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POSITIVE PSYCHOLOGY IN ORGANIZATIONS: PSYCHOSOCIAL WELL-BEING, COMMUNICATION,
AND HIGH PERFORMANCE—CHAPTERS 3–4 REVISION QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Chapter 3 Review Questions and Answers: Positive Relationships: Physiological and
Organizational Benefits
True/False (45 questions)
1. Positive relationships are defined merely as the absence of toxic interactions. (False) Positive relationships
actively promote deviant positive outcomes across multiple domains, exceeding mere civility.
2. Flourishing organizations are a prerequisite for flourishing individuals. (False) The chapter states flourishing
individuals are a prerequisite for flourishing organizations.
3. Heaphy and Dutton (2008) linked positive relationships only to psychological benefits. (False) They
reviewed literature connecting positive relationships to physiological health, career mobility, and social
capital.
4. Social relationships have been shown to negatively affect recovery from illness. (False) Studies show
positive social relationships aid longevity and recovery from illness.
5. Positive social relationships affect the body's hormonal, cardiovascular, and immune systems. (True)
Heaphy and Dutton identified these three systems as mechanisms for positive outcomes.
6. Oxytocin release is associated with increased blood pressure and heart rate. (False) Oxytocin release
leads to lower blood pressure and heart rate, enhancing stress management.
7. Positive social contacts increase the body's allostatic load. (False) They lessen the allostatic load, reducing
physiological strain from stress.
8. Exposure to oxytocin causes a substantial decrease in trust among humans. (False) Research found
oxytocin causes a substantial increase in trust.
9. Kiecolt-Glaser et al. (2003) found stress-hormone levels could not predict marital status a decade later.
(False) Hormonal levels in the initial experiment significantly predicted marital status ten years later.
10. People in positive relationships experience higher blood pressure compared to those in negative
relationships. (False) They experience lower blood pressure, systolic heart rate, and diastolic heart rate.
11. Social support at work has no effect on cardiovascular reactivity to stress. (False) Social support at work
lowers heart rate and blood pressure during stressful events.
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12. A study found caregivers with high social support had heart rate patterns associated with a younger age.
(True) Their heart rates were akin to those chronologically younger than caregivers with low support.
13. For Israeli men, a supportive wife doubled the rate of angina pectoris under high stress. (False) A loving
and supportive wife halved the rate of angina pectoris.
14. Positive relationships can enhance the body's ability to fight off infections and cancer. (True) They increase
resistance to upper respiratory infections and enhance cancer-fighting ability.
15. Medical students with higher social support had weaker immune responses to vaccines. (False) They had
stronger immune responses to hepatitis B vaccines.
16. Positive relationships only provide physiological benefits, not psychological ones. (False) They also provide
psychological, emotional, and organizational benefits.
17. Positive relationships can enhance an individual's emotional carrying capacity. (True) They increase the
ability to experience a broad range and intensity of emotions.
18. Positive relationships foster less resiliency and an inability to bounce back from difficulty. (False) They
foster greater resiliency and an ability to adapt and bounce back.
19. Positive relationships are associated with lower levels of creativity and trust. (False) They produce greater
degrees of creativity, trust, and openness to new ideas.
20. Positive relationships cultivate lower levels of mutual benefit in teams. (False) They cultivate higher levels
of mutual benefit among individuals.
21. Having a best friend at work predicts lower performance in teams. (False) Gallup found it predicts higher
performance in teams and organizations.
22. The most common assumption is that receiving support accounts for the benefits of positive relationships.
(True) People assume receiving love and support elevates performance.
23. Research shows what people give to a relationship accounts for the positive effects more than what they
receive. (True) Contributions like altruism and compassion drive well-being and performance advantages.
24. In a study, widows who provided support to others experienced lasting depression. (False) Widows who
provided instrumental support had no depression six months after loss.
25. "Receiving support" factors were positively correlated with an absence of depression in the widow study.
(False) Only "giving support" factors were positively correlated with an absence of depression.
26. Employees who provided support to peers decreased their organizational commitment. (False) Providing
support substantially increased their commitment and prosocial inclinations.
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27. Positive energizers deplete vitality and leave others feeling exhausted. (False) Negative energizers deplete
vitality; positive energizers create and support it.
28. Positive energizers are typically critical, inflexible, and selfish. (False) Those traits describe negative
energizers; positive energizers are optimistic and trustworthy.
29. Positive energizing is primarily an inherent personality attribute like extraversion. (False) It is a learned
behavior, not an inherent personality attribute or charisma.
30. A person's position in a positive-energy network is less predictive of success than their position in an
information network. (False) Position in the energy network is far more predictive of success.
31. Being a positive energizer made individuals four times more likely to succeed than being central in an
influence network. (True) Success likelihood was quadrupled compared to information or influence network
centrality.
32. High-performing organizations have fewer positive energizers than average organizations. (False) They
have three times more positive energizers than average organizations.
33. Leaders' positive energy affects only business performance, not employee family life. (False) Research
shows their influence extends positively to employees' family life as well.
34. Leaders can foster positive relationships by modeling positive energy and diagnosing energy networks.
(True) Leaders facilitate positive energy through personal modeling and systemic diagnosis.
35. The first step in managing a negative energizer is to immediately fire them. (False) The first step is to
provide direct, honest, and supportive feedback.
36. If feedback fails, the next step is to place the individual in a central role to monitor them. (False) The
second step is to provide development through coaching or training.
37. The third step for a persistent negative energizer is to place them in a noncentral role to minimize impact.
(True) This peripheral placement reduces their energy-depleting effects on others.
38. Formal network analysis for diagnosing energy networks involves employees rating how informed others
are. (False) It involves rating others on how energizing or de-energizing they are.
39. A simplified energy network diagnosis involves asking employees to name the most energizing people.
(True) Tabulating these names identifies positive energizers and peripheral members.
40. Building on people's strengths produces less benefit than correcting their weaknesses. (False) Identifying
and building on strengths produces greater benefit.
41. Managers who spend more time with strongest performers achieve double the unit productivity. (True) This
comparative focus yielded double the productivity.
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42. Individuals learn more readily from negative demonstrations than positive ones. (False) They learn more
readily and completely from positive demonstrations.
43. The "ideomotor reflex" suggests thinking of an action makes people less likely to engage in it. (False) It
makes people much more likely to engage in that action.
44. In studies, most coronary artery patients changed lifestyles when threatened with death. (False) Only one
in nine (about 11%) changed when given a "change or die" ultimatum.
45. Bowlers who watched videos of their strikes improved more than those who watched their failures. (True)
Positive imagery led to significantly greater improvement than reviewing nonsuccess.
Multiple-Choice Questions (50 questions)
46. According to Dutton & Ragins (2007), positive relationships are a generative source for what?
A) Strictly financial profit
B) Conflict and competition
C) Enrichment, vitality, and learning
D) Administrative efficiency and control
Answer: Enrichment, vitality, and learning.
Explanation: The chapter defines positive relationships as a generative source of enrichment, vitality, and
learning for individuals and organizations.
47. Heaphy and Dutton (2008) explained that positive relationships produce outcomes by affecting which bodily
systems?
A) Muscular, skeletal, nervous
B) Hormonal, cardiovascular, immune
C) Digestive, respiratory, integumentary
D) Lymphatic, endocrine, renal
Answer: Hormonal, cardiovascular, immune.
Explanation: Their research identified the hormonal, cardiovascular, and immune systems as the
mechanisms for positive physiological effects.
48. What hormone, released during positive social contact, is associated with lower blood pressure and
increased trust?
A) Adrenaline
B) Cortisol
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C) Oxytocin
D) Dopamine
Answer: Oxytocin.
Explanation: Oxytocin release during positive relationships lowers blood pressure and heart rate, and
research shows it increases trust.
49. In Kiecolt-Glaser et al.'s (2003) marital study, what did elevated levels of stress hormones predict after ten
years?
A) Increased marital satisfaction
B) Higher likelihood of still being married
C) Greater financial stability
D) Lower likelihood of still being married
Answer: Lower likelihood of still being married.
Explanation: Couples with elevated stress-hormone levels during a conflict discussion were less likely to
still be married a decade later.
50. Research on the cardiovascular system found that positive relationships or social support at work led to
what during stressful events?
A) The cardiovascular system worked harder
B) No change in cardiovascular activity
C) The cardiovascular system worked less hard
D) Erratic heart rate variability
Answer: The cardiovascular system worked less hard.
Explanation: People showed lower heart rates and blood pressure under stress when in positive
relationships or with social support.
51. The study of Israeli men (Medalie & Goldbourt) found that among highly stressed men, those with a
supportive wife had what rate of angina pectoris?
A) Double the rate
B) The same rate
C) Half the rate
D) Ten times the rate
Answer: Half the rate.
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Explanation: Men with a loving and supportive wife experienced half the rate of angina pectoris compared
to those without such support.
52. What did Berkman, Leo-Summers, & Horowitz (2002) find regarding social support after a heart attack?
A) It halved survival chances after six months
B) It had no effect on survival rates
C) It doubled survival chances after six months
D) It increased immediate complications
Answer: It doubled survival chances after six months.
Explanation: The presence of social and emotional support doubled the chances of survival six months
post-heart attack.
53. According to Cohen et al. (1997), positive relationships increase resistance to what?
A) Bone fractures
B) Upper respiratory infections
C) Skin diseases
D) Digestive disorders
Answer: Upper respiratory infections.
Explanation: Individuals in positive relationships had greater resistance to upper respiratory infections.
54. Which cells were primarily responsible for stronger immune responses in socially supported medical
students and caregivers?
A) Red blood cells and platelets
B) Natural killer (NK) cells and T lymphocytes
C) B cells and macrophages only
D) Stem cells and plasma cells
Answer: Natural killer (NK) cells and T lymphocytes.
Explanation: The stronger immunity was due to NK cells and T lymphocytes that fight off colds and disease.
55. Positive relationships enhance an individual's emotional carrying capacity, which refers to what?
A) The ability to suppress all emotions
B) The ability to experience a broad range and intensity of emotions
C) The skill of hiding emotions from others
D) The tendency to experience only positive emotions
Answer: The ability to experience a broad range and intensity of emotions.
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Explanation: Emotional carrying capacity is the ability to experience a broad range and intensity of
emotions.
56. What did Dutton & Heaphy (2003) find regarding positive relationships and difficult experiences?
A) They make people more fragile
B) They foster greater resiliency and ability to bounce back
C) They encourage avoidance of challenges
D) They increase the likelihood of burnout
Answer: They foster greater resiliency and ability to bounce back.
Explanation: Positive relationships foster greater resiliency and an ability to adapt to and bounce back from
difficulty.
57. According to Pratt & Dirks (2007), positive relationships produce greater degrees of what?
A) Micromanagement and control
B) Creativity, trust, and openness to new ideas
C) Conformity and compliance
D) Skepticism and caution
Answer: Creativity, trust, and openness to new ideas.
Explanation: Positive relationships produce greater degrees of creativity, trust, and openness to new ideas.
58. What did Baker, Cross, & Parker (2003) find about positive relationships and project performance?
A) They engender higher levels of project performance
B) They decrease project performance due to socializing
C) They have no correlation with project outcomes
D) They only improve performance in non-profit settings
Answer: They engender higher levels of project performance.
Explanation: Their research indicated positive relationships engender higher levels of project performance
in organizations.
59. The Gallup organization finding cited in the chapter indicates that having a best friend at work predicts
what?
A) Higher workplace gossip
B) Higher performance in teams and organizations
C) Increased personal conflicts
D) Decreased organizational commitment
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Answer: Higher performance in teams and organizations.
Explanation: Gallup found that having a best friend at work predicts higher performance in teams and
organizations.
60. Jehn and Shah (1997) found that friendship groups outperformed acquaintance groups on what tasks?
A) Only creative tasks
B) Only routine administrative tasks
C) Decision-making and motor tasks
D) Solitary analytical tasks
Answer: Decision-making and motor tasks.
Explanation: Friendship groups significantly outperformed acquaintance groups on both decision-making
and motor tasks.
61. What does research indicate is the primary driver of the positive effects from relationships?
A) What people receive from the relationship
B) The frequency of interactions
C) What people give to the relationship
D) The longevity of the relationship
Answer: What people give to the relationship.
Explanation: Research shows contributions made to others (giving) account for the advantages, not what is
received.
62. In the study of widows by Brown et al. (2003), what factor was positively correlated with an absence of
depression?
A) Receiving instrumental support
B) Having a large social network
C) Giving support to others
D) Time elapsed since spouse's death
Answer: Giving support to others.
Explanation: Only "giving support" factors correlated with an absence of depression, not receiving support.
63. What was the key enabler for increased organizational commitment and prosocial behavior in Grant,
Dutton, & Russo's (2008) study?
A) Receiving extensive training
B) Getting a pay raise
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C) Giving support, rather than receiving it
D) Having flexible work hours
Answer: Giving support, rather than receiving it.
Explanation: Employees who provided support to peers increased commitment and prosocial inclinations;
giving was key.
64. How does the chapter describe positive energizers?
A) They deplete the good feelings and enthusiasm of others
B) They create and support vitality in others, leaving them elevated
C) They are critical, inflexible, and selfish
D) They are always the most extraverted people
Answer: They create and support vitality in others, leaving them elevated.
Explanation: Positive energizers uplift others, making them feel motivated and energized after interactions.
65. What characterizes negative energizers according to Baker, Cross, & Parker (2003)?
A) Optimistic and heedful
B) Trustworthy and unselfish
C) Critical, inflexible, selfish, and undependable
D) Gregarious and outgoing
Answer: Critical, inflexible, selfish, and undependable.
Explanation: Negative energizers are described as critical, inflexible, selfish, and undependable.
66. Positive energizing is best described as what?
A) An inherent personality trait like charisma
B) A physical attractiveness attribute
C) A learned behavior
D) A factor highly correlated with extraversion
Answer: A learned behavior.
Explanation: The text emphasizes positive energizing is a learned behavior, not an inherent personality
attribute.
67. What was more predictive of an individual's success: position in an energy network or position in an
information network?
A) Position in the information network
B) Position in the influence network
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C) Position in the energy network
D) They were equally predictive
Answer: Position in the energy network.
Explanation: A person's position in the positive-energy network was far more predictive of success than in
information or influence networks.
68. High-performing organizations have how many more positive energizers than average organizations?
A) The same number
B) Twice as many
C) Three times as many
D) Ten times as many
Answer: Three times as many.
Explanation: Baker (2004) found high-performing organizations have three times more positive energizers.
69. According to Owens, Baker, & Cameron (2011), a leader's positive energy positively affects what?
A) Only business unit financial performance
B) Only employee job satisfaction
C) Employee performance, well-being, and family enrichment
D) Only team learning orientation
Answer: Employee performance, well-being, and family enrichment.
Explanation: Their research showed positive leader energy impacts job satisfaction, well-being,
engagement, family enrichment, and performance.
70. What is the first recommended step for a leader managing a negative energizer?
A) Provide direct, honest, and supportive feedback
B) Immediately transfer them to another department
C) Provide development and coaching
D) Place them in a peripheral role
Answer: Provide direct, honest, and supportive feedback.
Explanation: The first step is feedback regarding the negative behaviors and their organizational effects.
71. If feedback is ineffective, what is the second step in managing a negative energizer?
A) Termination
B) Provide development (coaching, mentoring, training)
C) Public reprimand
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D) Ignore the behavior
Answer: Provide development (coaching, mentoring, training).
Explanation: The second step is to offer development to broaden the individual's behavioral repertoire.
72. The third step for a persistent negative energizer involves what?
A) Promotion to a leadership role
B) Placement in a noncentral role to minimize impact on others
C) Increasing their responsibilities
D) Mandating team-building exercises
Answer: Placement in a noncentral role to minimize impact on others.
Explanation: This step makes the person peripheral to reduce their energy-depleting effects on colleagues.
73. A formal positive-energy network analysis involves employees rating each other on what?
A) Who is the most informed
B) Who has the most formal power
C) Who is the most energizing or de-energizing
D) Who works the longest hours
Answer: Who is the most energizing or de-energizing.
Explanation: Employees rate others on a scale from "very de-energizing" to "very energizing."
74. A simplified diagnostic asks employees to name what?
A) The two most critical people
B) The three most informed people
C) The two to four most energizing people
D) The person with the most weaknesses
Answer: The two to four most energizing people.
Explanation: This method identifies energizers by having employees list the most energizing individuals.
75. According to Buckingham & Clifton (2001) and others, what produces greater benefit?
A) Finding and correcting weaknesses
B) Identifying and building on strengths
C) Focusing exclusively on past failures
D) Implementing strict performance quotas
Answer: Identifying and building on strengths.
Explanation: Building on people's strengths produces greater benefit than correcting weaknesses.
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76. Managers who spent more time with their strongest performers achieved what level of unit productivity
compared to focusing on weak performers?
A) The same productivity
B) Half the productivity
C) Double the productivity
D) Slightly less productivity
Answer: Double the productivity.
Explanation: These managers achieved double the productivity in their units.
77. Why do people learn more readily from positive demonstrations according to the chapter?
A) Negative examples are always confusing
B) People instinctively ignore negative feedback
C) The "ideomotor reflex" makes people more likely to enact the mental image they hold
D) Positive demonstrations are usually simpler
Answer: The "ideomotor reflex" makes people more likely to enact the mental image they hold.
Explanation: Thinking of an action (like a white bear) makes one more likely to do it, so negative examples
reinforce the wrong image.
78. In the "change or die" study with coronary patients, what percentage changed their lifestyles after two years
with that ultimatum?
A) Approximately 90%
B) Approximately 50%
C) Approximately 30%
D) Approximately 11% (1 in 9)
Answer: Approximately 11% (1 in 9).
Explanation: Only one in nine people (about 11%) changed when confronted with a "change or die"
directive.
79. When a positive target was given (e.g., witness a daughter's wedding), what percentage of patients
changed?
A) 11%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 90%
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Answer: 30%.
Explanation: When given a positive target for change, 30 percent of patients changed their lifestyles.
80. In the bowling study by Kirschenbaum (1984), which group improved significantly more after practice?
A) The group that watched videos of their failures
B) The group that received no feedback
C) The group that watched videos of their strikes/spares
D) Both groups improved equally
Answer: The group that watched videos of their strikes/spares.
Explanation: Bowlers who watched their successes (strikes/spares) improved more than those who
watched failures.
81. What should leaders who enable positive deviance emphasize more?
A) Errors and mistakes
B) Problematic behaviors
C) Successes, strengths, and positive imagery
D) Detailed criticism
Answer: Successes, strengths, and positive imagery.
Explanation: Such leaders emphasize successes, build on strengths, and celebrate the positive.
82. The Rocky Flats leader attributed success primarily to what shift?
A) Implementing stricter safety protocols
B) Increasing budgetary resources
C) A climate of working together and solving problems collectively
D) Hiring all new staff
Answer: A climate of working together and solving problems collectively.
Explanation: The climate changed to one of working together, unleashing energy to do good work
collectively.
83. The most valuable relationships in organizations are those that help people do what?
A) Merely receive support from others
B) Contribute to the benefit of others
C) Focus solely on individual tasks
D) Avoid social interactions
Answer: Contribute to the benefit of others.
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Explanation: Relationships that help people contribute to others' benefit are more valuable than those
focused on receiving.
84. Which activity is NOT listed as a benefit of positive relationships in organizations?
A) Higher levels of mutual benefit
B) Reduced resource utilization
C) Stronger team functioning
D) Greater creativity and trust
Answer: Reduced resource utilization.
Explanation: Benefits include increased resource utilization, not reduced; cost reduction and time savings
are mentioned.
85. What did Unden, Orth-Gomer, & Elofsson (1991) and Brondolo et al. (2003) find about social support at
work?
A) It increases cardiovascular reactivity to stress
B) It has no impact on physiological measures
C) It lessens cardiovascular strain during stressful events
D) It only benefits emotional health, not physical health
Answer: It lessens cardiovascular strain during stressful events.
Explanation: Social support at work led to lower heart rates and blood pressure when encountering stress.
86. Which researcher's work is cited regarding the link between positive relationships and the body's immune
system?
A) Heaphy and Dutton
B) Seligman
C) Buckingham
D) Cameron
Answer: Heaphy and Dutton.
Explanation: Heaphy and Dutton's (2008) review identified the immune system as the third factor positively
affected.
87. According to the chapter, what predicts relationship durability in marriages?
A) High levels of stress hormones like ACTH
B) Release of oxytocin and decrease of stress hormones
C) Frequency of arguments
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D) Financial stability
Answer: Release of oxytocin and decrease of stress hormones.
Explanation: The release of good hormones (oxytocin) and decrease of bad hormones (e.g., ACTH)
predicted relationship durability.
88. Positive energizers in organizations help others perform better, creating what kind of effect?
A) A neutral effect on overall performance
B) A contagious, uplifting effect that spreads success
C) A competitive environment that drives results
D) An exclusive club that benefits only a few
Answer: A contagious, uplifting effect that spreads success.
Explanation: Positive energizers enable others to perform better, and success is conveyed to those
interacting with them.
89. When diagnosing energy networks, what do "hubs" represent?
A) Individuals who are de-energizing to most people
B) Individuals who positively energize the most people
C) Individuals with no network connections
D) The physical location of workstations
Answer: Individuals who positively energize the most people.
Explanation: "Hubs" in an energy network map are those who positively energize the most people.
90. What is a primary reason building on strengths is more effective, according to learning research?
A) Strengths are easier to measure
B) People ignore feedback on weaknesses
C) Positive demonstrations are more effective for learning than negative ones
D) Weaknesses are usually permanent
Answer: Positive demonstrations are more effective for learning than negative ones.
Explanation: Individuals learn more readily and completely from positive demonstrations than from negative
ones.
91. The "ideomotor reflex" was used to explain why focusing on what NOT to do is problematic because it does
what?
A) Makes the forbidden action the primary mental image, increasing likelihood of doing it
B) Boosts self-confidence automatically
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C) Triggers a physiological relaxation response
D) Is always communicated poorly by leaders
Answer: Makes the forbidden action the primary mental image, increasing likelihood of doing it.
Explanation: Telling someone not to think of a white bear makes them think of it, making enactment more
likely.
92. What did the Rocky Flats leader say to the workforce upon arrival to foster positive relationships?
A) "You all need to work harder."
B) "This is the best team I've ever worked with."
C) "Major changes are coming immediately."
D) "We must focus on our past mistakes."
Answer: "This is the best team I've ever worked with."
Explanation: The leader stated this on the first day and reiterated it later to build team identity and positivity.
93. According to Baker (2004), what is the correlation between positive energy and extraversion/introversion?
A) High and statistically significant
B) Low and statistically insignificant
C) Perfectly predictive
D) Moderately positive
Answer: Low and statistically insignificant.
Explanation: The correlation between positive energy and the personality factor extraversion/introversion is
low and insignificant.
94. What did Karlin, Brondolo, & Schwartz (2003) find about social support at work?
A) It only affects psychological well-being
B) It has a direct effect on lowering heart rate and blood pressure
C) It increases blood pressure during teamwork
D) It is irrelevant for cardiovascular health
Answer: It has a direct effect on lowering heart rate and blood pressure.
Explanation: Social and emotional support at work, especially from supervisors and coworkers, directly
lowered heart rate and blood pressure.
95. What is the final, rare step suggested for managing a negative energizer if all else fails?
A) Public humiliation
B) Demotion without support
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C) Help the individual find a place to flourish elsewhere
D) Isolate them completely from all colleagues
Answer: Help the individual find a place to flourish elsewhere.
Explanation: The fourth step is to help the person find another place to succeed, not merely firing them.
Multiple-Response Questions (45 questions)
96. Which of the following are identified as systems affected by positive relationships according to Heaphy &
Dutton (2008)? (Select all that apply)
A) Hormonal system
B) Cardiovascular system
C) Immune system
D) Skeletal system
Answer: Hormonal system, Cardiovascular system, Immune system.
Explanation: Their review specified positive relationships affect the hormonal, cardiovascular, and immune
systems.
97. Which physiological outcomes are associated with oxytocin release during positive social contact? (Select
all that apply)
A) Lower blood pressure
B) Lower heart rate
C) Enhanced ability to handle stress calmly
D) Increased allostatic load
Answer: Lower blood pressure, Lower heart rate, Enhanced ability to handle stress calmly.
Explanation: Oxytocin release leads to lower blood pressure and heart rate, enhancing calm stress
management, and lessens allostatic load.
98. Which outcomes did Kiecolt-Glaser et al. (2003) link to stress-hormone levels in married couples? (Select
all that apply)
A) Predicted marital status (married/divorced) ten years later
B) Immediate marital satisfaction only
C) Levels of good hormones like oxytocin
D) Financial harmony
Answer: Predicted marital status (married/divorced) ten years later, Levels of good hormones like
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oxytocin.
Explanation: Hormonal levels (stress and good hormones) in the initial experiment predicted marital status
a decade later.
99. What cardiovascular benefits are experienced by people in positive relationships during stress? (Select all
that apply)
A) Higher systolic heart rate
B) Lower blood pressure
C) Lower heart rate
D) Increased vascular resistance
Answer: Lower blood pressure, Lower heart rate.
Explanation: People in positive relationships experience lower blood pressure and heart rate when
encountering stress.
100. Which findings are reported from the study of Israeli men (Medalie & Goldbourt) and Berkman et al.
(2002) regarding social support? (Select all that apply)
A) A supportive wife halved angina rates in stressed men.
B) Social support doubled post-heart attack survival chances after six months.
C) Social support increased angina rates.
D) Social support had no effect on cardiac outcomes.
Answer: A supportive wife halved angina rates in stressed men, Social support doubled post-heart
attack survival chances after six months.
Explanation: The studies found a supportive wife halved angina pectoris rate and social support doubled
six-month survival post-heart attack.
101. Which immune system benefits are associated with positive relationships? (Select all that apply)
A) Greater resistance to upper respiratory infections
B) Stronger immune response to vaccines
C) Increased vulnerability to common colds
D) Higher levels of prostate-specific antigen indicating disease
Answer: Greater resistance to upper respiratory infections, Stronger immune response to vaccines.
Explanation: Positive relationships enhance resistance to infections and strengthen immune responses to
vaccines like hepatitis B.
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102. Which of the following are psychological/organizational benefits of positive relationships listed in
the chapter? (Select all that apply)
A) Enhanced emotional carrying capacity
B) Greater resiliency
C) Reduced creativity and trust
D) Healthier team functioning
Answer: Enhanced emotional carrying capacity, Greater resiliency, Healthier team functioning.
Explanation: Benefits include enhanced emotional carrying capacity, greater resiliency, and healthier team
functioning.
103. What did the Gallup organization find about workplace friendships? (Select all that apply)
A) They are a distraction from work.
B) Having a best friend at work predicts higher performance.
C) They lead to increased team conflict.
D) They correlate with team and organizational performance.
Answer: Having a best friend at work predicts higher performance, They correlate with team and
organizational performance.
Explanation: Gallup found having a best friend at work predicts higher performance in teams and
organizations.
104. According to research, what accounts for the positive effects of relationships? (Select all that apply)
A) What people receive (love, support)
B) The contributions people make to others (giving)
C) Demonstration of altruism and compassion
D) Merely having frequent social contact
Answer: The contributions people make to others (giving), Demonstration of altruism and
compassion.
Explanation: Research shows giving and demonstrations of altruism/compassion account for the positive
effects on well-being and performance.
105. In the study of widows (Brown et al., 2003), which factors were associated with an absence of
depression? (Select all that apply)
A) Receiving instrumental support
B) Giving support to others
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C) Having a large network
D) Time since loss
Answer: Giving support to others.
Explanation: Only "giving support" factors were positively correlated with an absence of depression six
months after loss.
106. Which characteristics are attributed to positive energizers? (Select all that apply)
A) Optimistic
B) Trustworthy
C) Critical
D) Unselfish
Answer: Optimistic, Trustworthy, Unselfish.
Explanation: Positive energizers are described as optimistic, heedful, trustworthy, and unselfish.
107. Which characteristics are attributed to negative energizers? (Select all that apply)
A) Inflexible
B) Selfish
C) Undependable
D) Heedful
Answer: Inflexible, Selfish, Undependable.
Explanation: Negative energizers are critical, inflexible, selfish, and undependable.
108. What is true about positive energizing as a behavior? (Select all that apply)
A) It is a learned behavior.
B) It is an inherent personality trait.
C) It is highly correlated with extraversion.
D) It is not merely being gregarious.
Answer: It is a learned behavior, It is not merely being gregarious.
Explanation: Positive energizing is learned, not inherent, and is not a matter of just being gregarious or
outgoing.
109. What advantages do positive energizers provide to organizations? (Select all that apply)
A) They perform better themselves.
B) They enable others to perform better.
C) They centralize information flow.
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D) They create positive-energy networks.
Answer: They perform better themselves, They enable others to perform better, They create
positive-energy networks.
Explanation: Positive energizers benefit organizations by performing well, enabling others' performance,
and creating uplifting networks.
110. According to Owens, Baker, & Cameron (2011), a leader's positive energy impacts which
employee outcomes? (Select all that apply)
A) Job satisfaction
B) Well-being and engagement
C) Family enrichment
D) Personal financial debt
Answer: Job satisfaction, Well-being and engagement, Family enrichment.
Explanation: Their research showed positive leader energy impacts job satisfaction, well-being,
engagement, and family enrichment.
111. What are recommended steps for leaders to manage a negative energizer? (Select all that apply)
A) Provide direct, supportive feedback first.
B) Immediately terminate employment.
C) Offer coaching and development if feedback fails.
D) Place in a peripheral role if development fails.
Answer: Provide direct, supportive feedback first, Offer coaching and development if feedback fails,
Place in a peripheral role if development fails.
Explanation: The sequential steps are: 1) Feedback, 2) Development, 3) Peripheral placement, 4) Helping
them flourish elsewhere.
112. How can a leader diagnose the positive-energy network in an organization? (Select all that apply)
A) Conduct formal network analysis with ratings.
B) Ask employees to name the most energizing people.
C) Review only performance metrics.
D) Observe only formal meeting interactions.
Answer: Conduct formal network analysis with ratings, Ask employees to name the most energizing
people.
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Explanation: Diagnosis can be done via formal network analysis or a simplified method of naming
energizers.
113. What are benefits of building on strengths rather than correcting weaknesses? (Select all that
apply)
A) Double unit productivity when managers focus on top performers.
B) One and a half times greater productivity when employees use strengths daily.
C) People learn more from negative examples.
D) It reinforces the "ideomotor reflex" positively.
Answer: Double unit productivity when managers focus on top performers, One and a half times
greater productivity when employees use strengths daily.
Explanation: Research shows double productivity from manager focus on strengths and 1.5x productivity
when employees do what they do best daily.
114. Why is "change or die" an ineffective motivator according to the cited studies? (Select all that
apply)
A) Only 1 in 9 people change with this negative ultimatum.
B) It creates a positive target to move toward.
C) It focuses on moving away from a negative.
D) It is always delivered by uninformed authorities.
Answer: Only 1 in 9 people change with this negative ultimatum, It focuses on moving away from a
negative.
Explanation: The "change or die" approach focuses on a negative target and yields only an 11% success
rate.
115. What did the bowling study (Kirschenbaum, 1984) demonstrate about feedback? (Select all that
apply)
A) Watching successes (strikes) led to more improvement.
B) Watching failures led to more improvement.
C) Positive imagery is effectively modeled.
D) Negative imagery is more effective for skill acquisition.
Answer: Watching successes (strikes) led to more improvement, Positive imagery is effectively
modeled.
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Explanation: Bowlers who watched their strikes/spares improved more, showing people learn from and
model positive imagery effectively.
Application-Based Questions (40 questions)
116. A manager notices her team seems drained after meetings with a particular talented but critical
specialist. According to the chapter, what should her FIRST course of action be?
A) Immediately transfer the specialist to another team.
B) Provide the specialist with direct, honest feedback about the observed draining effect.
C) Publicly call out the specialist's behavior in the next team meeting.
D) Ignore the behavior because the specialist's skill is essential.
Answer: Provide the specialist with direct, honest feedback about the observed draining effect.
Explanation: The first step for managing a negative energizer is to provide direct, honest, and supportive
feedback regarding their impact.
117. An organization wants to improve project performance. Based on Baker, Cross, & Parker's (2003)
findings, which strategy would be most directly supported by the research?
A) Strictly monitoring individual work hours
B) Fostering positive relationships among team members
C) Eliminating all social interactions during work time
D) Focusing solely on individual incentive pay
Answer: Fostering positive relationships among team members.
Explanation: Their research found positive relationships engender higher levels of project performance in
organizations.
118. A leader wants to enhance team resilience after a period of significant setbacks. Which action
aligns best with Dutton & Heaphy's (2003) findings?
A) Assigning all team members solitary work to focus
B) Actively fostering positive, supportive relationships within the team
C) Avoiding discussion of the difficulties
D) Increasing individual performance pressure
Answer: Actively fostering positive, supportive relationships within the team.
Explanation: Positive relationships foster greater resiliency and an ability to bounce back from difficult
experiences.
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119. During a restructuring, an employee is anxious, leading to elevated heart rate in meetings. Based
on Brondolo et al. (2003), what could the leader do to most likely help lower this physiological reaction?
A) Assign the employee to work alone permanently.
B) Ensure the employee feels social support from the leader and coworkers.
C) Tell the employee to manage their own stress.
D) Ignore the anxiety as it will pass.
Answer: Ensure the employee feels social support from the leader and coworkers.
Explanation: Social support at work lessens cardiovascular strain, leading to lower heart rate and blood
pressure during stress.
120. A company's wellness program is only offering stress-management seminars. Based on Heaphy &
Dutton's (2008) review, what additional focus would be scientifically justified?
A) Initiatives that build positive social connections among employees
B) More seminars on financial planning
C) Eliminating all team-based projects
D) Offering only individual gym memberships
Answer: Initiatives that build positive social connections among employees.
Explanation: Since positive relationships affect hormonal, cardiovascular, and immune systems, building
social connections supports physiological health.
121. A team leader starts meetings by having members share a recent error. Based on learning
research in the chapter, what is a likely outcome?
A) Team members will learn exactly what to avoid.
B) Team members' mental imagery will be filled with errors, potentially leading to more.
C) Creativity will be enhanced.
D) Trust will immediately increase.
Answer: Team members' mental imagery will be filled with errors, potentially leading to more.
Explanation: The ideomotor reflex suggests focusing on negative examples (errors) makes that image
salient, increasing the likelihood of repeating it.
122. A manager believes the key to morale is ensuring employees feel supported by the company. What
does research cited in the chapter suggest is MORE important for boosting commitment and prosocial
behavior?
A) Creating opportunities for employees to provide support to each other
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B) Increasing the frequency of support delivered from management
C) Sending weekly inspirational emails from leadership
D) Offering larger holiday bonuses
Answer: Creating opportunities for employees to provide support to each other.
Explanation: Research shows giving support, not receiving it, increases organizational commitment and
prosocial behavior.
123. An HR director is designing a mentorship program. To maximize the physiological and
performance benefits for the mentors, what should the program emphasize?
A) Selecting only senior executives as mentors to impart wisdom.
B) Framing the role as a chance for mentors to contribute to and support junior employees' growth.
C) Compensating mentors significantly more than mentees.
D) Ensuring mentors receive extensive recognition awards.
Answer: Framing the role as a chance for mentors to contribute to and support junior employees'
growth.
Explanation: Benefits like reduced depression and increased commitment are linked to giving support, so
emphasizing the contributory aspect aids the giver (mentor).
124. A leader wants to apply the findings from positive-energy network research. Which action would be
LEAST effective?
A) Identifying and rewarding individuals who energize others.
B) Placing the most positive energizers in isolated roles with no team contact.
C) Using a simple survey to find out who the most energizing people are.
D) Asking positive energizers to coach others.
Answer: Placing the most positive energizers in isolated roles with no team contact.
Explanation: This would waste their ability to uplift others; research shows placing energizers where others
can interact with them enhances broader performance.
125. A manager reads that positive energizers are not necessarily extraverted. How should this change
her approach to developing positive energy in her team?
A) Assume only naturally charismatic people can learn to energize others.
B) Provide training and development to all team members on energizing behaviors, regardless of
personality.
C) Select only the most outgoing team members for client-facing roles.
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D) Ignore the concept as too difficult to implement.
Answer: Provide training and development to all team members on energizing behaviors,
regardless of personality.
Explanation: Since positive energizing is a learned behavior, not tied to extraversion, training can help
anyone develop these skills.
126. During a performance review, an employee has several areas needing improvement. Based on the
strengths approach, how should the manager MOST effectively frame the conversation?
A) Spend 80% of the time detailing the weaknesses and a corrective action plan.
B) Begin by discussing the employee's key strengths and how to build on them for greater success.
C) Avoid mentioning strengths to prevent complacency.
D) Focus only on the weaknesses that are easiest to fix.
Answer: Begin by discussing the employee's key strengths and how to build on them for greater
success.
Explanation: Leaders who enable positive deviance emphasize successes and build on strengths more
than correcting negatives.
127. A project is behind schedule, and the team is demoralized. Based on the Rocky Flats example,
what leadership approach is most likely to turn things around?
A) Blaming the delays on specific team members.
B) Creating a climate where people work together to solve problems, unleashing collective energy.
C) Imposing stricter individual deadlines.
D) Bringing in an entirely new management team.
Answer: Creating a climate where people work together to solve problems, unleashing collective
energy.
Explanation: The Rocky Flats success was attributed to a shift to working together and solving problems
collectively.
128. A leader wants to increase innovation in her unit. Based on Figure 3.2 in the chapter, what should
she focus on developing?
A) Only her own positive energy as a leader
B) The unit's cohesion and team learning orientation
C) Strict adherence to existing protocols
D) Individual competitive incentives
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Answer: The unit's cohesion and team learning orientation.
Explanation: The model shows a leader's positive energy fosters cohesion and a team learning orientation,
which in turn enhance experimentation/innovation and performance.
129. An employee is highly skilled but consistently critical, draining teammates. Feedback and coaching
have not worked. What is the NEXT recommended step?
A) Terminate the employee immediately.
B) Place the employee in a role where they can succeed individually but have minimal negative impact on
others.
C) Promote the employee to manage the team.
D) Ignore the behavior since skills are vital.
Answer: Place the employee in a role where they can succeed individually but have minimal
negative impact on others.
Explanation: The third step is to place the individual in a noncentral, peripheral role to minimize their
energy-depleting effects on others.
130. To diagnose energy networks quickly, a leader asks team members to write down the three most
energizing people they work with. What is the primary purpose of tabulating these results?
A) To determine who should be laid off first.
B) To identify positive energizers ("hubs") and those who might need development.
C) To decide on promotions based solely on popularity.
D) To reassign all tasks based on the list.
Answer: To identify positive energizers ("hubs") and those who might need development.
Explanation: This simplified diagnosis identifies frequent nominees as energizers and less-mentioned
individuals who may need coaching.
131. A company wants to improve employee health insurance costs. Based on the chapter, which
workplace initiative might also have a positive long-term impact on health expenditures?
A) Eliminating all group activities to reduce conflict.
B) Creating programs that foster high-quality, supportive relationships among employees.
C) Offering only on-site fast-food options.
D) Mandating that employees work from home exclusively.
Answer: Creating programs that foster high-quality, supportive relationships among employees.
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Explanation: Positive relationships improve physiological health (cardiovascular, immune), which could
reduce health issues and associated costs over time.
132. A manager is frustrated that her repeated warnings about a specific mistake aren't preventing it.
What psychological principle from the chapter explains this?
A) The allostatic load principle
B) The oxytocin trust effect
C) The ideomotor reflex
D) The immune system response
Answer: The ideomotor reflex.
Explanation: The ideomotor reflex means mentioning an action ("don't make this mistake") makes it the
primary mental image, increasing the likelihood of doing it.
133. When trying to help an underperforming employee improve, a manager uses the "change or die"
analogy to stress urgency. What does research suggest about this approach's likely effectiveness?
A) It will be highly effective because fear motivates.
B) It will be moderately effective for about half of people.
C) It will be ineffective for the vast majority (about 89% won't sustain change).
D) It is the recommended approach from positive leadership studies.
Answer: It will be ineffective for the vast majority (about 89% won't sustain change).
Explanation: Studies show only 1 in 9 people (11%) change with a negative "change or die" ultimatum.
134. To help that same employee, what alternative approach does research suggest is more effective?
A) Setting a positive, meaningful target for them to move toward.
B) Increasing the severity of the threat.
C) Giving them a written final warning.
D) Assigning them to a different manager.
Answer: Setting a positive, meaningful target for them to move toward.
Explanation: Moving toward a positive target (e.g., "witness your daughter's wedding") yielded a 30%
change rate, much higher than the negative ultimatum.
135. A leader is designing a feedback system for a sales team. Based on the bowling study, what type
of feedback would likely improve performance most?
A) Monthly reports highlighting only lost sales.
B) A dashboard showing only overall team averages.
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C) A system that allows reps to easily review videos/records of their most successful sales calls.
D) Public shaming for the lowest performer each week.
Answer: A system that allows reps to easily review videos/records of their most successful sales
calls.
Explanation: Like bowlers watching strikes, reviewing successes (positive imagery) leads to greater
improvement than focusing on failures.
136. Two departments need to collaborate on a new product. To maximize creativity and openness to
new ideas, what should the overseeing leader prioritize, based on Pratt & Dirks (2007)?
A) Enforcing strict communication channels.
B) Fostering positive relationships between the departments' members.
C) Having them work in completely separate locations.
D) Setting up a competition between the departments.
Answer: Fostering positive relationships between the departments' members.
Explanation: Positive relationships produce greater degrees of creativity, trust, and openness to new ideas.
137. An organization has a few widely recognized positive energizers. According to Baker's findings,
what is a likely characteristic of this organization's performance?
A) It is likely an average-performing organization.
B) It is likely a high-performing organization.
C) It is likely a low-performing organization.
D) There is no correlation between energizers and performance.
Answer: It is likely a high-performing organization.
Explanation: Baker found high-performing organizations have three times more positive energizers than
average organizations.
138. A newly appointed leader wants to build trust quickly within her team. Based on oxytocin research
cited, what activity might help?
A) Designing intricate processes to monitor work.
B) Creating opportunities for positive social interactions among team members.
C) Sending daily critical memos.
D) Keeping interactions purely transactional and task-focused.
Answer: Creating opportunities for positive social interactions among team members.
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Explanation: Positive social interactions release oxytocin, which "causes a substantial increase in trust
among humans."
139. A project manager notices that after successful milestones, the team's coordination improves.
Which benefit of positive relationships does this best illustrate?
A) Enhanced emotional carrying capacity
B) Healthier team functioning
C) Greater mutual benefit
D) Higher levels of energy and cooperation
Answer: Healthier team functioning.
Explanation: Positive relationships foster healthier team functioning, which can manifest as improved
coordination after positive events.
140. A leader wants to apply the finding that giving support is key. In a team meeting after a difficult
week, she should:
A) Ask team members what support they need from her.
B) Facilitate a session where team members brainstorm how they can support each other on upcoming
challenges.
C) Promise a financial bonus if targets are met.
D) Dismiss the difficulties and focus only on the future.
Answer: Facilitate a session where team members brainstorm how they can support each other on
upcoming challenges.
Explanation: This focuses on giving support (to each other), which research links to increased commitment
and prosocial behavior.
141. An employee is highly productive but works in isolation and rarely interacts with others. According
to positive-energy network research, what is true about this employee's likely impact?
A) They are a definitive positive energizer because of high output.
B) They are a definitive negative energizer.
C) Their classification as an energizer depends on how they affect others in interactions, not just output.
D) Energy network concepts only apply to managers.
Answer: Their classification as an energizer depends on how they affect others in interactions, not
just output.
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Explanation: Positive energizers are defined by their effect on others' vitality during interactions, not by solo
productivity.
142. To reduce costly employee turnover, a CEO looks to research. Based on the chapter, which factor
should she prioritize enhancing?
A) The number of formal policies in the employee handbook.
B) The quality of positive relationships and opportunities to contribute at work.
C) The size of annual pay raises across the board.
D) The length of the workday.
Answer: The quality of positive relationships and opportunities to contribute at work.
Explanation: Positive relationships and the chance to give support increase commitment, which can reduce
turnover.
143. A manager is creating a peer recognition program. To align with the principle that giving matters
most, what should the program emphasize?
A) Nominations where employees recognize a peer who helped them (the nominator).
B) Nominations where employees recognize a peer who provided exceptional help to someone else or the
team.
C) Only allowing managers to give recognition.
D) Giving everyone an equal participation trophy.
Answer: Nominations where employees recognize a peer who provided exceptional help to
someone else or the team.
Explanation: This focuses on and rewards the act of giving support to others, which drives positive effects.
144. During a merger, employees are stressed and siloed. Which leadership action, based on the
cardiovascular benefits of positive relationships, could have a direct physiological benefit?
A) Mandating mandatory overtime to speed up integration.
B) Creating cross-functional social events and joint problem-solving teams.
C) Sending frequent emails about the stressful financial details.
D) Requiring all communication to go through a single liaison.
Answer: Creating cross-functional social events and joint problem-solving teams.
Explanation: This fosters positive social connections and support, which can lower heart rate and blood
pressure during stressful times like a merger.
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145. A team is tasked with a creative design challenge but is struggling. Based on the research, what is
the most likely root cause if team members do not have positive relationships?
A) They lack the necessary technical skills.
B) They are experiencing lower levels of creativity and openness to ideas.
C) They are too focused on mutual benefit.
D) Their immune systems are compromised.
Answer: They are experiencing lower levels of creativity and openness to ideas.
Explanation: Positive relationships produce greater degrees of creativity, trust, and openness to new ideas;
their absence likely hinders these.
146. A leader believes in "tough love" and frequently points out subordinate failures to motivate
improvement. What does the strengths-based research suggest about this approach's effectiveness
compared to focusing on successes?
A) It is equally effective.
B) It is slightly more effective.
C) It is significantly less effective.
D) Its effectiveness depends on the industry.
Answer: It is significantly less effective.
Explanation: Building on strengths and focusing on positive imagery is more effective for learning and
performance than focusing on errors.
147. An organization survey reveals employees feel they receive good support but have few chances to
mentor or help others. To boost performance, leadership should:
A) Be satisfied; receiving support is what matters.
B) Reduce support to see if employees become more independent.
C) Create more structured opportunities for employees to give support, like mentoring programs.
D) Ignore the finding; giving opportunities are irrelevant.
Answer: Create more structured opportunities for employees to give support, like mentoring
programs.
Explanation: Since giving support drives positive outcomes, creating such opportunities can boost
commitment and performance.
148. A manager wants to increase her team's "emotional carrying capacity" to handle intense projects
better. Based on Heaphy (2007), what should she focus on?
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A) Encouraging suppression of all emotions at work.
B) Fostering high-quality positive relationships within the team.
C) Sending individuals to solitary resilience training.
D) Discouraging any display of intense emotion.
Answer: Fostering high-quality positive relationships within the team.
Explanation: Positive relationships enhance emotional carrying capacity—the ability to experience a broad
range and intensity of emotions.
149. A senior leader is known for being a "black hole," draining energy in meetings. The CEO is aware
of his valuable experience. What is the first action the CEO should take, following the chapter's guidance?
A) Terminate the leader immediately.
B) Provide the leader with candid feedback about his energizing impact and its effects.
C) Promote him to a higher-visibility role.
D) Pair him with a positive energizer to offset the effect.
Answer: Provide the leader with candid feedback about his energizing impact and its effects.
Explanation: The first step for any negative energizer, regardless of seniority, is direct, honest, and
supportive feedback.
150. A company's culture is very competitive and individualistic. Based on the overall message of the
chapter, what long-term effect is this culture LEAST likely to produce?
A) High levels of positively deviant team performance
B) Elevated stress-hormone levels
C) Lower cardiovascular health among employees
D) Reduced social support
Answer: High levels of positively deviant team performance.
Explanation: Positively deviant performance is linked to positive relationships, cooperation, and giving—
antithetical to a purely competitive, individualistic culture.
151. An employee is recovering from a serious illness and returning to work. Based on the research,
what factor would most predict a better recovery outcome at work?
A) Being assigned lighter duties only.
B) Having supportive, positive relationships with coworkers and supervisors.
C) Being given a private office to rest.
D) Avoiding any discussion of the illness.
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Answer: Having supportive, positive relationships with coworkers and supervisors.
Explanation: Positive relationships and social support enhance physiological recovery and improve
outcomes like survival rates and immune function.
152. In a leadership training, the facilitator says, "Your goal is to make people feel valued by praising
them." What does the chapter suggest is a MORE powerful driver of positive outcomes?
A) Creating systems where people can contribute value to others.
B) Increasing the frequency of praise.
C) Making praise public and monetary.
D) Ensuring praise is given only by senior leaders.
Answer: Creating systems where people can contribute value to others.
Explanation: While receiving praise (feeling valued) is assumed to help, research shows the act of
contributing/giving to others is a more powerful enabler of positive effects.
153. A team is conflict-ridden. The manager decides to separate members and have them work
independently. What is a likely result regarding their "positive deviance"?
A) It will increase because conflict is removed.
B) It will decrease because positive relationships are not fostered.
C) It will stay the same as long as output is measured.
D) It will become unpredictable.
Answer: It will decrease because positive relationships are not fostered.
Explanation: Positive deviance is enabled by investing in positive interpersonal relationships; isolating team
members prevents this.
154. A leader reads about oxytocin and wants to apply it to improve teamwork. She should avoid which
action?
A) Encouraging collaborative problem-solving sessions.
B) Creating a climate of blame and suspicion.
C) Recognizing acts of trust and cooperation.
D) Facilitating team social bonding activities.
Answer: Creating a climate of blame and suspicion.
Explanation: A climate of blame and suspicion would inhibit positive social interactions and trust, thus
hindering oxytocin release and its benefits.
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155. The chapter concludes that enabling positive relationships requires leaders to do what?
A) Focus solely on financial incentives.
B) Invest in the formation of positive interpersonal relationships at work.
C) Eliminate all socializing to prevent distraction.
D) Hire only individuals who test as extraverts.
Answer: Invest in the formation of positive interpersonal relationships at work.
Explanation: The summary states leaders who enable positive deviance invest in the formation of positive
interpersonal relationships.
Chapter 4 Concepts Practice Questions and Answers: The Positivity Ratio & Supportive
Communication in Leadership
Multiple-Choice Questions
1. What was the primary predictive factor of organizational performance in Losada and Heaphy's (2004) study
of top-management teams?
The ratio of positive to negative statements among team members.
Explanation: The research identified the positivity ratio as the single most powerful predictor, more than
twice as influential as other communication factors.
2. According to Losada and Heaphy (2004), what was the approximate positive-to-negative statement ratio in
high-performing teams?
5.6 to 1.
Explanation: High-performing teams exhibited a ratio where positive comments outnumbered negative ones
by approximately five to one.
3. Which communication category measures the amount of interaction and information exchange within a
team?
Connectivity.
Explanation: Connectivity is defined by mutual influence, assistance, and the flow of interactions and
information among members.
4. What ratio of inquiry to advocacy statements characterized high-performing organizations in the cited
study?
1.1 to 1.
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Explanation: High performers showed a near balance, with slightly more inquiry (questioning) statements
than advocacy (asserting) statements.
5. Fredrickson and Losada's (2005) research indicates the highest levels of performance are predicted by a
positivity ratio between what values?
3 to 1 and 8 to 1.
Explanation: Their nonlinear dynamics model identified an optimal range of positive to negative statements
for peak performance.
6. What was Gottman's (1994) key finding regarding communication in successful marriages?
A 5 to 1 ratio of positive to negative interactions predicts marital stability.
Explanation: Gottman's index showed sustainable relationships are typified by five positive communications
for every negative one.
7. In the study of ninth-grade literature students, exposure to positive communication improved which
outcome?
Zest for learning.
Explanation: Students engaged in virtuous practices showed significantly higher enthusiasm for learning
compared to the control group.
8. What is a major effect of positive communication on organizational processes?
It creates greater connectivity among members.
Explanation: Positive statements foster increased exchange of information, interaction, and positive
emotions, enabling resource flow.
9. What is the primary focus of the reflected best-self feedback process?
Identifying and capitalizing on individual strengths.
Explanation: The process collects anecdotes to uncover a person's unique talents and capabilities, shifting
focus from weaknesses.
10. How many acquaintances are typically asked to provide stories in the best-self feedback exercise?
Approximately 20.
Explanation: Individuals solicit three anecdotes each from about 20 people to gather a comprehensive
picture of their strengths.
11. What is a likely outcome when leaders predominantly use evaluative communication?
Recipients feel attacked and respond defensively.
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Explanation: Evaluative statements judge others, often leading to deteriorated communication quality and
relationship damage.
12. Which step is the first in descriptive communication when delivering negative feedback?
Objectively describe the event or behavior.
Explanation: Descriptive communication begins with a dispassionate, factual account of the specific action
needing modification.
13. What does supportive communication aim to preserve while addressing problems?
A positive relationship.
Explanation: This approach maintains and enhances relational bonds even when conveying critical or
uncomfortable information.
14. According to the chapter, what ratio of focus on others versus self was found in high-performing teams?
0.94 to 1.
Explanation: High performers showed a near balance, with a slight emphasis on self over others in their
communications.
15. What is a critical risk of excessive positivity in organizational communication?
It can foster complacency and mediocrity.
Explanation: An unbalanced overemphasis on positivity may reduce motivation for improvement and critical
correction.
16. What underlying dynamic did Losada and Heaphy's study use to project causal directionality?
Nonlinear dynamics and Lorenz attractor diagrams.
Explanation: Their methodology allowed them to infer that communication patterns influenced performance,
not just vice versa.
17. In low-performing teams, what was the ratio of statements focused on others versus self?
0.03 to 1.
Explanation: Low performers were overwhelmingly self-focused, with minimal attention paid to others'
perspectives.
18. What is a key benefit of the best-self feedback process for feedback recipients?
Strengthened relationships with feedback givers.
Explanation: The positive, strength-based exchange often enhances mutual respect and connection
between parties.
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19. Which element is NOT a core strategy of supportive communication?
Evaluative statements.
Explanation: Supportive communication avoids judgmental labels, using descriptive and problem-centered
approaches instead.
20. What was the average connectivity score for low-performing organizations?
18.
Explanation: Connectivity, measuring engagement and interaction, was significantly lower in low-performing
teams.
21. What does the term "positivity ratio" specifically refer to in this chapter?
The frequency of positive statements relative to negative ones.
Explanation: It is a quantifiable measure comparing supportive, appreciative comments to critical,
disapproving ones.
22. What outcome is associated with individuals experiencing a 3 to 1 ratio of positive to negative emotions?
They tend to flourish in mental health and performance.
Explanation: Fredrickson and Losada linked this emotional ratio to higher levels of flourishing and adaptive
functioning.
23. What is the suggested action after analyzing best-self feedback anecdotes?
Develop a best-self portrait summarizing key strength themes.
Explanation: Recipients synthesize the stories to identify core strengths and plan how to capitalize on them.
24. Why is authentic sincerity crucial for leaders practicing positive talk?
Disingenuous comments have the reverse, damaging effect.
Explanation: Trust is undermined by perceived insincerity, which can negate the benefits of positive
communication.
25. What is the primary goal of using conjunctive statements in supportive communication?
To connect directly to the preceding message or person's response.
Explanation: Conjunctiveness ensures the conversation flows coherently and acknowledges the other's
input.
26. In the B.A.S. scenario, what was the senior executive's initial communication mistake?
Using an evaluative statement that attacked the presenter.
Explanation: Labeling the proposal "naive" was a personal judgment that triggered defensiveness.
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27. According to the text, what does a focus on weaknesses primarily develop?
Competence, but not excellence.
Explanation: Correcting deficiencies can bring performance to adequacy, whereas strengths focus enables
exceptional performance.
28. What metric was used to categorize team performance in Losada and Heaphy's study?
Productivity, customer satisfaction, and 360-degree evaluations.
Explanation: These three combined measures determined whether teams were high, medium, or low
performing.
29. What is the second step in the descriptive communication technique?
Describe your own reactions or the consequences of the behavior.
Explanation: This step frames the issue in terms of objective outcomes or personal feelings, not personal
blame.
30. What is a documented effect of a high positivity ratio on personal income?
An increase of approximately 30 percent.
Explanation: Table 4.2 lists higher earnings as an outcome associated with a positivity ratio of at least 3 to
1.
31. What communication pattern typifies low-performing organizations regarding inquiry and advocacy?
A heavy overload toward advocacy rather than inquiry.
Explanation: Low performers made far more statements advocating a position than asking questions.
32. What is the purpose of the final step in descriptive communication?
To suggest a more acceptable alternative behavior.
Explanation: This solution-focused step helps preserve self-esteem and directs energy toward problem-
solving.
33. What key organizational resource is facilitated by positive communication and connectivity?
Social capital.
Explanation: The exchange and synchronicity enabled by positive interactions help build relational networks
and trust.
34. What is a major reason positive communication is harder to practice than prescribe?
People react more strongly to negative events than positive ones.
Explanation: The negativity bias means problems and criticism naturally attract more attention than positive
feedback.
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35. In the team card exercise variation, what is written on the reverse side of the card?
Suggestions for how the person can create additional value.
Explanation: This side focuses on future contributions needed for the team to achieve extraordinary
performance.
36. What type of response is characterized by paraphrasing or reflecting the speaker's message?
Reflective listening.
Explanation: This active listening technique involves mirroring content or emotion to demonstrate
understanding.
37. What was the correlation between the positivity ratio and team connectivity?
0.9.
Explanation: This very high correlation indicates positive communication strongly predicts member
engagement and interaction.
38. What term describes performance that dramatically exceeds normal standards?
Positively deviant performance.
Explanation: This is the exceptional outcome that strengths-based and positive communication practices
aim to achieve.
39. What should feedback emphasize to guide someone toward excellence?
Their unique strengths and contributions.
Explanation: Focusing on inherent talents and past successes provides a pathway for replicating and
expanding high performance.
40. What is a requisite characteristic for positive talk by leaders?
Authenticity and sincerity.
Explanation: Genuine expression is essential because manipulative or false positivity erodes trust and
credibility.
41. What does problem-centered communication focus on?
The issue or action, not the person's character.
Explanation: This strategy separates the problematic behavior from the individual's identity to reduce
defensiveness.
42. What is the effect of using "owned" communication?
The communicator takes personal responsibility for the message.
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Explanation: Using "I" statements clarifies that the perspective belongs to the speaker, not an impersonal
verdict.
43. According to the text, what do most people and organizations overwhelmingly concentrate on?
The negative and deficiencies.
Explanation: A natural tendency exists to prioritize correcting weaknesses over recognizing and building
strengths.
44. What is the main advantage of feedback delivered as stories rather than numbers?
It connects directly to specific, repeatable behaviors.
Explanation: Anecdotal feedback provides contextual, behavioral examples that individuals can understand
and replicate.
45. What did the control group in the ninth-grade study experience?
The normal literature curriculum without positive intervention.
Explanation: This group served as a baseline, exposed to tragic literature without virtuous communication
practices.
46. What is the key difference between descriptive and evaluative communication?
Descriptive communication focuses on facts; evaluative makes judgments.
Explanation: Descriptive language objectively reports events, while evaluative language assigns blame or
labels.
47. What ratio of positive to negative statements was found in medium-performing organizations?
1.8 to 1.
Explanation: These teams had nearly twice as many positive comments as negative ones, but less than
high performers.
48. What is a primary result of using validating statements in communication?
It acknowledges the merit in the other person's perspective.
Explanation: Validation shows respect for differing viewpoints, which maintains openness and reduces
conflict.
49. What does the reflected best-self process counterbalance in typical feedback?
The overwhelming focus on negative information and weaknesses.
Explanation: The exercise intentionally shifts attention to positive attributes that are often overlooked.
50. What is the ultimate objective of enabling positive communication in organizations?
To foster positively deviant performance and flourishing.
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Explanation: The strategies aim to create exceptional outcomes that exceed standard expectations through
strength-based interaction.
Multiple-Response Questions
(The options in bold represent the correct answers)
1. Which communication categories were monitored in Losada and Heaphy's (2004) study of top-
management teams? (Select all that apply.)
A. The ratio of positive to negative comments.
B. The ratio of inquiry to advocacy comments.
C. The ratio of focus on others to focus on self.
D. A measure of connectivity.
Explanation: Trained raters used these four specific categories to analyze team communication patterns.
2. What outcomes were improved for ninth-grade students exposed to positive communication and virtuous
practices? (Select all that apply.)
A. Zest for learning.
B. Higher standardized test scores.
C. Social skills.
D. Absence of depression.
Explanation: Figure 4.1 shows these areas saw significant advantages compared to the control group.
3. What are characteristics of descriptive communication's first step? (Select all that apply.)
A. It provides an objective description of an event.
B. It focuses on the action, not the person.
C. It suggests an immediate alternative.
D. It uses facts confirmable by objective observers.
Explanation: An objective, behavior-focused, and factual description is required to minimize defensiveness.
4. Which strategies are part of supportive communication? (Select all that apply.)
A. Congruent communication.
B. Evaluative communication.
C. Validating communication.
D. Specific communication.
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Explanation: Supportive communication comprises at least eight strategies, including these core
approaches.
5. What benefits are associated with a positivity ratio of at least 3 to 1 according to Table 4.2? (Select all that
apply.)
A. People live longer.
B. People avoid all illness.
C. People are more creative.
D. People tolerate pain better.
Explanation: The table lists multiple positive outcomes linked to higher ratios of positive to negative
emotions.
6. What are key features of the reflected best-self feedback process? (Select all that apply.)
A. It solicits anecdotes from multiple acquaintances.
B. It focuses primarily on weaknesses to be improved.
C. It results in a personal best-self portrait.
D. It often reveals strengths individuals take for granted.
Explanation: The process is designed to uncover and highlight positive attributes through story-based
feedback.
7. What are potential negative consequences of inappropriate communication ratios? (Select all that apply.)
A. Too much positivity can foster complacency.
B. Too much negativity can lead to defensiveness.
C. A perfect balance guarantees excellence.
D. Excessive criticism can cause withdrawal.
Explanation: Maintaining an appropriate balance is crucial, as extremes in either direction produce
detrimental effects.
8. In the descriptive communication technique, describing feelings or consequences helps by: (Select all that
apply.)
A. Lessening the likelihood of defensiveness.
B. Proving who is at fault.
C. Focusing energy on problem-solving.
D. Separating the person from the problem behavior.
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Explanation: This step personalizes the impact without personal attack, facilitating a constructive
discussion.
9. What did Losada and Heaphy's research conclude about communication in high-performing organizations?
(Select all that apply.)
A. Positive statements significantly outnumbered negative ones.
B. Inquiry and advocacy statements were nearly balanced.
C. Focus was heavily on others over self.
D. Connectivity scores were higher than in low performers.
Explanation: High performers excelled across all measured communication dimensions compared to low-
performing teams.
10. What actions can leaders take to enable positive communication based on the chapter? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Eliminate all negative feedback.
B. Use positive talk themselves as role models.
C. Deliver negative messages using supportive strategies.
D. Consciously monitor the positivity ratio in their interactions.
Explanation: Leaders influence communication culture through modeling, feedback practices, and mindful
message balancing.
11. What are components of the best-self feedback solicitation question? (Select all that apply.)
A. Asking about a time the person made a special contribution.
B. Asking for a list of areas needing improvement.
C. Inquiring about distinctive strengths displayed.
D. Requesting anecdotes of the person at their best.
Explanation: The prompts are designed to elicit specific stories highlighting strengths and positive impact.
12. What are documented correlates of positive communication and connectivity? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increased individual isolation.
B. Higher productivity.
C. Formation of social capital.
D. Better coordinated action.
Explanation: Connectivity enables resource flow and coordination, which underpin high-quality
performance.
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13. Which statements describe evaluative communication accurately? (Select all that apply.)
A. It makes a judgment or places a label.
B. It is the recommended method for giving feedback.
C. It often makes recipients feel attacked.
D. It typically deteriorates communication quality.
Explanation: Evaluative statements are judgmental and often trigger defensiveness, harming the
communication process.
14. According to the text, what are essential elements for authentic positive talk by leaders? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Authenticity and sincerity.
B. Exclusively positive messages.
C. Avoiding all difficult conversations.
D. Trustworthiness.
Explanation: Genuine expression and trust are essential because perceived insincerity erodes the benefits
of positivity.
15. What findings are attributed to Gottman's (1994) research on marital relationships? (Select all that apply.)
A. A 5 to 1 positive-to-negative ratio predicts marital stability.
B. Unhappy marriages are typified by more negative communication.
C. The specific topic of argument is the best predictor of divorce.
D. A brief conversation can predict relationship outcomes years later.
Explanation: Gottman's index is based on the communication ratio, not content, and shows high predictive
validity.
16. What does the reflected best-self process counterbalance in typical organizational feedback? (Select all
that apply.)
A. An overemphasis on financial metrics.
B. The overwhelming focus on negative information.
C. The neglect of strengths and unique contributions.
D. Excessive amounts of positive, unhelpful praise.
Explanation: The exercise intentionally shifts attention from weaknesses to overlooked positive attributes.
17. What steps are involved in the descriptive communication technique? (Select all that apply.)
A. Objectively describe the event or behavior.
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B. Describe your reactions or the consequences.
C. Assign blame for the problem's cause.
D. Suggest a more acceptable alternative.
Explanation: These three steps form the descriptive method for delivering negative feedback supportively.
18. What was the methodological approach of Losada and Heaphy's (2004) study? (Select all that apply.)
A. They relied solely on self-report surveys.
B. They used trained raters to categorize communication.
C. They only studied low-performing teams.
D. They utilized nonlinear dynamics and Lorenz attractors.
Explanation: Their study design involved behavioral observation and advanced modeling to infer causality.
19. What outcomes result from focusing feedback on weaknesses, according to the chapter? (Select all that
apply.)
A. It reliably leads to excellence.
B. It primarily develops competence.
C. It is the fastest route to positive deviance.
D. It may neglect pathways to exceptional performance.
Explanation: A deficiency focus brings performance to adequacy, while a strengths focus enables
exceptional performance.
20. In the team card exercise variation, what is included? (Select all that apply.)
A. Statements about valued contributions and strengths.
B. Anonymous criticism of personality flaws.
C. Suggestions for creating additional future value.
D. Numerical ratings of performance.
Explanation: The card exercise focuses on strengths and future contributions, not weaknesses or scores.
21. What are attributes of problem-centered communication? (Select all that apply.)
A. It concentrates on the issue or action.
B. It analyzes the person's character flaws.
C. It separates the behavior from the individual.
D. It determines who is right and who is wrong.
Explanation: This strategy addresses the problem without attacking the person's identity to reduce
defensiveness.
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22. What does research say about the balance of inquiry and advocacy in low-performing teams? (Select all
that apply.)
A. They had a high ratio of inquiry to advocacy.
B. They were heavily overloaded toward advocacy.
C. They asked very few questions relative to assertions.
D. They perfectly balanced questioning and telling.
Explanation: Low performers made far more statements advocating a position than asking questions.
23. What is the role of "owning" communication? (Select all that apply.)
A. The communicator takes personal responsibility for the message.
B. The communicator speaks on behalf of an anonymous group.
C. It involves using "I" statements.
D. It attributes the message to external policies.
Explanation: Owned communication clarifies the perspective belongs to the speaker, fostering
accountability.
24. What did the study of top-management teams use to categorize team performance levels? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Productivity metrics.
B. Customer satisfaction scores.
C. Employee turnover rates.
D. 360-degree evaluations of managerial competency.
Explanation: These three combined measures determined the classification of teams as high, medium, or
low performing.
25. What is a key reason positive communication is challenging to practice? (Select all that apply.)
A. People react more strongly to negative events.
B. Organizations are typically devoid of problems.
C. Most organizations are fraught with challenges.
D. Positive language is inherently inauthentic.
Explanation: The negativity bias and the prevalence of organizational problems make focusing on positivity
difficult.
26. What are results of using validating statements? (Select all that apply.)
A. They acknowledge the merit in another's perspective.
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B. They signal unconditional agreement.
C. They help maintain openness in dialogue.
D. They quickly end difficult conversations.
Explanation: Validation shows respect for differing viewpoints, which reduces conflict and preserves
communication.
27. What characterizes the connectivity measure in teams? (Select all that apply.)
A. The amount of interaction among members.
B. The formality of meeting structures.
C. The level of engagement and information exchange.
D. The degree of mutual influence and assistance.
Explanation: Connectivity encompasses the flow of interactions, engagement, and supportive exchange
within a team.
28. What does the 0.9 correlation between positivity ratio and connectivity indicate? (Select all that apply.)
A. Positive communication strongly predicts member engagement.
B. Connectivity causes positive statements.
C. The relationship is weak and insignificant.
D. The two variables are very closely related.
Explanation: This very high correlation shows a powerful associative link between positive talk and team
interaction.
29. What should be avoided when formulating the objective description in descriptive communication? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Observable behaviors.
B. Subjective impressions of motives.
C. Personal opinions or preferences as standards.
D. Elements under the recipient's control.
Explanation: The description must be factual and based on observable events, not assumptions about
intent.
30. According to Fredrickson and Losada (2005), what is the relationship between emotions and performance?
(Select all that apply.)
A. A ratio of at least 3 positive to 1 negative emotion predicts flourishing.
B. Negative emotions are more powerful drivers of performance.
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C. Positive emotions broaden and build cognitive and social resources.
D. The optimal ratio is 1 to 1 for all tasks.
Explanation: Their broaden-and-build theory posits positive emotions expand resources, leading to higher
performance.
31. What is a primary advantage of feedback delivered as stories in the best-self process? (Select all that
apply.)
A. It connects directly to specific, repeatable behaviors.
B. It is easier to quantify for performance reviews.
C. It captures emotions and feelings associated with actions.
D. It focuses solely on recent performance.
Explanation: Anecdotal feedback provides rich, contextual examples tied to emotions and past behaviors.
32. What does the term "positivity ratio" specifically compare? (Select all that apply.)
A. The number of leaders to followers.
B. The frequency of supportive, appreciative comments.
C. The frequency of critical, disapproving comments.
D. The balance between talking and listening.
Explanation: It is a quantifiable measure comparing positive statements to negative statements within
interactions.
33. What are functions of the final suggestion step in descriptive communication? (Select all that apply.)
A. It focuses the discussion on possible solutions.
B. It helps the individual save face.
C. It determines who should change their personality.
D. It emphasizes finding a mutually acceptable alternative.
Explanation: This solution-focused step preserves self-esteem and directs energy toward collaborative
problem-solving.
34. What did the control group in the ninth-grade study experience? (Select all that apply.)
A. The normal literature curriculum.
B. Daily kind deeds and writing about them.
C. Exposure to positive communication training.
D. No special intervention focused on virtuousness.
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Explanation: This group served as a baseline, exposed to the standard curriculum without the positive
practices.
35. What is necessary for communication to be considered congruent? (Select all that apply.)
A. Words match thoughts and feelings.
B. The communicator is authentic and sincere.
C. The message is always positive.
D. Non-verbal cues are ignored.
Explanation: Congruence requires alignment between one's internal state and external expression for
authenticity.
36. What is the effect of using specific statements in supportive communication? (Select all that apply.)
A. They keep feedback vague and open to interpretation.
B. They refer to an actual example or behavior.
C. They make the feedback more actionable and clear.
D. They generalize the issue to broader personality traits.
Explanation: Specificity grounds the conversation in tangible instances, increasing clarity and usefulness.
37. What does the chapter state about the presence of negative communication in high-performing
organizations? (Select all that apply.)
A. It is present but does not dominate the interaction.
B. It is entirely absent.
C. It is offered within an overall positive context.
D. It matches the frequency of positive communication.
Explanation: High performers still use correction and criticism, but it is outweighed and framed by positivity.
38. What key organizational resource is built through positive communication and synchronicity? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Financial capital.
B. Social capital.
C. Physical assets.
D. Relational networks and trust.
Explanation: The exchange and coordination enabled by positive interactions help build invaluable social
resources.
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39. What is a major risk if leaders ignore critical deficiencies while focusing only on the positive? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Long-run productivity may suffer.
B. Immediate performance will certainly peak.
C. Important corrections may not be made.
D. Employees will become hyper-critical.
Explanation: Completely disregarding weaknesses is unhealthy and unlikely to be productive over time.
40. What is the purpose of the best-self portrait developed from feedback? (Select all that apply.)
A. To summarize key themes of one's unique strengths.
B. To create a list of mandatory personality changes.
C. To identify strategies for capitalizing on strengths.
D. To document a formal performance improvement plan.
Explanation: The portrait synthesizes strength themes and guides the individual in leveraging them for
development.
41. How does descriptive communication frame the problem when describing consequences? (Select all that
apply.)
A. It projects the cause onto the other person's motives.
B. It focuses on objective outcomes like profit or quality ratings.
C. It personalizes the impact using "I" statements about feelings.
D. It attributes the problem to external, uncontrollable factors.
Explanation: This step frames the issue in terms of measurable results or personal reactions, not blame.
42. What does supportive communication seek to achieve during difficult conversations? (Select all that apply.)
A. Preserve a positive relationship.
B. Win the argument.
C. Address the problematic issue effectively.
D. Enhance the relational bond despite the challenge.
Explanation: The core aim is to resolve the issue while maintaining and even strengthening the
interpersonal connection.
43. What was the ratio of positive to negative statements in low-performing organizations? (Select all that
apply.)
A. 1.8 to 1.
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B. 5.6 to 1.
C. 0.36 to 1.
D. Less than 1 to 1, meaning more negative comments.
Explanation: Low performers had a ratio below 1, indicating negative statements outnumbered positive
ones.
44. What is the significance of the "Gottman index" finding in other contexts? (Select all that apply.)
A. It suggests a universal principle about effective communication ratios.
B. It applies only to marital relationships.
C. It mirrors the optimal ratio found in high-performing business teams.
D. It is based solely on the content of arguments.
Explanation: The similar 5:1 ratio in both marital and team success hints at a broader principle of
interaction.
45. What is a benefit of the best-self process for the feedback givers? (Select all that apply.)
A. It provides a platform for anonymous criticism.
B. It can strengthen their relationship with the recipient.
C. It may foster a desire for reciprocal feedback.
D. It relieves them of future responsibility for the person.
Explanation: The positive, strength-based exchange often enhances mutual respect and connection
between parties.
46. What does the chapter advise regarding the delivery of necessary negative messages? (Select all that
apply.)
A. They should be delivered in supportive, growth-producing ways.
B. They should be avoided whenever possible.
C. They are necessary and healthy in any relationship.
D. Descriptive techniques should be used instead of evaluative ones.
Explanation: Negative feedback is essential but must be framed constructively to support development and
preserve relationships.
47. What are the two specific strategies mentioned for facilitating positive communication in organizations?
(Select all that apply.)
A. 360-degree weakness reports.
B. The reflected best-self feedback process.
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C. Mandatory positivity training workshops.
D. The use of supportive communication.
Explanation: The chapter highlights these two specific, evidence-based strategies for leaders to enable
positive communication.
48. What does the concept of "positive deviance" refer to in the context of performance? (Select all that apply.)
A. Performance that dramatically exceeds normal standards.
B. Performance that is merely competent.
C. The exceptional outcome pursued through strengths-based practices.
D. A statistical error in measurement.
Explanation: Positively deviant performance is the exceptional result that positive communication and
strengths focus aim to achieve.
49. What is the role of conjunctive statements in supportive communication? (Select all that apply.)
A. They introduce entirely new, unrelated topics.
B. They connect directly to the preceding message.
C. They acknowledge the other person's previous response.
D. They are used to end conversations politely.
Explanation: Conjunctiveness ensures the conversation flows coherently and shows that the speaker is
actively listening.
50. According to the summary, what must leaders consciously pay attention to? (Select all that apply.)
A. The positivity ratio in their messages.
B. Eliminating all forms of negative feedback.
C. Providing feedback on strengths and contributions.
D. Using supportive strategies for critical messages.
Explanation: Enabling positive communication requires mindful attention to message balance, strength
recognition, and supportive delivery.
True/False Questions
1. In Losada and Heaphy's study, the ratio of positive to negative statements was the single most powerful
predictor of team performance.
True.
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Explanation: The research found this factor was more than twice as powerful as any other communication
category in predicting performance.
2. Low-performing teams had a higher ratio of inquiry statements to advocacy statements than high-
performing teams.
False.
Explanation: Low-performing teams were heavily overloaded toward advocacy, with a much lower
inquiry/advocacy ratio than high-performing teams.
3. The reflected best-self feedback process asks people to identify and write about their own weaknesses.
False.
Explanation: The process solicits positive anecdotes from others about an individual's strengths and unique
contributions.
4. Gottman's research found that the 5 to 1 positivity ratio could predict marital outcomes based on a brief
conversation.
True.
Explanation: Gottman could predict divorce or marital happiness years later based on a short conversation
and its positivity ratio.
5. Descriptive communication involves judging the other person's motives when delivering negative feedback.
False.
Explanation: Descriptive communication avoids subjective attributions and focuses on objective
descriptions of behavior and consequences.
6. Positive communication creates more connectivity, which facilitates the flow of resources and coordinated
action.
True.
Explanation: Connectivity, enabled by positive exchange, is the means by which resources flow and
coordinated action occurs.
7. The optimal positivity ratio for peak performance is exactly 5 to 1 in all contexts.
False.
Explanation: Fredrickson and Losada identified an optimal range of 3 to 1 up to about 8 to 1, not one fixed
number.
8. Supportive communication is only necessary when delivering positive messages.
False.
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Explanation: Supportive communication is particularly crucial when delivering critical or corrective
messages to preserve relationships.
9. In the study of ninth-grade students, the control group engaged in daily kind deeds and discussions about
virtue.
False.
Explanation: The control group experienced the normal curriculum, while the experimental group practiced
and discussed virtuous behaviors.
10. Leaders' role modeling has an exponential effect on creating positive communication patterns in
organizations.
True.
Explanation: The communication patterns of leaders are especially important due to their disproportionate
influence as role models.
11. The best-self feedback process typically uncovers strengths that individuals are already fully aware of and
consciously cultivate.
False.
Explanation: The process often reveals strengths that are so natural to the individual they are taken for
granted and not consciously recognized.
12. Evaluative communication, such as labeling someone as "incompetent," usually leads to productive
problem-solving.
False.
Explanation: Evaluative statements generally cause defensiveness and deteriorate communication,
hindering problem-solving.
13. According to the text, a focus on weaknesses is the most reliable path to achieving excellence and positive
deviance.
False.
Explanation: A focus on strengths can lead to excellence, while a focus on weaknesses leads only to the
development of competence.
14. The ratio of focus on others versus self was perfectly balanced (1 to 1) in high-performing teams.
False.
Explanation: The ratio was 0.94 to 1, showing a near balance with a very slight emphasis on self.
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15. Losada and Heaphy's study proved that high performance causes positive communication, not the other
way around.
False.
Explanation: Their use of nonlinear dynamics allowed them to project that communication patterns
influenced performance outcomes.
16. Supportive communication includes the strategy of being specific by referring to actual examples or
behaviors.
True.
Explanation: Specificity, as a component of supportive communication, involves grounding feedback in
tangible instances.
17. The reflected best-self exercise was developed at the University of Michigan and is used in various
organizations.
True.
Explanation: The technique originated at the University of Michigan and has since been adopted by other
institutions.
18. In medium-performing organizations, negative statements slightly outnumbered positive statements.
False.
Explanation: Medium performers had a ratio of 1.8 to 1, meaning positive statements were nearly twice as
frequent as negative ones.
19. "Owned" communication involves attributing your message to company policy or a superior's directive.
False.
Explanation: Owned communication requires taking personal responsibility for the message, often using "I"
statements.
20. The correlation between the positivity ratio and team connectivity was weak and insignificant.
False.
Explanation: The correlation was 0.9, indicating a very strong positive relationship between the two
variables.
21. Fredrickson and Losada's research connects a ratio of at least 3 positive emotions to 1 negative emotion
with individuals merely coping, not flourishing.
False.
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Explanation: Their research found this ratio is associated with flourishing in mental health and individual
performance.
22. The final step in descriptive communication is to argue persuasively until the other person admits they are
wrong.
False.
Explanation: The final step is to suggest acceptable alternatives, focusing on solutions rather than
determining fault.
23. Providing positive feedback is easier for leaders when someone's behavior must be corrected than when
things are going well.
False.
Explanation: It is more difficult to communicate positively when delivering corrective or negative feedback.
24. The card exercise variation of best-self feedback includes writing about a person's limitations on one side of
the card.
False.
Explanation: Both sides of the card focus on strengths and future contributions, not limitations or
weaknesses.
25. According to Table 4.2, a high positivity ratio is linked to people working less hard.
False.
Explanation: The table lists "People work harder" as an outcome associated with a positivity ratio of at least
3 to 1.
26. Authenticity is unimportant for positive talk as long as the messages are supportive.
False.
Explanation: Authenticity and sincerity are requisite, as disingenuous comments have the reverse,
damaging effect.
27. The connectivity score for high-performing organizations was almost twice as high as for low-performing
organizations.
True.
Explanation: High performers averaged a connectivity score of 32, while low performers averaged 18.
28. The best-self feedback process is designed to be universally positive and ignores all information about
performance gaps.
True.
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Explanation: The process is designed to be universally positive to uncover strengths, though the chapter
notes ignoring weaknesses entirely is not healthy long-term.
29. "Pollyannaish" communication, characterized by excessive, unrealistic positivity, was found in high-
performing teams.
False.
Explanation: High-performing teams were not characterized by such an approach; correction and criticism
were present but in a positive context.
30. Validating communication involves telling the other person that their perspective is completely wrong.
False.
Explanation: Validating communication acknowledges the merit in the other person's perspective.
31. In the B.A.S. scenario, the senior executive's alternative descriptive reply began with an objective
description of the proposal.
True.
Explanation: The suggested reply started with "This is an interesting proposal," which describes the item
under discussion.
32. The primary measure used to categorize team performance was annual profit growth.
False.
Explanation: The three measures were productivity, customer satisfaction, and 360-degree evaluations of
managerial competency.
33. Positive communication patterns are a product of high performance, not a cause of it, according to the
chapter.
False.
Explanation: The study's methodology allowed the researchers to project that communication patterns
influenced performance.
34. Conjunctive statements ensure a conversation flows smoothly by connecting to what was previously said.
True.
Explanation: Conjunctiveness involves linking one's comments directly to the preceding message or
response.
35. People who experience a 3 to 1 positivity ratio are less adaptive and resilient after trauma according to the
research.
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False.
Explanation: Table 4.2 states they are "more adaptive and resilient after trials and trauma."
36. The reflected best-self process requires feedback givers to use numerical ratings on a Likert scale.
False.
Explanation: The feedback comes in the form of retold incidents and stories, not numbers or ratings.
37. Problem-centered communication focuses on the person's character traits that led to a mistake.
False.
Explanation: It is problem-focused, concentrating on the issue or action, not the person's character.
38. The ratio of positive to negative statements in low-performing organizations was less than 1 to 1.
True.
Explanation: The ratio was 0.36 to 1, meaning there were more negative comments than positive ones.
39. Active listening is not considered a component of supportive communication.
False.
Explanation: Supportive communication includes reflective listening and appropriate response types as key
strategies.
40. The purpose of describing consequences in descriptive communication is to assign blame clearly.
False.
Explanation: Describing consequences frames the problem in terms of objective outcomes to avoid blaming
the person.
41. Leaders have no role in enabling positive communication beyond giving speeches.
False.
Explanation: Leaders enable it through role modeling, providing best-self feedback, and using supportive
communication strategies.
42. Losada and Heaphy studied mid-level management teams, not top-management teams.
False.
Explanation: The research specifically studied 60 top-management teams engaged in strategic planning.
43. A positivity ratio of 20 to 1 is recommended for sustaining high performance over time.
False.
Explanation: The optimal range is 3:1 to about 8:1; excessive positivity can foster complacency.
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44. The best-self portrait helps individuals identify strategies for capitalizing on their weaknesses.
False.
Explanation: The portrait summarizes key strength themes to help individuals capitalize on those strengths.
45. All communication in an organization should be complimentary and agreeable to ensure high performance.
False.
Explanation: Negative messages are necessary and healthy; they must be delivered in supportive,
constructive ways.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
The options in bold text are the correct answers
1. The __________ is the ratio of supportive, appreciative comments to critical, disapproving comments within
a group's communication.
positivity ratio
Explanation: This term defines the comparative frequency of positive versus negative statements.
2. __________ is a measure of the amount of interaction, engagement, and information exchange among
team members.
Connectivity
Explanation: Connectivity quantifies mutual influence, assistance, and the flow of interactions within a team.
3. The __________ feedback process involves collecting anecdotes from acquaintances about when a person
displayed their unique strengths.
reflected best-self
Explanation: This specific process is designed to uncover an individual's strengths through positive stories
from others.
4. __________ communication seeks to preserve a positive relationship while addressing problematic issues
or delivering negative feedback.
Supportive
Explanation: This type of communication is defined by its aim to maintain the relationship during difficult
conversations.
5. __________ communication makes judgments or labels, whereas __________ communication describes
facts and consequences.
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Evaluative, descriptive
Explanation: Evaluative communication places judgment, while descriptive communication focuses on
objective descriptions.
6. The __________ index is known for using a 5 to 1 positivity ratio to predict marital stability.
Gottman
Explanation: Developed by John Gottman, this index is based on the ratio of positive to negative
interactions in couples.
7. In descriptive communication, after describing the event, the communicator should describe their own
__________ or the objective __________ of the behavior.
feelings, consequences
Explanation: The second step involves stating personal reactions or the factual outcomes resulting from the
behavior.
8. A focus on correcting weaknesses primarily leads to __________, while a focus on building strengths can
lead to excellence and __________ performance.
competence, positively deviant
Explanation: The chapter distinguishes between the outcomes of focusing on deficiencies versus strengths.
9. __________ statements connect a speaker's comments directly to the preceding message or the other
person's response.
Conjunctive
Explanation: This characteristic of supportive communication ensures the conversation flows coherently.
10. The __________ step in descriptive communication involves proposing a solution that is acceptable to both
parties.
suggestion / third
Explanation: The final step is to suggest a more acceptable alternative to focus on problem-solving.
11. __________ means a communicator's words, thoughts, and feelings are aligned, demonstrating
authenticity.
Congruence
Explanation: Congruence is a key strategy of supportive communication requiring sincerity.
12. The study by Losada and Heaphy used __________ dynamics and __________ diagrams to project causal
directionality.
nonlinear, Lorenz attractor
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Explanation: Their advanced methodological approach allowed them to infer that communication patterns
influenced performance.
13. __________ communication involves taking personal responsibility for a message by using "I" statements.
Owned
Explanation: Owned communication clarifies that the perspective belongs to the speaker, not an impersonal
entity.
14. A ratio of approximately __________ positive to __________ negative statements was found in high-
performing top-management teams.
5.6, 1
Explanation: The specific numerical finding for high performers was a 5.6 to 1 positivity ratio.
15. __________ communication validates the other person's perspective by acknowledging its merit.
Validating
Explanation: This supportive communication strategy shows respect for the other person's point of view.
16. The positive effects of positive communication are partly explained by its creation of __________, which
enables resource flow and coordinated action.
connectivity
Explanation: Connectivity is the mechanism through which positive communication facilitates organizational
processes.
17. In the team card exercise, one side of the card states what is valued about the person's contribution; the
other side asks how they can create additional __________.
value
Explanation: The reverse side of the card focuses on future contributions needed for extraordinary team
success.
18. __________ listening, which involves reflecting or paraphrasing, is a component of supportive
communication.
Reflective / Active
Explanation: Active listening techniques, including reflective responses, are part of effective supportive
communication.
19. According to the chapter, most individuals and organizations concentrate overwhelmingly on the
__________, giving short shrift to positive feedback.
negative
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Explanation: A common tendency is to focus on deficiencies and problems rather than strengths and
successes.
20. Fredrickson and Losada's research indicates that people who experience a ratio of at least __________
positive emotions for every negative emotion tend to flourish.
three
Explanation: Their broaden-and-build theory links this specific emotional ratio to flourishing.
21. The __________ was the performance category where the ratio of focus on others to self was 0.03 to 1.
low-performing teams / organizations
Explanation: This extremely low ratio indicates a near-total focus on self, characteristic of low-performing
teams.
22. When giving feedback, being __________ means referring to an actual example or behavior, not a
generalization.
specific
Explanation: Specificity is a key attribute of supportive communication that increases clarity and
actionability.
23. The best-self feedback process results in a personal __________ portrait summarizing key strength
themes.
best-self
Explanation: The analysis of anecdotes leads to the creation of this portrait, which guides personal
development.
24. __________-centered communication focuses on the issue or action to be solved, not on the person's
character.
Problem
Explanation: This supportive communication strategy separates the problem from the person's identity.
25. The correlation of __________ between the positivity ratio and team connectivity indicates an extremely
strong relationship.
0.9
Explanation: This statistical value shows the two variables are very closely associated.
26. The __________ group in the ninth-grade study followed the normal curriculum without practicing virtuous
deeds.
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control
Explanation: This group provided a baseline comparison for the experimental intervention.
27. Leaders enable positive communication partly through their exponential effect as __________.
role models
Explanation: Leaders' own communication patterns have a disproportionate influence on organizational
culture.
28. In the descriptive communication reply in the B.A.S. scenario, the executive expressed feeling "not
__________" with the proposal as presented.
comfortable
Explanation: This word was used to describe the executive's personal feeling in the example of descriptive
feedback.
29. The ratio of __________ statements to __________ statements was 1.1 to 1 in high-performing teams.
inquiry, advocacy
Explanation: High performers showed a near-equal balance, with a slight preference for asking questions
over asserting positions.
30. Table 4.2 lists that people with a high positivity ratio have higher survival rates after a serious illness or an
__________.
accident
Explanation: This is one of the many positive outcomes associated with a ratio of at least 3 to 1.
31. The term __________ describes performance that dramatically exceeds normal standards or expectations.
positive deviance / positively deviant performance
Explanation: This is the exceptional outcome that positive leadership practices aim to achieve.
32. Comments that appear untrustworthy or disingenuous have the __________ effect of undermining positive
communication.
reverse
Explanation: Authenticity is required because insincere positivity damages trust and credibility.
33. The best-self process solicits approximately __________ anecdotes from about 20 acquaintances.
60
Explanation: With 20 people providing 3 stories each, the total is roughly 60 anecdotes.
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34. In medium-performing organizations, the positivity ratio was __________ to 1.
1.8
Explanation: This was the specific ratio found for teams categorized as medium performers.
35. The __________ step in the descriptive technique helps an individual save face by separating them from
the behavior.
suggestion / third
Explanation: By focusing on alternative behaviors, the person is not personally attacked, which preserves
self-esteem.
Application-Based Questions
The text in bold fonts are the correct answers
1. A team leader notices her team's project meetings are dominated by criticism and debate. To shift the
communication pattern toward high performance, what ratio of positive to negative statements should she
consciously model and encourage?
A) 1.8 to 1
B) 0.36 to 1
C) 5.6 to 1
D) Exactly 1 to 1
Explanation: High-performing teams exhibited a ratio of approximately 5.6 positive statements for every 1
negative statement.
2. A manager needs to give critical feedback to an employee who submitted a poorly analyzed report. To use
supportive descriptive communication, what should his first step be?
A) Tell the employee his work is unacceptable and lazy.
B) Objectively describe the specific sections of the report that lack sufficient analysis.
C) Suggest the employee be placed on a performance improvement plan.
D) Compare the employee's work negatively to a colleague's report.
Explanation: The first step in descriptive communication is an objective, dispassionate description of the
event or behavior needing change.
3. An organization wants to implement a strengths-based development program. Which process should they
adopt to help employees uncover their unique, often unnoticed talents?
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A) 360-degree weakness assessments
B) The reflected best-self feedback process
C) Competitive performance rankings
D) Mandatory skills training workshops
Explanation: The reflected best-self process is designed to capture anecdotes that uncover an individual's
distinctive strengths and highest capabilities.
4. During a strategic debate, a team member continually advocates for his own idea without asking others for
their input. To improve team dynamics, the leader should encourage a better balance between what two
communication types?
A) Positive and negative statements
B) Focus on self and focus on others
C) Inquiry and advocacy statements
D) Descriptive and evaluative statements
Explanation: High-performing teams balanced inquiry (asking questions) with advocacy (telling or asserting
a position).
5. A couple in a leadership workshop argues frequently. To predict and improve their relationship
sustainability, what should a coach measure based on Gottman's research?
A) The number of times they laugh together.
B) The ratio of positive to negative communication events.
C) Their agreement on major life goals.
D) The specific topics they argue about.
Explanation: Gottman's index uses the ratio of positive to negative interactions as the key predictor of
marital stability and quality.
6. A department is characterized by low trust and minimal information sharing. To build "connectivity," what
should the director focus on enhancing?
A) Individual bonuses for top performers.
B) The frequency of interpersonal interactions and mutual assistance.
C) Stricter rules for communication protocols.
D) More detailed monthly written reports.
Explanation: Connectivity is defined by the amount of interaction, engagement, and information exchanged
within a team.
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7. A leader receives best-self feedback anecdotes from colleagues. What should she do next to benefit from
this process?
A) Look only for critical comments to improve upon.
B) Summarize the key themes to develop a best-self portrait.
C) Discard the stories because they are not numerical data.
D) Use them to rate herself on a standard competency checklist.
Explanation: Analyzing the stories to identify key strength themes and creating a best-self portrait is the
intended next step.
8. In a performance review, a leader says, "Your constant mistakes are really frustrating the whole team." This
is an example of what kind of communication?
A) Descriptive communication
B) Supportive communication
C) Evaluative communication
D) Validating communication
Explanation: This is an evaluative statement that places a negative label ("constant mistakes") and
attributes blame.
9. To foster positive emotions and flourishing among staff, what positivity ratio should the organizational
culture aim for, based on Fredrickson and Losada?
A) At least 1 to 1
B) At least 3 to 1
C) Exactly 5 to 1
D) Less than 1 to 1
Explanation: A ratio of at least three positive emotions for every negative emotion is associated with
individuals flourishing.
10. A senior executive wants to reject a proposal without demoralizing the junior manager who created it.
Following the descriptive communication model, what should her reply include?
A) "This proposal is naive and shows a lack of experience."
B) "I reject this proposal. Try again."
C) "This proposal has merit, but I see three unresolved issues that concern me. Let's form a task
force to address them."
D) "Your department always submits incomplete work."
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Explanation: An effective descriptive reply includes a description of the issue, a statement of
feelings/consequences, and a suggested alternative.
11. A project team is struggling with low engagement. Based on the strong correlation between positivity and
connectivity, what intervention might be most effective?
A) Increase surveillance of team members' work hours.
B) Implement a system for more frequent positive feedback and appreciation among members.
C) Redesign the office layout to create more private spaces.
D) Focus meetings solely on critiquing project delays.
Explanation: Since positive communication predicts engagement (connectivity), increasing positive
feedback should boost interaction and engagement.
12. During a conflict resolution, a leader says, "I understand why you see it that way, and that perspective has
merit." This demonstrates which supportive communication strategy?
A) Congruence
B) Validation
C) Conjunctiveness
D) Owning
Explanation: Validating communication acknowledges the merit in the other person's perspective.
13. A company's management team has a communication pattern with equal amounts of positive and negative
statements. What level of performance does research predict for this team?
A) High performance
B) Medium performance
C) Low performance
D) Positively deviant performance
Explanation: Medium-performing organizations had a ratio of 1.8 to 1, which is closer to an even balance
than the low or high ratios.
14. A leader crafting a difficult email about a missed deadline wants to use "owned" communication. What
phrasing should she use?
A) "The company policy states that deadlines are mandatory."
B) "It has been noted that the deadline was missed."
C) "I am concerned because the deadline was missed, impacting the client schedule."
D) "You failed to meet the deadline."
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Explanation: Owned communication takes personal responsibility for the message, often using "I"
statements to describe feelings or concerns.
15. To combat the natural tendency to focus on negatives, a leader institutes a monthly ritual where team
members exchange notes about observed strengths. This practice is most similar to which formal process?
A) 360-degree performance review
B) The reflected best-self feedback exercise
C) Supportive communication training
D) Descriptive feedback workshops
Explanation: Exchanging positive anecdotes about strengths mirrors the core activity of the reflected best-
self feedback process.
16. A team's communication analysis shows they almost never ask questions and only advocate for their own
views. This pattern is typical of what performance category?
A) High-performing teams
B) Medium-performing teams
C) Low-performing teams
D) Positively deviant teams
Explanation: Low-performing teams were highly overloaded toward advocacy rather than inquiry.
17. When delivering negative feedback, a manager says, "The data in your report on pages 3 and 4 is
incomplete, which led to a client question I couldn't answer." Which step of descriptive communication does
this represent?
A) Suggesting an acceptable alternative
B) Describing personal feelings
C) Objectively describing the event and its consequences
D) Making an evaluative judgment
Explanation: The manager objectively describes the specific behavior (incomplete data) and its immediate
consequence (unanswered client question).
18. An organization wants to improve not just competence but excellence. According to the chapter, where
should development efforts be focused?
A) Primarily on correcting employee weaknesses
B) Exclusively on providing negative, critical feedback
C) On helping employees capitalize on their unique strengths
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D) On standardizing all performance to average benchmarks
Explanation: A focus on strengths can lead to excellence and positively deviant performance, beyond mere
competence.
19. A leader's communication is always upbeat, even when serious problems arise. What risk does this pose,
according to the text?
A) It will certainly lead to positive deviance.
B) It may foster complacency and mediocrity.
C) It is the ideal approach for sustaining motivation.
D) It will increase connectivity indefinitely.
Explanation: Too much positivity can foster complacency, as some correction and criticism are necessary
for high performance.
20. In a team card exercise, a member writes, "I value how you always calm the team during crises." This
comment addresses which part of the exercise?
A) The suggestion for future value creation
B) The identification of a weakness to improve
C) The appreciation of a strength and contribution
D) An evaluative statement about personality
Explanation: The card's first side is for stating what is valued about the person's contribution and their
special strengths.
21. A manager must address an employee's consistently late arrivals. Which approach uses supportive,
problem-centered communication?
A) "You are irresponsible and disrespectful."
B) "Your lateness is a problem. Be on time or else."
C) "I've noticed you've arrived after 9 AM three times this week, which delays our morning team
huddle. Can we discuss what's causing this?"
D) "Everyone else manages to be on time."
Explanation: This option describes the specific behavior, states its impact (consequence), and initiates
problem-solving without personal attack.
22. Research shows positive communication in ninth-grade literature classes led to better outcomes. What was
a key component of the intervention?
A) Students read only comedies and happy literature.
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B) Students practiced and wrote about daily kind deeds.
C) Teachers gave easier grades to improve morale.
D) Class time was reduced to lessen stress.
Explanation: The intervention involved students practicing virtuous behaviors, like a kind deed each day,
and writing/talking about them.
23. After receiving best-self feedback, an employee feels a stronger bond with the colleagues who provided
stories. What additional benefit of the process does this illustrate?
A) It guarantees a promotion.
B) It strengthens relationships between feedback givers and receivers.
C) It automatically corrects performance weaknesses.
D) It eliminates the need for future feedback.
Explanation: A documented benefit of the process is that it often strengthens the relationship between the
feedback recipient and the providers.
24. A team's connectivity score is low. Based on the chapter, what single change would likely increase this
score the most?
A) Hiring new team members
B) Increasing the ratio of positive to negative statements
C) Changing the project deadline
D) Moving to a new office building
Explanation: The correlation between the positivity ratio and connectivity was 0.9, indicating increasing
positive communication would strongly predict higher engagement and interaction.
25. When a leader's words, tone, and body language all convey the same sincere message, they are
demonstrating which principle of supportive communication?
A) Specificity
B) Congruence
C) Reflectiveness
D) Validation
Explanation: Congruence means the communicator's words, thoughts, and feelings are aligned,
demonstrating authenticity.
26. A team is focused almost entirely on their own individual goals and rarely discusses other departments'
needs. This reflects a poor ratio of what?
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A) Positive to negative statements
B) Inquiry to advocacy statements
C) Focus on others to focus on self
D) Descriptive to evaluative statements
Explanation: This describes an imbalance in the focus on self versus others, which was a differentiating
factor in team performance.
27. A consultant recommends using "I" statements and focusing on solutions when giving criticism. This advice
is core to which communication technique?
A) Evaluative communication
B) The best-self feedback process
C) Descriptive communication
D) Nonverbal communication
Explanation: Descriptive communication involves owned statements ("I" feel) and suggesting alternatives
(solutions), not evaluating the person.
28. According to the Gottman index, a couple observed to have one positive interaction for every three
negative interactions is most likely to have what long-term outcome?
A) A long and happy marriage
B) A marriage ending in divorce or marked by unhappiness
C) A marriage that improves over time
D) A perfectly average relationship
Explanation: Marriages that end in divorce or are unhappy are typified by more negative than positive
communication interactions.
29. A leader wants to apply the research on positivity but worries about being unrealistic. What key point from
the study of high-performing teams should reassure her?
A) Negative communications were entirely absent.
B) The ratio was 5 positive to 0 negative statements.
C) Correction and criticism were present but in a positive context.
D) They used only inquiry and never advocacy.
Explanation: High performers did use negative communication like correction and criticism, but it was
outweighed by positivity and offered constructively.
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30. An employee is defensive after receiving feedback. The leader realizes she said, "Your approach is wrong."
What communication error did she make?
A) She used a descriptive statement.
B) She used an evaluative statement.
C) She used a conjunctive statement.
D) She used a validating statement.
Explanation: Labeling the approach "wrong" is an evaluative judgment, which typically triggers
defensiveness.
31. To build social capital and synchronicity, what should a leader prioritize enabling within her team?
A) Independent work plans
B) Positive communication and connectivity
C) Strict hierarchy and chain of command
D) Detailed procedural manuals
Explanation: Positive communication fosters connectivity, which is the means by which resources flow and
coordinated action (synchronicity) takes place, building social capital.
32. During a budget conflict, a director says, "To build on your point about marketing costs, I'm concerned
about the ripple effect on R&D." This is an example of what kind of statement?
A) Evaluative
B) Disjunctive
C) Conjunctive
D) Non-specific
Explanation: This is a conjunctive statement because it connects directly ("To build on your point...") to the
preceding message.
33. A manager believes in "tough love" and primarily points out failures. What performance outcome is this
approach most likely to produce, based on the research?
A) Positively deviant performance
B) Medium performance
C) Low performance
D) High performance
Explanation: Low-performing organizations had more negative comments than positive ones (a ratio below
1:1).
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34. The "three steps" for delivering negative messages constructively are a summary of what broader
technique?
A) The reflected best-self process
B) Supportive communication, specifically descriptive communication
C) Evaluative communication
D) Active listening protocols
Explanation: The three steps (describe, identify consequences/feelings, suggest alternatives) form the core
of the descriptive communication technique within supportive communication.
35. A company's training program emphasizes finding and fixing flaws. To counterbalance this tendency, what
should leadership introduce?
A) A stricter punishment system for errors
B) A reflected best-self feedback initiative
C) More frequent quantitative performance reviews
D) Mandatory overtime
Explanation: The best-self feedback process is explicitly described as a way to counterbalance the
overwhelming focus on the negative and on weaknesses.
36. A leader receives feedback that her team fears bringing her problems. To change this, she needs to
replace evaluative responses with what?
A) More detailed evaluative responses
B) Longer speeches about company vision
C) Descriptive communication responses
D) Silent treatment
Explanation: Using descriptive communication instead of evaluative statements when problems arise can
reduce defensiveness and encourage open discussion.
37. What is the primary goal when using supportive communication to deliver a negative message?
A) To ensure the recipient feels shame for their mistake.
B) To preserve or strengthen the relationship while addressing the issue.
C) To demonstrate the communicator's intellectual superiority.
D) To avoid discussing the problem altogether.
Explanation: Supportive communication seeks to preserve, support, and enhance the relationship while still
addressing the problematic issue.
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38. An analysis shows a team has a positivity ratio of 4 to 1. According to Fredrickson and Losada, what does
this predict about the team's potential?
A) It is below the threshold for flourishing and high performance.
B) It is within the optimal range for predicting the highest levels of performance.
C) It is indicative of certain low performance.
D) It shows an unhealthy, Pollyannaish approach.
Explanation: A ratio between 3:1 and approximately 8:1 is predictive of the highest levels of performance.
39. In the team card exercise, the request "exceed our aspirations" and "become the benchmark" is meant to
inspire what?
A) Compliance with basic job duties
B) Positively deviant performance
C) Focus on individual weaknesses
D) Adherence to standard operating procedures
Explanation: The language of "exceed aspirations" and "become the benchmark" is aimed at achieving
extraordinary, positively deviant performance.
40. A leader consistently models a high positivity ratio, best-self recognition, and supportive correction. What is
the ultimate organizational outcome these behaviors are meant to enable?
A) A conflict-free workplace
B) Positively deviant performance
C) Strict adherence to rules
D) Uniformity of thought and action
Explanation: The communication patterns of leaders are a powerful factor in enabling positively deviant
performance to emerge.
