AVIA 310
Quiz: Stage Check 1 — Instruments and Tools
Due May 27 at 11:59pm Points 50 Questions 50 Time Limit 120 Minutes Allowed Attempts 3
Instructions
The quiz:
Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1 — Module 2: Week 2.
Contains 50 multiple-choice questions.
Is limited to 120 minutes.
Allows multiple attempts.
Is worth 50 points.
Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement for Instrument RatingLinks to an external site.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module 2: Week 2.
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 58 minutes 45 out of 50
Correct answers are hidden.
Score for this attempt: 45 out of 50
Submitted May 29 at 8:25am
This attempt took 58 minutes.
Incorrect Question 1
0 / 1 pts
While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full
panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb. incorrect
attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical spattitudeeed indicate a climb.
airspeed indication reaches 160 knots.
To enter a constant airspeed climb from cruising airspeed, raise the miniature aircraft on the attitude
indicator to the approximate nose-high indication appropriate to the predetermined climb speed. The
attitude will vary according to the type of airplane you are flying. Answer (B) is incorrect because initial
pitch changes should be made using the attitude indicator. Answer (C) is incorrect because initial pitch
changes should be made using the attitude indicator.
Incorrect Question 2
0 / 1 pts
During normal operation of a vacuum-driven attitude indicator, what attitude indication should you see
when rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight-and-level coordinated flight?
A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication. Incorrect
A nose-high indication relative to level flight.
The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid.
After return of the aircraft to straight-and-level, coordinated flight, the miniature aircraft shows a turn in
the direction opposite the skid. Answer (A) is incorrect because the attitude indicator shows a small turn
in the opposite direction and does not reflect coordinated flight. Answer (B) is incorrect because a nose-
high indication would be found when rolling out of a coordinated turn.
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can
compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge.
offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.
improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts.
While an EFD cannot compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge, it does offer new
capabilities to include onboard weather, terrain information, chart overlays, and airport data along with
primary flight displays and navigation tools.
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation
are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.
have proven to increase safety in operations.
may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.
Risk management is the last of the three flight management skills needed for mastery of the advanced
avionics aircraft. The enhanced situational awareness and automation capabilities offered by a glass flight
deck vastly expand its safety and utility, especially for personal transportation use. At the same time, there
is some risk that lighter workloads could lead to complacency.
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight
attitude?
Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.
Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude.
Reduce power to prevent excessive airspeed and loss of altitude, correct the bank attitude with
coordinated aileron and rudder pressure to straight flight by referring to the turn coordinator. Raise the
nose to level-flight attitude by smooth back-elevator pressure. Answer (A) is incorrect because power
should be decreased first and then wings leveled. Answer (C) is incorrect because the wings should be
level before the nose is pulled up, in order to minimize the effects of an excessive load factor.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
(Refer to Figure 144.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that '1' would result in a
coordinated standard rate turn?
Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.
Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.
Illustration 1 shows a skidding, half-standard rate turn. To perform a coordinated standard rate turn, we
must increase our rate of turn and correct the skid by applying additional right rudder. Answer (A) is
incorrect because the rate of turn must be increased for a standard rate turn. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the right rudder must be increased to correct the current skidding condition.
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would
be approximately
7,500 feet.
6,000 feet.
6,500 feet.
Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92" Hg. (the
theoretical Standard Datum Plane). To find pressure altitude, follow these steps: 1. Find the difference
between the given pressure and standard pressure: 30.42 - 29.92 = 0.50" Hg. 2. Find the change in
indicated altitude. The Standard Pressure Lapse Rate is about 1 inch per 1,000 feet: 0.50 x 1000 = 500
feet difference 3. Find pressure altitude. The Standard Datum Plane pressure is lower than the current
station setting and therefore, pressure altitude will also be lower: 6,500 feet MSL - 500 feet = 6,000 feet
Pressure Altitude
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
(Refer to Figure 7.) What information is indicated right of number 8?
The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.
The maximum height of CAT.
The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.
Tropopause heights are to be depicted in hundreds of feet MSL and are enclosed in small rectangular
blocks. Centers of high (H) and low (L) tropopause heights are enclosed by polygons.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Interpret this PIREP.
MRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT
Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward.
FL 60,000, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind.
At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.
A pilot reported over (OV) MRB at 1430 Zulu time (TM 1430), at 6,000 feet (FL060) in a Cessna 182
(TPC182), the sky cover is broken between layers (SK BKN BL), the weather included rain (WX RA)
and moderate turbulence (TB MDT).
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated
turn?
Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.
Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.
In a coordinated turn, horizontal lift equals centrifugal force. This is indicated by the ball on the turn-and-
slip indicator being centered. See the figure. Answer (A) is incorrect because if horizontal lift exceeds
centrifugal force, a slipping turn will occur. Answer (C) is incorrect because if centrifugal force exceeds
horizontal lift, a skidding turn will occur.
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full
panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
To enter a constant airspeed climb from cruising airspeed, raise the miniature aircraft on the attitude
indicator to the approximate nose-high indication appropriate to the predetermined climb speed. The
attitude will vary according to the type of airplane you are flying. Answer (A) is incorrect because initial
pitch changes should be made using the attitude indicator. Answer (B) is incorrect because initial pitch
changes should be made using the attitude indicator.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-
type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?
Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism.
Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting.
Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.
Unstable air favors convection. A cumulus cloud forms in a convective updraft and builds upward. The
initial lifting that triggers a cumuliform cloud can be either orographic (topographical, i.e., mountains) or
by surface heating. For convective cumuliform clouds to develop, the air must be unstable after
saturation. Answer (A) is incorrect because without a lifting mechanism, clouds will not have vertical
development, resulting in showery rain and icing in clouds. Answer (B) is incorrect because stable
conditions result in stratiform clouds, and dry air does not result in showery rain or icing when lifted.
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot
should
first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power
to maintain the cruising airspeed.
first reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific
rate on the VSI.
simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain
the cruising airspeed.
The following method for entering descents is effective either with or without an attitude indicator: 1.
Reduce airspeed to your selected descent airspeed while maintaining straight-and-level flight, then make
a further reduction in power (to a predetermined setting); and 2. As the power is adjusted, simultaneously
lower the nose to maintain constant airspeed, and trim off control pressures. Answer (A) is incorrect
because adjusting the pitch attitude first will result in an increased airspeed. Answer (B) is incorrect
because adjusting the power first will result in a decreased airspeed, and the airspeed indicator (not VSI)
is used to maintain a constant airspeed.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
A standard rate turn is one during which the heading changes 3° per second. Therefore, at a rate of 3°
of turn each second, 180° of turn would require 180/3 or 60 seconds (1 minute).
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
A prognostic chart depicts the conditions
existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.
which presently exist from the 1,000-millibar through the 700-millibar level.
forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.
The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts conditions as they are forecast to be at the
valid time of the chart (12 and 24-hour forecasts). Answer (A) is incorrect because the Low-Level Prog
Charts indicate 12 and 24-hour forecasts (not current or past conditions). Answer (B) is incorrect because
the Low-Level Prog Charts indicate 12 and 24-hour forecasts (not current or past conditions).
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked?
The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter.
The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude.
No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked, the pressure is trapped in the system and the
airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter: 1. During level flight, the airspeed indication will not change
even when actual airspeed is varied by large power changes; 2. During climb, the airspeed indication will
increase; and 3. During descent, the airspeed indication will decrease. Answer (B) is incorrect because
indicated airspeed will increase given an increase in altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
differential pressure between the pitot tube and static air source changes; therefore, so does the indicated
airspeed.
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be
affected?
The airspeed indicator only.
The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.
The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
Clogging of the pitot opening by ice or dirt (or failure to remove the pitot cover) affects the airspeed
indicator only. Answer (B) is incorrect because the pitot tube is only connected to the airspeed indicator.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the pitot tube is only connected to the airspeed indicator.
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a
heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?
30 seconds.
1 minute.
1 minute 30 seconds.
A half-standard rate turn is one in which the heading changes 1.5° per second. A heading change of
090° to 180° is a total turn of 90°. At a rate-of-turn of 1.5° each second would require 90/1.5 or 60
seconds (1 minute).
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a right turn while taxiing?
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the right and the ball moves to the left.
Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.
When an aircraft makes a taxiing right turn, the turn coordinator will show the same indications as a level,
no-bank right turn in flight. Those indications are: The miniature airplane will show a right turn (the
direction of turn and rate) while the ball will show an uncoordinated turn (a skid), by moving to the left.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the ball would move to the outside of the turn due to centrifugal force.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the miniature aircraft will show a turn to the right and the ball will move
to the left.
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design
maneuvering speed because the
maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.
amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.
airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.
If during flight, rough air or severe turbulence is encountered, the airspeed should be reduced to
maneuvering speed or less, to minimize the stress on the airplane structure. Answer (A) is incorrect
because the maneuverability will not be increased by slowing down the aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the airplane will always stall at the same critical angle of attack.
Question 21
1 / 1 pts
The primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather is
variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions.
changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.
movement of the air masses.
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a heat exchange. Differences in
solar energy create temperature variations. These temperature variations create forces that drive the
atmosphere in its endless motion. Answer (B) is incorrect because changes in air pressure are due to
temperature variations. Answer (C) is incorrect because movement of air masses is a result of varying
temperatures and pressures.
Question 22
1 / 1 pts
(Refer to Figure 20.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high-
level significant weather prognostic chart over the southern United States?
50 knots.
140 knots.
90 knots.
The maximum core speed along the jet stream is depicted by shafts, pennants, and feathers. The
maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream can be found on the solid green line just NE of Texas.
The one pennant (50 knots) and four lines (10 knots each) indicate a forecast maximum speed of 90 knots,
at a height of 41,000 feet MSL (FL410).
Question 23
1 / 1 pts
A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is
keeping the autopilot engaged while monitoring the system.
periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function.
If inflight icing is encountered, the pilot should disengage the autopilot and hand-fly the airplane. Using
the autopilot during icing conditions may mask important cues relating to control or systems.
Question 24
1 / 1 pts
What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?
METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991
RMK RERAE42SNB42
Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet.
Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.
Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.
METAR KBNA 1250Z--routine weather report for Nashville Metro airport, time 1250 UTC 33018KT
290V360--wind from 330° at 18 knots, variable between 290° and 360° 1/2SM--visibility 1/2 statute
mile R31/2700FT--RVR for runway 31 is 2,700 feet +SN BLSNFG--heavy snow, visibility obstructed by
blowing snow and fog VV008--sky obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet 00/M03--temperature 0°
C, dewpoint -3°C A2991--altimeter setting 29.91" RMK RAE42SNB42--remarks follow, recent weather
events, rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour
Question 25
1 / 1 pts
(Refer to Figure 268.) What forecast weather conditions should you expect along the coast of California
(area C)?
Fog and visibility 0-1 SM.
Fog and visibility 3-5 SM.
Low overcast layer and IFR conditions.
The three horizontal yellow lines are the weather symbol for fog. The general area is shaded a blue color
depicting Marginal VFR and visibility 3-5 SM. Note the scale in the bottom left corner of the GFA static
image.
Question 26
1 / 1 pts
What force causes an airplane to turn?
Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
Vertical lift component.
Horizontal lift component.
An aircraft requires a sideward force to make it turn. In a normal turn, this force is supplied by banking
the aircraft so that lift is exerted inward as well as upward. The horizontal lift component is the sideward
force that causes the aircraft to turn. Answer (A) is incorrect because rudder pressure is used to coordinate
the airplane when it is banked. Answer (B) is incorrect because the vertical component of lift will act
against weight, which affects altitude.
Question 27
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210?
Indicated.
Pressure.
Calibrated.
At or above 18,000 feet MSL, the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg. You can always determine pressure
altitude from your altimeter whether in flight or on the ground. Simply set the altimeter to 29.92 inches,
and the altimeter indicates pressure altitude. Answer (A) is incorrect because indicated altitude is what is
read from the altimeter at any setting. Answer (C) is incorrect because all altimeters are calibrated.
Question 28
1 / 1 pts
Which is a characteristic of stable air?
Fair weather cumulus clouds.
Stratiform clouds.
Unlimited visibility.
The stability of an air mass determines its typical weather characteristics. When one type of air mass
overlies another, conditions change with height. Characteristics typical of an unstable and a stable air
mass are shown in the figure. Answer (A) is incorrect because fair weather cumulus clouds and unlimited
visibility are characteristic of unstable air. Answer (C) is incorrect because fair weather cumulus clouds
and unlimited visibility are characteristic of unstable air.
IncorrectQuestion 29
0 / 1 pts
En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of
30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly,
what will it indicate after landing?
100 feet MSL.
474 feet MSL.
206 feet below MSL.
En route at FL290, the pilot would have the altimeter set to 29.92 inches, since the altitude is above
FL180. Since the pilot failed to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26 during descent, the altimeter
will not indicate field elevation upon landing. Since: 30.26 - 29.92 = 0.34, and one inch per 1,000 feet
equals 0.1 inch per 100 feet and 0.01 inch per 10 feet, the altimeter will, in this case, indicate an error of
340 feet. Because the flight went from a low-pressure area (29.92) to a higher-pressure area (30.26), the
altimeter error is subtracted from the field elevation of 134 feet. 134 airport elevation - 340 error = -206
feet below sea level.
Question 30
1 / 1 pts
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
Pitch and power.
Power only.
Pitch only.
The heaviest demand on pilot technique occurs during descent from the outer marker to the middle
marker, when you maintain the localizer course, adjust pitch attitude to maintain the proper rate of
descent, and adjust power to maintain proper airspeed. Answer (A) is incorrect because the pitch and
power adjustments are closely coordinated, but the power should be adjusted first. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a pitch adjustment only will cause you to fly above the glide path.
Question 31
1 / 1 pts
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence.
The Coriolis phenomenon in both high- and low-level air masses is the principal generating force.
It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet
stream, or a frontal zone.
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the
atmosphere. Low-level wind shear may result from a frontal passage, thunderstorm activity, or low-level
temperature inversion. Wind shear may also be found at higher altitudes in association with a frontal
passage due to wind shift through the frontal zone.
Question 32
1 / 1 pts
A "VRB" wind entry in a TAF will be indicated when the wind is
3 knots or less.
6 knots or less.
9 knots or less.
A variable wind is encoded as "VRB" when wind direction fluctuates due to convective activity or low
wind speeds (6 knots or less).
Question 33
1 / 1 pts
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
An individual microburst will seldom last longer than 15 minutes from the time it strikes the ground until
dissipation. However, there may be multiple microbursts in the area.
Question 34
1 / 1 pts
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A stable layer of air.
An unstable layer of air.
Air mass thunderstorms.
A temperature inversion occurs when the temperature increases with altitude. A stable layer of air is
characterized by warmer air lying above colder air. With an inversion, the layer is stable and convection is
suppressed. Answer (B) is incorrect because unstable air is characterized by a decrease in temperature
with an increase in altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because air mass thunderstorms are characteristic of
unstable conditions.
IncorrectQuestion 35
0 / 1 pts
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are
falling.
When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.
Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is
colder than freezing.
In order for frost to form, the surface temperature must be below the dew point and the dew point of the
surrounding air must be colder than freezing. Water vapor will then sublimate directly as ice crystals or
frost. Answer (A) is incorrect because droplets of moisture are not necessary, and the dew point must also
be colder than freezing. Answer (B) is incorrect because dew does not have to form, and the temperature
must be below the dew point and the dew point below freezing.
Question 36
1 / 1 pts
To which meteorological condition does the term 'dew point' refer?
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
The temperature at which dew will always form.
Dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated by the water vapor already
present in the air. Aviation weather reports normally include the air temperature and dewpoint
temperature. Dew point, when related to air temperature, reveals qualitatively how close the air is to
saturation. Answer (B) is incorrect because it takes higher temperatures for water to evaporate, and lower
temperatures for water vapor to condense. Answer (C) is incorrect because the formation of dew depends
upon the temperatures of the surface and the relative humidity.
Question 37
1 / 1 pts
A jet stream is defined as wind of
30 knots or greater.
40 knots or greater.
50 knots or greater.
A jetstream occurs in an area of intensified temperature gradients characteristic of the break in the
tropopause. The concentrated winds, by arbitrary definition, must be 50 knots or greater to classify as a
jetstream.
Question 38
1 / 1 pts
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
The start of rain at the surface.
Growth rate of cloud is maximum.
Strong turbulence in the cloud.
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base signals that a downdraft has developed and a cell has
entered the mature stage. Answer (B) is incorrect because maximum growth rate occurs during the
cumulus stage. Answer (C) is incorrect because strong turbulence may occur during any stage of a
thunderstorm.
Question 39
1 / 1 pts
Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airport's runway complex?
Area Forecast.
Weather Depiction Charts.
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
A TAF is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions within a 5-statute-mile radius
from the center of an airport's runway complex during a 24-hour time period.
Question 40
1 / 1 pts
The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon
true airspeed.
indicated airspeed.
ground speed.
The vertical speed required is dependent on the ground speed when flying on a fixed glide slope. For
example, in order to stay on the glide slope, the vertical speed must be increased if the ground speed is
increased. Answer (A) is incorrect because the vertical speed is dependent on ground speed (not true or
indicated airspeed). Answer (B) is incorrect because the vertical speed is dependent on ground speed (not
true or indicated airspeed).
IncorrectQuestion 41
0 / 1 pts
(Refer to Figure 13.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in
performance without a change in pitch or power?
3
2
1
At position 1 the aircraft is in the outflow, initially experiencing a headwind with little or no downdraft
resulting in a temporary performance increase.
Question 42
1 / 1 pts
Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are
airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.
flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.
relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.
Factors that affect the attitude in maintaining level flight include airspeed, air density, wing design, and
angle of attack. Answer (B) is incorrect because flight path and wind velocity do not determine pitch
attitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component do
not determine the pitch attitude.
Question 43
1 / 1 pts
When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot
should
fly to an area with liquid precipitation.
fly to a lower altitude.
leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.
When icing is detected, a pilot should do one of two things, particularly if the aircraft is not equipped with
deicing equipment: leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above
freezing. This "warmer" altitude may not always be a lower altitude. Proper preflight action includes
obtaining information on the freezing level and the above-freezing levels in precipitation areas.Answer
(A) is incorrect because pilots should leave the area of any precipitation; even liquid precip can result in
an icing scenario. Answer (B) is incorrect because a "warmer" altitude may not always be a lower
altitude.
Question 44
1 / 1 pts
Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.
Cool air moving over a warm surface is heated from below, generating instability and increasing the
possibility of showers. Stability of an air mass determines its typical weather characteristics. When one
type of air mass overlies another, conditions change with height. Characteristics typical of an unstable air
mass are cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. See the figure. Answer (A) is incorrect
because poor visibility is a characteristic of stable air. Answer (C) is incorrect because stratiform clouds,
smooth air, and poor visibility are characteristics of stable air.
Question 45
1 / 1 pts
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to
the field elevation.
29.92" Hg.
the current altimeter setting.
Pressure Altitude is the altitude read on the altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height
above the Standard Datum Plane. The Standard Datum Plane is a theoretical level where the weight of the
atmosphere is 29.92" Hg. Answer (A) is incorrect because the altimeter is set to standard pressure, not
field elevation. Answer (C) is incorrect because the current altimeter setting would give indicated, not
pressure, altitude.
Question 46
1 / 1 pts
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of 156 knots at 11,000 MSL if the outside air
temperature is +05 degrees C?
129 KCAS.
133 KCAS.
139 KCAS.
To find CAS when TAS is known, the correct OAT and the pressure altitude are required. Since neither
are available for the problem, substitute the uncorrected OAT and the planned flight altitude. Using a
flight computer determine the CAS from the given information (Airspeed on FLT menu using a CX-3):
Altitude 11,000 feet Temperature +5 degrees C TAS 156 Knots Therefore, CAS is 129.4 KCAS.
Question 47
1 / 1 pts
What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF?
KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=
Calm.
Unknown.
Not recorded.
A calm wind is forecast as '00000KT.'
Question 48
1 / 1 pts
An air mass is a body of air that
has similar cloud formations associated with it.
creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface.
covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.
If a body of air (or air mass) comes to rest, or moves slowly over a large geographical area that has fairly
uniform temperatures and moisture content, the body of air (or air mass) acquires the
temperature/moisture properties of the geographical area it covers. Therefore, it becomes fairly uniform in
these properties over an extensive area.
Question 49
1 / 1 pts
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of 180 knots at the flight planned altitude of 8,000 feet
MSL if the outside air temperature is +8°C?
154 KCAS.
157 KCAS.
163 KCAS.
To find CAS when TAS is known, the correct OAT and the pressure altitude are required. Since neither
are available for the problem, substitute the uncorrected OAT and the planned flight altitude. Using a
flight computer determine the CAS from the given information (Airspeed on FLT menu using a CX-3):
Altitude 8,000 feet Temperature +8 degrees C TAS 180 Knots Therefore, CAS is 157.4 KCAS.
Question 50
1 / 1 pts
The primary flight display (PFD) receives attitude and heading data from the
AHRS.
vacuum system.
pitot-static system.
The attitude and heading reference system (AHRS) is the engine that drives the attitude display. The
AHRS unit is capable of precisely tracking minute changes in the pitch, bank, and yaw axes, thereby
making the PFD very accurate and reliable.
Quiz Score: 45 out of 50
