personal trainer 200
SassySweetStacey
Section1.docx1. When administering a skin-fold assessment, which side of the body should all measurements be taken on for body fat?
A. Left
B. Front
C. Right
D. Back
2. Which of the following does HIT stand for?
A. Healthy integrated training
B. High integrated technique
C. High intensity training
D. Hyper-integrated technique
3. Which of the following is the prime mover used in the lunge?
A. Quadriceps
B. Soleus
C. Psoas
D. Gastrocnemius
4. Fat-soluble vitamins include A, D, E, and which of the following?
A. B
B. C
C. K
D. H
5. Which of the following forms would you use to gain insight into the daily nutritional habits of a client?
A. Comprehensive client form
B. PAR-Q
C. 3-day dietary record
D. Food intolerance form
6. When developing a client's training plan, the entire training cycle is referred to as which of the following?
A. Macrocycle
B. Mesocycle
C. Microcycle
D. Foundational
7. In which of the following is the soleus considered the prime mover?
A. Leg extension
B. Hamstring curl
C. Seated calf raise
D. Standing calf raise
8. Which of the following is the maximum arterial pressure occurring during contraction of the left ventricle of the heart?
A. Systolic pressure
B. Diastolic pressure
C. Heart rate
D. Pulse
9. A client performs 8 repetitions of seated leg press at 320 lbs., what is their estimated 1RM?
A. 420 lbs.
B. 400 lbs.
C. 460 lbs.
D. 480 lbs.
10. Which of the following is the smallest phase or cycle of training?
A. Mesocycle
B. Macrocycle
C. Recovery cycle
D. Microcycle
11. Which of the following is an example of a polyunsaturated fatty acid?
A. Omega-6
B. Oleic acid
C. Amino acids
D. Vitamin K
12. Approximately how many calories are in one pound of body fat?
A. 2500
B. 4600
C. 3500
D. 5600
13. What is the suggested carbohydrate intake for male clients per meal?
A. 2 palm portions
B. 2 cupped handfuls
C. 1 cupped handful
D. 1 palm portion
14. The body is comprised of storage fat and which of the following?
A. Brown fat
B. Essential fat
C. White fat
D. Lipid fat
15. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of carbohydrates?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
16. Which contraction helps to generate enough tension in muscles to contract explosively?
A. Eccentric
B. Ballistic
C. Concentric
D. Isometric
17. Which of the following is a key strategy for nutrition coaching?
A. Identifying and eliminating behavior goals
B. Identifying and eliminating time constraints
C. Identifying and eliminating limiting factors
D. Identifying and eliminating outcome goals
18. Which macronutrient is the most readily available for energy production?
A. Fats
B. Leucine
C. Carbohydrates
D. Valine
19. What occurs when exercise begins and the intake of oxygen doesn't immediately meet the demands?
A. Oxygen deficit
B. Oxygen debt
C. Aerobic fitness
D. Anaerobic fitness
20. Which of the following is the recommended duration of exercise for a beginner hypertensive client?
A. 20-30 mins a day, 2 days per week
B. 45-60 mins a day, 2 days per week
C. 20-30 mins a day, 4 days per week
D. 45-60 mins a day, 4 days per week
21. When the spine curves inward at the low back, this is referred to as which of the following?
A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Flatback
D. Scoliosis
22. Which of the following body types will have an inflated BMI?
A. Extremely thin
B. Extremely muscular
C. Ectomorph
D. Mesomorph
23. Which of the following is encouraged for nutrition coaching for positive reinforcement?
A. Calorie counting
B. Macro counting
C. Food journal
D. Exercise journal
24. Which of the following supplements assists in muscle contraction, immunity, and regulation of blood sugar?
A. Protein powder
B. Fish oil
C. Vitamin D
D. Magnesium
25. Protein is composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and which of the following?
A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Nitrogen
26. "Do not allow legs to bow inward or outward" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?
A. Hanging leg raise
B. Tube walking
C. Dumbbell incline bench press
D. Lunge
27. "Keep shoulder blades down and together throughout the entire movement" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?
A. Dumbbell incline bench press
B. Chin-up
C. Hanging leg raise
D. Squat
28. "Keep your heels on the ground" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?
A. Dumbbell incline bench press
B. Squat
C. Lunge
D. Bench press
29. If a client is suffering from insulin shock, what should a trainer give them?
A. Sugar
B. Fiber
C. Caffeine
D. Water
30. Postural deviations can result in:
A. Improved muscle balance, poor flexibility, proper spinal alignment, injury predisposition
B. Poor muscle balance, improved flexibility, improper spinal alignment, injury predisposition
C. Improved muscle balance, poor flexibility, improper spinal alignment, injury predisposition
D. Poor muscle balance, poor flexibility, improper spinal alignment, injury predisposition
31. How the body breaks down and uses energy for activity is which of the following?
A. Anaerobic exercise
B. Aerobic exercise
C. Energy metabolism
D. ATP/CP pathway
32. Utilizing the FITT principle, how many times per week should a beginner client workout?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
33. Maximal heart rate is calculated by subtracting your age from:
A. 100
B. 180
C. 220
D. 200
34. Which of the following is total energy expenditure?
A. Sum of a client's resting metabolic rate, physical activity, and thermic effect of food
B. A client's resting metabolic rate minus physical activity
C. A client's resting metabolic rate minus thermic effect of food
D. Sum of a client's resting metabolic rate, sedentary activity, and thermic effect of food
35. What is an alternative exercise for the hanging leg raise?
A. Crunches
B. Straight arm pulldown
C. Pushups
D. Cable crossover
36. Which of the following is required for weight loss and can also result in loss of lean body mass?
A. Positive energy balance
B. Excess calories
C. Negative energy balance
D. Total energy expenditure
37. Which type of muscle arrangement runs parallel to the longitudinal axis of the muscle?
A. Parallel
B. Unipennate
C. Triangular
D. Fusiform
38. Which of the following are the building blocks of protein?
A. Fatty acids
B. Amino acids
C. Ribonucleic acids
D. Alpha-linolenic acids
39. When is it okay for a client to become intimately involved with their trainer?
A. If both parties consent to it
B. Never
C. If the trainer's manager knows about it
D. Always
40. What type of grip denotes the palm facing upwards towards the ceiling?
A. Pronated
B. Neutral
C. Supinated
D. Mixed
41. Which of the following is used to determine the exact measurement of angles around the joint?
A. Graded exercise test
B. Passive ROM testing
C. Goniometer
D. Bioelectrical impedance
42. How often does an ISSA personal trainer have to renew their certification?
A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 3 years
D. Every 4 years
43. Which of the following requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions?
A. Core integration
B. Postural development
C. Dynamic balance
D. Neuromuscular strength
44. When performing CPR, what do procedures A, B, and C stand for?
A. Abdominals, biceps, and chest
B. Airway, breathing, and circulation
C. Assess, blow out, circulation
D. Airway, berating, cover
45. Which of the following determines how many meals a client should eat per day?
A. The trainer's discretion
B. Client preference
C. According to how the client's body responds
D. It should always be 5 meals per day
46. Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise?
A. Moderate aerobic training
B. Lying in the supine position
C. Stretching before and after exercise
D. Consuming additional calories
47. A client says they have a headache, what should the trainer do?
A. Recommend they drink water, then stop the training session
B. Give them Advil, then stop the training session
C. Give them a prescription medication, then continue training session
D. Give them Advil, then continue training session
48. What is the daily water consumption recommendation?
A. 1 Liter
B. 4 Liters
C. 3 Liters
D. 2 Liters
49. The systolic blood pressure reading of 140-159 is what stage of Hypertension?
A. Stage 2
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 3
D. High Normal
50. A client thinks they injured their shoulder, what should the trainer do?
A. Check out the issue
B. Have another trainer check out the issue
C. Continue training the client
D. Refer them to a doctor
51. Why are children more susceptible to heat exhaustion and stroke?
A. Children's VO2 max capabilities are lower
B. Children's muscular strength is low
C. Children's metabolism is higher
D. Children do not sweat as much
52. Body composition testing determines which of the following?
A. Lean mass and fat mass
B. Overall bodyweight
C. Somatotype classification
D. Body mass index
53. In an endurance mesocycle of a beginner's program, which rep and set scheme would be most appropriate?
A. 12-15 reps, 3 sets
B. 4-6 reps, 1 set
C. 8-10 reps, 4 sets
D. 2-5 reps, 5 sets
A. Body metabolic index
B. Body mass index
C. Basal metabolic index
D. Basal mass index
55. Which of the following is an increase in size of the muscle fibers?
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Overtraining
D. Overload principle
56. What bone runs parallel to the fibula?
A. Radius
B. Femur
C. Tibia
D. Ulna
57. Which of the following is part of stage 1 of the drawing-in phase?
A. Demonstrating sincerity
B. Data collection
C. Feeling the water
D. Goal setting
58. Which of the following is known as the powerhouse of the cell?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Sarcolemma
C. Mitochondria
D. Creatine phosphate
59. Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers known as which of the following?
A. Actin and tropomyosin
B. Tropin and myosin
C. Tropoactin and myosin
D. Actin and myosin
60. Which of the following ranges are needed to achieve maximum power when using 55-85% of 1RM?
A. 3-5 reps, 3-5 sets
B. 3-5 reps, 1-2 sets
C. 1-2 reps, 1-2 sets
D. 1-2 reps, 3-5 sets
61. Which of the following increases the rate of fatty acid metabolism and decreases the rate of carbohydrate metabolism during aerobic exercise?
A. Fish oil
B. Caffeine
C. Alcohol
D. Magnesium
62. A trainer has a client request their records; how must that request be made?
A. Over the phone
B. In a face to face conversation
C. Only in writing
D. Asking the trainer's manager
63. What percentage of your total body weight is made up of water?
A. 70
B. 60
C. 35
D. 25
64. What is the MOST superficial muscle of the abdominals?
A. Internal oblique
B. External oblique
C. Transverse abdominis
D. Rectus abdominis
65. Which of the following is the strength required to resist and control the resistance in the downward phase of a movement?
A. Isometric
B. Speed
C. Concentric
D. Eccentric
66. Which of the following is an example of an outcome goal?
A. Lose 10 pounds
B. Eat out only once a week
C. Workout 3 days a week
D. Go for a walk daily
67. Those who engage in cross training may experience which of the following?
A. Increased risk of injury
B. Positive orthopedic benefit
C. Decreased risk of injury
D. Specific adaptations
68. What exercise is most appropriate for testing muscular endurance?
A. Push-up
B. Bench press
C. Back squat
D. Bicep curl
69. Which of the following is the prime mover used in the bench press?
A. Trapezius upper
B. Pectoralis major
C. Biceps bracii
D. Latissimus dorsi
70. The need for different phases of training helps to prevent which of the following?
A. Peak performance
B. Rest and recovery
C. Enhanced performance
D. Overtraining
71. Which of the following is the recommended exercise intensity level for a client with Type I diabetes?
A. Less than 40% MHR
B. 40-54% MHR
C. 55-85% MHR
D. More than 86% MHR
72. Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining?
A. Increase in body weight
B. Decreased number of infections
C. Lowered heart rate during exercise
D. Decrease in performance
73. What is primarily responsible for strength gains in beginning clients?
A. Hypertrophy adaptations
B. Neural adaptations
C. Environmental adaptations
D. Anaerobic adaptations
74. Constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions occur in order to maintain a certain position during:
A. Guided movement
B. Sustained force
C. Dynamic balance
D. Ballistic movement
75. Discussing the nutrient per amount of food is referring to which of the following?
A. Nutrient density
B. Caloric density
C. Phyto-density
D. Zoo-nutrient density
76. Which of the following is used to measure the pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels during refilling of the heart?
A. Systolic pressure
B. Heart rate
C. Diastolic pressure
D. Pulse
77. For children between the ages of 5 and 12, what should strength training focus on?
A. Sport-specific activities
B. Becoming more flexible
C. Increasing muscular strength
D. Learning basic lifting techniques
78. Which of the following populations is most at risk for Osgood Schlatter's disease?
A. Pregnant
B. Senior
C. Youth
D. Disabled
79. A weight training program that divides training sessions into upper and lower body training is referred to as which of the following?
A. Superset training principle
B. Set-system training principle
C. Split system training principle
D. Staggered sets training principle
80. Which of the following represents safe load increases for a beginner client?
A. 5-10%
B. 1-4%
C. 12-15%
D. 16-18%
