-year inventory (at cost) of $400,000; ending inventory (at cost) is $270,000. Yearly purchases are $700,000 and transportation charges equal $5,700. The retailer's merchandise available for sale during the year is _____.

Question 16 answers

$570,000

$575,700

$735,700

$1,105,700

Question 17 text   Question 17

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Information from merchandise tags or product labels is recorded directly into in-store computer terminals for immediate data processing in a _____ system.

Question 17 answers

point-of-sale

visual inspection

manual perpetual inventory

stock-counting

Question 18 text   Question 18

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A retailer has anticipated yearly expenses of $300,000, a net profit objective of $72,000, planned reductions of $24,000, and planned net sales of $1,000,000. What is its required initial markup percentage?

Question 18 answers

30.0

37.2

38.7

39.6

Question 19 text   Question 19

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Order lead time is defined as _____.

Question 19 answers

average sales per day

extra inventory kept on hand to protect against stockouts

the stock level at which an order must be placed

the time period from when an order is placed until goods are ready for sale

Question 20 text   Question 20

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Keeping a perpetual inventory unit control system has been most facilitated by _____.

Question 20 answers

store planograms

rationalized retailing

barcoding and point-of-sale systems

manual systems that record merchandise transfers

Question 21 text   Question 21

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A firm's ending retail book value of inventory is $30,000. A physical inventory (at retail) shows a value of $24,250. If the retailer's cost complement is .8, what is the ending inventory value at cost?

Question 21 answers

$19,400

$24,000

$27,250

$30,000

Question 22 text   Question 22

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A major advantage to the retail method of accounting is the _____.

Question 22 answers

ease of bookkeeping

accuracy of the cost complement figure

ability to prepare a profit-and-loss statement on the basis of book inventory figures

freedom from even having to take a physical inventory

Question 23 text   Question 23

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The difference between planned purchases and purchase commitments already made by a buyer for a given time period is _____.

Question 23 answers

the cost complement

the required initial markup percentage

reduction planning

the open-to-buy

Question 24 text   Question 24

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A retail firm has net annual sales of $6,000,000. Its average monthly inventory at hand (at retail) was $1,500,000. Its annual rate of stock turnover is _____.

Question 24 answers

0.25

3.0

3.5

4.0

Question 25 text   Question 25

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If a cost complement is 0.8, that means _____.

Question 25 answers

the firm has a gross margin of 80 percent

80 cents of each retail sales dollar covers the merchandise cost

stock shortages are 20 percent of sales

the firm is profitable

Question 26 text   Question 26

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Centralized decision making is generally associated with _____.

Question 26 answers

micromerchandising

risk-maximization retailing

rationalized retailing

category management

Question 27 text   Question 27

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A retailer selling products that are potentially dangerous due to misuse or manufacturer defects should get _____ insurance.

Question 27 answers

property damage

public liability

product liability

workers' compensation

Question 28 text   Question 28

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Rationalized retailing and prototype stores are most likely to be used by _____.

Question 28 answers

chains and franchises

off-price chains

warehouse stores

factory outlets

Question 29 text   Question 29

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Store security relates to both _____.

Question 29 answers

insurance and personal security

personal security and merchandise security

crisis management and pilferage control

safety management and crisis management

Question 30 text   Question 30

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What type of insurance protects retailers from claims due to customers falling due to a wet floor or loose carpeting?

Question 30 answers

directors' liability

workers' compensation

public liability

product liability

Question 31 text   Question 31

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Retailers seek to improve their productivity by having an outside party undertake one or more of its operating functions. This illustrates _____.

Question 31 answers

crisis management

self-scanning

contingency planning

outsourcing

Question 32 text   Question 32

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Which aspect of retail computerization has had the greatest impact on retailing?

Question 32 answers

videoconferencing

debit card systems

the computerized checkout

self-service

Question 33 text   Question 33

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Through _____, an employee can be easily shifted from stockperson to cashier as the need arises.

Question 33 answers

cross-training

risk-minimization retailing

rationalized retailing

job standardization

Question 34 text   Question 34

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Rationalized retailing is often used in conjunction with _____.

Question 34 answers

micromerchandising

prototype stores

a top-down space management approach

a bottom-up space management approach

Question 35 text   Question 35

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Which of the following energy management strategies is most likely to have a negative impact on a retailer's atmosphere?

Question 35 answers

centrally managing lighting levels by each department by time of day to better reflect outside lighting conditions

replacing an older central air-conditioning system with a new efficient unit that requires 150 tons less capacity

installing high efficiency fluorescent bulbs in place of incandescent light bulbs

raising the temperature thermostat from 72 degrees in the summer to 74 degrees

Question 36 text   Question 36

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An advantage of the use of a wireless scanner in conjunction with a radio frequency identification tag (RFID) over a Universal Product Code (UPC) is its _____.

Question 36 answers

ability to scan a package without lifting it

tie-in to speech recognition

lower hardware costs

lower software costs

Question 37 text   Question 37

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The opposite of extreme employee specialization is _____.

Question 37 answers

job standardization

self-service merchandising

automation

cross-training

Question 38 text   Question 38

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The most appropriate financial performance standard of a department store retail buyer is _____.

Question 38 answers

customer satisfaction

total unit sales

total dollar gross profit in department

total dollar sales

Question 39 text   Question 39

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In order for quick response (QR) inventory planning to be effective, _____.

Question 39 answers

inventory ordering costs need to be low

inventory holding costs need to be low

electronic data interchange must not be functioning

shipping costs must be reduced

Question 40 text   Question 40

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Which of the following is not a merchandise source?

Question 40 answers

outside, new supplier

resident buying office

outside, regularly used supplier

company-owned

Question 41 text   Question 41

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Opportunistic buying is most commonly utilized by _____.

Question 41 answers

full-line discount houses

off-price retailers

supermarkets

specialty stores

Question 42 text   Question 42

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The processing of returns and damaged goods is part of _____.

Question 42 answers

third-party logistics planning

quick response inventory planning

slotting fees

reverse logistics

Question 43 text   Question 43

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A retailer can eliminate use of its own warehouses through _____.

Question 43 answers

ordering goods in large quantities

use of direct store distribution

use of electronic data interchange with key vendors

supply chain management initiatives with key suppliers

Question 44 text   Question 44

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Efficient consumer response (ECR) is an example of _____.

Question 44 answers

electronic data interchange

floor-ready merchandise

third-party logistics

collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment

Question 45 text   Question 45

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The logistics aspect of a value delivery chain is _____.

Question 45 answers

quick response inventory management

supply chain management

third-party logistics management

electronic data interchange

Question 46 text   Question 46

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A retailer found that a small percent of goods represented a large proportion of the store's total shrinkage. Which of the following strategies would be most effective?

Question 46 answers

use of in-store guards

electronic article surveillance on the affected goods

use of employee background checks

use of mystery shoppers to watch for shoplifting

Question 47 text   Question 47

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A logistics system can be best defined as the _____.

Question 47 answers

reduction of inventory in a system through more rapid reordering of goods in lower quantities

use of a paperless, computer-to-computer relationship between retailers and their vendors

total process of planning, implementing, and coordinating the physical movement of merchandise from a manufacturer (wholesaler) to a customer in the most timely and cost-efficient manner possible

acquisition and maintenance of a proper merchandise assortment while ordering, shipping, handling, and other related costs are kept in check

Question 48 text   Question 48

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Which source of merchandise utilizes vertical integration by a retailer?

Question 48 answers

company-owned

outside, regularly used supplier

outside, new supplier

cooperative buying arrangement

Question 49 text   Question 49

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A retailer reduces the amount of inventory it keeps on hand by ordering more frequently and in lower quantity through _____.

Question 49 answers

quick response inventory planning

top-down inventory planning

bottom-up inventory planning

UPC-based computerized ordering systems

Question 50 text   Question 50

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The use of shopping bots is associated with _____.

Question 50 answers

want books (want slips)

third-party logistics

comparison shopping

merchandise marts

exam.docx

  Question 1

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Which statement concerning a value delivery system is not correct?

Question 1 answers

Each channel member is dependent on each other.

A value delivery system is as strong as its weakest link.

Value delivery systems are relatively simple to develop and administer.

Nonstore retailing requires a different delivery system than store-based retailing.

Question 2 text   Question 2

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A value delivery system is based on _____.

Question 2 answers

outsourcing

cost minimization

a high degree of cooperation among all channel members

one channel member conducting all activities

Question 3 text   Question 3

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A retailer can reinforce its competitive advantage by providing _____ services.

Question 3 answers

augmented customer

basic

ancillary customer

expected customer

Question 4 text   Question 4

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The four consumer rights as stated by President Kennedy about 45 years ago are _____.

Question 4 answers

value, choice, safety, and to be heard

safety, information, choice, and to be heard

low prices, competition, return policy, and credit

information, choice, safety, and credit

Question 5 text   Question 5

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From the customer's perspective, value is based on _____.

Question 5 answers

perceptions

quality alone

retailer benefits alone

price alone

Question 6 text   Question 6

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A retailer offers an option credit account to its customers; interest is charged at 15 percent per year. If a consumer buys $400 in merchandise on January 1 and receives the bill January 15, how much must the consumer remit to pay the account in full?

Question 6 answers

$400

$403

$406

$409

Question 7 text   Question 7

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Ease of entry is simplest for which service retailer type?

Question 7 answers

nongoods retailer

rental-goods retailer

retailer with extensive licensing requirements

leased goods retailer

Question 8 text   Question 8

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A fundamental concept of the value chain is the _____.

Question 8 answers

interrelationship among manufacturer, wholesaler, and retailer

independence of all channel members

notion that value is interpreted similarly by all final consumers

notion that value is affected by price alone

Question 9 text   Question 9

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The major difference between a typical credit account and a debit-only transfer system is that in the debit-only transfer system, _____.

Question 9 answers

interest is assessed from the billing date

the purchase price is immediately deducted from the consumer's bank account

no interest is charged if payment is made at the billing date

the consumer is billed monthly on the basis of the outstanding balance

Question 10 text   Question 10

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Service quality can be standardized and made more efficient by _____.

Question 10 answers

greater dependence on the owner

automation

franchising

advertising

Question 11 text   Question 11

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The minimum value chain elements a given customer segment expects from a given type of retailer is referred as a(n) _____ retail strategy.

Question 11 answers

potential

realized

expected

augmented

Question 12 text   Question 12

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Physical products are not involved in which type of service?

Question 12 answers

repair services

nongoods services

rented-goods services

owned-goods services

Question 13 text   Question 13

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Which service quality attribute deals with such factors as accuracy in billing and correct record keeping?

Question 13 answers

access

reliability

tangibles

communication

Question 14 text   Question 14

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An advantage of a leased department form of organization to a leasee is _____.

Question 14 answers

an enlarged market due to providing one-stop customer shopping

management assistance

protection from FTC regulations

financial support provided by the leasor

Question 15 text   Question 15

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Fair practice laws are designed to prevent a franchisor from _____.

Question 15 answers

enforcing a tying agreement

terminating, canceling, or failing to renew a franchise without sufficient cause

incorrectly reporting franchise profits and investments

selling additional franchises in a protected territory

Question 16 text   Question 16

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Avon and Sherwin-Williams utilize _____.

Question 16 answers

an independent vertical marketing system

a partially integrated vertical marketing system

a fully integrated vertical marketing system

franchising

Question 17 text   Question 17

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Independent retailers are characterized by _____.

Question 17 answers

a partnership form of organization

a franchise form of distribution

vertical integration

ownership of only one retail unit

Question 18 text   Question 18

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A major potential problem associated with franchising for the franchisor is that _____.

Question 18 answers

money is obtained when goods are delivered, rather than when they are sold

franchisees as owners have less incentive to work hard than employees

it is difficult to set up and enforce franchise qualifications

poorly performing franchises can undermine both consumer and investor confidence

Question 19 text   Question 19

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While chains account for about 25 to 30 percent of all retail establishments, they account for what percent of total retail sales?

Question 19 answers

30

40

65

80

Question 20 text   Question 20

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Franchisors can exclude franchisees from or limit their involvement in the strategic planning process through _____.

Question 20 answers

franchisor training

franchisor troubleshooting

limiting purchases to the franchisor or approved vendors

quantity purchases

Question 21 text   Question 21

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An example of a product/trademark franchise is a(n) _____ franchise.

Question 21 answers

McDonald's fast-food

Wendy's fast-food

Super 8 hotel

Chevrolet auto dealership

Question 22 text   Question 22

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Which of the following is not a structural arrangement involving retail franchisees?

Question 22 answers

manufacturer-retailer

vertical marketing system

service sponsor-retailer

wholesaler-retailer

Question 23 text   Question 23

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Which of the following has the greatest flexibility in developing and implementing a retail strategy?

Question 23 answers

independent retailer

franchisee

chain store manager

leased department operator

Question 24 text   Question 24

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A benefit of franchising to a franchisor is _____.

Question 24 answers

the ability to develop a national presence with less franchisor investment than ownership

lack of uniformity

total channel control

intrafranchise competition

Question 25 text   Question 25

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A manufacturer with low company resources that seeks intensive distribution should utilize which vertical marketing system?

Question 25 answers

a retail cooperative

partially integrated marketing system

independent vertical marketing system

fully integrated marketing system

Question 26 text   Question 26

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Channel relations are generally smoothest in which form of distribution?

Question 26 answers

selective distribution

intensive distribution

exclusive distribution

dual distribution

Question 27 text   Question 27

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All of the elements in a retail offering that encourage or inhibit consumers during their contact with a given retailer make up the _____.

Question 27 answers

total retail experience

retailing concept

marketing concept applied to retailing

customer service philosophy

Question 28 text   Question 28

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In exclusive distribution, suppliers _____.

Question 28 answers

enter into agreements with one or a few retailers that designate the latter as the only companies in specified geographic areas to carry certain brands and/or product lines

sell to as many retailers as possible

sell to a moderate number of retailers

utilize multiple channels of distribution to reduce channel conflict

Question 29 text   Question 29

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An example of a retailer's regularly reviewing operations is the _____.

Question 29 answers

appeal to a prime consumer market

use of a one-price policy

development of realistic sales and profit goals

ongoing analysis of sales and costs by product category

Question 30 text   Question 30

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A unique characteristic of retailing is _____.

Question 30 answers

the high effect of the business cycle on sales

high foreign competition

low average sales

saturation of retail facilities

Question 31 text   Question 31

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An approach to the study of retailing that stresses activities such as buying, pricing, and personnel practices is a _____ approach.

Question 31 answers

strategic

functional

institutional

retail audit

Question 32 text   Question 32

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Channel relations tend to be most volatile in which form of distribution?

Question 32 answers

exclusive distribution

intensive distribution

selective distribution

vertical integration

Question 33 text   Question 33

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On average, what percent of every sales dollar goes to department store retailers as compensation for the activities they perform?

Question 33 answers

15

22

30

50

Question 34 text   Question 34

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The greatest advantage to a manufacturer's use of exclusive distribution is _____.

Question 34 answers

retailer concentration on key items

smooth channel relations

a high level of retail price competition

maximization of long-run sales potential

Question 35 text   Question 35

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Payment for shelf space by manufacturers to supermarkets illustrates _____.

Question 35 answers

the role of manufacturers' representatives

channel power by a retailer

channel cooperation by retailers

competition in the marketplace

Question 36 text   Question 36

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The retailing concept is comprised of _____.

Question 36 answers

price orientation, social responsibility, and competitive defensibility

niche strategy, cost leadership, and market segmentation

customer orientation, coordinated effort, value-driven, and goal orientation

short-run objectives, long-term strategy, implementable actions, and channel control

Question 37 text   Question 37

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A characteristic of a retail strategy is its _____.

Question 37 answers

focus on past operations and success

attention to short-run success

attention to personnel availability and training.

systematic assessment of the environment to ascertain opportunities and constraints

Question 38 text   Question 38

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The identifiable, but sometimes intangible, activities undertaken by a retailer in conjunction with the basic goods and services it sells comprise the retailer's _____.

Question 38 answers

level of commitment to the retail concept

peripheral services

customer satisfaction level

customer service

Question 39 text   Question 39

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A retailer aims efforts at two or more distinct consumer groups, with different retailing approaches for each group, in _____.

Question 39 answers

differentiated marketing

mass marketing

target marketing

undifferentiated marketing

Question 40 text   Question 40

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Which of the following is not an example of feedback?

Question 40 answers

consumer complaints about inconsistent delivery times

government fines for excessive out-of-stock conditions on sale merchandise

the lack of a management succession plan for an independent retailer

high employee turnover among newly-recruited sales personnel

Question 41 text   Question 41

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An integral component of any differentiated marketing strategy is _____.

Question 41 answers

a unique set of product/service offerings to each customer group

an overall company-based integrated strategy

coordination of retailing strategy across units

geographic differentiation to meet customer needs

Question 42 text   Question 42

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The division of authority and responsibility in a major retail organization by product categories and geographic areas illustrates a(n) _____.

Question 42 answers

centralized structure

decentralized structure

professional manager system

owner-manager system

Question 43 text   Question 43

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A discount department store aims its retailing strategy at a large homogeneous (similar) group of consumers. A wide assortment of goods is offered at popular prices. The retailer utilizes which target market strategy?

Question 43 answers

mass marketing

market segment

multiple segmentation

store positioning

Question 44 text   Question 44

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Operations standards are most rigid and the choice of suppliers is most restricted in which ownership and management alternative?

Question 44 answers

franchise

buying an existing business

starting a new business

partnership

Question 45 text   Question 45

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Which of the following is revolutionizing merchandise handling and inventory control?

Question 45 answers

competition

computerized checkouts

legal restrictions

seasonality

Question 46 text   Question 46

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Signals of performance such as employee satisfaction questionnaires, sales reports, and inventory records are examples of _____.

Question 46 answers

retail audits

feedback

tactics

retail demographic data

Question 47 text   Question 47

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A major disadvantage of the partnership form of ownership and management is that it _____.

Question 47 answers

is subject to double taxation

faces more government rules than other ownership forms

binds all partners to actions made by any individual partner acting on behalf of the firm

may separate ownership from management

Question 48 text   Question 48

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The Robinson-Patman Act _____.

Question 48 answers

reduced the economic power of large retail chains

removed the fair trade laws in all states

limited mergers between large firms

reduced monopolies and restraints of trade

Question 49 text   Question 49

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A systematic procedure for analyzing the performance of a retailer is _____.

Question 49 answers

tactical performance evaluation

a retail audit

feedback

strategy evaluation

Question 50 text   Question 50

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Which of these laws do not enable suppliers to offer unjustified discounts to large retailers?

Question 50 answers

Robinson-Patman Act

Miller-Tydings Act

Sherman Act

Clayton Act