APr8

A person posts a Youtube video whereby the individual calls on viewers to overpower, fight and teach persons belonging to a particular religious group a "lesson."  Is this a form of protected speech? Why or why not?

[Hint: Belkacem v Belgium(2004) - Review this case to help support your answer]

Guidelines:

YOU MUST completely answer the question and support your answer by citing previous cases or precedents established. This should be done using 2 paragraphs.  The next 1-2 paragraphs should be solely your opinion on the scenario.