praxis

tammynaqihn19a

Praxis_Core_Power_Practice.pdf1.pdf

Home >Education homework help >praxis

LEARNiNqExpRESS I An EBSCO Company

► PRACTICE: 6 full-length practice exams for each test section

► PREPARE: Proven strategies to

increase test confidence, reduce

stress, and study effectively

► SUCCEED: Achieve your target test

score and begin your teaching career!

IT'S LIKE HAVING THE

TESTIN ADVANCE!

PRAXISCorePP_00_fm_i-vi.indd 1 9/7/17 1:56 PM

N E W Y O R K

PRAXIS® CORE

POWER PRACTICE (5712, 5722, 5732)

PRAXISCorePP_00_fm_i-vi.indd 2 9/7/17 1:56 PM

Published in the United States by LearningExpress, New York.

Cataloging-in-Publication Data is on fle with the Library of Congress.

ISBN 978-1-61103-101-0

Printed in the United States of America

9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

For more information on LearningExpress, other LearningExpress products, or bulk sales,

please write to us at:

224 W. 29th Street

3rd Floor

New York, NY 10001

PRAXISCorePP_00_fm_i-vi.indd 3 9/7/17 1:56 PM

CONTENTS

CHAPTER 1 About the Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators Tests 1 States Using the Praxis Series of Tests 2

What Is Covered on the Praxis Core Tests? 2

Reading 3

Writing 4

Mathematics 5

The Computer-Delivered Test 6

Scoring 6

Retaking the Tests 7

What to Bring to the Test 7

How Do I Register? 7

Special Arrangements 8

Nonstandard Testing Accommodations 8

Where Do I Begin? 9

CHAPTER 2 The LearningExpress Test Preparation System 11 How It Works 12

Step 1: Get Information 12

Step 2: Conquer Test Anxiety 13

Step 3: Make a Plan 15

Step 4: Learn to Manage Your Time 15

Step 5: Learn to Use the Process of Elimination 16

Step 6: Know When to Guess 16

Step 7: Reach Your Peak Performance Zone 20

Step 8: Get Your Act Together 21

Step 9: Do It! 21

i i i

PRAXISCorePP_00_fm_i-vi.indd 4 9/7/17 1:56 PM

– –CONTENTS

CHAPTER 3 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Practice Test 1 23 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading Practice Test 1 24

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading Practice Test 1

Answers and Explanations 40

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing Practice Test 1 50

Part IIa: Argumentative Essay 58

Part IIb: Source-Based Essay 67

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing Practice Test 1

Answers and Explanations 78

Sample Responses for the Argumentative Essay 81

Sample Responses for the Source-Based Essay 84

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics Practice Test 1 88

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics Practice Test 1

Answers and Explanations 99

CHAPTER 4 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Practice Test 2 113 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading Practice Test 2 114

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading Practice Test 2

Answers and Explanations 129

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing Practice Test 2 140

Part IIa: Argumentative Essay 149

Part IIb: Source-Based Essay 157

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing Practice Test 2

Answers and Explanations 167

Sample Responses for the Argumentative Essay 170

Sample Responses for the Source-Based Essay 173

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics Practice Test 2 177

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics Practice Test 2

Answers and Explanations 186

CHAPTER 5 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Practice Test 3 193 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading Practice Test 3 194

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading Practice Test 3

Answers and Explanations 209

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing Practice Test 3 220

Part IIa: Argumentative Essay 227

Part IIb: Source-Based Essay 236

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing Practice Test 3

Answers and Explanations 247

Sample Responses for the Argumentative Essay 253

Sample Responses for the Source-Based Essay 258

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics Practice Test 3 262

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics Practice Test 3

Answers and Explanations 275

PRAXISCorePP_00_fm_i-vi.indd 5 9/7/17 1:56 PM

– –CONTENTS

CHAPTER 6 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Practice Test 4 287 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading Practice Test 4 288

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading Practice Test 4

Answers and Explanations 303

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing Practice Test 4 311

Part IIa: Argumentative Essay 320

Part IIb: Source-Based Essay 327

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing Practice Test 4

Answers and Explanations 336

Sample Responses for the Argumentative Essay 341

Sample Responses for the Source-Based Essay 346

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics Practice Test 4 350

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics Practice Test 4

Answers and Explanations 362

A NOTE ON SCORING 375

ADDITIONAL ONLINE PRACTICE 377

PRAXISCorePP_00_fm_i-vi.indd 6 9/7/17 1:56 PM

Blank Page

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 1 9/7/17 2:04 PM

ABOUT THE

c h

a p

t e

1 PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS TESTS CHAPTER SUMMARY This chapter familiarizes you with the series of Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators tests, which are administered by the Educational Testing Service. You will learn the components of all three Core exams, how to register for the exams, how they are scored, and all about the computer-based testing format.

Welcome to your comprehensive review for the Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators tests! This series of computer-based mathematics, reading, and writing exams tests your knowledge in these core subjects, and assesses your readiness to enter teacher education programs. As the name suggests, the content tested on these exams aligns with the Common Core State Standards.

This book offers complete review, practice, and preparation for the three Core exams:

Core Academic Skills for Educators: Reading (5712)

Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writing (5722)

Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics (5732)

Inside you will fnd four practice exams to assess your skill levels, to test what you have learned, and to deter-

mine where you need more practice. At the end of the book, you will also fnd a link to an instantly scored

online practice exam.

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 2 9/7/17 2:04 PM

– –ABOUT THE PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS TESTS

passing. Information regarding specifc state or orga-

nization requirements may change from time to time.

For accurate, up-to-date information, refer to the

offcial Praxis website at www.ets.org/praxis/about/

core/ and your state’s education department.

States Using the Praxis Series of Tests

Each state sets its own requirement for which tests

you must take and what score will be accepted as

this book. Use it faithfully, and remind yourself thatIMPORTANT CONTACT INFORMATION

ETS—The Praxis Series Website: www.ets.org/praxis Phone: 609-771-7395, M–F 8 A.M. to 7:45 P.M. (EST) (except for U.S. holidays) Phone for the Hearing Impaired: 609-771-7714 E-mail directly through the website at www.ets.org/praxis/contact

Before you begin your review, let’s take a closer look at the Praxis Core exams.

What Is Covered on the Praxis Core Tests?

The Praxis Core tests are designed to see whether you have the academic skills to be an effective teacher. Each

tests your basic skills in either Reading, Mathematics, or Writing.

www.ets.org/praxis/contact

www.ets.org/praxis

http://www.ets.org/praxis/about/core/

–ABOUT THE PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS TESTS–

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 3 9/7/17 2:04 PM

Praxis Core at a Glance

TEST CODE

NUMBER OF QUESTIONS CORE TEST QUESTION TYPES TIME ALLOWED

Reading 5712 56 Multiple-choice 85 minutes

Writing 5722 40 + 2 • 40 multiple-choice + two essays 40 minutes for multiple- choice questions; 30 minutes for each essay

• Multiple-choice: some ask you to select one answer choice; some ask you to select one or more.

• Numeric entry: no choices; type in your own answer.

Mathematics 5732 56 85 minutes

As you can see, most of the questions on the

Praxis Core tests, with the exception of the essay por-

tion of the Writing test, are in multiple-choice for-

mat. The Mathematics test also features numeric

entry questions, where you supply an answer without

being given any choices. Each multiple-choice ques-

tion has fve answer choices and is worth one point.

Because test scoring is based only on the number of

items answered correctly, you are not penalized for

incorrect answers on the Praxis Core tests—so be

sure to fll in all the answer blanks rather than leaving

diffcult questions unanswered. Even a guess is better

than leaving an answer blank!

Let’s look at each test.

Reading

The Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators: Read-

ing test measures your ability to comprehend, ana-

lyze, and evaluate written information. The skills tested

on the exam align with the Common Core State Stan-

dards for Reading, and emphasize the skills needed to

thrive in a teacher preparation program.

You will be asked to read a number of passages

(which may vary in length from a few sentences to

100 to 200 words) and then answer questions accom-

panying each that test your ability to comprehend

what you have read. The genre and reading levels of

the passages will vary. You will be tested only on your

ability to understand and analyze the selection; you

will not be required to have specifc knowledge about

the topics discussed in the passages.

You will have 85 minutes to read all the passages

and answer the 56 multiple-choice questions on this

exam. Here is a breakdown of the question types on

the Praxis Core Reading test.

–ABOUT THE PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS TESTS–

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 4 9/7/17 2:04 PM

QUESTION TYPE NUMBER OF QUESTIONS PERCENTAGE OF TEST

Key Ideas and Details 17–22 35%

Craft, Structure, and Language Skills 14–19 30%

Integration of Knowledge and Ideas 17–22 35%

Writing

The Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators: Writ-

ing test is divided into two sections:

1. The frst section consists of multiple-choice

questions that require you to fnd and/or cor-

rect errors in standard English.

2. The second part asks you to write two 30-

minute essays: an argumentative essay and a

source-based essay.

The skills tested align with the Common Core State

Standards for Writing. The multiple-choice section of

the writing test is designed to measure your ability to

use standard English correctly and effectively, and is

divided into four parts: usage, sentence correction,

revision in context, and research skills.

Usage questions test your knowledge of:

n structural and grammatical relationships

mechanics

idiom or word choice n

Usage questions also test your ability to identify

error-free sentences.

Sentence Correction questions test your ability

to:

select the best way to state a given phrase or

sentence

correct sentences with errors in grammar,

mechanics, idioms, or word choice

Revision-in-Context questions test your skills

in editing a passage to strengthen its word choice,

fow, style, and organization.

Research Skills questions ask you to assess the

credibility of sources, identify parts of a citation, and

recognize parts of a passage that have been pulled

from various sources.

The Essays The essay portion of the Praxis Core Writing test is

designed to evaluate your ability to express ideas

clearly and effectively in standard written English

under time constraints. You will be asked to write two

different types of essays: an Argumentative essay and

an Informative/Explanatory essay.

The Argumentative essay will ask you to draw

from personal experiences and observation to sup-

port a position. To perform well on this essay, you

will need to back up your point of view with exam-

ples—either from something you have read or seen,

from your real life, or from a combination of both.

The Informative/Explanatory essay will begin

with two passages, which you should read before you

begin. You will then be asked to take information

from these two sources to answer a question pre-

sented by the prompt given.

The given topics present situations that are gen-

erally familiar to all educated people and do not

require any specialized knowledge in a particular

feld. Although you will be posing an argument and

drawing conclusions based on examples from per-

sonal experience or observation, you will not be

graded on your opinion—you will be scored only on

how effectively you are able to get across your ideas.

–ABOUT THE PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS TESTS–

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 5 9/7/17 2:04 PM

You will have 40 minutes to answer the 40 mul-

tiple-choice questions on this exam, and 30 minutes

for each essay.

Mathematics

The Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators: Math-

ematics test measures your profciency in math. Gen-

erally speaking, the test requires a competency at the

high school or frst-year college level. All the skills

tested on the exam align with the Common Core

State Standards for Mathematics. Here are the four

main math content areas that will be tested:

Numbers and Operations order

equivalence

numeration and place value

number properties

operation properties

computation

estimation

ratio, proportion, and percent

numerical reasoning

Algebra and Functions equations and inequalities

algorithmic thinking

patterns

algebraic representations

algebraic reasoning

Geometry and Measurement geometric properties

the xy-coordinate plane

geometric reasoning

systems of measurement

Statistics and Probability data interpretation

data representation

trends and inferences

measures of center and spread

probability

You will have 85 minutes to answer the 56

multiple-choice (one-answer and multiple-answer)

and numeric entry questions on this exam. Here is a

breakdown of the question types on the Praxis Core

Mathematics test.

QUESTION TYPE NUMBER OF QUESTIONS PERCENTAGE OF TEST

Numbers and Operations 17 30%

Algebra and Functions 17 30%

Geometry and Measurement 11 20%

Statistics and Probability 11 20%

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 6 9/7/17 2:04 PM

CALCULATORS ON THE PRAXIS® CORE Please note: You will have access to an on-screen calculator for the duration of the Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators: Mathematics test. Note that no other calculator use is allowed—you will not be able to bring a calculator from home. The calculator provided is simple and has four functions (+, –, ×, ÷).

The Computer-Delivered Test

Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators tests are

administered as computer-delivered tests in more

than 300 locations throughout the United States.

They are given frequently. You don’t have to know

much about computers to take these computer-based

tests—each one begins with a tutorial on the use of

the computer. You are encouraged to spend as much

time as needed on the tutorial.

With the exception of the essay portion of the

writing test and numeric entry mathematics ques-

tions, all questions are in multiple-choice format. The

questions are presented on the computer screen, and

you choose your answers by clicking in the oval next

to the correct choice or choices (for multiple-answer

math questions). For numeric entry questions, you

will be asked to type your answer into the box or

boxes provided.

The tests now have a special mark function,

which allows you to mark a question that you would

like to temporarily skip and come back to at a later

time during the same section on the test. Test takers

will have a review screen to see whether a question

has been answered, not seen yet, or marked.

For the two essay questions, you will type your

essay directly onto the screen in the space provided. If

you are not comfortable with your typing skills, prac-

tice them in addition to making your way through

this book. The 30 minutes provided for each essay

cover your brainstorming, prep work, and typing in

the essay.

These computer-based tests are designed to

ensure fairness, because each test taker receives

the same distribution of content.

the same amount of testing time.

the same test directions.

the same tutorials on computer use.

Scoring

Your offcial score report will be available online about

two to three weeks after your test date. Your score

report will also be sent to the recipients (for example,

schools) you designated on your registration form.

The report shows a separate test score for each

Praxis subject that you take. Reading and math test

scores are based on the number of items answered

correctly. There is no penalty for answering a ques-

tion incorrectly. The writing test score is based on the

number of multiple-choice questions answered cor-

rectly combined with the essay score, which is scored

on a scale of 1 to 6.

Your score report will show your score, whether

you passed, the raw points earned in each content

category, and the range of possible scores. If you took

any test previously within the past ten years, it will

also show your highest scores on each test.

Can I Cancel My Scores? These computer-based tests give you the option to

cancel your scores at the end of your test session

before viewing the scores (once you have viewed your

computerized scores, you cannot cancel them). All

–ABOUT THE PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS TESTS–

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 7 9/7/17 2:04 PM

score cancellations are permanent, and refunds are

not given.

Passing Scores Each state or institution determines its own passing

score. The frst thing you will want to do with your

scores is to compare them to the passing scores set by

your state. Along with your test scores, you will

receive the Understanding Your Praxis Scores booklet

that gives the passing scores for each state. The Praxis

Series website (www.ets.org/praxis/states) also has a

complete state-by-state listing of required tests and

passing scores.

Retaking the Tests

If you don’t pass one or more Praxis Core tests, you

will be allowed to take them again. How many times

or how often you may retake each test is determined

by the policies of individual states or institutions. The

ETS does mandate that you may take each of these

tests only once per 30-day period and no more than

six times in one year. Individual states may have fur-

ther restrictions. Consult your scores from previous

tests to see which areas require more study, so that

you will pass the tests the next time you take them.

REMINDER Again, you may take the test only once a month, and no more than six times over the course of a year. This even applies to situa- tions where you may have canceled your scores. If you violate this rule, your retest scores will not be reported, and your fees will not be refunded.

What to Bring to the Test

You will need your photo identifcation and your

admission ticket. You may not bring calculators, cell

phones, smartphones or any other electronic devices,

pencils or pens, books, bags, scratch paper, or other

people into the test room with you. The test adminis-

trator will designate an area where you may keep your

personal belongings during the test.

On test day, allow plenty of time in the morning

to get to your test location, especially if you are unfa-

miliar with the area where the test is given. You

should arrive at least 30 minutes before your test to

settled.

How Do I Register?

Usually you will need to register at least four weeks

prior to the test date.

To register by mail, you must download and

complete the appropriate Praxis Registration Form.

Find all updated fees for your Praxis Core exams at

www.ets.org/praxis/about/fees.

At least one week before your test date, you will

receive a testing admission ticket by mail, which you

will need to bring for entrance into the test. If you do

not receive your ticket at least one week prior to your

test day or if you lose it, or if there is an error on your

ticket, contact ETS immediately.

You can also register online at www.ets.org/

praxis. To register online, you will need a valid e-mail

address, mailing address, and phone number. Order

confrmations and test admission tickets will be

e-mailed to your e-mail address—you will not be sent

a paper admission ticket by postal mail when you reg-

ister online. Print out the ticket provided for you

www.ets.org

www.ets.org/praxis/about/fees

www.ets.org/praxis/states

–ABOUT THE PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS TESTS–

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 8 9/7/17 2:04 PM

online. Online registration is available only to those

not needing special accommodations such as consid-

erations for disabilities or Monday testing.

If you have previously created a Praxis account

online, you can register by phone with a credit card.

There will be a nonrefundable $35 surcharge for the

transaction, in addition to the standard registration

and test fees. To register by phone, call 800-772-9476,

8 A.M. to 7:45 P.M. (EST), Monday through Friday.

Emergency Registration Those trying to register for a desired test date after

the regular and late registration deadlines may still be

able to take the test on that date by using the emer-

gency registration service for an additional fee. This

service guarantees a seat at a test center. Emergency

registration is not available for individuals needing

special accommodations.

To Cancel or Reschedule Your Test If you are absent the day of the test or arrive too

late to take the test, you are not eligible for a refund.

You may cancel or reschedule a test by logging into

your Praxis account online or calling ETS at

1-800-772-9476.

You are eligible to receive a refund of 50% of

your test fees if the change is received by ETS at

least three days prior to the test date. Special service

fees are nonrefundable. Registration deadlines are

updated and posted on the website. Refunds are

mailed approximately four to six weeks after receipt

of your request. If you used a credit card to make a

payment, the refund will be credited to your credit

card account.

Special Arrangements

Special arrangements may be available for individuals

with documented disabilities or for test takers whose

primary language is not English (PLNE). Monday test

dates are available to those who cannot take the test

on a Saturday test date due to religious convictions or

military orders. These accommodations may vary

from state to state. You should contact the ETS long

before the test date to make inquiries.

Nonstandard Testing Accommodations

If you have a documented disability, you may be able

to receive nonstandard testing accommodations for

the tests. Among a list of accommodations, you may

qualify for

extended test time.

a test reader.

a separate location.

a Braille test.

someone to record your answers.

Online, you will fnd the Bulletin Supplement for Test

Takers with Disabilities or Health-Related Needs,

which contains contact information, registration pro-

cedures, and special registration forms.

If you are requesting accommodations, you

must register by mail. At least six weeks before the

registration date, send your completed requests for

testing accommodations to:

ETS Disability Services

P.O. Box 6054

Princeton, NJ 08541-6054

–ABOUT THE PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS TESTS–

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 9 9/7/17 2:04 PM

Where Do I Begin?

You have already taken the frst step by reading this

chapter and familiarizing yourself with the Praxis

Series of tests. Perhaps you have even started research-

ing to see which tests you need to take, when the tests

are offered, and where you would like to take them.

Now you should begin your study program: Start

with “The LearningExpress Test Preparation System”

(Chapter 2). This exclusive system gives you valuable

test-taking techniques and will help you devise a

study schedule that works best for you. If you stick

with your study plan and concentrate on improving

the areas in which you need help, you are sure to suc-

ceed. Good luck!

PRAXISCorePP_01_1-10.indd 10 9/7/17 2:04 PM

c h

a p

t e

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 11 9/7/17 2:04 PM

2 THE LEARNING- EXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM

CHAPTER SUMMARY The Praxis Series of tests can be challenging. A great deal of preparation is necessary for achieving top scores and advanc- ing your career. The LearningExpress Test Preparation System, developed by leading experts exclusively for LearningExpress, offers strategies for developing the discipline and attitude required for success.

Fact: Taking the Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators tests is not easy, and neither is getting ready for them. Your future career as a teacher depends on getting a passing score, but an assortment of pitfallscan keep you from doing your best. Here are some of the obstacles that can stand in the way of success: being unfamiliar with the exam format

being paralyzed by test anxiety

leaving your preparation to the last minute

not preparing at all!

not knowing vital test-taking skills: how to pace yourself through the exams, how to use the process of

elimination, and when to guess

not being in tip-top mental and physical shape

messing up on test day by arriving late at the test site, having to work on an empty stomach, or feeling

uncomfortable during the exams because the room is too hot or cold

What’s the common denominator in all these test-taking pitfalls? One word: control. Who’s in control, you or

the exam?

1212

–THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM–

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 12 9/7/17 2:04 PM

Here’s some good news: The LearningExpress

Test Preparation System puts you in control. In nine

easy-to-follow steps, you will learn everything you

need to know to make sure that you are in charge of

your preparation and your performance on the

exams. Other test takers may let the tests get the bet-

ter of them; other test takers may be unprepared or

out of shape, but not you. You will have taken all the

steps you need to take to get a high score on the Praxis

Core Academic Skills for Educators tests.

How It Works

Nine easy steps lead you through everything you need

to know and do to get ready to master your exams.

Each of the following steps includes both reading

about the step and one or more activities. It’s impor-

tant that you do the activities along with the reading,

or you won’t be getting the full beneft of the system.

Step 1: Get Information 50 minutes

Step 2: Conquer Test Anxiety 20 minutes

Step 3: Make a Plan 30 minutes

Step 4: Learn to Manage Your Time 10 minutes

Step 5: Learn to Use the Process of

Elimination 20 minutes

Step 6: Know When to Guess 20 minutes

Step 7: Reach Your Peak Perfor-

mance Zone 10 minutes

Step 8: Get Your Act Together 10 minutes

Step 9: Do It! 10 minutes

Total 3 hours

We estimate that working through the entire

system will take you approximately three hours,

although it’s perfectly okay if you work faster or

slower. If you set aside an afternoon or evening, you

can work through the whole LearningExpress Test

Preparation System in one sitting. Otherwise, you can

break it up, and do just one or two steps a day for the

next several days. It’s up to you—remember, you are

in control.

Step 1: Get Information

Time to complete: 50 minutes

Activity: Read Chapter 1, “About the Praxis® Core

Academic Skills for Educators Tests.”

Knowledge is power. The frst step in the Learning-

Express Test Preparation System is fnding out every-

thing you can about the Praxis Core tests. Once you

have your information, the next steps in the Learning-

Express Test Preparation System will show you what

to do about it.

Part A: Straight Talk about the Praxis Core Tests Why do you have to take rigorous exams, anyway? It’s

simply an attempt to be sure you have the knowledge

and skills necessary to be a teacher.

It’s important for you to remember that your

scores on the Praxis tests do not determine how smart

you are, or even whether you will make a good

teacher. There are all kinds of things exams like these

can’t test, such as whether you have the drive, deter-

mination, and dedication to be a teacher. Those kinds

of traits are hard to evaluate, whereas a test is easy to

evaluate.

This is not to say that the exams are not impor-

tant! The knowledge tested on the exams is knowl-

edge you will need to do your job. And your ability to

enter the profession you’ve trained for depends on

passing. And that’s why you are here—using the

LearningExpress Test Preparation System to achieve

control over the exams.

Part B: What’s on the Tests If you haven’t already done so, stop here and read

Chapter 1, which gives you an overview of the Praxis

Core series of tests. Then, go online and read the

1313

–THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM–

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 13 9/7/17 2:04 PM

most up-to-date information about your exam

directly from the test developers at www.ets.org/

praxis.

Step 2: Conquer Test Anxiety

Time to complete: 20 minutes

Activity: Take the “Test Anxiety Test.”

Having complete information about the exams is the

frst step in getting control over them. Next, you have

to overcome one of the biggest obstacles to test suc-

cess: test anxiety. Test anxiety not only impairs your

performance on the exams, but also keeps you from

preparing. In Step 2, you will learn stress manage-

ment techniques that will help you succeed. Learn

these strategies now, and practice them as you work

through the exams so that they will be second nature

to you by exam day.

Combating Test Anxiety The frst thing you need to know is that a little test

anxiety is a good thing. Everyone gets nervous before

a big exam—and if that nervousness motivates you to

prepare thoroughly, so much the better. It’s said that

Sir Laurence Olivier, one of the foremost British

actors of the twentieth century, felt ill before every

performance. His stage fright didn’t impair his per-

formance; in fact, it probably gave him a little extra

edge—just the kind of edge you need to do well,

whether on a stage or on an examination.

The Test Anxiety Test follows on page 14. Stop

and answer the questions to fnd out whether your

level of test anxiety is something you should worry

about.

Stress Management Before a Test If you feel your level of anxiety getting the best of you

in the weeks before a test, here is what you need to do

to bring the level down again:

Get prepared. There’s nothing like knowing what

to expect and being prepared for it to put you in

control of test anxiety. That’s why you are reading

this book. Use it faithfully, and remind yourself

that you are better prepared than most of the

other people taking the test.

Practice self-confdence. A positive attitude is a

great way to combat test anxiety. This is no time

to be humble or shy. Stand in front of the mirror

and say to your refection, “I am prepared. I am

full of self-confdence. I am going to ace this test.

I know I can do it.” Record it and play it back

once a day. If you hear it often enough, you will

believe it.

Fight negative messages. Every time someone

starts telling you how hard the exam is or how it’s

almost impossible to get a high score, tune the

person out or ask him or her to not speak nega-

tively around you. Don’t listen to the negative

messages. Turn on your recorder and listen to

your self-confdence messages.

Visualize. Imagine yourself reporting for duty on

your frst day as a teacher or in your teacher

training program. Visualizing success can help

make it happen—and it reminds you of why you

are doing all this work preparing for the exam.

Exercise. Physical activity helps calm your body

down and focus your mind. Besides, being in

good physical shape can actually help you do well

on the exam. Go for a run, lift weights, go swim-

ming—and do it regularly.

Stress Management on Test Day There are several ways you can bring down your level

of anxiety on test day. They will work best if you

practice them in the weeks before the test so that you

know which ones work best for you.

Practice deep breathing. Take a deep breath

while you count to fve. Hold it for a count of

one, then let it out on a count of fve. Repeat sev-

eral times.

http://www.ets.org/praxis

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 14 9/7/17 2:04 PM

TEST ANXIETY TEST

You need to worry about test anxiety only if it is extreme enough to impair your performance. The follow- ing questionnaire will provide a diagnosis of your level of test anxiety. In the blank before each statement, write the number that most accurately describes your experience.

0 = Never 1 = Once or twice 2 = Sometimes 3 = Often

I have gotten so nervous before an exam that I simply put down the books and didn’t study for it. I have experienced disabling physical symptoms such as vomiting and sever e headaches because I was nervous about an exam. I have simply not shown up for an exam because I was afraid to take it. I have experienced dizziness and disorientation while taking an exam. I have had trouble filling in the little circles because my hands were shaking too hard. I have failed an exam because I was too nervous to complete it. Total: Add up the numbers in the blanks.

Your Test Anxiety Score Here are the steps you should take, depending on your score. If you scored:

Below 3, your level of test anxiety is nothing to worry about; it’s probably just enough to give you that little extra edge.

Between 3 and 6, your test anxiety may be enough to impair your performance, and you should practice the stress management techniques in this section to try to bring your test anxiety down to manageable levels.

Above 6, your level of test anxiety is a serious concern. In addition to practicing the stress management techniques listed in this section, you may want to seek additional, personal help. Call your local high school or community college and ask for the academic counselor. Tell the counselor that you have a level of test anxiety that sometimes keeps you from being able to take an exam. The counselor may be willing to help you or may suggest someone else you should talk to.

1414

1515

–THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM–

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 15 9/7/17 2:04 PM

Move your body. Try rolling your head in a circle.

Rotate your shoulders. Shake your hands from

the wrist. Many people fnd these movements

very relaxing.

Visualize again. Think of the place where you are

most relaxed: lying on the beach in the sun, walk-

ing through the park, or wherever. Now close

your eyes and imagine you are actually there. If

you practice in advance, you will fnd that you

only need a few seconds of this exercise to experi-

ence a signifcant increase in your sense of

well-being.

When anxiety threatens to overwhelm you right

there during the exam, there are still things you can

do to manage your stress level:

Repeat your self-confdence messages. You

should have them memorized by now. Say them

quietly to yourself, and believe them!

Visualize one more time. This time, visualize

yourself moving smoothly and quickly through

the test, answering every question right and fn-

ishing just before time is up. Like most visualiza-

tion techniques, this one works best if you have

practiced it ahead of time.

Find an easy question. Find an easy question,

and answer it. Getting even one question fnished

gets you into the test-taking groove.

Take a mental break. Everyone loses concentra-

tion once in a while during a long test. It’s nor-

mal, so you shouldn’t worry about it. Instead,

accept what has happened. Say to yourself, “Hey, I

lost it there for a minute. My brain is taking a

break.” Put down your pencil, close your eyes, and

do some deep breathing for a few seconds. Then

you are ready to go back to work.

Try these techniques ahead of time, and see

whether they work for you!

Step 3: Make a Plan

Time to complete: 30 minutes

Activity: Construct a study plan.

Maybe the most important thing you can do to get

control of yourself and your exams is to make a study

plan. Too many people fail to prepare simply because

they fail to plan. Spending hours on the day before

the exam poring over sample test questions not only

raises your level of test anxiety, but also is simply no

substitute for careful preparation and practice over

time.

Don’t fall into the cram trap. Take control of

your preparation time by mapping out a study

schedule.

Even more important than making a plan is

making a commitment. You have to set aside some

time every day for study and practice. Try for at least

20 minutes a day. Twenty minutes daily will do you

much more good than two hours on Saturday.

Don’t put off your study until the day before the

exam. Start now. A few minutes a day, with half an

hour or more on weekends, can make a big difference

in your score.

Step 4: Learn to Manage Your Time

Time to complete: 10 minutes to read, many hours

of practice!

Activity: Practice these strategies as you take the

sample tests in this book.

Steps 4, 5, and 6 of the LearningExpress Test Prepara-

tion System put you in charge of your exams by

showing you test-taking strategies that work. Practice

these strategies as you take the sample tests, and then

you will be ready to use them on test day.

1616

–THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM–

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 16 9/7/17 2:04 PM

First, take control of your time on the exams.

It’s a terrible feeling to know there are only fve min-

utes left when you are only three-quarters of the way

through a test. Here are some tips to keep that from

happening to you:

Follow directions. You should take your time

making your way through the computer tutorial

before the exam. Read the directions carefully and

ask questions before the exam begins if there’s

anything you don’t understand.

Pace yourself. If there is a timer on the screen as

you take the exam, keep an eye on it. This will

help you pace yourself. For example, when one-

quarter of the time has elapsed, you should be a

quarter of the way through the test, and so on. If

you are falling behind, pick up the pace a bit.

Keep moving. Don’t waste time on one question.

If you don’t know the answer, skip the question

and move on. You can always go back to it later.

Don’t rush. Although you should keep moving,

rushing won’t help. Try to keep calm and work

methodically and quickly.

Step 5: Learn to Use the Process of Elimination

Time to complete: 20 minutes

Activity: Complete the “Using the Process of Elimi-

nation” worksheet.

After time management, your next most important

tool for taking control of your exam is using the pro-

cess of elimination wisely. It’s standard test-taking

wisdom that you should always read all the answer

choices before choosing your answer. This helps you

fnd the right answer by eliminating wrong answer

choices. And, sure enough, that standard wisdom

applies to your exam, too.

You should always use the process of elimina-

tion on tough questions, even if the right answer

jumps out at you. Sometimes the answer that jumps

out isn’t right after all. You should always proceed

through the answer choices in order. You can start

with answer choice a, and eliminate any choices that

are clearly incorrect.

Even when you think you are absolutely clueless

about a question, you can often use the process of

elimination to get rid of one answer choice. If so, you

are better prepared to make an educated guess, as you

will see in Step 6. More often, the process of elimina-

tion allows you to get down to only two possibly right

answers. Then you are in a strong position to guess.

And sometimes, even though you don’t know the

right answer, you fnd it simply by getting rid of the

wrong ones.

Try using your powers of elimination on the

questions in the worksheet “Using the Process of

Elimination.” The questions aren’t about teaching;

they’re just designed to show you how the process of

elimination works. The answer explanations for this

worksheet show one possible way that you might use

the process to arrive at the right answer.

The process of elimination is your tool for the

next step, which is knowing when to guess.

Step 6: Know When to Guess

Time to complete: 20 minutes

Activity: Complete the “Your Guessing Ability”

worksheet.

Armed with the process of elimination, you are ready

to take control of one of the big questions in test tak-

ing: Should I guess? The answer is: Yes. Some exams

have what’s called a “guessing penalty,” in which a

fraction of your wrong answers is subtracted from

your right answers—the Praxis Series of tests does

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 17 9/7/17 2:04 PM

USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION

Use the process of elimination to answer the following questions.

1. Ilsa is as old as Meghan will be in fve years. The difference between Ed’s age and Meghan’s age is twice the difference between Ilsa’s age and Meghan’s age. Ed is 29. How old is Ilsa? a. b. c. d.

4 10 19 24

2. “All drivers of commercial vehicles must carry a valid commercial driver’s license whenever operating a commercial vehicle.”

According to this sentence, which of the following people need NOT carry a commercial driver’s license? a. a truck driver idling his engine while waiting

to be directed to a loading dock b. a bus operator backing her bus out of the

way of another bus in the bus lot c. a taxi driver driving his personal car to the

grocery store d. a limousine driver taking the limousine to

her home after dropping off her last passenger of the evening

3. Smoking tobacco has been linked to a. increased risk of stroke and heart attack. b. all forms of respiratory disease. c. increasing mortality rates over the past 10

years. d. juvenile delinquency.

4. Which of the following words is spelled correctly? a. incorrigible b. outragous c. domestickated d. understandible

Answers Here are the answers, as well as some suggestions as to how you might have used the process of elimination to fnd them.

1. d. You should have eliminated choice a right off the bat. Ilsa can’t be four years old if Meghan is going to be Ilsa’s age in fve years. The best way to eliminate other answer choices is to try plugging them in to the information given in the problem. For instance, for choice b, if Ilsa is 10, then Meghan must be 5. The difference between their ages is 5. The difference between Ed’s age, 29, and Meghan’s age, 5, is 24. Is 24 two times 5? No. Then choice b is wrong. You could eliminate

choice c in the same way and be left with choice d.

2. c. Note the word not in the question, and go through the answers one by one. Is the truck driver in choice a “operating a commercial vehicle”? Yes, idling counts as “operating,” so he needs to have a commercial driver’s license. Likewise, the bus operator in choice b is operating a commercial vehicle; the ques- tion doesn’t say the operator has to be on the street. The limo driver in choice d is operating

(continues)

1717

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 18 9/7/17 2:04 PM

USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION (continued)

a commercial vehicle, even though it doesn’t have a passenger in it. However, the driver in choice c is not operating a commercial vehi- cle, but his own private car.

3. a. You could eliminate choice b simply because of the presence of the word all. Such abso- lutes hardly ever appear in correct answer choices. Choice c looks attractive until you think a little about what you know—aren’t fewer people smoking these days, rather than more? So how could smoking be responsible for a higher mortality rate? (If you didn’t know that mortality rate means

the rate at which people die, you might keep this choice as a possibility, but you would still be able to eliminate two answers and have only two to choose from.) And choice d is plain silly, so you could eliminate that one, too. You are left with the correct choice, a.

4. a. How you used the process of elimination here depends on which words you recognized as being spelled incorrectly. If you knew that the correct spellings were outrageous, domesti- cated, and understandable, then you were home free.

YOUR GUESSING ABILITY

The following are ten really hard questions. You are not supposed to know the answers. Rather, this is an assessment of your ability to guess when you don’t have a clue. Read each question carefully, as if you were expected to answer it. If you have any knowledge of the subject, use that knowledge to help you eliminate wrong answer choices.

1. September 7 is Independence Day in a. India. b. Costa Rica. c. Brazil. d. Australia.

2. Which of the following is the formula for determining the momentum of an object? a. p = MV b. F = ma c. P = IV d. E = mc2

3. Because of the expansion of the universe, the stars and other celestial bodies are all moving away from each other. This phenomenon is known as a. Newton’s frst law. b. the big bang. c. gravitational collapse. d. Hubble fow.

4. American author Gertrude Stein was born in a. b. c. d.

1713. 1830. 1874. 1901.

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Classics attributed to Confucius? a. I Ching b. Book of Holiness c. Spring and Autumn Annals d. Book of History

6. The religious and philosophical doctrine that holds that the universe is constantly in a struggle between good and evil is known as a. Pelagianism. b. Manichaeanism. c. neo-Hegelianism. d. Epicureanism.

1818

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 19 9/7/17 2:04 PM

YOUR GUESSING ABILITY (continued)

7. The third chief justice of the U.S. Supreme Court was a. John Blair. b. William Cushing. c. James Wilson. d. John Jay.

8. Which of the following is the poisonous portion of a daffodil? a. the bulb b. the leaves c. the stem d. the fowers

9. The winner of the Masters golf tournament in 1953 was a. Sam Snead. b. Cary Middlecoff. c. Arnold Palmer. d. Ben Hogan.

10. The state with the highest per capita personal income in 1980 was a. Alaska. b. Connecticut. c. New York. d. Texas.

Answers Check your answers against the following correct answers.

1. c 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. d

10. a

How Did You Do? You may have simply gotten lucky and actually known the answer to one or two questions. In addition, your guessing was probably more successful if you were able to use the process of elimination on any of the questions. Maybe you didn’t know who the third chief justice was (question 7), but you knew that John Jay was the frst. In that case, you would have eliminated choice d and, therefore, improved your odds of guessing right from one in four to one in three.

According to probability, you should get two- and-a-half answers correct, so getting either two or three right would be average. If you got four or more right, you may be a really terrifc guesser. If you got one or none right, you may be a really bad guesser.

Keep in mind, though, that this is only a small sample. You should continue to keep track of your guessing ability as you work through the sample questions in this book. Circle the numbers of ques- tions you guess on as you make your guess; or, if you don’t have time while you take the practice tests, go back afterward and try to remember which questions you guessed at. Remember, on a test with fve answer choices, your chance of guessing correctly is one in fve. So keep a separate “guessing” score for each exam. How many questions did you guess on? How many did you get right? If the number you got right is at least one-ffth of the number of questions you guessed on, you are at least an average guesser— maybe better—and you should always go ahead and guess on the real exam. If the number you got right is signifcantly lower than one-ffth of the number you guessed on, you would be safe in guessing anyway, but maybe you would feel more comfortable if you guessed only selectively, when you can eliminate a wrong answer or at least have a good feeling about one of the answer choices.

Remember, even if you are a play-it-safe person with lousy intuition, you are still safe guessing every time.

1919

–THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM–

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 20 9/7/17 2:04 PM

NOT work like that. The number of questions you

answer correctly yields your raw score. So you have

nothing to lose and everything to gain by guessing.

Step 7: Reach Your Peak Performance Zone

Time to complete: 10 minutes to read; weeks to

complete!

Activity: Complete a physical preparation

checklist.

To get ready for a challenge like a big exam, you have

to take control of your physical, as well as your men-

tal, state. Exercise, proper diet, and rest will ensure

that your body works with, rather than against, your

mind on test day, as well as during your preparation.

Exercise If you don’t already have a regular exercise program

going, the time during which you are preparing for

an exam is actually an excellent time to start one.

And if you are already keeping ft—or trying to get

that way—don’t let the pressure of preparing for an

exam fool you into quitting now. Exercise helps

reduce stress by pumping wonderful good-feeling

hormones called endorphins into your system. It also

increases the oxygen supply throughout your body,

including your brain, so you will be at peak perfor-

mance on test day.

A half hour of vigorous activity—enough to

raise a sweat—every day should be your aim. If you

are really pressed for time, every other day is okay.

Choose an activity you like and get out there and do

it. Jogging with a friend always makes the time go

faster, or take a radio.

But don’t overdo it. You don’t want to exhaust

yourself. Moderation is the key.

Diet First of all, cut out the junk. Go easy on caffeine and

nicotine, and eliminate alcohol and any other drugs

from your system at least two weeks before the exam.

Promise yourself a treat the night after the exam, if

need be.

What your body needs for peak performance is

simply a balanced diet. Eat plenty of fruits and vege-

tables, along with protein and carbohydrates. Foods

that are high in lecithin (an amino acid), such as fsh

and beans, are especially good “brain foods.”

The night before the exam, you might carbo-

load the way athletes do before a contest. Eat a big

plate of spaghetti, rice and beans, or whatever your

favorite carbohydrate is.

Rest You probably know how much sleep you need every

night to be at your best, even if you don’t always get

it. Make sure you do get that much sleep, though,

for at least a week before the exam. Moderation is

important here, too. Extra sleep will just make you

groggy.

If you are not a morning person, and your exam

will be given in the morning, you should reset your

internal clock so that your body doesn’t think you are

taking an exam at 3 A.M. You have to start this process well before the exam. The way it works is to get up

half an hour earlier each morning, and then go to bed

half an hour earlier that night. Don’t try it the other

way around; you will just toss and turn if you go to

bed early without having gotten up early. The next

morning, get up another half an hour earlier, and so

on. How long you will have to do this depends on

how late you are used to getting up.

2020

2121

–THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM–

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 21 9/7/17 2:04 PM

Step 8: Get Your Act Together

Time to complete: 10 minutes to read; time to

complete will vary

Activity: Complete the “Final Preparations”

worksheet.

You are in control of your mind and body, which

means you are in charge of test anxiety, your prepara-

tion, and your test-taking strategies. Now it’s time to

take charge of external factors, like the testing site and

the materials you need to take to the exam.

Find Out Where the Exam or Exams Are, and Make a Trial Run Do you know how to get to the testing site? Do you

know how long it will take to get there? If not, make a

trial run, preferably on the same day of the week at

the same time of day as you will be taking your test.

Note, on the Final Preparations worksheet on the

next page, the amount of time it will take you to get

to the exam site. Plan on arriving 30 to 45 minutes

early so you can get the lay of the land, use the bath-

room, and calm down. Then fgure out how early you

will have to get up that morning, and make sure you

get up that early every day for a week before the exam.

Gather Your Materials The night before the exams, lay out the clothes you

will wear and the materials you have to bring with

you to the exam. Plan on dressing in layers; you won’t

have any control over the temperature of the exami-

nation room. Have a sweater or jacket that you can

take off if it’s warm. Use the checklist on the Final

Preparations worksheet to help you pull together

what you will need.

Don’t Skip Breakfast Even if you don’t usually eat breakfast, do so on exam

morning. A cup of coffee doesn’t count. Don’t eat

doughnuts or other sweet foods, either. A sugar high

will leave you with a sugar low in the middle of the

exam. A mix of protein and carbohydrates is best:

Cereal with milk and just a little sugar, or eggs with

toast, will do your body a world of good.

Step 9: Do It!

Time to complete: 10 minutes, plus test-taking time

Activity: Ace the Praxis Core tests!

Fast-forward to exam day. You are ready. You made a

study plan and followed through. You practiced your

test-taking strategies. You are in control of your phys-

ical, mental, and emotional state. You know when and

where to show up and what to bring with you. In

other words, you are better prepared than most of the

other people taking the exam. You are psyched.

Just one more thing. When you are fnished

with the exam, you will have earned a reward. Plan a

celebration. Call up your friends and plan a party, or

have a nice dinner for two—whatever your heart

desires. Give yourself something to look forward to.

And then do it. Go into the exams full of conf-

dence and armed with test-taking strategies you have

practiced until they’re second nature. You are in con-

trol of yourself, your environment, and your perfor-

mance on the exam. You are ready to succeed. So do

it. Go in there and ace the exam. And look forward to

your future career as a teacher!

PRAXISCorePP_02_11-22.indd 22 9/7/17 2:04 PM

_________________________________________________________________________________________________

FINAL PREPARATIONS

Getting to the Exam Site

Location of the exam site: _________________________________________________________________________

Date: ___________________________________________________________________________________________

Departure time: __________________________________________________________________________________

Do I know how to get to the exam site? Yes No

If no, make a trial run.

Time it will take to get to the exam site: _____________________________________________________________

Things to Lay Out the Night Before

Clothes I will wear

Sweater/jacket

Watch

Photo ID

Other Things to Bring/Remember

2222

c h

a p

t e

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 23 9/7/17 2:07 PM

3 PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1

CHAPTER SUMMARY This is the first of the four full-length Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators tests based on the structure and difficulty level of the Reading, Writing, and Mathematics tests. Use these tests to see how you would do if you were to take the Praxis Core tests today.

This chapter contains three tests that mirror the Reading, Writing, and Mathematics Core exams. Although the actual tests you will take are computer-based, the question types for each exam are rep-licated here for you in the book. As you take these frst tests, do not worry too much about timing. The actual time you will be allotted for

each exam is at the beginning of each test, but you should take these practice tests in as relaxed a manner as you

can to fnd out which areas you are skilled in and in which ones you will need to do extra work.

After you fnish taking your tests, you should review the answer explanations. (Each individual test is fol-

lowed by its own answer explanations.) See A Note on Scoring on page 375 to fnd information on how to score

your exam.

Good luck!

To access online PRAXIS Core practice that provides instant scoring and feedback: • Navigate to your LearningExpress platform and make sure you’re logged in. • Search for the following subtests, select one, and then click “Start Test.” • Praxis Core: Reading Practice Test 1 • Praxis Core: Mathematics Practice Test 1 • Praxis Core: Writing Practice Test 1

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 24 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Reading Practice Test 1

Time: 85 Minutes

Directions: Read the following passages and answer

the questions that follow.

Use the following passage to answer questions 1 and 2.

Of the numerous American automotive pio-

neers, perhaps among the best known are

Charles and Frank Duryea. Beginning their

work of automobile building in Springfeld,

5 Massachusetts, and, after much rebuilding, they

constructed their frst successful vehicle in 1892

and 1893. No sooner was this fnished than

Frank, working alone, began work on a second

vehicle having a two-cylinder engine. With this

10 automobile, suffcient capital was attracted in

1895 to form the Duryea Motor Wagon Com-

pany in which both brothers were among the

stockholders and directors. A short time after

the formation of the company, this second

15 automobile was entered by the company in the

Chicago Times-Herald automobile race on

Thanksgiving Day, November 28, 1895, where

Frank Duryea won a victory over the other fve

contestants—two electric automobiles and

20 three Benz machines imported from Germany.

Source: Excerpt from The 1893 Duryea Automo-

bile by Don H. Berkebile.

1. Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

a. There were many automotive pioneers in

America, but the best known were the

brothers Charles and Frank Duryea, who

began building automobiles in Springfeld,

Massachusetts.

b. Charles and Frank Duryea were among the

best-known American automotive pioneers,

but Frank was more famous than his brother

Charles because Frank won the Chicago

Times-Herald automobile race.

c. On Thanksgiving Day, November 28, 1895,

Frank Duryea won the Chicago Times-Herald

automobile race over fve other contestants:

two electric automobiles and three Benz

machines from Germany.

d. Charles and Frank Duryea were pioneering

automobile builders, and Frank developed a

proftable two-cylinder engine vehicle with

which he won the Chicago Times-Herald

automobile race.

e. Although Frank Duryea developed a two-

cylinder engine vehicle, both he and his

brother Charles profted from it because it

earned them the capital to start the Duryea

Motor Wagon Company.

2. In the passage, the author describes the kinds of cars Frank Duryea defeated in the Chicago

Times-Herald automobile race in order to

a. show that the best automobiles in the world

are built in Springfeld, Massachusetts.

b. imply that he would later develop an electric

car for the Duryea Motor Wagon Company.

c. indicate that the quality of automobiles

being developed in Europe was very poor at

the time.

d. suggest that the kind of car he drove is what

helped him win the race.

e. help the reader understand the differences

between two-cylinder vehicles and electric

automobiles.

2424

2525

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 25 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage to answer questions 3 through

It is not always easy to identify a stone, even

with a fresh surface; in a weathered specimen it

is often impossible. For this reason the material

of which a specimen is made may not be cor-

5 rectly named; frequently the alteration due to

exposure will change the appearance of a rock

very much, and in such a case the best that can

be done is to tell what it looks most like. The

material of a majority of specimens, however, or

10 at least the classes of rock to which they belong,

as granite, porphyry, etc., are correctly named;

to give a more exact name would be possible

only by the destruction or injury of the

specimen.

Source: Excerpt from Stone Art by Gerard Fowke

3. The author’s ideas could best be reinforced with illustrations of rocks

a. in different stages of weathering.

b. in the granite and porphyry classes.

c. procured from the bottom of the ocean.

d. that have been completely destroyed.

e. commonly found in most areas of the

United States.

4. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

a. “The Names of Various Rocks”

b. “Why Granite Is Called Granite”

c. “The Classes of Rocks”

d. “Why Rocks Must Be Destroyed”

e. “The Diffculties of Identifying Rocks”

5. What is the best defnition for the word fresh as it is used in line 2 of the passage?

a. novel

b. unmarked

c. bright

d. clean

e. airy

Use the following passage to answer question 6.

The Pennsylvania Dutch are a hard working

people and as they say, “Them that works hard,

eats hearty.” The blending of recipes from their

many home lands and the ingredients available

5 in their new land produced tasty dishes that

have been handed down from mother to

daughter for generations.

Source: Excerpt from Pennsylvania Dutch

Cooking

6. The author of this passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

a. The Pennsylvania Dutch people work harder

than any other group of people in America.

b. One of the distinguishing characteristics of

the Pennsylvania Dutch people is their

excellent cuisine.

c. The Pennsylvania Dutch people are known

throughout the world for their colorful and

amusing sayings.

d. No group of people blends recipes as well as

the Pennsylvania Dutch people do.

e. If fathers and sons in Pennsylvania Dutch

families made food, it would not be as good

as the food mothers and daughters make.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 26 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage pair to answer questions 7

through 10.

Passage 1

The variety of species among the jumping

spiders appears almost infnite. The genus, or

rather family of Epeira, is here characterized

by many singular forms; some species have

5 pointed coriaceous shells, others enlarged and

spiny tibiæ. Every path in the forest is barri-

caded with the strong yellow web of a species

belonging to the same division with the Epeira

clavipes of Fabricius, which was formerly said

10 by Sloane to make, in the West Indies, webs so

strong as to catch birds. A small and pretty kind

of spider, with very long forelegs, and which

appears to belong to an undescribed genus,

lives as a parasite on almost every one of these

15 webs. I suppose it is too insignifcant to be

noticed by the great Epeira, and is therefore

allowed to prey on the minute insects, which,

adhering to the lines, would otherwise be

wasted. When frightened, this little spider

20 either feigns death by extending its front legs,

or suddenly drops from the web.

Source: Excerpt from Some Wonderful Spiders

by Charles Darwin

Passage 2

There are, among spiders, two forms of protec-

tive modifcation: the frst, including all cases of

protective resemblance to vegetable and inor-

ganic things—that is, all modifcations of color

5 or of color and form that tend to make them

inconspicuous in their natural relations—I

shall call direct protection. The second form,

which I shall call indirect protection, includes

two classes, the spiders which are specially pro-

10 tected themselves and those which mimic other

creatures which are specially protected.

Spiders are specially protected when they

become inedible through the acquisition of

hard plates and sharp spines. The modifcation

15 of form is frequently accompanied by conspic-

uous colors, which warn their enemies that they

belong to an unpalatable class.

Source: Excerpt from Protective Resemblances in

Spiders by Elizabeth G. Pechham

7. Which of the following best describes the rela- tionship between Passage 1 and Passage 2?

a. Passage 1 makes an argument and Passage 2

contradicts it.

b. Passage 1 introduces an idea and Passage 2

expands on it.

c. Passage 1 introduces a diffcult concept and

Passage 2 explains it.

d. Passage 1 states facts and Passage 2 states

opinions.

e. Passage 1 makes a claim and Passage 2

supports that claim.

8. With which of the following statements about the undescribed genus of spider that lives in

the West Indies would the author of Passage 1

most likely agree?

a. It deserves to be named.

b. It is unimportant.

c. It is uniquely attractive.

d. It is an enemy of many animals.

e. It is cowardly.

2626

2727

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 27 9/7/17 2:07 PM

9. In what way is Passage 1 different from Passage 2?

a. Passage 1 describes the behaviors of several

animals.

b. Passage 1 uses scientifc research to support

its conclusions.

c. Passage 1 is written from a frst-person

perspective.

d. Passage 1 includes personal opinions.

e. Passage 1 describes how spiders use their

bodies to protect themselves.

10. The primary concern of Passage 2 is a. establishing a defnition of the term

protective modifcation.

b. describing how the colors of their bodies

help to protect spiders.

c. identifying why certain spiders have sharp

spines on their bodies.

d. providing details about the Epeira clavipes

of Fabricius.

e. explaining the two main ways spiders use

their bodies to protect themselves.

Use the following passage to answer questions 11 and

12.

Frederick Douglass lived so long, and played so

conspicuous a part on the world’s stage, that it

would be impossible, in a work of the size of

this, to do more than touch upon the salient

5 features of his career, to suggest the respects in

which he infuenced the course of events in his

lifetime, and to epitomize for the readers of

another generation the judgment of his con-

temporaries as to his genius and his character.

10 Douglass’s fame as an orator has long been

secure. His position as the champion of an

oppressed race, and at the same time an exam-

ple of its possibilities, was, in his own genera-

tion, as picturesque as it was unique; and his

15 life may serve for all time as an incentive to

aspiring souls who would fght the battles and

win the love of mankind.

Source: Frederick Douglass by Charles Chestnutt

11. The passage suggests that Frederick Douglass a. was most concerned with being loved by

other people.

b. mostly infuenced matters in his hometown.

c. had a uniquely engaging personality.

d. has been the topic of many long history

books.

e. was mostly famous for being a great speaker.

12. In the passage, the word salient most nearly means

a. outstanding.

b. factual.

c. silent.

d. minor.

e. proven.

Use the following passage to answer questions 13

through 15.

The account of this second journey of the Polos

may be read in the wonderful book which

Marco afterwards wrote to describe the won-

ders of the world. They went from Lajazzo

5 through Turcomania, past Mount Ararat, where

Marco heard tell that Noah’s ark rested, and

where he frst heard also of the oil wells of Baku

and the great inland sea of Caspian. Past Mosul

and Bagdad they went, through Persia, where

10 brocades are woven and merchants bring cara-

van after caravan of treasures, to Hormuz, on

the Persian Gulf, into which port put the ships

from India, laden with spices, drugs, scented

woods, and jewels, gold tissues and elephants’

15 teeth. Here they meant to take ship, but they

desisted, perhaps because they feared to trust

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 28 9/7/17 2:07 PM

themselves to the fimsy nailless vessels in

which the Arabs braved the dangers of the

Indian Ocean. So they turned north again and

20 prepared to make the journey by land. They

traversed the salt desert of Kerman, through

Balk and Khorassan to Badakhshan, where

there are horses bred from Alexander the

Great’s steed Bucephalus, and ruby mines and

25 lapis lazuli. It is a land of beautiful mountains

and wide plains, of trout streams and good

hunting, and here the brothers sojourned for

nearly a year, for young Marco had fallen ill in

the hot plains: a breath of mountain air blows

30 through the page in which he describes how

amid the clean winds his health came back

to him.

Source: Excerpt from A Short History of the

World by H.G. Wells

13. The passage suggests that Marco Polo was a. generally easy to convince of fantastical

things.

b. a man who possessed multiple extraordinary

skills.

c. a coward compared to Arabian sailors.

d. homesick much of his life.

e. often in poor health because of his

exhausting lifestyle.

14. The passage is primarily concerned with a. the written work of Marco Polo.

b. Marco Polo’s experiences in Turcomania.

c. the landscape of Badakhshan.

d. the travels of Marco Polo.

e. the people with whom Marco Polo traveled.

15. In line 1, the word account most nearly means a. report.

b. balance.

c. judgment.

d. credit.

e. reason.

Use the following passage pair to answer questions 16

through 18.

Passage 1

American independence, the beginnings of

which we have just been considering, was

accomplished after a long struggle. Many brave

men fought on the battle-feld, and many who

5 never shouldered a musket or drew a sword

exerted a powerful infuence for the good of the

patriot cause. One of these men was Benjamin

Franklin.

He was born in Boston in 1706, the ff-

10 teenth child in a family of seventeen children.

His father was a candle-maker and soap-boiler.

Intending to make a clergyman of Benjamin, he

sent him, at eight years of age, to a grammar-

school, with the purpose of ftting him for col-

15 lege. The boy made rapid progress, but before

the end of his frst school-year his father took

him out on account of the expense, and put

him into a school where he would learn more

practical subjects, such as writing and arithme-

20 tic. The last study proved very diffcult for him.

Source: Excerpt from American Leaders and

Heroes: A Preliminary Text-Book in United

States History by Wilbur F. Gordy

Passage 2

At ten years old I was taken home to assist my

father in his business, which was that of a

tallow-chandler and sope-boiler; a business he

was not bred to, but had assumed on his arrival

5 in New England, and on fnding his dying trade

would not maintain his family, being in little

request. Accordingly, I was employed in cutting

wick for the candles, flling the dipping mold

and the molds for cast candles, attending the

10 shop, going of errands, etc.

I disliked the trade, and had a strong incli-

nation for the sea, but my father declared

2828

2929

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 29 9/7/17 2:07 PM

against it; however, living near the water, I was

much in and about it, learnt early to swim well,

15 and to manage boats; and when in a boat or

canoe with other boys, I was commonly allowed

to govern, especially in any case of diffculty;

and upon other occasions I was generally a

leader among the boys, and sometimes led

20 them into scrapes, of which I will mention one

instance, as it shows an early projecting public

spirit, tho’ not then justly conducted.

Source: Excerpt from Benjamin Franklin: His

Autobiography by Benjamin Franklin

16. Based on the information in Passage 2, one can conclude that Benjamin Franklin

a. wished he could follow in his father’s

footsteps.

b. never learned how to make candles.

c. tended to communicate informally.

d. preferred making candles to boiling soap.

e. was not well liked by the other boys.

17. Which of the following is a difference between Passage 1 and Passage 2?

a. Passage 1 is more humorous than Passage 2.

b. Passage 1 tells the story of one person’s life.

c. Passage 1 is about the life of an important

American.

d. Passage 1 is more specifc than Passage 2.

e. Passage 1 focuses more on a particular

period of time.

18. Which of the following best describes the rela- tionship between Passage 1 and Passage 2?

a. Passage 1 discusses a topic objectively and

Passage 2 discusses it personally.

b. Passage 1 presents a question and Passage 2

answers it.

c. Passage 1 describes a method and Passage 2

shows how it is put to use.

d. Passage 1 presents information that

contradicts Passage 2.

e. Passage 1 describes a specifc aspect of

Passage 2.

Use the following passage to answer questions 19

through 21.

The steamboat was, if anything, a little ahead of

the steam engine in its earlier phases. There was

a steamboat, the Charlotte Dundas, on the Firth

of Clyde Canal in 1802, and in 1807 an Ameri-

5 can named Fulton had a steamer, the Clermont,

with British-built engines, upon the Hudson

River above New York. The frst steamship to

put to sea was also an American, the Phœnix,

which went from New York (Hoboken) to Phil-

10 adelphia. So, too, was the frst ship using steam

(she also had sails) to cross the Atlantic, the

Savannah (1819). All these were paddle-wheel

boats and paddle-wheel boats are not adapted

to work in heavy seas. The paddles smash too

15 easily, and the boat is then disabled. The screw

steamship followed rather slowly. Many diff-

culties had to be surmounted before the screw

was a practicable thing.

Source: Excerpt from The Frontier in American

History by Frederick Jackson Turner

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 30 9/7/17 2:07 PM

A TIMELINE OF EARLY STEAMSHIP HISTORY 1807 The steamboat emerges as a practical form

of travel. 1811 The first steamboat travels the Mississippi

River. 1818 First steamboat service on the Mediter-

ranean Sea 1819 The first steamboat crosses the Atlantic

Ocean. 1838 First transatlantic steamboat service 1851 John Elder patents compound steam engine.

19. The main purpose of this passage is to a. compare the steamboat to the steam engine.

b. provide information about the early history

of the steamboat.

c. explain why Fulton was an important

American.

d. provide a list of important dates in

steamboat history.

e. describe the faws in the paddle-wheel boats.

20. Based on information in the passage and the timeline, which of the following is most likely

true?

a. The Charlotte Dundas was the frst

steamboat to travel on the Mississippi River.

b. The Phœnix was the frst steamboat to cross

the Atlantic Ocean in 1819.

c. The Savannah was the frst steamboat

service on the Mediterranean Sea.

d. The screw steamship was identical to the

compound steam engine.

e. The Clermont helped demonstrate that the

steamboat was a practical form of travel.

21. Which of the following could be a factor in the difference between the steamships described in

this passage and the steamships developed after

them?

a. The steamships developed after them could

not cross oceans.

b. The steamships developed after them were

the frst to use British-built engines.

c. The steamships developed after them were

made in America.

d. The steamships developed after them

probably did not have paddles.

e. The steamships developed after them were

paddle-wheel boats.

Use the following passage to answer questions 22 and

23.

The most ancient materials used for recording

events were bricks, tiles, shells, and tables of

stone. The modes of writing on these different

substances were various. The tiles and brick

5 were impressed with a stamp when in a soft

state; the shells and tablets of stone were etched

or graven, the fgures or characters being cut in

their surface, and in some cases also stained

with various colors. It was by the ancient art of

10 stamping that the walls, palaces, and towers of

Babylon were covered with hieroglyphics,

which have but recently been brought to light

from under the immense mounds of Mesopo-

tamia by Layard and other explorers.

Source: Excerpt from Gutenberg, and the Art of

Printing by Emily Clemens Pearson

3030

3131

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 31 9/7/17 2:07 PM

22. The last sentence in the passage provides a. an interesting yet incidental detail not

directly related to the rest of the passage.

b. details that contrast information already

provided in the passage.

c. a description of how a process briefy

introduced earlier in the passage was

performed.

d. a personal account of information described

objectively earlier in the passage.

e. an example of how techniques described in

the passage were used.

23. The passage suggests that after impressing a stamp on a brick, the brick

a. was dyed red.

b. lost its original shape.

c. was covered in hieroglyphics.

d. would harden.

e. was graven.

Use the following passage to answer questions 24 and

25.

A history of architecture is a record of man’s

efforts to build beautifully. The erection of

structures devoid of beauty is mere building,

a trade and not an art. Edifces in which

5 strength and stability alone are sought, and in

designing which only utilitarian considerations

have been followed, are properly works of engi-

neering. Only when the idea of beauty is added

to that of use does a structure take its place

10 among works of architecture. We may, then,

defne architecture as the art which seeks to

harmonize in a building the requirements of

utility and of beauty. It is the most useful of the

fne arts and the noblest of the useful arts.

Source: Excerpt from A Text-Book of the History

of Architecture by A.D.F. Hamlin

24. The fnal sentence of the passage makes which of the following errors in logic?

a. incomplete comparison

b. faulty generalization

c. circular reasoning

d. fallacy of composition

e. moral equivalence

25. In the passage, the author refers to works of engineering in order to

a. use them as examples of architecture.

b. describe the designs common in

architecture.

c. illustrate the different uses of architecture.

d. contrast them with architecture.

e. provide a defnition of the term architecture.

Use the following passage to answer question 26.

A man can live for three days without bread,

but no man can live for one day without poetry,

was an aphorism of Baudelaire. You can live

without pictures and music but you cannot live

5 without eating, says the author of Dinners and

Dishes; and this latter view is, no doubt, the

more popular.

Source: Excerpt from “Review of Dinners and

Dishes” by Oscar Wilde

26. Based only on the information in the passage, which of the following is a valid conclusion?

a. Most people would not agree with

Baudelaire’s aphorism quoted in the passage.

b. Dinners and Dishes is a more poetic piece of

writing than Baudelaire ever created.

c. The author of the passage thinks that poetry

is more important than pictures and music.

d. Dinners and Dishes is more concerned with

pictures and music than eating.

e. The author of the passage believes that there

is nothing poetic about pictures and music.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 32 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage to answer questions 27

through 29.

Wood exhibits its greatest strength in tension

parallel to the grain, and it is very uncommon

in practice for a specimen to be pulled in two

lengthwise. This is due to the diffculty of mak-

5 ing the end fastenings secure enough for the

full tensile strength to be brought into play

before the fastenings shear off longitudinally.

This is not the case with metals, and as a result

they are used in almost all places where tensile

10 strength is particularly needed, even though the

remainder of the structure, such as sills, beams,

joists, posts, and fooring, may be of wood.

Thus in a wooden truss bridge the tension

members are steel rods.

15 The tensile strength of wood parallel to

the grain depends upon the strength of the

fbres and is affected not only by the nature and

dimensions of the wood elements but also by

their arrangement. It is greatest in straight-

20 grained specimens with thick-walled fbres.

Cross grain of any kind materially reduces the

tensile strength of wood, since the tensile

strength at right angles to the grain is only a

small fraction of that parallel to the grain.

Source: Excerpt from The Mechanical Properties

of Wood by Samuel J. Record

RATIO OF STRENGTH OF WOOD IN TENSION AND IN COMPRESSION

(BUL. 10, U.S. DIV. OF FORESTRY, p. 44)

A stick 1 square inch

Kind of Wood

Ratio: R =

Tensile strength____________________ Compressive strength

in cross section. Weight required to—

Crush Pull apart endwise

Hickory 3.7 32,000 8,500 Elm 3.8 29,000 7,500 Larch 2.3 19,400 8,600 Longleaf 2.2 17,300 7,400 Pine NOTE.—Moisture condition not given.

27. According to the passage, all of the following probably lacked considerable tensile strength

EXCEPT

a. sills.

b. beams.

c. rods in a truss bridge.

d. joists.

e. fooring.

28. Based on information in the passage and the table, which of the following woods is most

likely to have cross grain?

a. hickory

b. elm

c. larch

d. balsa

e. longleaf pine

3232

3333

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 33 9/7/17 2:07 PM

29. Based on information in the passage and the table, which of the following is a factor that

may affect the tensile strength of wood that is

not indicated in the passage?

a. grain direction

b. fber strength

c. nature of the wood elements

d. moisture condition

e. dimensions of the wood elements

Use the following passage to answer question 30.

The humorous story is strictly a work of art—

high and delicate art—and only an artist can

tell it; but no art is necessary in telling the

comic and the witty story; anybody can do it.

The art of telling a humorous story—under-

stand, I mean by word of mouth, not print—

was created in America, and has remained at

home.

Source: Excerpt from “How to Tell a Story” by

Mark Twain

30. Which statement, if it were true, most signif- cantly weakens the argument in the passage?

a. Native American storytellers had been telling

humorous stories for hundreds of years.

b. The plays of Aristophanes are among the

earliest examples of humorous stories in

writing.

c. Mark Twain is widely regarded as one of the

wittiest writers in American literature.

d. The word art is most commonly applied to

visual arts such as painting, sculpture, and

drawing.

e. It is important to understand certain rules

before attempting to tell a comic story.

Use the following passage to answer questions 31

through 33.

Whenever we hear the name of Napoleon men-

tioned, or see it printed in a book, it is usually

in connection with a hard-fought victory on

the battlefeld. He certainly spent most of his

5 life in the camp, and enjoyed the society of sol-

diers more than that of courtiers. The thunder

of guns, the charge of cavalry, and the fash of

bayonets as they glittered in the sun, appealed

to him with much the same force as music to

10 more ordinary folk. . . .

We are apt to forget that this mighty con-

queror, whom Carlyle calls “our last great man,”

had a childhood at all. He was born nearly a

century and a half ago, on the 15th August 1769

15 to be exact, in the little town of Ajaccio, the

capital of picturesque Corsica.

Source: Excerpt from The Story of Napoleon

by Harold F.B. Wheeler

31. As it is used in the context of the sentence, which word best describes the meaning of

force (line 9)?

a. compel

b. intensity

c. shove

d. pry

e. weight

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 34 9/7/17 2:07 PM

32. Which conclusion can be reached from the passage?

a. The childhoods of people with intimidating

reputations are often ignored.

b. Nobody had ever considered Napoleon’s

childhood before this passage was written.

c. Nothing is known about Napoleon’s

childhood at all.

d. All details about Napoleon’s childhood are

based on speculation rather than concrete

fact.

e. Great conquerors never have noteworthy

childhoods.

33. According to the passage, which of the follow- ing did Napoleon most likely prefer?

a. leading soldiers on the battlefeld

b. listening to music

c. plotting a battle

d. camping on a battlefeld

e. visiting Corsica

Use the following passage to answer questions 34

through 38.

The color of animals is by no means a matter of

chance; it depends on many considerations, but

in the majority of cases tends to protect the ani-

mal from danger by rendering it less conspicu-

5 ous. Perhaps it may be said that if coloring is

mainly protective, there ought to be but few

brightly colored animals. There are, however,

not a few cases in which vivid colors are them-

selves protective. The kingfsher itself, though

10 so brightly colored, is by no means easy to see.

The blue harmonizes with the water, and the

bird as it darts along the stream looks almost

like a fash of sunlight; besides which, protec-

tion is not the only consideration. Let us now

15 consider the prevalent colors of animals and

see how far they support the rule.

Desert animals are generally the color of

the desert. Thus, for instance, the lion, the ante-

lope, and the wild ass are all sand-colored.

20 “Indeed,” says Canon Tristram, “in the desert,

where neither trees, brushwood, nor even

undulation of the surface afford the slightest

protection to its foes, a modifcation of color

which shall be assimilated to that of the sur-

25 rounding country is absolutely necessary.

Hence, without exception, the upper plumage

of every bird, whether lark, chat, sylvain, or

sand grouse, and also the fur of all the smaller

mammals and the skin of all the snakes and

30 lizards, is of one uniform sand color.”

Source: Excerpt from “The Colors of Animals”

by Sir John Lubbock

34. The author’s use of the word harmonizes in line 11 emphasizes

a. the sweet sound of the kingfsher’s song.

b. the musical sound of fowing water.

c. the appealing glimmer of sunlight.

d. how the kingfsher blends with its

environment.

e. how the sounds of a bird and water blend.

35. Which of the following alternate titles would be the most appropriate for this passage?

a. “Colors of the Desert”

b. “Camoufage in the Wild”

c. “The Plumage of Birds”

d. “Why Kingfshers Are Blue”

e. “The Vivid Colors of Animals”

36. In the frst sentence, conspicuous most closely means

a. hidden.

b. conspiratorial.

c. obvious.

d. conscious.

e. attractive.

3434

3535

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 35 9/7/17 2:07 PM

37. The author includes the quotation from Canon Tristram in order to

a. show that authorities agree with the author’s

opinions.

b. illustrate an idea that the author could not

have explained himself.

c. support an argument that is not very

popular.

d. prove that birds are unique creatures.

e. develop upon an idea the author had already

introduced.

38. Based on the information in the passage, desert animals might not need to be the color of sand

if the desert

a. did not have so many trees.

b. had more colorful sand.

c. was cooler.

d. experienced more surface changes.

e. had fewer animals.

Use the following passage to answer questions 39 and

40.

Although very much yet remains to be learned

about this old earth, it is a remarkable fact that

man, through the exercise of his highest faculty,

has come to know so much concerning it.

5 The following words, by the late Professor

Barrell, admirably summarize the signifcance

of geological history. “The great lesson taught

by the study of the outer crust is that the earth

mother, like her children, has attained her

10 present form through ceaseless change, which

marks the pulse of life and which shall cease

only when her internal forces slumber and the

cloudy air and surf-bound ocean no more are

moving garments. The fowing landscapes of

15 geologic time may be likened to a kinetoscopic

panorama. The scenes transform from age to

age, as from act to act; seas and plains and

mountains of different types follow and replace

each other through time, as the traveler sees

20 them succeed each other in space.”

Source: Excerpt from Geology: The Science of the

Earth’s Crust by William J. Miller

39. As used in the passage, the word space most nearly means

a. portion of area.

b. atmosphere beyond Earth.

c. room.

d. surface.

e. depth.

40. Which of the following best describes the point of view of the passage?

a. frst person

b. second person

c. third person

d. fourth person

e. ffth person

Use the following passage to answer questions 41 and

42.

Science is knowledge; it is what we know. But

mere knowledge is not science. For a bit of

knowledge to become a part of science, its rela-

tion to other bits of knowledge must be found.

5 In botany, for example, bits of knowledge about

plants do not make a science of botany. To have

a science of botany, we must not only know

about leaves, roots, fowers, seeds, etc., but we

must know the relations of these parts and of

10 all the parts of a plant to one another. In other

words, in science, we must not only know, we

must not only have knowledge, but we must

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 36 9/7/17 2:07 PM

know the signifcance of the knowledge, must

know its meaning. This is only another way of

15 saying that we must have knowledge and know

its relation to other knowledge.

Source: Excerpt from The Science of Human

Nature by William Henry Pyle

41. The author of this passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

a. A real botanist focuses more attention on

leaves than roots.

b. A biologist cannot understand how the heart

works without knowing how the hand

works.

c. Plants actually are not the main concern of

the science of botany.

d. True scientists are not interested in acquiring

knowledge.

e. Anyone who only studies only Earth’s crust

is not a real Earth scientist.

42. The passage is primarily concerned with a. defning the term knowledge.

b. explaining how scientists must use

knowledge.

c. emphasizing the importance of the whole

over the part.

d. proving that most people who call

themselves scientists are frauds.

e. showing how one becomes a scientist.

Use the following passage to answer questions 43 and

44.

At the end of the nineteenth century the two

masters of the stage were Ibsen and Wagner,

and both of them were in the show business—

Wagner more openly and more frequently than

5 Ibsen. Yet the stern Scandinavian did not dis-

dain to employ an avalanche in When We Dead

Awaken, and to introduce a highly pictorial

shawl dance for the heroine of his Doll’s House.

As for Wagner, he was incessant in his search

10 for the spectacular, insisting that the music-

drama was the “art-work of the future,” since

the librettist-composer could call to his aid all

the other arts, and could make these arts con-

tribute to the total effect of the opera. He con-

15 formed his practise to his principles, and as a

result there is scarcely any one of his music-

dramas which is not enriched by a most elabo-

rate scenic accompaniment. The forging of the

sword, the ride of the Valkyries, the swimming

20 of the singing Rhinemaidens, are only a few of

the novel and startling effects which he intro-

duced into his operas; and in his last work, Par-

sival, the purely spectacular element is at least

as ample and as varied as any that can be found

25 in a Parisian fairy-play or in a London Christ-

mas pantomime.

Source: Excerpt from A Book about the Theater

by Brander Matthews

43. Which sentence best summarizes the main point of the passage?

a. Ibsen and Wagner may be considered great

theater artists, but they were really nothing

more than showmen.

b. The most spectacular moment of Ibsen’s

play When We Dead Awaken involves an

on-stage avalanche.

c. Wagner considered music-drama to be the

art-work of the future because it incorporated

numerous other art forms.

d. Every great theater artist knows that no one

would enjoy their plays without spectacular

stage effects.

e. Ibsen and Wagner were both great theater

artists but they also understood the value of

putting on a spectacular show.

3636

3737

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 37 9/7/17 2:07 PM

44. Which sentence from the passage represents an opinion rather than a fact?

a. “At the end . . . Ibsen.”

b. “Yet the . . . House.”

c. “As for Wagner . . . opera.”

d. “He conformed . . . accompaniment.”

e. “The forging . . . pantomime.”

Use the following passage to answer questions 45

through 49.

Wendel Bollman’s name survives today solely in

association with the Bollman truss, and even in

this respect is known only to a few older civil

and railroad engineers. The Bollman system of

5 trussing, along with those of Whipple and Fink,

may be said to have introduced the great age of

the metal bridge, and thus, directly, the modern

period of civil engineering.

Bollman’s bridge truss, of which the frst

10 example was built in 1850, has the very signif-

cant distinction of being the frst bridging sys-

tem in the world employing iron in all of its

principal structural members that was used

consistently on a railroad.

15 The importance of the transition from

wood to iron as a structural and bridge build-

ing material is generally recognized, but it may

be well to mention certain aspects of this

change.

20 The tradition of masonry bridge con-

struction never attained the great strength in

this country which it held in Europe, despite a

number of notable exceptions. There were sev-

eral reasons for this. From the very beginning

25 of colonization, capital was scarce, a condition

that prevailed until well into the 19th century

and which prohibited the use of masonry

because of the extremely high costs of labor

and transport. An even more important eco-

30 nomic consideration was the rapidity with

which it was necessary to extend the construc-

tion of railways during their pioneer years.

Unlike the early English and European railways,

which invariably traversed areas of dense popu-

35 lation and industrial activity, and were thus

assured of a signifcant fnancial return almost

from the moment that the frst rail was down,

the Baltimore and Ohio and its contemporaries

were launched upon an entirely different com-

40 mercial prospect.

Source: Excerpt from The Engineering Contri-

butions of Wendel Bollman by Robert M. Vogel

45. What will the writer of this passage most likely explain next?

a. The commercial prospect upon which the

Baltimore and Ohio railways were launched.

b. The thing with which Wendel Bollman’s

name is most closely associated today.

c. When capital for railway building in

America ceased to be scarce.

d. The kinds of areas that the early English and

European railways traversed.

e. Who the most famous engineers on the

Baltimore and Ohio railways were.

46. What is the country to which the author refers in the frst sentence of the fourth paragraph?

a. England

b. France

c. Germany

d. Mexico

e. the United States

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 38 9/7/17 2:07 PM

47. The passage indicates that railway bridges changed from

a. a wood-based system to an iron-based

system.

b. a European system to an international

system.

c. being dominated by Whipple and Fink to

being dominated by Bollman.

d. being used to mainly transport materials to

being used to mainly transport people.

e. a system that uses bridges to a system that

uses trusses.

48. The author compares the early English and European railways to

a. the California and New York railways.

b. Bollman’s bridge truss.

c. the Baltimore and Ohio railways.

d. more recent English and European railways.

e. the railway innovations of Whipple and

Fink.

49. Information in this passage can be applied to a. a biography of Whipple and Fink.

b. an advertisement for the Ohio railway

system.

c. a history of developments in railway

systems.

d. a railway engineering manual.

e. an essay on the European railway system.

Use the following passage to answer questions 50

through 53.

Gettysburg is the market town—or borough,

accurately speaking—of an exclusively farming

population, planted in one of the most produc-

tive sections of the Keystone State. It is the seat

of justice of the county. It has a seminary and

college of the German Lutheran Church, which

give a certain tone and cast to its social life. In

short, Gettysburg seems in all things so entirely

devoted to the pursuits of peace, there is so lit-

10 tle that is suggestive of war and bloodshed, even

if time had not mostly effaced all traces of that

gigantic struggle that, coming as we do with

one absorbing idea in mind, we fnd it hard to

reconcile the facts of history with the facts as

15 we fnd them.

There is another side to Gettysburg—a

picturesque, a captivating side. One looks

around upon the landscape with simple admi-

ration. One’s highest praise comes from the

20 feeling of quiet satisfaction with which the har-

mony of nature reveals the harmony of God.

You are among the subsiding swells that the

South Mountain has sent rippling off to the

east. So completely is the village hid away

25 among these green swells that neither spire nor

steeple is seen until, upon turning one of the

numerous low ridges by which the face of the

country is so cut up, you enter a valley, not

deep, but well defned by two opposite ranges

30 of heights, and Gettysburg lies gleaming in the

declining sun before you—a picture to be long

remembered.

Source: Excerpt from The Battle of Gettysburg

1863 by Samuel Adams Drake

50. According to the passage, Gettysburg is best described as a

a. market town.

b. farm.

c. county.

d. city.

e. borough.

3838

3939

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 39 9/7/17 2:07 PM

51. Which sentence from the passage contains both a fact and an opinion?

a. It is the seat of justice of the county.

b. In short, Gettysburg seems in all things so

entirely devoted to the pursuits of peace,

there is so little that is suggestive of war and

bloodshed, even if time had not mostly

effaced all traces of that gigantic struggle

that, coming as we do with one absorbing

idea in mind, we fnd it hard to reconcile

the facts of history with the facts as we

fnd them.

c. There is another side to Gettysburg—a

picturesque, a captivating side.

d. One’s highest praise comes from the feeling

of quiet satisfaction with which the harmony

of nature reveals the harmony of God.

e. So completely is the village hid away among

these green swells that neither spire nor

steeple is seen until, upon turning one of the

numerous low ridges by which the face of

the country is so cut up, you enter a valley,

not deep, but well defned by two opposite

ranges of heights, and Gettysburg lies

gleaming in the declining sun before you—a

picture to be long remembered.

52. As it is used in the context of the sentence, which word best describes the meaning of

cast (line 7)?

a. distance

b. players

c. throw

d. company

e. radiate

53. What was the author’s primary purpose in describing Gettysburg?

a. to encourage people to visit Gettysburg

b. to prove that people actually know very little

about Gettysburg

c. to establish the setting in a discussion of a

battle that took place there

d. to show that people in Gettysburg are very

religious

e. to imply that Gettysburg was a completely

unnatural place for a battle

Use the following passage to answer questions 54

through 56.

Animals below the level of zoophytes and

sponges are called Protozoa. The word obvi-

ously means “First Animals,” but all that we can

say is that the very simplest of them may give us

5 some hint of the simplicity of the original frst

animals. For it is quite certain that the vast

majority of the Protozoa today are far too com-

plicated to be thought of as primitive. Though

most of them are microscopic, each is an ani-

10 mal complete in itself, with the same funda-

mental bodily attributes as are manifested in

ourselves. They differ from animals of higher

degree in not being built up of the unit areas or

corpuscles called cells. They have no cells, no

15 tissues, no organs, in the ordinary acceptation

of these words, but many of them show a great

complexity of internal structure, far exceeding

that of the ordinary cells that build up the tis-

sues of higher animals. They are complete liv-

20 ing creatures which have not gone in for

body-making.

Source: Excerpt from The Outline of Science,

Vol. 1 by J. Arthur Thomson

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 40 9/7/17 2:07 PM

54. The passage deals mainly with which of the fol- lowing characteristics of modern protozoa?

a. their primitive nature

b. their relative complexity

c. their similarity to humans

d. their role as the frst animals

e. their microscopic size

55. Which sentence from the passage best supports the author’s argument that protozoa are “com-

plete living creatures”?

a. “Animals below the level of zoophytes and

sponges are called Protozoa.”

b. “The word obviously means ‘First Animals,’

but all that we can say is that the very

simplest of them may give us some hint of

the simplicity of the original frst animals.”

c. “For it is quite certain that the vast majority

of the Protozoa today are far too

complicated to be thought of as primitive.”

d. “They differ from animals of higher degree

in not being built up of the unit areas or

corpuscles called cells.”

e. “They have no cells, no tissues, no organs, in

the ordinary acceptation of these words, but

many of them show a great complexity of

internal structure, far exceeding that of the

ordinary cells that build up the tissues of

higher animals.”

56. Which inference about the complexity of living creatures can be made from the information

provided within the passage?

a. Large living things are more complex than

smaller ones.

b. A living thing must have cells, tissues, and

organs to be complex.

c. The size of a living creature has little bearing

on its complexity.

d. No animal without a traditional body can be

called complex.

e. Tiny living creatures tend to be more

complex than larger ones.

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Reading Practice Test 1 Answers and Explanations

1. d. Only choice d sums up all the most impor- tant details in the passage. Choice a only

summarizes the passage’s opening sentences.

Choice b makes a statement about the indi-

vidual brothers’ popularity that the passage

does not actually support. Choices c and e

are just details in the passage and fail to

summarize all of its most important details.

2. d. Since the author had described the kind of automobile Frank Duryea drove in the race,

the author likely mentions the types of cars

Duryea beat to suggest that it was their

innate qualities that caused them to lose the

race. The author is not likely making a gen-

eral statement about the automobiles built

in Springfeld, Massachusetts (choice a) or

the rest of the world (choice c). There is also

no evidence to support the prediction in

choice b, and there are not enough details

about the mechanical properties of two-

cylinder and electric vehicles to support

the conclusion in choice e.

4040

4141

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 41 9/7/17 2:07 PM

3. a. The author spends much of the passage explaining how diffcult it is to identify rocks

that have been weathered. This point would

be stronger if the reader could actually see

how signifcantly weathering alters the

appearance of rocks. The author only men-

tions the granite and porphyry classes as

examples of rocks that might be misclassi-

fed, so illustrations of them would not rein-

force the author’s ideas very much.

Therefore, choice b is not the best answer.

There is no mention of rocks that have been

procured from the bottom of the ocean, so

choice c does not make much sense. There is

no discussion of rocks commonly found in

the United States, so choice e is not a very

strong answer either. Although the author

mentions that destroying rocks may help

them to be identifed, this is not as impor-

tant an idea in the passage as is the weather-

ing of rocks, so choice a remains a better

answer choice than choice d.

4. e. A strong title should refect a selection’s main idea, and this selection is mainly about

the diffculties of identifying rocks. Choice a

is not as specifc to this particular topic as

choice e, so it is not the best answer. The

passage never indicates why a certain rock is

called granite, so choice b is not a good title.

Choice c makes the mistake of assuming the

selection is mainly about rock classes when

it is actually about rock names. Choice d just

refects a minor detail in the selection, but

the best answer choice should refect the

entire main idea.

5. b. Although each answer choice can be used as a synonym for fresh, only choice b makes

sense in this particular context. Choice a

would be appropriate only if the rock was

new and unusual. Choices c and d refer to

the surface appearance of the rock when the

sentence refers to its physical state beyond

the surface. Choice e is not a meaning of

fresh one would use to describe a rock in

any context.

6. b. This short passage is about the distinctive food Pennsylvania Dutch people make and

the qualities that make that food distinctive,

so choice b is the statement with which the

author is most likely to agree. Although the

author refers to the fact that Pennsylvania

Dutch people work hard, the author does

not compare their work ethic to the work

ethic of any other people, so choice a is not

the best answer. The author never indicates

how well known the Pennsylvania Dutch

people are throughout the world, so choice c

is not a strong answer either. Choice d makes

another unsupported comparison, and

choice e makes an unsupported assumption

based on the fact that the author mentions

only the cooking of Pennsylvania Dutch

mothers and daughters.

7. b. Passage 1 introduces ways spider survive and Passage 2 expands on it by describing ways

spiders protect themselves. Neither passage

makes an argument (choice a); both accept

the idea that spiders have unique ways of

protecting themselves. Passage 2 does not

explain anything about spiders that has not

already been described in Passage 1, so

choice c is incorrect. Both passages focus on

facts without indulging in opinions, so

choice d does not make sense. Passage 1 does

not make a general claim about spiders that

it does not support, so choice e is not the

best answer choice.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 42 9/7/17 2:07 PM

8. c. The author of Passage 1 describes the spider as pretty, and since its appearance is a signif-

icant enough trait of the spider to mention,

it is likely that the author would agree that

the spider is uniquely attractive. While the

author acknowledges that the spider is unde-

scribed, there is no evidence to support the

idea that the author believes the spider

deserves to be named, so choice a is not the

best answer. There also isn’t any evidence to

support the idea that the spider is generally

unimportant (choice b); if this were true, the

author probably would not discuss it in this

passage at all. The author only says the spi-

der is a parasite, not an enemy of other ani-

mals, so choice d is not a strong answer. And

though the spider sometimes gets frightened

and pretends it is dead, this is more of a sur-

vival technique than an indication that the

spider is cowardly (choice e).

9. d. Only Passage 1 includes the author’s per- sonal opinions, as the author describes one

spider as pretty, which is an opinion not

everyone might share. Both passages

describe behaviors of several kinds of spiders

(choice a), and there is no reason to believe

that the information in Passage 2 is not

based on scientifc research (choice b). Both

passages use the frst-person pronoun I, so

choice c is incorrect. Both passages also dis-

cuss ways that spiders use their bodies to

protect themselves, so choice e is wrong.

10. e. Passage 2 is mainly concerned with explain- ing two ways spiders use their bodies to pro-

tect themselves: their protective resemblance

to vegetable and inorganic things in the frst

paragraph and their inedible bodies in the

second paragraph. The passage never actu-

ally defnes the term protective modifcation,

so choice a cannot be true. Choices b and c

are just supporting details in the passage.

Choice d refers to Passage 1, not Passage 2,

which does not mention the Epeira clavipes

of Fabricius at all.

11. c. The details about how Douglass was famous for speaking and conveyed his information

in a uniquely picturesque way is reason to

infer that he had a uniquely engaging per-

sonality. While the author of this passage

suggests that Douglass was loved by his fel-

low people, there is no evidence to support

the inference that this was his main concern

(choice a). The fact that Douglass played a

part on the world’s stage contradicts the

inference in choice b. Choice d may be true,

but there simply is not evidence to support

this conclusion in this particular passage.

While it is true that his speeches were among

the things for which Douglass was famous,

choice e makes a general assumption that

details in the passage do not support

strongly.

12. a. The word salient means outstanding. While factual (choice b) would make some sense if

used in place of salient in the passage, it does

not share a meaning with salient, so it is not

the correct answer choice. Choice e can be

eliminated because it basically has the same

meaning as factual. Choice c is a word that

sounds similar to salient but does not share

its meaning. Choice d is the opposite of

salient.

4242

4343

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 43 9/7/17 2:07 PM

13. b. The passage references both Marco Polo’s noteworthy explorations, which indicate that

he was an extraordinary explorer, and the

fact that he also wrote a wonderful book

about his travels, which suggests that he also

possessed extraordinary skills as a writer. So

choice b is the best answer. Although Polo

made a journey based on a rumor regarding

the location of Noah’s ark, that is not

enough evidence to make the general infer-

ence in choice a. Although the passage also

indicates that Polo was afraid to use the

same kind of sailing vessels certain Arab sail-

ors used, choice c is also an extreme infer-

ence to make based on this evidence. He may

have only been more cautious than those

Arab sailors. While Marco apparently spent a

good deal of his life away from home, the

passage presents no evidence to infer that he

was necessarily homesick much of the time

(choice d). Choice e also makes an extreme

inference based on just one slight detail

about how Marco once fell ill.

14. d. This passage primarily describes the travels of Marco Polo in a general way. Polo’s writ-

ten work is only briefy mentioned in the

frst sentence of the passage, so it could

hardly be the passage’s primary concern

(choice a). Choices b and c refer to places to

which Polo traveled in this passage, but nei-

ther place is signifcant enough to the overall

passage to describe its primary concern

accurately. Marco Polo is defnitely the most

important person in the passage, so choice e

does not make much sense.

15. a. As it is used in this particular passage, account is used to mean a report, which is

the only answer choice that would make

sense if used in place of account in the pas-

sage. Choices b and d would make sense only

if account had fnancial implications, such as

a bank account. Choices c and e could also

be used as synonyms of account in other

contexts, but they make no sense in this par-

ticular one.

16. c. Franklin’s misspelling of the word soap and his abbreviation of the word though as tho’

are evidence for the conclusion in choice c.

Franklin’s father was in the candle and soap

making business, and Franklin’s dislike of

working in that business contradicts the

conclusion in choice a. The fact that Frank-

lin did work in that business for a time also

contradicts the conclusion in choice b, while

choice d reaches a conclusion that informa-

tion in the passage simply does not support.

Although Franklin says he sometimes led

other boys into scrapes, that is not enough

evidence to support the too-general conclu-

sion in choice e.

17. d. While Passage 1 moves through the early events of Benjamin Franklin’s life rapidly,

Passage 2 slows down to focus more on the

specifc details of a particular period, which

supports choice d and contradicts choice e.

Passage 1 is strictly informative and not at all

humorous, so choice a is not the best answer.

Both passages tell the story of only one per-

son’s life, so choice b does not make much

sense. That person is an important Ameri-

can, so choice c does not make sense either.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 44 9/7/17 2:07 PM

18. a. While Passage 1 tells the story of Benjamin Franklin’s early life from an outsider’s per-

spective, Passage 2 fnds Benjamin Franklin

telling the story of his own life. Passage 1

does not introduce a question that only Pas-

sage 2 answers (choice b) or describe any

kind of method (choice c). The passages

support each other, so choice d is not accu-

rate. The opposite of choice e is true.

19. b. This passage mainly just provides informa- tion about the early history of the steam-

boat. Only the frst sentence of the passage

compares the steamboat to the steam engine,

so choice a does not capture the purpose of

the passage as a whole. Fulton is only briefy

mentioned in the passage, so explaining his

importance (choice c) is not likely the pur-

pose of the entire passage. Choice d explains

the purpose of the timeline that follows the

passage, not the passage itself. Choice e only

describes a single detail in the passage, not

the purpose of the passage as a whole.

20. e. According to the passage, the Clermont was a signifcant steamship that sailed the Hudson

River near New York the same year that,

according to the timeline, the steamboat

emerged as a practical form of travel. Based

on this information, choice e is a logical con-

clusion. According to the passage, the Char-

lotte Dundas was a steamboat on the Firth of

Clyde Canal, not on the Mississippi, so

choice a is not correct. According to the pas-

sage, the Savannah was the frst steamship to

cross the Atlantic Ocean, so choice b cannot

be correct. The fact that the Savannah was

an American ship also makes choice c

unlikely. There is no evidence in the passage

or timeline to support choice d.

21. d. According to the passage, their easily smashed paddles were major faws in the

steamboats described in this passage, so it is

likely that later steamboats eliminated this

faw. This likelihood also eliminates choice a

and choice e, since the easily smashed pad-

dles were what made it diffcult for steam-

boats to cross oceans. Choice b cannot be

correct because the passage explains that the

Clermont was the frst steamboat with

British-built engines. Some of the steam-

ships the passage describes were made in

America, so this would not be a difference

and choice c cannot be correct.

22. e. The fnal sentence of the passage is the pas- sage’s only example of how a specifc culture

used recording techniques. It is directly

related to the passage’s main idea, so choice

a is incorrect. It does not contrast the rest of

the passage; it supports the passage, so

choice b is incorrect too. The fnal sentence

does not really describe how a process was

performed, so choice c is not the best answer.

Choice d is incorrect because the fnal sen-

tence of the passage is not written from a

personal point of view.

23. d. The passage states that brick had to be impressed with a stamp when in a soft state,

so it is logical to conclude that the brick

would then harden since brick is hard. Brick

is often red, but the passage only describes

the coloring of shells and tablets, so choice a

is not the most logical answer. Choice e also

refers to shells and tablets, not bricks. There

is no evidence to support the conclusion in

choice b either. Since the passage is not clear

about what material was used to build the

walls, palaces, and towers of Babylon, choice

c is not the best answer.

4444

4545

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 45 9/7/17 2:07 PM

24. b. A faulty generalization builds a conclusion on weak evidence, and there simply is not

strong enough evidence in the passage to

reach such a general conclusion as the idea

that architecture is the noblest of the useful

arts since the writer does not really explain

what is particularly noble about architecture.

Choices b, c, d, and e are not logical errors

present in the fnal sentence of the passage.

25. d. The author refers to mere utilitarian works of engineering to contrast the more artful

constructions the author believes qualify as

architecture. Since these works of engineer-

ing are distinct from architecture, choices a,

b, c, and e cannot be correct because they all

imply that mere works of engineering are

examples of architecture in the author’s

opinion.

26. a. The author of the passage suggests that the most popular opinion is that eating is more

important than such artful or poetic things

as pictures and music, so choice a is the best

conclusion. There is no evidence in the pas-

sage to support the conclusion in choices b

or c. A book called Dinners and Dishes is

likely more concerned with eating than pic-

tures and music, and there is not enough

evidence to support choice d in any event.

Based on evidence in the passage, the author

likely believes the opposite of choice e.

27. c. According to the passage, metal is higher in tensile strength than wood, and the rods in a

truss bridge are identifed as structural ele-

ments that must be made of metal. The

author states that sills (choice a), beams

(choice b), joists (choice d), and fooring

(choice e) may all be made of wood.

28. e. According to the passage, Cross grain of any kind materially reduces the tensile strength of

wood, so it is likely that the wood in the

chart with the lowest tensile strength is the

likeliest to have cross grain. Since longleaf

pine has the lowest tensile strength, choice e

is the likeliest answer. Hickory (choice a),

elm (choice b), and larch (choice c) all have

higher tensile strength than longleaf pine

according to the table. Balsa (choice d) is not

mentioned in the passage or the chart.

29. d. The table indicates that moisture condition is not provided in the table. Since this is an

important enough factor to warrant men-

tioning, it is likely that moisture condition

might affect the tensile strength of wood,

and this factor is indicated only in the table,

not in the passage. Choices a, b, c, and e are

all factors indicated in the passage.

30. e. Choice e indicates that there is an art to tell- ing comic stories, which contradicts the

author’s statement that only an artist can tell

a humorous story but anyone can tell a

comic or witty story. Choice a supports the

author’s statement about the humorous oral

story originating in America. Since the

author makes this statement only about oral

storytelling, choice b does not weaken his

argument. Choice c would not really under-

mine the author’s argument regarding

humorous storytelling; he could be a great

teller of both humorous and witty stories.

Choice d may be true, but it does not really

weaken the author’s argument since it does

not suggest that visual arts are the only arts.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 46 9/7/17 2:07 PM

31. b. The author uses force to modify the action of appealing, so the correct answer choice must

be an adjective such as intensity. Choices a, c,

and d are all verbs, so they can be eliminated

even though they might be used as syn-

onyms of force in a different context. Choice

e is not as strong as choice b since weight

would be better used to describe something

with actual physical dimension.

32. a. The author suggests that Napoleon’s fame for being an intimidating conqueror has

caused people to ignore his childhood before

he developed that reputation, so choice a is a

logical conclusion to reach. The conclusions

in choices b and e are too extreme and gen-

eral, so they are not the likeliest answers.

Choice c is clearly untrue since the author

does provide some details about Napoleon’s

childhood. There is no evidence in the pas-

sage to support choice d.

33. a. With the examples he supplies, the author shows that Napoleon was happiest when

actually engaging in battle, and choice a is

the only answer that shows Napoleon in the

middle of battle. Choices c and d are related

to battle, but neither takes place in the mid-

dle of battle. Choice b is directly contra-

dicted in the passage. There is no evidence to

support the idea that Napoleon had particu-

larly strong feelings about his hometown, so

choice e is not the best answer either.

34. d. Although the word harmonizes is most often used in relation to music, the author of this

passage uses it to explain how a kingfsher

blends with its environment visually. So

choices a, b, and e, which all take the word

more literally as a way of describing sound,

can be eliminated. Since the word applies to

a kingfsher and its watery environment, not

the glimmer of sunlight mentioned further

on in the passage, choice c is incorrect.

35. b. The art of camoufage uses colors for pur- poses of protection, and this passage focuses

on how the colors of animals help protect

them in the wild. A strong title should refect

the main idea of a passage, and this passage

is not mainly about the colors of the desert

(choice a) or the plumage of birds (choice

c). Choice d relates to a single supporting

detail in the passage too specifcally. Not all

coloring described in the passage is vivid, so

choice e would not be the best title for this

particular passage.

36. c. The word conspicuous means obvious. Choice a is an antonym of conspicuous, not a syn-

onym. Choices b and d are spelled similarly

to conspicuous but they do not share a mean-

ing with it. Choice e is not a synonym of

conspicuous either.

37. e. The quotation develops upon the author’s earlier statement that Desert animals are gen-

erally the color of the desert. While it is likely

that Canon Tristram is an authority, there is

no reason to believe this person speaks for

all authorities, so choice a is not the best

answer. It also is not likely that the author

could not have explained the idea himself if

he had to do so, so choice b is not the best

answer either. There is no evidence that the

author’s statement about animal coloring is

unpopular, so choice c is not the best answer.

The quotation deals more with why certain

birds are certain colors than their general

uniqueness, so choice d is not the best

answer either.

4646

4747

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 47 9/7/17 2:07 PM

38. d. The author suggests that the undulation of the surface of deserts might offer desert ani-

mals more protection, so choice d is the best

conclusion. The author also provides infor-

mation that contradicts choice a. The partic-

ular color of the sand in deserts is not the

issue, so choice b is not the most logical

answer. The temperature of the desert is not

a factor in this passage either, so choice c is

wrong. The number of animals in the desert

does not affect their color, so choice e is

wrong, too.

39. a. Each answer choice could be used as a syn- onym for space, but only portion of area

makes sense in this particular context.

40. c. Third person point of view is when a narra- tor of a story is not present in the story.

Choice a, frst person point of view, is when

the narrator speaks as an I within the story.

Choice b, second person point of view, is

when the narrator addresses the reader with

you. Choices d and e do not exist.

41. e. The author is concerned with how science involves the interaction of various elements,

so any Earth scientist who is only concerned

with a single element of Earth probably

would not qualify as a “real” Earth scientist

in the author’s opinion. This fact also elimi-

nates choice a, which basically expresses the

opposite of the author’s opinion. Choice b,

however, is too specifc, and it is possible

that the author might believe that a biologist

can understand how the heart works with-

out knowing how the hand works. Choice c

is simply incorrect. While the author empha-

sizes the importance of knowing the mean-

ing of knowledge over simply acquiring

knowledge, one must acquire knowledge

before knowing its meaning, so choice d is

not a logical conclusion.

42. b. The passage is mainly concerned with show- ing how scientists must use knowledge. The

author is not merely concerned with defn-

ing a term, so choice a is not the best answer.

Choice c refers to an example the author

uses, not the main point of the passage.

Choice d is an extreme interpretation of the

passage that the passage does not really sup-

port. Such a brief passage could not possibly

explain how to do something as complex as

becoming a scientist, so choice e does not

make sense.

43. e. This answer choice summarizes the main idea of the passage perfectly. Choice a

implies a judgment about Ibsen and Wagner

that the author of the passage does not

express. Choices b and c focus on supporting

details in the passage rather than summarize

the main idea of the passage as a whole.

Choice d makes a sweeping generalization

about all theater artists when this passage

deals with only Wagner and Ibsen.

44. e. The fnal sentence of the passage contains opinions with which not everyone may

agree: the opinion that the effects in Wag-

ner’s operas were startling and the compari-

son between the spectacular nature of

Wagner’s opera and that of London Christ-

mas pantomimes. Choices a, b, c, and d each

provide irrefutable facts only.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 48 9/7/17 2:07 PM

45. a. In the last sentence of the passage excerpt, the author states that the Baltimore and Ohio

and its contemporaries were launched upon

an entirely different commercial prospect but

does not explain what that prospect is. So it

would make sense that the specifc nature of

that commercial prospect would be the next

matter the author will explain. The author

explained what Wendel Bollman’s name is

most closely associated with in the frst sen-

tence of the passage, so it is unlikely that will

get discussed again, so choice b is not the

most logical prediction. The matter in choice

c was already discussed earlier in the fourth

paragraph of this passage. Choice d is

explained in the fnal sentence of this

excerpt. Specifc engineers are not discussed

in this passage, so there is no reason to

assume that the author will begin discussing

engineers in depth at this point in the pas-

sage. Therefore, choice e is not a very logical

prediction.

46. e. The author indicates that the country in question includes railways running through

Ohio and Baltimore, which are both places

in the United States (choice e). The author

discusses the country in contrast to England

and other European countries, so the Euro-

pean countries in choices a, b, and c can be

eliminated. Ohio and Baltimore are not in

Mexico, so choice d can be eliminated as

well.

47. a. Wendel Bollman pioneered the use of iron rather than wood in railway bridge con-

struction, which is stated in the third para-

graph of the passage. Choice b implies that

Europe was the only place that had railway

bridges initially, but this is not supported by

information in the passage. The author indi-

cates that Whipple, Fink, and Bollman all

developed railway innovations around the

same time, so choice c does not make much

sense. There is no support for choice d

either. The truss Bollman developed was a

kind of bridging system, so choice e does not

make sense.

48. c. The author makes this comparison in the fnal sentence of the passage. The compari-

sons in choices a, b, d, and e are never made

in this passage.

49. c. The passage is mainly about an important development in the railway system, so it

would be best applied to a history of that

topic. Whipple and Fink are only mentioned

in passing in this passage, and much more

detailed information would be needed for

the passage to be an adequate source for a

biography of those two people (choice a).

The passage is too detailed and specifc to

apply to an advertisement (choice b), which

is usually short on technical details. How-

ever, the passage is not technical enough to

serve as an adequate source for a railway

engineering manual (choice d). Although

the author briefy refers to the European

railway system, there is not enough informa-

tion about that system for this passage to be

an adequate source for an essay on that topic

(choice e).

4848

4949

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 49 9/7/17 2:07 PM

50. e. The author makes this distinction explicitly in the frst sentence of the passage. Although

the author initially describes Gettysburg as a

market town, he immediately clarifes that

borough is a more accurate designation, so

choice a is not the best answer. The author

briefy mentions that there are farms (choice

b) in Gettysburg and that Gettysburg is

located in a county (choice c) but does not

use them as designations of Gettysburg.

There is no mention of a city (choice d)

in the passage.

51. e. This is the only sentence that includes both facts (what is seen of Gettysburg when turn-

ing along certain ridges) and an opinion (the

personal opinion that the landscape of Get-

tysburg is a picture to be long remembered).

Choice a only includes a fact. Choices b, c,

and d only express opinions.

52. d. The author discusses how the German Lutheran Church in Gettysburg brings a cer-

tain cast to the community, and the only

answer choice that makes sense in this con-

text is choice d, which indicates a company

of people. The author clearly uses cast as a

noun, so although throw (choice c) and radi-

ate (choice e) might be used as synonyms of

cast in different contexts, these verbs make

no sense in this particular context. Choices a

and b are nouns, but they are not the right

nouns for this context.

53. c. The author refers to war and bloodshed in the frst paragraph of the passage, which is

an excerpt from a larger work called The

Battle of Gettysburg 1863, so choice c is the

likeliest answer. Although the author makes

Gettysburg sound like a very appealing place

to visit, he is not mainly concerned with

appealing to readers to visit it in this pas-

sage, so choice a is not the best answer. The

author implies that people may often have

misconceptions about picturesque Gettys-

burg because of its role in a well-known war,

but he is not mainly concerned with proving

that people know very little about the place

(choice b) or making an extreme statement

about how it was a completely unnatural

place for a battle (choice e). The author

makes a couple of references to the religious

nature of the people in Gettysburg, but this

is not his main purpose, so choice d is not

the best answer.

54. b. The author of this passage is mostly con- cerned with explaining that protozoa are

complex compared to their relatively simple

predecessors. Choice a is incorrect because

the author explicitly states that Protozoa

today are far too complicated to be thought of

as primitive. The author briefy compares

protozoa to humans, but he then describes

ways they are not similar to humans (They

have no cells, no tissues, no organs) so choice

c is not the best answer. The author does not

really explain the protozoa’s role as the frst

animals (choice d) and does not dwell on

their microscopic size (choice e).

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 50 9/7/17 2:07 PM

55. e. Although this sentence begins with informa- tion that implies that protozoa are not com-

plete living creatures (They have no cells, no

tissues, no organs), it fnishes with details

about what makes them complete living

creatures (many of them show a great com-

plexity of internal structure, far exceeding that

of the ordinary cells that build up the tissues of

higher animals). Choices a and b do not

relate to how protozoa are or are not com-

plete living creatures. Choice c merely

implies that protozoa are complete living

creatures but provides no specifc details to

support that implication. Taken on its own,

choice d seems to contradict the idea that

protozoa are not complete living creatures.

56. c. The author emphasizes that protozoa are complex despite being microscopic and not

having traditional bodies composed of cells,

tissues, and organs. This contradicts the

inferences in choices b and d. Choices a and

e indicate general comparisons that are not

really supported by evidence in the passage.

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Writing Practice Test 1

Part I: Multiple-Choice

Time: 40 Minutes

Directions: Choose the letter for the underlined por-

tion that contains a grammatical error. If there is no

error in the sentence, choose e.

1. The fnest authors are experts at creating a b

realistic characters, building palpable c

atmosphere, and plot intriguing stories. d

No error e

2. The cat moved stealthy across the top of the a

fence until the sudden sound of the barking b c

dog caused the startled feline to tumble to the d

ground. No error e

3. Before becoming President of the United States a b

in 1961, John F. Kennedy was a Senator from c

Massachusetts. No error d e

4. We spent the morning watching a fock of wild a

geese wind their way across the cloud-dappled b c d

sky. No error e

5050

5151

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 51 9/7/17 2:07 PM

5. The well-known mystery writer Ellery Queen is a

actually a pseudonym for two authors; b c

Frederic Dannay and Manfred Bennington Lee. d

No error e

6. Simon and Garfunkel was arguably the most a b

successful musical duo of 1960s pop. No error c d e

7. The team seemed to have neither the experience a

or the training to win the game last Saturday, b

but it emerged victorious nonetheless. No error c d e

8. Sprinkling the scrumptious cake with bits of a b

chocolate was a classic case of gliding the lily, c

but the cake was no less delicious because of

the unnecessary additions. No error d e

9. The mayor itself will be visiting our school to a b

promote civic activities this Monday morning. c d

No error e

10. The passengers on the Mayfower included a

John Alden, Isaac, and Mary Allerton, Peter b

Browne, Humility Cooper, William Holbeck,

and Stephen and Elizabeth Hopkins, as well c

as their children Constance, Giles, and d

Damaris. No error e

11. The actor failed to notice his queue to walk on a b

stage, bringing the play to a momentary but c

highly awkward halt. No error d e

12. Despite the assumption that he was embarking a

on a doomed mission, Thor Heyerdahl b

successfully navigated a wooden raft to the c

Polynesian Islands from South America called

the Kon Tiki. No error d e

13. The lion stalked it’s prey through the high, a b c

golden grasses of the savannah. No error d e

14. Because of the negative reviews the novel a

received, I was prepared to dislike it, and I was b c

actually impressed with the author’s grasp of d

language and plot. No error e

15. While popular votes indicate how many people a

voted for a particular presidential candidate, b

the number of electrical votes actually c d

determines the winner. No error e

16. The sweater looked so luxuriously soft hanging a

on the mannequin, but when I tried the sweater b

on, it was terribly coarse and rough. No error c d e

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 52 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Directions: Choose the best replacement for the

underlined portion of the sentence. If no revision is

necessary, choose a, which always repeats the original

phrasing.

17. Walter intended to call Hector but he wasn’t home.

a. Hector but he wasn’t home.

b. Hector but she wasn’t home.

c. Hector but that wasn’t home.

d. it but he wasn’t home.

e. Hector but Hector wasn’t home.

18. The flmmaker had planned to make an adap- tation of the novel Don Quixote for years how-

ever circumstances beyond his control

prevented the flm from ever being completed.

a. for years however circumstances beyond

b. for years, however; circumstances beyond

c. for years; however, circumstances beyond

d. for years however circumstances beyond;

e. for years: however circumstances beyond

19. All fve of the cats became a pet to very appre- ciative children.

a. became a pet to very appreciative children

b. become a pet to very appreciative children

c. became a pet to very appreciative children

d. became pet to very appreciative children

e. became pets to very appreciative children

20. The new building was created according to a truly state of the art design.

a. according to a truly state of the art design

b. according to a truly state of the art-design

c. according to a truly state of-the art design

d. according to a truly state-of-the-art design

e. according to a truly state-of the-art design

21. We ran out of space on the bookshelves in the living room we started storing books on the

shelf at the top of the closet as well.

a. in the living room we started storing books

b. in the living room: we started storing books

c. in the living room, so we started storing

books

d. in the living room we started. Storing books

e. in the living room we started; storing books

22. To who should I address this package? a. To who should I address

b. To she should I address

c. To us should I address

d. To you should I address

e. To whom should I address

23. Having failed to see the stop sign, nearly got into an accident at the corner of Main and

Acme.

a. stop sign, nearly got into an accident at the

corner of

b. stop sign, at the corner of

c. stop sign, Toni nearly got into an accident at

the corner

d. stop sign, Toni nearly got into an accident, at

the corner of

e. stop sign, Toni nearly into an accident at the

corner of

24. After Ronette performed in the production of Our Town, she receives a bouquet of roses from

her parents.

a. performed in the production of Our Town,

she receives

b. performed in the production of Our Town,

she received

c. will perform in the production of Our Town,

she is receiving

d. performed in the production of Our Town

she receives

e. performed in the production of Our Town,

she is receiving

5252

5353

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 53 9/7/17 2:07 PM

25. You can order a printout of any Bill from the Senate.

a. a printout of any Bill from the Senate

b. a printout of any Bill from the senate

c. a Printout of any Bill from the Senate

d. a Printout of any bill from the senate

e. a printout of any bill from the Senate

26. The weather could effect the trip to the bazaar we planned, so take my advice and check the

weather report as soon as you wake up tomor-

row morning.

a. effect the trip to the bazaar we planned, so

take my advice

b. effect the trip to the bazaar we planned, so

take my advise

c. effect the trip to the bizarre we planned, so

take my advice

d. affect the trip to the bazaar we planned, so

take my advice

e. affect the trip to the bizarre we planned, so

take my advice

27. Poet Maya Angelou was renowned for being a prominent civil rights activist who also worked

to help African Americans win the liberties

other people enjoyed.

a. activist who also worked to help African

Americans win the liberties other people

enjoyed.

b. activist.

c. who also worked to help African Americans

win the liberties other people enjoyed.

d. activist who worked to help African

Americans win the liberties other people

enjoyed.

e. activist who also worked to help African-

Americans win the liberties other people

enjoyed.

28. My cell phone has run out of power, but I cannot fnd my charger, anywhere!

a. power, but I cannot fnd my charger,

anywhere!

b. power, but I cannot fnd my charger

anywhere!

c. power but I cannot fnd my charger,

anywhere!

d. power, but I cannot fnd my charger

anywhere

e. power but I cannot fnd my charger

anywhere

29. Ricardo ate a hot bowl of soup for dinner this evening.

a. ate a hot bowl of soup for dinner

b. ate a bowl of soup hot for dinner

c. ate a bowl of hot soup for dinner

d. ate a bowl of soup for dinner hot

e. hot ate a bowl of soup for dinner

30. Each fower in the vase are roses I grew in my backyard garden.

a. fower in the vase are roses I grew

b. fowers in the vase is a rose I grew

c. fower in the vase are roses we grew

d. fower in the vase is a rose I grew

e. fower are roses I grew

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 54 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Directions: Choose the letter for the underlined por-

tion of the citations that contains an error. If there is

no error in the citation, choose e.

31. Newspaper citation: Johnson, Leopold. “7 Planets Discovered

a b

Orbiting Nearby Star.” The Daily Voice

[Baltimore] 21 Feb. 2017: A4. Print. No error c d e

32. Book citation: Candace L. Lechance. The Human Body.

a b

Chicago: New Press Publishing, 2014. Print. c d

No error e

Directions: Some parts of the following passage need

to be improved. Read the passage and then answer

the questions about specifc sentences. In choosing

your answers, pay attention to development, organi-

zation, word choice, tone, and the standards of writ-

ten English.

(1) Confusion regarding dinosaur skeletons has

helped create some of history’s most enduring

mythical creatures. (2) The Griffn is one such

example of this fascinating phenomenon.

(3) According to Greek myth, this whacky crea-

ture had the wings and head of an eagle and the

body of a lion. (4) Greek writer Aristeas frst

became aware of the Griffn while traveling

through the Altai and Tien Shan mountains in

675 BCE. (5) There the Greek writer met

nomads who told him stories of the strange

Griffns who use their mighty claws to defend

their vast treasures. (6) The Greek writer

learned that the nomads insisted that there

were skeletal remains to prove the existence of

Griffns. (7) However, according to Keiron Pim

in his book Dinosaurs: The Grand Tour, the

skeletons the nomads had most likely belonged

to protoceratops, a long-extinct variety of it

with a beak, a neck-frill that could easily be

mistaken for wings, and a clawed, hefty, four-

legged frame that could pass for the body of

a lion.

(8) The dragons of myth also likely

resulted from the discovery of dinosaur fossils.

(9) Imagine having no strong knowledge of

Earth’s past and discovering massive, reptile-

like skulls full of huge teeth and tremendous

skeletons with equally elongated tails. (10) You

may be able to begin to understand how these

myths came to be. (11) In fact these, myths per-

sist even today. (12) In 2007, media sources

such as The Washington Post and BBC News

reported that villagers in China’s Ruyang

County had dug up bones they believed to be

dragon remains. (13) As it turns out, the bones

actually belonged to an herbivorous species of

dinosaur.

33. In context, which revision to sentences 4 through 6 (sentences 4 through 6 follow) is

most needed?

Greek writer Aristeas frst became aware

of the Griffn while traveling through the

Altai and Tien Shan mountains in 675

BCE. There the Greek writer met nomads

who told him stories of the strange

Griffns who use their mighty claws to

defend their vast treasures. The Greek

writer learned that the nomads insisted

that there were skeletal remains to prove

the existence of Griffns.

a. As it is now.

b. Greek writer Aristeas frst became aware of

the Griffn while traveling through the Altai

and Tien Shan mountains in 675 BCE. There

he met nomads who told him stories of the

5454

5555

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 55 9/7/17 2:07 PM

strange Griffns who use their mighty claws

to defend their vast treasures. The nomads

insisted that there were skeletal remains to

prove the existence of Griffns.

c. Aristeas frst became aware of the Griffn

while traveling through the Altai and Tien

Shan mountains in 675 BCE. There the Greek

writer met nomads who told him stories of

the strange Griffns who use their mighty

claws to defend their vast treasures. The

Greek writer learned that the nomads

insisted that there were skeletal remains to

prove the existence of Griffns.

d. The Greek writer frst became aware of the

Griffn while traveling through the Altai and

Tien Shan mountains in 675 BCE. There the

Greek writer met nomads who told him

stories of the strange Griffns who use their

mighty claws to defend their vast treasures.

The nomads insisted that there were skeletal

remains to prove the existence of Griffns.

e. Greek writer Aristeas frst became aware of

the Griffn while traveling through the Altai

and Tien Shan mountains in 675 BCE. There

he met nomads who told him stories of the

strange Griffns who use their mighty claws

to defend their vast treasures. The Greek

writer learned that the nomads insisted that

there were skeletal remains to prove the

existence of Griffns.

34. For which detail does the writer cite multiple resources?

a. Villagers in China’s Ruyang County dug up

bones they believed to be dragon remains.

b. The nomads in the Altai and Tien Shan

mountains most likely found protoceratops

skeletons.

c. The griffn had the wings and head of an

eagle and the body of a lion.

d. Aristeas traveled through the Altai and Tien

Shan mountains in 675 BCE.

e. Some people have no strong knowledge of

Earth’s past.

35. In context, which revision to sentence 3 (sen- tence 3 follows) is most needed?

According to Greek myth, this whacky

creature had the wings and head of an

eagle and the body of a lion.

a. Replace whacky with kooky.

b. Replace whacky with crazy.

c. Replace myth with stories.

d. Replace creature with monster.

e. Replace whacky with fantastical.

36. In context, which revision to sentence 7 (sentence 7 follows) is most needed?

However, according to Keiron Pim in his

book Dinosaurs: The Grand Tour, the

skeletons the nomads had most likely

belonged to protoceratops, a long-extinct

variety of it with a beak, a neck-frill that

could easily be mistaken for wings, and a

clawed, hefty, four-legged frame that

could easily pass for the body of a lion.

a. Change had to has.

b. Replace it with dinosaur.

c. Replace book with it.

d. Change his to him.

e. Change mistaken to mistook.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 56 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage to answer questions 37

through 40.

(1) In 1965, the most popular pop band in the

world was busy making their second feature

flm. (2) The movie Help! would not be remem-

bered as the Beatles’ fnest achievement.

(3) Therefore, something happened while mak-

ing the flm that would have a signifcant effect

on the band and pop music in general.

(4) The Beatles were flming a scene set in

an Indian Restaurant when the Beatles’ guitar-

ist, George Harrison, heard an instrument

called the sitar. (5) The sitar is a classical

stringed Indian instrument with as many as 21

strings. (6) The instrument creates a haunting,

“twanging” sound. (7) Although it bears some

similarities to the kinds of guitars musicians

had been using to make pop music, the sitar

was completely unheard of in pop music.

(8) That changed when Harrison fell under the

spell of the instrument while making Help!

(9) After purchasing a sitar of his own,

George Harrison began studying the instru-

ment. (10) By the end of 1965, he had enough

rudimentary knowledge of the instrument to

play a basic melody on it while recording a Bea-

tles song. (11) The use of the sitar in that song

so impressed other pop musicians of the day

that artists scrambled to incorporate the instru-

ment into their music, helping to introduce a

wide audience of pop fans outside of India to a

classical instrument they had likely never even

heard of before.

37. In context, which revision to sentence 3 (sentence 3 follows) is most needed?

Therefore, something happened while

making the flm that would have a

signifcant effect on the band and pop

music in general.

a. Change has to “have.”

b. Replace Therefore with However.

c. Change making to make.

d. Replace the flm with it.

e. Change the band to them.

38. In context, which revision to sentence 7 (sentence 7 follows) is most needed?

Although it bears some similarities to the

kinds of guitars musicians had been using

to make pop music, the sitar was

completely unheard of in pop music.

a. As it is now.

b. Although the sitar bears some similarities to

the kinds of guitars musicians had been

using to make pop music, the sitar was

completely unheard of in pop music.

c. Although it bears some similarities to the

kinds of guitars musicians had been using to

make pop music the sitar was completely

unheard of in pop music.

d. Although it bears some similarities to the

kinds of guitars musicians had been using to

make pop music, the sitar was completely

unheard of.

e. Although it bears some similarities to the

kinds of guitars musicians had been using to

make pop music, it was completely unheard

of in pop music.

5656

5757

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 57 9/7/17 2:07 PM

39. In context, which revision to sentence 10 (sentence 10 follows) is most needed?

By the end of 1965, he had enough

rudimentary knowledge of the

instrument to play a basic melody on it

while recording a Beatles song.

a. As it is now.

b. By the end of 1965, he had enough

rudimentary knowledge of the instrument

to play “Norwegian Wood (This Bird Has

Flown).”

c. By the end of 1965, he had enough

rudimentary knowledge of the instrument

to play a basic melody on it while recording

the Beatles’ song “Norwegian Wood (This

Bird Has Flown).”

d. He had enough rudimentary knowledge of

the instrument to play a basic melody on it

while recording the Beatles’ song

“Norwegian Wood (This Bird Has Flown).”

e. By the end of 1965, he had enough

rudimentary knowledge to record the

Beatles’ song “Norwegian Wood (This Bird

Has Flown).”

40. In context, which revision to sentence 11 (sentence 11 follows) is most needed?

The use of the sitar in that song so

impressed other pop musicians of the day

that artists scrambled to incorporate the

instrument into their music, helping to

introduce a wide audience of pop fans

outside of India to a classical instrument

they had likely never even heard of before.

a. As it is now.

b. The use of the sitar in that song so

impressed other pop musicians of the day

that many others scrambled to incorporate

the instrument into their music, helping to

introduce a wide audience of pop fans

outside of India to a classical instrument

they had likely never even heard of before.

c. The use of the sitar in that song so

impressed other pop musicians of the day

that artists such as the Rolling Stones

scrambled to incorporate the instrument

into their music, helping to introduce a wide

audience of pop fans outside of India to a

classical instrument they had likely never

even heard of before.

d. The use of the sitar in that song so

impressed other pop musicians of the day

that artists such as the Rolling Stones,

Donovan, Procol Harum, Traffc, and many

others scrambled to incorporate the

instrument into their music, helping to

introduce a wide audience of pop fans

outside of India to a classical instrument

they had likely never even heard of before.

e. The use of the sitar in that song so

impressed other pop musicians of the day

that artists such as the Rolling Stones,

Donovan, Procol Harum, Traffc, and many

others scrambled.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 58 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Part IIa: Argumentative Essay

Time: 30 Minutes

Directions: Carefully read the essay-writing topic that follows. Plan and write an essay that addresses all points

in the topic. Make sure that your essay is well organized and that you support your central argument with con-

crete examples. Allow 30 minutes for your essay.

More and more, newsreaders are turning to untraditional news sources such as blogs and online video

opinion pieces rather than traditional newspapers and television news programs to get their information.

Write an essay in which you explain how you think the widespread use of alternative news sources is

affecting society.

5858

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 59 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

________________________________________________________________________________________

5959

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 60 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

6060

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 61 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

________________________________________________________________________________________

6161

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 62 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

6262

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 63 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

________________________________________________________________________________________

6363

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 64 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

6464

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 65 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

________________________________________________________________________________________

6565

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 66 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

6666

6767

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 67 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Part IIb: Source-Based Essay

Time: 30 Minutes

Directions: The following assignment requires you to

use information from two sources to discuss the most

important concerns that relate to a specifc issue.

When paraphrasing or quoting from the source, cite

each source by referring to the author’s last name, the

text’s title, or any other clear identifer. Allow 30 min-

utes for your essay.

Assignment

Read the two passages carefully and then write an

essay in which you identify the most important con-

cerns regarding the debates concerning fracking. Your

essay must draw on information from both of the

sources. In addition, you may draw on your own

experiences, observations, or reading. Be sure to cite

the sources whether you are paraphrasing or directly

quoting.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 68 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Source 1

The Argument against Fracking Better known as “fracking,” hydraulic fracturing is the process of extracting fossil fuels from the earth. The process involves using intense pressure to inject liquid such as water into wells to crack rock below the earth’s surface. Sand included in the water keeps the cracks open after the injection pro- cess is complete. The resulting cracks allow oil and gas to flow freely so they can then be extracted. While proponents of fracking celebrate the process’s effectiveness, they fail to acknowledge the multitudinous downsides to this rather destructive process.

First of all, there is the matter of methane leaks. Methane is a greenhouse gas that contributes tremendously to the greenhouse effect that is helping to warm our planet abnormally. Methane tends to leak from the earth during several stages of the fracking process, so it is reasonable to con- clude that fracking can have a direct and very negative effect on climate change.

Fracking also affects the water we drink. During the process, methane not only leaks into the atmosphere above the earth’s surface; it also leaks into water below that surface. Consequently, tap water is rendered undrinkable. Methane can even make water become flammable. Chemicals used in fracking can also cause contamination, and some fracking companies will not even disclose the kinds of chemicals they use.

Fracking doesn’t just taint water; it also wastes it. A single well may use anywhere from two to twenty million gallons of water. This is a major drain on the earth’s water resources, which are becoming increasingly scarce in parts of the country such as California.

These are just a few of the serious issues with fracking. Along with the negative effect the pro- cess has on the atmosphere and water supplies, there is also the fact that fracking may help stimu- late earthquakes; it discourages the use of alternative energy sources, such as wind and solar power; and the basic quality of life of people who live near noisy, dirty fracking sites must suffer. America’s continued reliance on fracking may seem like a good idea to those who will most profit from it, but such people are extremely shortsighted. More likely, fracking will have dire long-term consequences for Earth and its residents.

6868

6969

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 69 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Source 2

Taking a Stand for Fracking The question of whether to frack or not to frack is a controversial issue. Enemies of the fossil-fuel extraction process insist that fracking has a negative impact on the environment. However, these people cannot seem to grasp all the benefits of fracking, and yes, some of those benefits are envi- ronmental in nature.

As a popular alternative to fossil fuels, coal is an unwise energy source. Thousands of people die every year because of the toxins that rise from burned coal. The rise of fracking has displaced coal considerably. In 2008, 50% of the United States’ energy was coal generated, while only 20% was natural gas generated. Four years later, use of coal energy had dropped to just 37% while natu- ral gas energy had risen to 30%, and during that time, there has been a major reduction in the kinds of deadly nitrogen and sulfur dioxide emissions that result from coal burning. I’m sure you’ll agree that is a major environmental advance that can be attributed to fracking.

Now some people complain that fracking causes the contamination of drinking water. How- ever, the water we drink is not at the same level of the earth as fossil fuels are. Fuels are located much deeper in the earth than water is. When fracking companies do their work carefully, and are mindful of pipe leaks within 1,000 feet of the earth’s surface, there is no risk of water contamination.

So, fracking really is not all that damaging to the earth and its environment. It is even benefi- cial to our planet in certain significant ways. Fracking ensures that America will continue to have clean and efficient energy sources for generations to come.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 70 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

7070

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 71 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

________________________________________________________________________________________

7171

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 72 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

7272

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 73 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

________________________________________________________________________________________

7373

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 74 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

7474

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 75 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

________________________________________________________________________________________

7575

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 76 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

7676

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 77 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

________________________________________________________________________________________

7777

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 78 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Writing Practice Test 1 Answers and Explanations

1. d. There are three items in a series in this sen- tence: creating realistic characters, building

palpable atmosphere, and plot intriguing sto-

ries. To make these three items parallel, the

word plot should be changed to plotting.

2. a. There is an error in modifer use in this sen- tence. The word stealthy is an adjective, but

it is used to describe the verb moved, so it

should be in its adverb form: stealthily.

There are no errors in choices b, c, or d.

3. e. There is no error in this sentence. All of the underlined words are capitalized correctly.

4. c. There is an error in pronoun number in this sentence. The pronoun should agree with

the singular word fock, not the plural word

geese, but their is a plural pronoun.

5. c. There is a punctuation error in this sentence. A semicolon should not be used to offset

descriptive details from what they describe.

A colon is used for this purpose.

6. e. In this sentence, Simon and Garfunkel describes a single duo, so the use of the sin-

gular verb was is correct in this context.

There are actually no errors in this sentence.

7. b. The correlative conjunction neither must be paired with nor, but this sentence mistakenly

uses or instead.

8. c. This sentence contains an idiom error. There is no such idiom as gliding the lily. The

proper idiom to indicate an unnecessary

addition to something that is already excel-

lent is gilding the lily.

9. b. There is an error in the use of an intensify- ing pronoun in this sentence. The pronoun

itself should be used only in reference to a

nonhuman subject, but a mayor is a human

being so the correct pronoun would be her-

self or himself.

10. b. There are a number of commas in this sen- tence, and one is used incorrectly. There

should not be a comma after Isaac because

the name is part of a compound entry on

the list: Isaac and Mary Allerton.

11. b. There is an error in word choice in this sen- tence. The word queue does not mean a sig-

nal for action; it means a line of people. The

correct word for this context is cue.

12. d. This sentence contains a misplaced modifer. The phrase called the Kon Tiki should be

placed directly after the term it modifes: a

wooden raft. Placing it after South America

makes it seem as though South America is

called the Kon Tiki, which does not make

sense.

13. b. The word it’s is a contraction of it is, but this sentence requires the possessive form of the

pronoun it, which is its. There should not be

an apostrophe in the word.

14. c. The conjunction and is not the best one to use in this sentence. Since the frst part of

the sentence introduces an idea that is con-

tradicted after the conjunction, but would be

a better conjunction to show the contradic-

tory relationship between the sentence’s

clauses.

15. c. Electrical is the wrong word to use in this sentence. It should be replaced with the

word electoral, which is actually the kind of

vote that determines the winner of a presi-

dential election.

16. d. The words coarse and rough share the same meaning. Eliminating the word rough would

correct this redundancy.

7878

7979

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 79 9/7/17 2:07 PM

17. e. The original sentence suffers from a vague pronoun since it is not clear whether he is

supposed to refer to Walter or Hector. Choice

e clears up this error by changing the pro-

noun to the proper noun Hector. Choice b

makes the same error as the original sen-

tence and uses incorrect gender. Choices c

and d fail to correct the original error and

make the additional error of referring to a

human as that or it.

18. c. The original sentence is missing two neces- sary pieces of punctuation. Choice c corrects

this error by inserting a semicolon between

the sentence’s two clauses and following the

conjunctive adverb however with a comma.

Choices b and d recognize that a semicolon

is needed but both answer choices misplace

their respective semicolons. Choice e mistak-

enly uses a colon instead of a semicolon.

19. e. There is an error in noun-noun agreement in the original sentence. The plural noun

cats does not agree with the singular pet.

Changing that word to the plural pets cor-

rects the error. The other answer choices fail

to correct that original error.

20. d. When two or more words are used as a sin- gle modifer, they need to be hyphenated. In

this sentence, state of the art modifes design,

so the phrase should be hyphenated as state-

of-the-art. Choices b, c, and e recognize that

the original sentence was missing hyphens,

but they either use too few hyphens or mis-

place them.

21. c. As originally written, the sentence is a run- on because it lacks a conjunction and punc-

tuation to join its two clauses. Choice c

corrects this error with the conjunction so

and a comma. Choice b uses the wrong

punctuation; a semicolon would correct the

original mistake but a colon does not.

Choices d and e place the punctuation in the

wrong spots, which turns the clauses into

fragments.

22. e. The pronoun in the original sentence is in the subjective case, but the objective case is

needed since the pronoun is being used as

the object of this sentence. Choice e corrects

this error by changing who to whom. Choice

b uses a subjective pronoun incorrectly.

Choices c and d use objective pronouns, but

the pronouns they use are not the kind

needed in a question in which the recipient

of the package is unknown.

23. d. The original sentence is a fragment because it lacks a subject. Choice d corrects this error

by introducing the subject Toni. Choice b

deletes information that fails to correct the

original problem. Choice c includes the sub-

ject but it deletes the necessary preposition

of. Choice e introduces a subject but deletes

the necessary verb got.

24. b. The original sentence has an incorrect shift in verb tense, following the past-tense verb

performed with the present-tense receives.

Choice b corrects this error by placing both

verbs in the past tense. Choice c places the

verbs in different tenses that still shift tense.

Choice d deletes a comma without correct-

ing the original error. Choice e changes the

tense of receives, but it does not change it to

the same tense as performed.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 80 9/7/17 2:07 PM

25. e. As used in this sentence, bill is a common noun so it should not be capitalized. How-

ever, Senate is a proper noun, so it should be

capitalized, making choice b incorrect.

Choice c introduces another capitalization

error by capitalizing the common noun

printout. Choice d makes the same error

while also failing to capitalize Senate.

26. d. The original sentence confuses the word effect, which is a noun meaning result, for

affect, which is a verb meaning to change.

Choice d corrects this error. Choice b not

only retains the original error but introduces

a new one by changing advice, which is a

noun meaning recommendation, to advise,

which is a verb meaning to recommend.

Choice c retains the original error, mistak-

enly changes advice to advise, and introduces

a new error by changing bazaar, which is a

noun meaning market, to bizarre, which is

an adjective meaning very strange. Choice e

makes that error regarding bizarre as well.

27. b. The original sentence includes a redundancy since stating that Maya Angelou was a civil

rights activist already implies that she worked

to help African Americans win the liberties

other people enjoyed. By deleting that fnal

phrase, choice b corrects the redundancy.

Choice c mistakenly deletes the word activist,

making it seem as though Angelou, herself,

was civil rights, which does not make sense.

Choice d merely deletes the word also, which

fails to correct the original redundancy.

Choice e fails to delete the original redun-

dancy and introduces a punctuation error by

placing an unnecessary hyphen between

African and American.

28. b. The original sentence contains an unneces- sary comma before anywhere. Choice b cor-

rects that error by deleting the comma.

Choice c introduces a new error by deleting

the necessary comma before but while failing

to correct the original comma error. Choices

d and e correct the original error but delete

the necessary end marks, and choice e also

deletes that necessary comma before but.

29. c. The original sentence misplaces the modifer hot, making it seem as though the actual

bowl was hot when it is the soup inside the

bowl that was hot. Choice c corrects this

error by placing hot so that it modifes soup.

Choices b, d, and e also misplace the

modifer.

30. d. There is a lack of agreement between the nouns in the original sentence. Flower and

roses refer to the same thing so they should

agree in number. Choice d corrects this error

by changing roses to the singular a rose so

that it agrees with the singular fower. Choice

b merely reverses the original agreement

error while introducing a new error with the

incorrect phrase Each fowers. Choice c

merely changes the pronoun, which does not

correct the original error. Choice e deletes

the phrase in the vase, which does not cor-

rect the original error either.

31. e. This newspaper article is cited correctly as originally written. There are no errors in it.

32. a. In a book citation, the author’s last name precedes his or her frst name. This citation

fails to do so. The rest of the citation is writ-

ten correctly.

8080

8181

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 81 9/7/17 2:07 PM

33. b. As originally written, sentences 4 through 6 lack variety; each sentence includes the term

Greek writer. Choice b corrects this problem

by eliminating two of the repetitious uses of

the term. Choices c and e each eliminate one

use of the phrase, but they are still too repe-

titious. Choice d deletes the Greek writer’s

name, making his identity unclear, and fails

to correct the original problem of repetition.

34. a. To support this detail, the author cites two media sources. Choice b is supported with

only a single source. Choices c, d, and e are

not supported with any sources.

35. e. The language used in the majority of this passage indicates that it was written for an

educated, adult audience. The word whacky

is too informal for this passage. Changing

that phrase to fantastical maintains the pas-

sage’s sophisticated style. Choices a and b

merely replace one informal word with

another. Choice c changes myth to the less

specifc stories while failing to correct the

original stylistic error. Choice d changes

creature to monster while failing to correct

the original stylistic error.

36. b. As originally written, this sentence is unclear because the pronoun it is too vague. Replac-

ing it with the term that pronoun stands for

(dinosaur) clarifes the sentence’s meaning.

Choices a and e each introduce verb-tense

errors into the sentence. Choice c introduces

another vague pronoun, making the sen-

tence even less clear than it originally was.

Choice d introduces a pronoun error.

37. b. As originally written, sentence 3 begins with the wrong transitional word because There-

fore suggests a result, yet sentence 3 provides

a contrast to sentence 4. A better transitional

word is However. Choices a and c introduce

grammatical errors to the sentence. Choices

d and e replace specifc nouns with vague

pronouns.

38. a. Sentence 7 is perfectly clear and grammati- cally correct as it is originally written. None

of the answer choices improve the sentence.

39. c. The original sentence could use some clarif- cation regarding the song in question, and

choice c provides that without introducing

any new errors. Choices b and e clarify the

song but make George Harrison’s contribu-

tion to it less clear than it was in the original

sentence. Choice d clarifes the song but

makes the timeframe of the event less clear

than it was in the original sentence.

40. d. Choice d improves on the original sentence by introducing some examples of the other

pop artists who used the sitar in their music.

Choices b and c do not support the original

sentence as well as choice d does because

they do not include suffcient examples.

Choice e includes those supportive exam-

ples, but it also deletes information, making

it unclear what these other pop musicians

did.

Sample Responses for the Argumentative Essay

Following are sample criteria for scoring an argu-

mentative essay.

A score 6 writer will n create an exceptional composition with a clear

thesis that appropriately addresses the audience

and given task. n organize ideas effectively and logically, include

very strong supporting details, and use smooth

transitions. n present a defnitive, focused thesis and clearly

support it throughout the composition. n include vivid details, clear examples, and strong

details to support the key ideas.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 82 9/7/17 2:07 PM

n exhibit an exceptional level of skill in the usage of

the English language and the capacity to employ

an assortment of sentence structures. n build essentially error-free and varied sentences

that accurately convey intended meaning.

A score 5 writer will n create a commendable composition that appro-

priately addresses the audience and given task. n organize ideas, include supporting details, and

use smooth transitions. n present a thesis and support it throughout the

composition. n include details, examples, and supporting text to

enhance the themes of the composition. n generally exhibit a high level of skill in the usage

of the English language and the capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build mostly error-free sentences that accurately

convey intended meaning.

A score 4 writer will n create a composition that satisfactorily addresses

the audience and given task. n display satisfactory organization of ideas, include

adequate supporting details, and generally use

smooth transitions. n present a thesis and mostly support it throughout

the composition. n include some details, examples, and supporting

text that typically enhance most themes of the

composition. n exhibit a competent level of skill in the usage of

the English language and the general capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build sentences with several minor errors that

generally do not confuse the intended meaning.

A score 3 writer will n create an adequate composition that basically

addresses the audience and given task.

n display some organization of ideas, include some

supporting details, and use mostly logical

transitions. n present a somewhat underdeveloped thesis but

attempt to support it throughout the

composition. n exhibit an adequate level of skill in the usage of

the English language and a basic capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build sentences with some minor and major

errors that may obscure the intended meaning.

A score 2 writer will n create a composition that restrictedly addresses

the audience and given task. n display little organization of ideas, have inconsis-

tent supporting details, and use very few

transitions. n present an unclear or confusing thesis with little

support throughout the composition. n include very few details, examples, and support-

ing text. n exhibit a less than adequate level of skill in the

usage of the English language and a limited

capacity to employ a basic assortment of sentence

structures. n build sentences with a few major errors that may

confuse the intended meaning.

A score 1 writer will n create a composition that has a limited sense of

the audience and given task. n display illogical organization of ideas, include

confusing or no supporting details, and lack the

ability to effectively use transitions. n present a minimal or unclear thesis. n include confusing or irrelevant details and exam-

ples, and little or no supporting text. n exhibit a limited level of skill in the usage of the

English language and little or no capacity to

employ basic sentence structure.

8282

8383

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 83 9/7/17 2:07 PM

n build sentences with many major errors that

obscure or confuse the intended meaning.

Sample Score 6 Argumentative Essay Throughout the twentieth century, humans largely

relied on traditional news sources such as newspapers,

magazines, and television news programs to stay on top

of current events. This situation has drastically changed

with the widespread use of the Internet in the twenty-

frst century. Now people regularly consult such less for-

mal sources as blogs and online video opinion pieces to

fnd out what is happening in the world. While some

argue that this change in the nature of our news is either

a good thing or a bad thing, I believe there is a more

nuanced assessment as there are both pros and cons to

the proliferation of these relatively new news sources.

On the pro side, personal blogs and the kinds of

video pieces anyone with a smart phone can post on

sites such as YouTube are giving a voice to members of

the population who did not have one before. Now every-

one can play the role of political commentator, voicing

alternative opinions about the world that may not be

presented in traditional media. This helps people to feel

more involved in the world events that so often feel

beyond our control. The high quality of many blogs and

video pieces has also inspired many commentators to

put the kind of polish on their presentations that used to

be exclusive to national newspapers and network televi-

sion programs.

However, there is a downside to the relative ease

of posting an editorial piece on a blog or YouTube. There

is generally no system of checks and balances on these

kinds of information outlets, which has caused a rise in

what is commonly called “fake news.” These are news

items with no basis in reality that could actually have

national and global impacts when readers believe them

to be true. The rise of fake news is a highly dangerous

consequence of the news items that pop up on unregu-

lated blogs and video sites.

Nevertheless, the American ideal of free speech

ensures that we will probably continue to see news items

appear on blogs and video sites no matter how profes-

sional, amateurish, factual, or fctional they may be.

The key to navigating this tricky environment is cross

checking the news items that appear on these sources

with items in other sources. Doing so will help us to fg-

ure out which sources are the most reliable, earning our

repeat attention and consideration. That way we read-

ers can remain well informed with “real” news amidst

the twenty-frst century’s complex media environment

and all people can continue to take advantage of the

more prominent voices the current news environment

affords them.

Comments on the Sample Argumentative Essay That Received a Score of 6 The author has created an informative essay with a

clear thesis. It answers the question and has a smooth,

logical organization. Stylistically, it uses smooth tran-

sitions and relevant and correct examples. The key

ideas are readily apparent and explored throughout

the essay through well-written and varied sentences.

Sample Score 4 Argumentative Essay More and more, newsreaders are turning to untradi-

tional news sources such as blogs and online video opin-

ion pieces rather than traditional newspapers and

television news programs to get their information. This

is causing some major problems in the world.

Basically, when anyone can provide the news, they

can say anything they want to. Old-fashioned newspa-

pers and TV news programs have editors that can sepa-

rate what is true from what is not true. If a reporter

comes in with fake information, an editor can stop that

information from ever going in print or on TV. There

aren’t any kinds of things when it comes to blogs and

video sights. So anyone can publish anything they want

to. Fake news is the result of this. Nowadays, it is getting

harder and harder to know what is fake and what is

real because of fake news. People are getting really con-

fused because of all this.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 84 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Still we have free speech in America and that

means anyone can say anything they want to say. So

that’s why there is still fake news. Free speech is foored

but it is the American way. So who are we to say it

should be stopped? We must deal with a world where

there is fake news as well as good, old-fashioned news-

papers that always tell the truth. This can make it diff-

cult to stay well informed, but with a little bit of care

and work, we can still do that.

Comments on the Sample Argumentative Essay That Received a Score of 4 The author has created a serviceable composition.

The thesis is readily perceived and adequately, if not

spectacularly, defended. Details are correct, if vague.

Stylistically, it is rather rough and too informal and

the decision to begin the essay by quoting the prompt

word-for-word is weak. However, the author displays

adequate knowledge of the subject and suffcient

command of the English language. Aside from a few

errors in word choice (for example: using sights

instead of sites and foored instead of fawed), the

essay is grammatically and orthographically correct,

even if it is not scintillating.

Sample Score 1 Argumentative Essay First of all blogs are awesome. Their . . . I said it. They

are awesome! I love to use blogs to right all about what

I’m doing. Like what music I’m listening to. And TV

shows I like. I bet that people could not do that before

blogs. I mean they could right about that kind of stuff

but they could not right about it so that EVRYONE IN

THE WORLD literally could read it! Literally!

You need to be careful what you say though. You

cant say anything bad about people cause they might

read it and knowing that the whole world is reading

bad things about them will make them feel BAD. Never

do that. Only say good things about people on your

blogs. Hey . . . it’s all good!

Comments on the Sample Argumentative Essay That Received a Score of 1 The author neither understands the subject nor

expresses an opinion in a clear and coherent manner.

The author furthermore focuses on his or her experi-

ence with blogging, not with the role blogs play in the

current news environment. There are grammatical

and spelling errors, and the essay neither develops in

a clear way nor has very much to say.

Sample Responses for the Source-Based Essay

Following are sample criteria for scoring a source-

based essay.

A score 6 writer will n create an exceptional composition explaining why

the topic is important and support the explana-

tion with specifc references to both sources. n organize ideas effectively and logically, include

well-chosen information from both sources, and

link the two sources in the discussion. n exhibit an exceptional level of skill in the usage of

the English language and the capacity to employ

an assortment of sentence structures. n build essentially error-free and varied sentences

that accurately convey intended meaning. n cite both sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 5 writer will n create a commendable composition that explains

why the concerns are important and support the

explanation with specifc references to both

sources. n organize ideas effectively and logically, include

information from both sources, link the two

sources, and use smooth transitions. n generally exhibit skill in the usage of the English

language and the capacity to employ variety in

sentence structures.

8484

8585

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 85 9/7/17 2:07 PM

n build mostly error-free sentences that accurately

convey intended meaning. n cite both sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 4 writer will n create a composition that satisfactorily explains

why the concerns are important and support the

explanation with specifc references to both

sources. n use information from both sources to convey why

the concerns discussed in the sources are

important. n display satisfactory organization of ideas, include

adequate details, and link the two sources. n exhibit a competent level of skill in the usage of

the English language and the general capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build sentences with several minor errors that

generally do not confuse the intended meaning. n cite both sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 3 writer will n create an adequate composition that basically

addresses the audience and given task but conveys

the importance of the concerns in only a limited

way. n use information from only one source or inade-

quately from both sources to convey why the con-

cerns discussed in the sources are important. n display some organization of ideas and include

some supporting details. n exhibit an adequate level of skill in the usage of

the English language and a basic capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build sentences with some minor and major

errors that may obscure the intended meaning. n cite sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 2 writer will n fail to explain why the concerns are important. n use information from only one source poorly or

fail to convey why the concerns discussed in the

sources are important.

n display little organization of ideas, have inconsis-

tent supporting details, and fail to link the two

sources. n demonstrate a less than adequate level of skill in

the usage of the English language and a limited

capacity to employ a basic assortment of sentence

structures. n build sentences with a few major errors that may

confuse the intended meaning. n fail to cite sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 1 writer will n display illogical organization of ideas, include

confusing or no supporting details, and fail to

adequately address the concerns raised by the

sources. n include confusing or irrelevant details and exam-

ples, and few or no supporting references. n exhibit a limited level of skill in the usage of the

English language and little or no capacity to

employ basic sentence structure. n build sentences with many major errors that

obscure or confuse the intended meaning.

Sample Score 6 Source-Based Essay Despite its enormity, the Earth is a fragile place.

Humankind cannot abuse our planet without conse-

quences, which is something we are learning in the age

of fracking. Properly known as “hydraulic fracturing,”

fracking is a method of drawing fossil fuels from the

Earth. While the process has its proponents, there are

serious consequences to the process that pose a very real

threat to world on which we all live.

Fracking can negatively affect our planet both by

what it does to the physical Earth and what it may

release into the atmosphere above the planet. Fracking

can cause the leaking of methane, a harmful greenhouse

gas that can exacerbate climate change when it escapes

into the atmosphere. Toxic substances can contaminate

water when it leaks into the ground below.

Proponents of fracking argue that there is actually

no danger of water contamination because the ground

water we drink and fossil fuels are located at different

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 86 9/7/17 2:07 PM

levels of the Earth’s interior. However, pipe leaks can

still cause leakage as the fuels are drawn to the Earth’s

surface. The article “Taking a Stand for Fracking”

argues that this is not a threat when fracking companies

work carefully, but what of the ones that do not perform

this clearly complex work with care? Do the risks really

justify the consequences? Considering that these compa-

nies are proft driven, and some lack so much consider-

ation for the public that they “will not even disclose the

kinds of chemicals they use,” according to “The Argu-

ment against Fracking,” they may not deserve the bene-

ft of the doubt.

I personally think that the argument against

fracking is much stronger than the argument in favor of

it. Additionally, the dependence on fossil fuels that the

fracking industry promotes is drawing away support for

alternative energy sources such as wind and solar

energy. By simply focusing on the admittedly problem-

atic alternative energy source of coal, the author of

“Taking a Stand for Fracking” fails to examine this

issue completely. The article’s refusal to acknowledge the

fact that fracking may stimulate earthquakes is another

faw in a piece clearly intent on cherry-picking infor-

mation to present an unwavering pro-fracking position.

Granted, this issue is obviously too complex to

address in articles as brief as “Taking a Stand for Frack-

ing” and “The Argument against Fracking,” but even in

its truncated format, “The Argument against Fracking”

makes the more convincing argument, as it uses more

varied and well-supported examples than “Taking a

Stand for Fracking” does. If I’m ever able to take a

stand, myself, by using my vote to support or prevent

fracking, I know that I will be taking my stand against

the dangerous, potentially disastrous process.

Comments on the Sample Source-Based Essay That Received a Score of 6 This is a superb essay. This response evaluates the

arguments in the source texts, develops an effective

position supported by the text, and fulflls the criteria

to earn a top score. This response establishes its stance

at the conclusion of the frst paragraph (While the

process has its proponents, there are serious conse-

quences to the process that pose a very real threat to

world on which we all live.) and provides a summary

of support for that stance in the second, third, and

fourth paragraphs. In the third and fourth para-

graphs, the writer also weighs the validity of the evi-

dence in the “against” argument, for example:

“‘Taking a Stand for Fracking’ argues that this is not a

threat when fracking companies work carefully, but

what of the ones that do not perform this clearly com-

plex work with care? Do the risks really justify the

consequences?”

The essay is well organized, opens with a defni-

tive stance, offers a discussion of the pros and cons of

fracking and the evidence provided, and then pro-

vides a summary in support of the chosen stance. The

writer provides multiple, specifc examples and then

elaborates on them, using an appropriately formal

tone throughout. In addition, the writer adheres to

proper grammar and usage.

Sample Score 4 Source-Based Essay Fracking is one of the most controversial contemporary

issues. Some people are against it because they think it

is bad for the environment. Other people are for it

because they think the complaints against fracking are

incomplete. After reading two articles on this subject,

one for it and one against it, I think I probably agree

with “Taking a Stand for Fracking.”

The writer of this article says that “As a popular

alternative to fossil fuels, coal is an unwise energy

source. Thousands of people die every year because of

the toxins that rise from burned coal. The rise of frack-

ing has displaced coal considerably.” This is a pretty

convincing argument because nothing is more serious

than death. The other article called “The Argument

against Fracking” doesn’t even talk about how bad coal

is. That is a major problem with that article.

That article also says that fracking taints drinking

water. But “Taking a Stand for Fracking” shoots that

argument right down by proving that “the water we

drink is not at the same level of the earth as fossil fuels

8686

8787

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 87 9/7/17 2:07 PM

are.” This makes the argument against fracking because

of tainted water seem downright foolish.

Basically, I think the author of “Taking a Stand

for Fracking” makes a more convincing argument

because of the details and the way the article is written.

I got a sense that the author was talking right to me by

using a less formal way of speaking. I felt like it was

written by a real person. This makes the information

seem more like it was provided by an actual human

being instead of some sort of computer or something.

Comments on the Sample Source-Based Essay That Received a Score of 4 This response makes a simple argument, supports it

with some evidence from the source text, and offers a

partial analysis of the opposing argument.

The writer generates an argument in favor of

fracking and makes a clear statement of his or her

position in the frst paragraph (After reading two arti-

cles on this subject, one for it and one against it, I think

I probably agree with “Taking a Stand for Fracking.”).

The writer does cite some evidence from the source

text to support his or her position, but overly relies

on direct quotation with a minimum of true insight

into the details quoted and a tendency to not ques-

tion those details. Consequently, the analysis is sim-

plistic and limited. In addition, the focus on the

author’s tone and style in the fnal a paragraph is a

weak way to end the essay, revealing that the writer

may have been more swayed by how the article was

written rather than the quality of its details.

The writer adheres to proper grammar and

usage.

Sample Score 1 Source-Based Essay Fracking is breaking up the Earths surface to get gas. I

get that. But it is not the right name for this thing. It is

really called hydraulic fracking. That is just one of the

facinating details I learned while reading the two

articles.

These were the only articles about hydraulic frack-

ing Ive ever read I think they really made me known of

an issue I didn’t know anything about at all. I learned

about a lot of terms like hydraulic fracking and I learned

why some people are against it like the guy who wrote

“The Arguing Against Fracking” and some people are

for it like “Taking Stand for Fracking.” I’m pretty sure I

have an opinion about this subject now to. And I didn’t

even know anything about it! Before reading these arti-

cles!

Comments on the Sample Source-Based Essay That Received a Score of 1 In general, this response provides a minimal sum-

mary of the source texts and lacks insight and topic

analysis. The writer fails to summarize source texts in

a coherent and organized structure. Although this

response addresses the source material, the writer

fails to cite evidence to support any arguments and

does not take a frm stance despite suggesting that he

or she now has an opinion about it (I’m pretty sure I

have an opinion about this subject now to . . .). The

writer wastes too much space dwelling on how he or

she did not know anything about fracking before

reading the assignment.

Overall, the response is poorly developed, is dis-

organized, and lacks any clear progression of ideas.

The writer uses informal, colloquial, and vague lan-

guage (Fracking is breaking up the Earths surface to get

gas. I get that. But it is not the right name for this

thing.) and misquotes details in and even titles of the

source material (It is really called hydraulic fracking.).

The response lacks organizational structure and a

clear progression of ideas.

Many sentences lack sense and fuency and are

incorrect and awkward. The writer misuses and con-

fuses words, punctuation, and usage as well as the

conventions of English in general, making the

response almost incomprehensible. This short

response shows fawed sentence structure, including

run-on sentences (These were the only articles about

hydraulic fracking Ive ever read I think they really made

me known of an issue I didn’t know anything about at

all) and fragments (Before reading these articles!).

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 88 9/7/17 2:07 PM

___

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Mathematics Practice Test 1

Time: 85 Minutes

Directions: Choose the best answer to each of the fol-

lowing questions.

1. Which of the following is equal to √500? a. 50

b. 10√50 c. 10√5 d. 50√10 e. 5√10

2. As of 2016, the yearly average birth rate in India is approximately 19.3 births for every

1,000 people. Determine the total number of

births expected in one year if India’s popula-

tion is 1.327 billion.

3. What is the median of the data set represented by this boxplot?

–30 –20 –10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60

a. 5

b. 22.5

c. 30

d. 40

e. 50

4. Solve the equation: 9 – x = –2(2x – 3) a. –6

b. –4

c. –3

d. –1

e. 0

5. Brett can wash 2 full-length patio doors in 55 minutes. How many minutes would it take him

to wash 17 full-length patio doors?

6. The radius of the base of circular cylindrical holding tank is 8 times the radius of the base of

a circular cylindrical pipe that empties into it.

If they have the same length, say L feet, the vol-

ume of the tank is how many times the volume

of the pipe?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 16

d. 64

e. 512

7. Which of the following is the solution set for the inequality –4(3 – 2x) ≥ 19 + 3(x – 2)?

a. {x | x ≥ 11 1 }

b. {x | x ≥ 20} 29 c. {x | x ≥ – 5 }

d. {x | x ≥ –5}

e. {x | x ≥ 5}

8888

8989

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 89 9/7/17 2:07 PM

y8. Which of the following scatterplots indicates a d. positive trend?

a. y

e. y x

b. y

x 9. Which of the following is a reasonable estimate

y for the height of the frst hill of a new extreme roller coaster?

a. 2,000 mm

b. 8 m

c. 300 ft.

d. 2.0 km

e. 5 yards

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 90 9/7/17 2:07 PM

10. Participants in a study concerned with the link between eating sugary foods and blood glucose

levels are asked to measure their glucose levels

every 4 hours during the day. One participant’s

readings for the frst 24 hours of the study are

as follows:

BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL TIME (IN MILLIGRAMS PER DECILITER)

6 A.M. 50 10 A.M. 70 2 P.M. 50 6 P.M. 40 10 P.M. 60 2 A.M. 60

What is the mean blood glucose level for these

readings?

11. What is the slope of the line graphed here?

(5,–1)

(–4,3)

a. 2 __4b. 9

c. 0 __4d. – 9 __9 e. – 4

12. Which of the following are factors of the num- ber 23 × 32 × 5? Select all that apply. a. 4

b. 7

c. 12

d. 50

e. 72

13. Pamela works a 40-hour week as a computer technician at a local library. She earns a base

salary of $15 per hour, plus double this amount

for any hour she works beyond 40 in a week.

Her goal is to earn $960 each week prior to

taxes. How many hours beyond the initial 40

must she work in a week to attain her goal?

14. An eighth-grade teacher needs to select a stu- dent representative to serve as an assistant

crossing guard for after-school programs. To

do this, she randomly selects a letter from the

alphabet and then chooses the frst student

from the bottom of her class roster whose frst

name begins with that letter. Which of the fol-

lowing statements is true?

a. The selection process is unfair because there

may not be an equal number of students

whose frst names start with each letter of

the alphabet.

b. The selection process is unfair because she

did a random selection of letters instead of

numbers.

c. The selection process is fair because each

letter has an equal chance of being selected.

d. The selection process is fair because students

with an uncommon frst name will not be

singled out.

e. This would be a fair method for making

such a selection if the class size were 60, but

not for a class size of 25.

9090

9191

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 91 9/7/17 2:07 PM

15. If the triangle DABC with vertices A(3,–5), B(–4,4), and C(–6,3) is refected over the line

y = –1, what are the coordinates of the image

of vertex C?

a. (3,–6)

b. (4,–5)

c. (4,3)

d. (6,–3)

e. (–6,–5)

16. Consider the following relative frequency distribution:

–20

x –10 10 20 30 40 50 60

Select all statements that are true.

a. The standard deviation is zero.

b. The distribution is symmetric about the

y-axis.

c. The median of this distribution is positive.

d. The distribution is skewed right.

e. The distribution is bimodal.

17. Which of the following is equivalent to 24a3b5 – 8a4b2 + 36ab3 – a4b2?

12b12a. 55a

b. 3ab2(8a2b3 – 9a4b2 + 36ab3)

c. 9ab2(3a2b3 + 4b – 1) 4b2d. 60a3b5 – 9a

e. 3ab2(8a2b3 – 3a3 + 12b)

30 2418. Which of the following is equivalent to ?6 3 a. 5√21 b. 20√3 c. 5√2 d. 10√2 e. 20

19. Consider the following set of numbers: {6, 16, 26, 36, 46, 56, 66, 108}

If a number is selected at random from this set,

what is the probability of selecting a number

that is divisible by 6 and 9?

a. 0.125

b. 0.25

c. 0.50

d. 0.75

e. 1.00

20. The group exercise classes at a local YMCA begin at 7 A.M. and the last class ends at

3:56 P.M. There are 10 classes offered with

4 minutes between classes. What is the dura-

tion of each class, in minutes?

21. Corn is being poured out of a silo into a pile in the form of a right circular cone. If the height

of the fnal pile is 12 feet and the volume is

324p cubic feet, what is the radius of the circu- lar base (in feet)?

322. Let m(x) = –5x + 4x3 – 3x4 and n(x) = 6x – 42x . Which of the following is equivalent to

4m(x) – 3n(x)?

a. –x(5x3 + 14x2 + 20)

b. –2x(3x3 + x2 + 10)

c. –2x(9x3 + x2 + 10)

d. –2x(9x3 – 17x2 + 10)

e. –x(x3 + 2x2 + 5)

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 92 9/7/17 2:07 PM

___

23. Two hundred parents and students in the audi- ence of a high school freshmen orientation ses-

sion were asked if they had ever heard of the

concept of student-centered learning. The

responses are tabulated as follows:

PARENTS STUDENTS

Yes 12 32 No 118 38

What is the probability that a randomly

selected member of the audience answers Yes

to this question given that the audience mem-

ber is a parent? ___3 a. 50 ___6b. 65 __3 c. 11 16

d. 35

e. 12

24. A dog boarding facility devotes __5 4

of its time to ___7dog grooming services. Of this time, 24 is spent

on bathing dogs. What fraction of its dog-

grooming time does this facility NOT devote

to bathing dogs?

25. Which of the following quadratic equations has imaginary solutions? Select all that apply.

a. 6x2 – 42 = 0

b. 3x2 + x + 8 = 0

c. 4x2 + 20 = 0

d. –8x2 + 40x = 0

e. x2 + 11x + 4 = 0

26. A family goes to an apple orchard to pick apples for autumn baking. The cost for the

excursion is a $7.50 entrance fee plus $5.00 per

pound of apples. If they want to spend no

more than $50, which of the following inequal-

ities can be used to determine the number of

pounds of apples, x, they can purchase?

a. 5.00x + 7.50 ≤ 50.00 b. 5.00 + 7.50x ≤ 50.00 c. 5.00x + 7.50 ≥ 50.00 d. 5.00 + 7.50x ≥ 50.00 e. 12.50x ≤ 50.00

27. A zip line extends from peak to peak, as shown in the diagram.

6,500 feet

3,750 feet

Zip Line4,500 feet

Horizontal Distance D

The length of the zip line is 4,500 feet. The

height of the higher peak is 6,500 feet and the

height of the lower one is 3,750 feet. What is

the approximate horizontal distance between

the two peaks?

a. 750 feet

b. 3,562 feet

c. 4,500 feet

d. 5,858 feet

e. 8,250 feet

9292

9393

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 93 9/7/17 2:07 PM

28. Which of the following is equivalent to the expression (3g2h) ⋅ (2j3gh5)? a. 72g3h6j3

b. 6g2h5j3

c. 6(gh6j)3

d. g3h6j3

e. 6g3h6j3

29. The top of a giant gumball machine is a spheri- cal glass globe with a diameter of 3 feet. What

is the volume of the tank in cubic inches?

a. 1,296p cubic inches b. 1,944p cubic inches c. 5,184p cubic inches d. 7,776p cubic inches e. 62,208p cubic inches

30. Which of the following is the solution of this system of equations?

−2x – 3y = 21

3y + 2x = 27

__3 a. x = – 2 , y = –8

b. x = 0, y = –7

c. x = 12, y = 1

d. x = 0, y = 9

e. no solution

⎧ ⎨ ⎩

31. Assume that the line passing through points A and C is tangent to the circle (centered at

point B) at point A, as shown:

32°

What is the measure of angle ABC in degrees?

32. Suppose that a random variable X has the fol- lowing probability distribution:

x –6 –2 0 3 5

P(X = x) 3__ 2

2__ 9

1__ 6

7__ 18

1__ 6

What is the expected value of X?

a. –6

b. 0

c. .1

d. 11__ 9 e. 3

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 94 9/7/17 2:07 PM

__________

____________

___

_______

33. On an amusement park map, 1 inch corre- sponds to 750 feet. If the length of the path

from the Looper Dooper Coaster to the Over

the Falls Flume Ride on the map is 3.8 inches,

what is the actual distance between these

amusement rides?

a. 197.4 feet

b. 753.8 feet

c. 1,508 feet

d. 2,850 feet

e. cannot determine from the given

information

34. Which of the following equations has solutions that correspond to the intersection points of

the graph?

1 2 3 4

(2,2) y

35. Nathan spent $1,175 on equipment needed to start a power-washing business. For each deck

or fence he power-washes, he earns $50, but it

costs $6.50 in gas for each job. Determine the

number of decks or fences he must power-

wash to break even.

a. 21

b. 24

c. 27

d. 28

e. 54

36. A professional racquetball player can return a ball at 70 miles per hour. Which numerical

expression gives the speed of his return in feet

per second? 70 × 5,280a. feet per second60 × 60

b. 70 × 5,280 60 feet per second 70 × 60 × 60 c. feet per second5,280

d. 70 60 feet per second

e. 60 70 × 60 feet per second

37. Suppose that f is an invertible function with the following values:

x –6 –5 –2 0 3 8 f(x) 3 8 6 4 –2 –6

What is the value of the expression f –1(f –1(–6)), a. 2(x – 2)2 = –__2

1 x where f –1 represents the inverse function of f ?

b. –2(x – 2)2 = –__2 1 x

38. Write the following product as a decimal:c. –(x – 2)2 + 2 = –2x + 2 (30.5 × 104) × (1.2 × 10–7)

d. (x – 2)2 = x

e. –(x – 2)2 + 2 = –__2 1 x + 4

9494

9595

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 95 9/7/17 2:07 PM

39. Consider the line graphed here:

(8,10)

x (3,0)

Which of the following is the equation of this

line?

a. 2x – y = 3

b. x – 2y = 3

c. 2x + 3y = 6

d. 2x – y = 6

e. 2x – y = –3

40. The height of a scuba training pool in the shape of a right circular cylinder is three times

the diameter of the base. If the diameter of

the base of the cylinder is 60 feet, what is its

volume?

a. 10,800p cubic feet b. 54,000p cubic feet c. 162,000p cubic feet d. 648,000p cubic feet e. 1,944,000p cubic feet

41. Assume the point (–1,6) lies on the graph of the function y = f(x). Consider the translation

of this function given by g(x) = f(x – 7) + 2. To

what point would the given point correspond

on the graph of g(x)?

42. A tent is in the shape of a right triangular prism with dimensions shown:

60° 60°

12 ft.

8 ft.

What is its total surface area?

a. (288 + 32√3) ft.2

b. 192√3 ft.2

c. (192 + 32√3) ft.2

d. (96 + 32√3) ft.2

e. (288 + 16√3) ft.2

43. If p and q are prime numbers, what is the 2greatest common factor of 18p q, 30pq2, 12pq3?

2 3a. 180p q 2b. 12pq

c. 3pq 4 6d. 2,880p q

e. 6pq

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 96 9/7/17 2:07 PM

_______

________

_______

______

_______

44. Which of the following collections of data, if any, has/have a median and a mean of 26?

I. 26, 26, 0, 26, 26

II. –22, 98, –22, 98, –22

III. 26, 26, 26, 26

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I and II

e. I, II, and III

32x – 845. Which of the following is equivalent to 4x2 – 1 ÷ 16x2 – 4x?2x – 1

2 a. 2x2 + x 2b. 2x2 + 1 1 c. x2 + x 1d. x2 + 1 2 e. 22x – x

46. Which of the following distributions has a pos- itive median? Select all that apply.

y a.

y b.

yc.

yd.

ye.

47. Assume that a and b are positive integers. Which of the following statements is/are

always true? _____ a __1I. = a + b b

II. a × b > a __ b __ _______ a b2 + a2 III. + = a b a × b

a. I and II only

b. II and III only

c. I only

d. II only

e. III only

9696

9797

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 97 9/7/17 2:07 PM

48. Consider the two squares ABCD and LMNP:

–4 –2

–2

2 4 6 8 10 12

M N

B C

A D

Assume that ABCD can be transformed into

LMNP by frst translating ABCD and then

applying an appropriate dilation emanating

from the lower left vertex of the square. Which

of the following translation rule–dilation com-

binations will result in this transformation?

a. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x + 10,y – 2) and then perform a dilation centered at

the vertex A with a scale factor of 3.

b. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x – 10,y – 2) and then perform a dilation centered at

the vertex A with a scale factor of 3.

c. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x – 10,y + 2) and then perform a dilation centered at

__1the vertex A with a scale factor of 3 .

d. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x – 4,y + 2) and then perform a dilation centered at the

vertex A with a scale factor of 3.

e. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x + 10,y – 2) and then perform a dilation centered at

__1the vertex A with a scale factor of 3 .

49. A certain probability model suggests that when a standard 8-sided die is rolled, the probability

__1 of it landing with the 4 side up is 8 . Select all

the following statements that are true.

a. In the long run, you expect to have the die

land on a 4 one-eighth of the time.

b. If you roll ten consecutive 4s, the probability

model must be invalid.

c. It is impossible to roll the die 100 times and

get only fve 4s.

d. It is possible to roll 20 consecutive 4s.

e. It is possible to roll the die 50 times and get

one 4, and to roll it another 50 times and get

thirty 4s without violating this model.

50. Jacob needs to build fve identical, adjacent rectangular pens in the backyard in such a way

that the backside of all fve pens is against the

barn, as shown.

Barn

He has 1,200 feet of fence to use to construct the

pens. Fence is not needed along the backside of

the barn. If the combined area of all fve pens

must be 70,000 square feet, create a quadratic

equation that can be used to fnd the width, w,

of one of the fve pens.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 98 9/7/17 2:07 PM

_____

_______

________

_______

_______________

51. Which of the following statements is/are true? Select all that apply.

a. The square root of a rational number must

be irrational.

b. The quotient of two nonzero rational

numbers can be an irrational number.

c. The product of two irrational numbers can

be a rational number.

d. The sum of an irrational number and a

rational number must be an irrational

number.

e. The quotient of two irrational numbers can

be irrational.

52. What is the value of x in the following dia- gram? Assume O is the center of the circle and

that OP and OK are both radii of this circle.

54. Consider the set of whole numbers {6, 12, 18, 24, . . . }. Select all of the following statements

that are true about the members of this set.

a. None of the numbers are prime.

b. All the numbers are divisible by 4.

c. None of the numbers are odd.

d. All the numbers are multiples of 6.

e. All the numbers are factors of 6.

55. A great room measures 18 feet by 22 feet and the ceiling is 10 feet high. One gallon of paint

can be used to apply one coat of paint to 300

square feet of wall or ceiling space. How many

gallons of paint will it take to paint all but the

foor of the room if three coats of paint must

be applied? Round your answer to the nearest

tenth of a foot.

56. Which of the following statements is/are true? Select all that apply.

a. √9 + √16 = √25

x P

5 m

280°

51 5b. = 5

c. e = 2.71828

d. p = 314159 1 1>e. 5 7

53. Which of the following is equivalent to _______2 x (x + 1)2 ÷ x + 1?

1 – x a. x + 1 2 – xb. (x + 1)2

–(x + 2)c. x + 1 1 – xd. (x + 1)2

–(x – 1) (x + 2)e. (x + 1)2

9898

9999

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 99 9/7/17 2:07 PM

_____________

_____________________

_____________ ______________

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Mathematics Practice Test 1 Answers and Explanations

1. c. Observe that √500 = √10 × 10 × 5 = 10√5. Choice a is incorrect because 50 squared

does not equal 500, so √500 cannot equal 50. Choice b is incorrect because 10√50 = √10 × 10 × 50 = √5,000, not √500. Choice d is incorrect because 50√10 = √50 × 50 × 10 = √25,000, not √500. Choice e is incorrect because the 5 and 10 are switched.

2. 25,611,100. Let x represent the expected num- ber of births. Set up the following proportion:

_____19.3 x = 1,000 1,327,000,000 Solving for x yields

1,000x = (19.3)(1,327,000,000) (19.3)(1,327,000,000)x = 1,000

x = 25,611,100

3. c. The median is depicted in a boxplot as the vertical line segment occurring within the

box portion of the plot itself. Here, that line

occurs at the value 30. So, the median of the

data set is 30. Choice a is incorrect because it

represents the 25th percentile, not the

median. Choice b is incorrect because

although 22.5 is the midpoint between the

outer boundaries of the box (which occur at

5 and 40), it is not the center of the data set.

The vertical line contained within the box

depicts the median of the data set. Choice d

is incorrect because it represents the 75th

percentile, not the median. Choice e is incor-

rect because this is the maximum value of

any data point in the data set, not the middle

(or median) of the data set.

4. d. Use the distributive property on the right side. Then, gather all x-terms on the left side

and the constant terms on the right, com-

bine like terms, and fnally divide both sides

by the coeffcient of x, as follows:

9 – x = –2(2x – 3)

9 – x = –4x + 6

4x – x = 6 – 9

3x = –3

x = –1

Choice a is incorrect because when solving

for x, you divide both sides by its coeffcient,

you do not subtract it from both sides.

Choice b is incorrect because you did not

distribute the –2 to both terms within the

parentheses on the right side. Choice c is

incorrect because you did not divide both

sides by 3 in the last step. Choice e is incor-

rect because you added coeffcient of x to

both sides in the last step instead of dividing

both sides by it.

5. 467.5 minutes. Let x represent the number of minutes needed to wash 17 full-length patio

doors. Set up the following proportion: 2 patio doors 17 patio doors= 55 minutes x minutes

Cross multiply and solve for x:

2x = (17)(55)

2x = 935

x = 467.5

So, it would take Brett 467.5 minutes to wash 17

full-length patio doors.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 100 9/7/17 2:07 PM

____

6. d. Let R be the radius of the base of the pipe. Then, the radius of the base of the tank is

8R. The volume of the pipe is pR2L, while the volume of the tank is p(8R)2L = 64pR2L. So, the volume of the tank is 64 times the

volume of the pipe. Choice a is incorrect

because you took one-half of the radius

instead of squaring it when computing the

volume of the tank. Choice b is incorrect

because you forgot to square the 8 when

computing the volumes of the pipe and

tank. Choice c is incorrect because when

squaring 8R, you mistakenly multiplied 8 by

2 instead of raising 8 to the second power.

Note that 82 = 64, not 16. Choice e is incor-

rect because you cubed the radius when

computing the volumes of the pipe and

tank, but should have squared it.

7. e. To solve this inequality, use the distributive properties on both sides of the inequality.

Then, combine like terms on each side. Take

the x-terms to the left and the constants to

the right and combine like terms again.

Then, divide both sides by the coeffcient

of x:

–4(3 – 2x) ≥ 19 + 3(x – 2) –12 + 8x ≥ 19 + 3x – 6 –12 + 8x ≥ 13 + 3x

5x ≥ 25 x ≥ 5

So, the solution set is {x | x ≥ 5}. Choice a is incorrect because when gathering the

x-terms on one side and the constant on the

other side of inequality, you add the oppo-

site of a term to one side, not the term itself.

Choice b is incorrect because in the last step,

instead of dividing both sides by 5, you sub-

tracted 5 from both sides. Choice c is incor-

rect because you did not apply the

distributive property correctly. Choice d is

incorrect because you made a sign error

when balancing the equation.

8. a. The points rise from left to right in this scat- terplot, which indicates a positive trend.

Choice b is incorrect because the points fol-

low a nonlinear graph on which the points

fall from left to right, which indicates a neg-

ative trend. Choice c is incorrect because

while the correlation is very strong (and

nonlinear), part of the time the points fall

from left to right, and part of the time they

rise from left to right; so the trend is not

positive. Choice d is incorrect because while

the points are all above the x-axis, so that the

y-values are all positive, there is no discern-

ible trend, positive or negative, apparent in

the scatterplot. Choice e is incorrect because

this is a loose negative trend since the points

tend to fall from left to right.

9. c. Of all the choices listed, this is by far the most reasonable. Choice a is incorrect

because 2,000 mm is equivalent to 20 cm,

which is less than 1 foot. Choice b is incor-

rect because 8 meters is about 24 feet, which

may be fne for a kiddie coaster, but not an

extreme roller coaster. Choice d is incorrect

because this exceeds one mile, which is way

too high. Choice e is incorrect because this is

15 feet, which may be fne for a kiddie

coaster, but not an extreme roller coaster.

10. 55 milligrams per deciliter. Add the six mea- surements and divide the sum by 6 to get

330 = 6 55 milligrams per deciliter.

100100

101101

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 101 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________ ___ __

11. d. Use the two labeled points (–4,3) and (5,–1) 14. a. A fair selection would result in each student to compute the slope:

3 – (–1) 4 4 m = = –9 = ––4 – 5 9 Choice a is incorrect because you added the

y-values and the x-values when forming the

numerator and denominator, respectively, of

the slope, but you should compute the dif-

ferences. Choice b is incorrect because the

sign is wrong. Be certain to subtract the

y-values and the x-values in the same order

when computing the slope. Choice c is

incorrect because the slope cannot be 0 since

the line is not horizontal. Choice e is incor-

rect because this is the reciprocal of the

slope; remember, the slope of a line is the

change in y-values divided by the change

in x-values.

12. a, c, and e. A factor of a whole number must divide it evenly. Observe that 4 = 22, which

divides 23 evenly;

12 = 22 × 3, which divides 23 × 32 evenly; and 72 = 23 × 32, which clearly divides 23 × 32 evenly. Choice b is not a correct selection because 7 is

not a prime factor listed in the given product

and so cannot divide it evenly. Choice d is not a

correct selection because 50 = 2 × 52, which has one more factor of 5 than occurs in the given

product, so it cannot divide it evenly.

13. 12 hours. Let x be the number of hours beyond 40 that Pamela must work to attain her goal.

Her salary for the frst 40 hours is 40(15) = 600

dollars. Since she earns double per hour beyond

40 hours, her salary for working x hours beyond

40 is 30x dollars. The sum of these two dollar

amounts must equal $960. This yields the equa-

tion 600 + 30x = 960. Solve for x as follows:

600 + 30x = 960

30x = 360

x = 12

So, Pamela must work 12 hours beyond the ini-

tial 40 to reach her earning goal.

having an equal chance of being selected.

However, if 6 students have frst names start-

ing with the letter M, while 14 have frst

names starting with the letter B, then stu-

dents do not have an equal chance of being

selected. Choice b is incorrect because ran-

dom selection can be done with letters or

numbers or without any assignment of

either depending on the method used.

Choice c is incorrect because while each let-

ter has an equal chance of being selected, the

goal is to select a student, and the number of

frst names beginning with each letter can

be, and likely are, different. Choice d is

incorrect because to be fair, each student

should have an equal chance of being

selected whether his or her name is common

or not. Choice e is incorrect because the size

of the class is not the deciding criterion on

fairness of the method. This issue is that

there may not be an equal number of stu-

dents whose frst names begin with each

letter.

15. e. When refecting a point across the line y = –1, the x-coordinate will stay the same,

but the y-coordinate will change. You sub-

tract 3 – (–1) = 4 and add this to –1 to get

the new y-coordinate. So, the image of vertex

C is (–6,–5). Choice a is incorrect because

this is the image across the line y = x. Choice

b is incorrect because while the y-coordinate

is correct, the x-coordinate should not

change when refecting across the line

y = –1. Choice c is incorrect because this is

the image across the line x = –1, not y = –1.

Choice d is incorrect because this is the

image across the origin, meaning that it is

refected about the y-axis and then the

x-axis.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 102 9/7/17 2:07 PM

16. c and d. Choice a is not a correct selection because the only way the standard deviation can

be zero is if there is a single data value, which is

not the case here. Choice b is not a correct

selection because if you fold the distribution

over the y-axis, the graph does not line up, so it

is not symmetric. Choice c is a correct selection

because the median is the data value that

divides the data in half. In this distribution, the

data value that does this occurs within the bar

on the 10, which is positive. Choice d is a cor-

rect selection because the bulk of the data is to

the right of the data value 10. Choice e is not a

correct selection because there are 5 data values

with the same relative frequency.

17. e. First, combine the second and fourth terms since they have the same variable part (and

so are like terms): 24a3b5 – 9a4b2 + 36ab3.

Now, factor out the greatest common factor 33ab2 from all terms to get: 3ab2(8a2b3 – 3a

+ 12b). Choice a is incorrect because you

cannot add all four terms together like this.

When monomials have the same variable

part, you can add/subtract their coeffcients.

If they do not have the exact same variable

part, you cannot combine them. Choice b is

incorrect because when you factor out a

greatest common factor, you must do so

from all terms, not just the frst one in an

expression. Choice c is incorrect because 9 is

not a common factor of all terms in the sim-

plifed expression 24a3b5 – 9a4b2 + 36ab3.

Choice d is incorrect because you cannot

combine the frst and third terms of the

given expression since their variable parts

are different.

18. d. Use the properties of radicals, together with the way fractions are multiplied, to simplify

the expression:

30 24 30 24= ⋅66 3 3

= 5 ⋅ 24 3

= 5 8

= 5 4 ⋅ 2

= 5 ⋅2 ⋅ 2

=10 2

Choice a is incorrect because you subtracted

the radicands instead of dividing them. ___ aRemember, √ √

a b = b . Choice b is incorrect

because you cannot cancel the 6 in the

denominator with the 24 in the radicand in

the numerator. Choice c is incorrect because

you did not simplify √8 correctly. Choice e is incorrect because you cannot cancel the 3 in

the denominator with the 30 in the radicand

in the numerator, and you cannot cancel the

6 in the denominator with the 24 in the radi-

cand in the numerator.

102102

103103

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 103 9/7/17 2:07 PM

19. b. A number is divisible by 6 if it is even and its digit sum is divisible by 3. The numbers in the

set for which this is true are 6, 36, 66, and 108.

A number is divisible by 9 if its digit sum is

divisible by 9. The numbers in the set for

which this is true are 36 and 108. So, the prob-

ability that a number selected randomly from __2 __1this set satisfes both conditions is = 4 , or8

0.25. Choice a is incorrect because it repre- __1 sents 8 . There are 2 numbers divisible by 6

and 9: 36 and 108. Choice c is incorrect

because this is the probability that the number

selected is divisible by 6; you did not account

for the fact that it must also be divisible by 9.

Choice d is incorrect because this is the proba-

bility of the complement of the event. Choice

e is incorrect because this would mean all

members of the set are divisible by 6 and 9.

But 26 is divisible by neither of these, for

instance.

20. 50 minutes. The amount of time between 7 A.M. and 3:56 P.M. is 8 hours 56 minutes, which

equals 8(60) + 56 = 536 minutes. Since there

are 10 classes, we must subtract 4 minutes times

9 to account for the time between consecutive

classes. This gives 36 minutes. Subtracting this

from 536 gives 500 minutes, which is evenly

divided among 10 classes. This means each class

lasts 50 minutes.

21. 9 feet. The volume of a right circular cone with radius r and height h is given by the formula

V = __3 1 pr2h. Substituting h = 12 and V = 324p

yields the equation __3 1 p · 12 · r2 = 324p. Solving

for r2 yields 4p × r2 = 324p, or r2 = 81. So, r = 9 feet.

22. b. To compute 4m(x) – 3n(x), frst distribute 4 through each term of m(x) and distribute

the 3 through each term of n(x), and then

add like terms. Finally, factor out the great-

est common factor from all terms.

4m(x) – 3n(x) = 4(–5x + 4x3 – 3x4) – 3(6x3 – 2x4)

= –20x + 16x3 – 12x4 – 18x3 + 6x4

= –6x4 – 2x3 – 20x

= –2x(3x3 + x2 + 10)

Choice a is incorrect because you did not

apply the distributive property correctly

when computing 4m(x) and 3n(x). Multiply

each term of the expressions m(x) and n(x)

by 4 and –3, respectively. Choice c is incor-

rect because you applied the negative 1 to

only the frst term of n(x). You must distrib-

ute it to all terms. Choice d is incorrect

because you added the polynomials instead

of subtracting them. Choice e is incorrect

because you ignored the constant multiples

of m(x) and n(x).

23. b. This is a conditional probability question. Since we are given that the audience member

is a parent, we reduce the sample space

down from 200 members to 130. Of these,

12 answer Yes. So, the probability we seek is ____12 ___6 = 65 . Choice a is incorrect because you130 divided 12 by 200, so you did not restrict the

sample space down to only those who are

parents. Choice c is incorrect because you

used the wrong given information. Specif-

cally, you are given that the audience mem-

ber is a parent, not that the audience

member answers Yes. Choice d is incorrect

because this is the probability that an audi-

ence member answers Yes given that the

audience member is a student, not a parent.

Choice e is incorrect because this is the

number of parents who answer Yes, but

it is not a probability.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 104 9/7/17 2:07 PM

___

___ ___

2324. 30 . To determine the fraction of dog-grooming time that the facility devotes to bathing dogs,

__4 ___7 ___7 multiply as follows: = 30 . So, the facility5 × 24 spends 1 – 7 = 30

23 of its dog grooming on30 activities other than bathing dogs.

25. b and c. Choice a is not a correct selection. The solutions are ±√7, which are real numbers. Choice b is a correct selection. The discriminant

is 12 – 4(3)(8) = –95 < 0, so the solutions are

imaginary. Choice c is a correct selection. Since

4x2 + 20 is always positive, it can never equal

zero. So, the equation 4x2 + 20 = 0 has no real

solutions. Choice d is not a correct selection.

The solutions are –5 and 0, which are real num-

bers. Choice e is not a correct selection. The dis-

criminant is 112 – 4(1)(4) = 105 > 0, so the

equation has two distinct real solutions.

26. a. The cost for x pounds of apples is 5.00x dol- lars. This, plus the entrance fee of $7.50,

cannot exceed $50. This yields the inequality

5.00x + 7.50 ≤ 50.00. Choice b is incorrect because 5.00 and 7.50 should be inter-

changed. Choice c is incorrect because the

inequality sign should be reversed. Choice d

is incorrect because 5.00 and 7.50 should be

interchanged, and the inequality sign should

be reversed. Choice e is incorrect because the

entrance fee plus the cost of a pound of

apples should not be multiplied by the num-

ber of pounds of apples purchased.

27. b. First, construct a right triangle whose hypot- enuse is the zip-line (4,500 feet), whose

height is the difference between the heights

of the two peaks (2,750 feet), and whose

base is the horizontal distance we seek, D.

2,750 ft. 4,500 ft.

Use the Pythagorean theorem to determine

the value of D: 2,7502 + D2 = 4,5002, which

simplifes to D2 = 12,687,500, so that

D = √12,687,500 ≈ 3,562 feet. Choice a is wrong because when applying the Pythago-

rean theorem, you forgot to square the sides.

Choice c is wrong because this is a right tri-

angle, so the two longest sides cannot have

the same length. Choice d is wrong because

when applying the Pythagorean theorem,

you treated the zip line as a leg when it is the

hypotenuse. Choice e is wrong because when

applying the Pythagorean theorem, you

treated the zip line as a leg when it is actually

the hypotenuse, and you forgot to square the

sides.

28. e. Gather like variables in the product and add their exponents:

2(3g2h) · (2j3gh5) = (3 · 2)(g · g) · (h · h5) · (j3)

= 6g3h6j3

Choice a is wrong because you applied the

exponents of the adjacent variable to each

coeffcient, but this would require there to

be another set of parentheses. Specifcally,

(3g)2 = 32g2, but this does not equal 3g .

Choice b is wrong because you multiplied

the exponents instead of adding them.

Choice c is wrong because the power on h

should be 2 in this form. Choice d is wrong

because you ignored the coeffcients.

104104

105105

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 105 9/7/17 2:07 PM

__ __ __ __ ___ ___

29. d. The radius of the globe is 1.5 feet, which equals 18 inches (since 1 foot = 12 inches).

The volume of a sphere with radius r is __4 3 3 pr . Substituting r = 18 inches into this formula gives a volume of 7,776p cubic inches. Choice a is wrong because this is the

surface area, not the volume; the volume __4 3formula is 3 pr . Choice b is wrong because

you need to multiply by 4; the volume for- __4 3mula is 3 pr . Choice c is wrong because this

would be the surface area, not the volume, of

a sphere with radius 3 feet (or 36 inches).

You used the wrong formula and used the

diameter in place of the radius. Choice e is

wrong because you used the diameter in

place of the radius when computing the

volume.

30. c. The most expedient approach is to use the elimination method because simply adding

the equations will result in the y-terms can-

celing. Doing so yields 4x = 48, so that

x = 12. Substituting this value into the frst

equation yields 2(12) – 3y = 21. This is

equivalent to –3y = –3, so that y =1. Thus,

the solution is x = 12, y = 1. Choice a is

incorrect because you subtracted the left

sides of the equations, but added the right

sides. Choice b is incorrect because this pair

satisfes the frst equation, but not the sec-

ond one; hence, it is not a solution of the

system. Choice d is incorrect because this

pair satisfes the second equation, but not

the frst one; hence, it is not a solution of the

system. Choice e is incorrect because adding

the equations yields an equation for which

there is a value of x; substituting this value

into either equation then yields the corre-

sponding value of y.

31. 58 degrees. Since the line passing through A and C is tangent at point A, the radial segment

connecting the center, B, to A is perpendicular

to it. So, the triangle ABC is a right triangle.

Since the sum of the three interior angles of a

triangle is 180 degrees, the measure of angle

ABC must be 58 degrees.

32. d. To compute the expected value of such a random variable, multiply x times P(X = x)

and sum all of them. Doing so yields: ___1 __2 __1 ___7 __1(–6)( 18 ) + (–2)( 9 ) +0( 6 ) +3( 18 ) + 5( 6 )

1 4 7 5 22 11 = – – 9 + 6 + = = 9 .3 6 18 Choice a is wrong because this is the mini-

mum value of the data set, not the expected

value. Choice b is wrong because you added

the x-values, but did not multiply each one

by P(X = x). Choice c is wrong because you

summed the probabilities, which must add

to 1, but you must multiply each one by its

respective value of x. Choice e is wrong

because even though this value of x has the

highest probability associated with it, the

expected value is not simply this value.

Rather, you must multiply each value of X

by its probability of occurring and sum

those values.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 106 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________ __________

____________________

________

__________

33. d. Let x represent the actual distance between the two rides. Using the information pro-

vided, we have the following proportion:

1 inch 3.8 inches = 750 feet x feet

(1 inch)(x feet) = (750 feet)(3.8 inches) (750 feet)(3.8 inches)x = 1 inch

= 2,850 feet

Solving for x yields x = 2,850 feet. Choice a

is wrong because you set up the proportion

incorrectly; you should be multiplying

750 by 3.8, not dividing by it. Choice b is

wrong because you simply added 750 feet to

3.8 inches, which is incorrect. You must set

up a proportion consisting of two ratios, one

corresponding to what 1 inch represents and

one corresponding to what 3.8 inches repre-

sents. Choice c is wrong because you seem to

have misunderstood how to work with pro- 1 inch portions. Set up the proportion = 750 feet

3.8 inches and solve for x. Choice e is wrongx feet because you can set up the following pro-

portion, where x represents the actual

length of the path: ________1 inch 3.8 inches = 750 feet x feet

34. b. You must determine the equation of the parabola and the line and equate them.

The equation of the parabola has the form

y = a(x – h)2 + k. The vertex is (2,2), so this

becomes y = a(x – 2)2 + 2. To fnd a, use

one of the labeled x-intercepts, say (1,0).

Substitute this into the equation to obtain

0 = a(1 – 2)2 + 2. Solving for a yields a = –2.

So, the equation of the parabola is

y = –2(x – 2)2 + 2. To fnd the equation of

the line in slope-intercept form y = mx + b,

use the two labeled points to fnd the slope: _____2 – 0 __1 m = 2 . Since the y-intercept is 2, the0 – 4 = –

__1 equation of the line is y = – 2 x + 2. Equating __1these the equation –2(x – 2)2 + 2 = – 2 x + 2.

The solutions of this equation would yield

the x-coordinates of the points of intersec-

tion of the two graphs shown. Canceling the

constant 2 on each side yields the simplifed

equation –2(x – 2)2 = –__2 1 x. Choice a is

wrong because the coeffcient on the left side

should be –2 since the parabola opens

downward. Otherwise, the equation is cor-

rect. Choice c is wrong because there are

errors in the equation of the parabola and

the line. The coeffcient on the left side __1should be –2 and the slope of the line is – 2 ,

not –2. Choice d is wrong because this is the

result of getting the slope wrong for the line; __1it is – 2 , not –2. Choice e is wrong because

there are errors in the equation of the parab-

ola and the line. The coeffcient on the left

side should be –2 and the y-intercept of the

line is 2, not 4.

106106

107107

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 107 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________ ________ _______________ _________

__________

35. d. You must express proft as an expression involving the number of decks or fences

power-washed. The $1,175 spent on materi-

als is negative proft, so it will appear as

–1,175 in the expression. Next, since Nathan

earns $50 per deck or fence power-washed

and it costs $6.50 per job, his net gain per

job is $50 – $6.50 = $43.50. This is constant,

so the proft gained from power-washing

x fences or decks is 43.50x dollars. The

expression describing his proft is thus

43.50x – 1,175. Now, to compute the break-

even point, we need to determine the num-

ber of decks or fences power-washed that

will yield a proft of 0 dollars. This requires

that we solve the equation 0 = 43.50x

– 1,175:

0 = 43.50x – 1,175

1.175 = 43.50x

27.01 ≈ x You must round up and conclude that

Nathan will break even after power-washing

28 decks or fences. Choice a is wrong

because you mistakenly included the cost of

gas, $6.50 per job, as proft rather than as

debt. For each deck or fence power-washed,

he earns $50 – $6.50, not $50 + $6.50.

Choice b is wrong because you did not

account for the cost in gas for each job.

Choice c is wrong because you must round

up, not down, to ensure he has earned

enough cash to break even. Choice e is

wrong because this is the number of drive-

ways Nathan must clear to earn $1,175 in

proft, not just break even.

36. a. There are 60 minutes in one hour and 60 seconds in one minute. So, there are 60 × 60 seconds in one hour. There are 5,280 feet in

a mile. Using these enables us to convert

from miles per hour to feet per second as

follows: 70 miles 70 miles 1 hour = ×1 hour 1 hour 1 mile60 × 60 seconds ×

5,280 feet

70 × 5,280= feet per second60 × 60

Choice b is wrong because there are 60 × 60 seconds in one hour, not just 60. Choice c is

wrong because when setting up the conver-

sion, you inverted both fractions. Choice d is

wrong because you did not account for the

fact that there are 5,280 feet in one mile.

Also, there are 60 × 60 seconds in one hour. Choice e is wrong because you did not

account for the fact that there are 5,280 feet

in one mile.

37. –5. Use the fact that y = f(x) if and only if x = f –1(y). Using this with the table shows that

f –1(–6) = 8 and f –1(8) = –5. Thus, f –1(f –1(–6)) =

f –1(8) = –5.

38. 0.0366. The most effcient approach is to group the powers of 10 together and the two decimals

together. Simplify each, and then convert the

resulting expression to a decimal.

(30.5 × 104) × (1.2 × 10–7) = (30.5 × 1.2) × (104 × 10–7)

= 36.6 × 10–3

= 0.0366

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 108 9/7/17 2:07 PM

______ __

39. d. Use the two labeled points on the line—(3,0) and (8,10)—to compute the slope:

10 – 0 10 m = = = 2. Using point-slope form8 – 3 5 with the point (3,0) yields y – (0) = 2(x – 3).

This simplifes to y = 2x – 6, which is equiva-

lent to 2x – y = 6. Choice a is wrong because

when converting the equation from point-

slope formula (namely y = 2(x – 3)) to stan-

dard form, you did not distribute the 2 to

both terms in parentheses on the right side.

Choice b is wrong because you calculated

the slope incorrectly; it should be the change

in y-coordinates divided by the change in

x-coordinates, not the reciprocal. Choice c is

wrong because you computed the slope by

subtracting the x-coordinates from the

y-coordinates of each point, but the slope is

computed as the change in y-coordinates

divided by the change in x-coordinates.

Choice e is wrong because you mistakenly

treated the point (3,0) as the y-intercept

and used b = 3 in the slope-intercept form

y = mx + b. But it is the x-intercept.

40. c. The height is 3(60 feet) = 180 feet and the radius is 2

1 (60 feet) = 30 feet. So, the volume

of the cylinder is

V = pr2h = p(30 feet)2(180 feet) = 162,000p cubic feet

Choice a is wrong because you used the

diameter in place of the radius, and forgot to

square the radius when computing the vol-

ume. Choice b is wrong because you used the

formula for the volume of a right circular

cone V = __3 1 pr2h, but the volume of a cylinder

does not include a multiple of __3 1 . Choice d is

wrong because you used the diameter in place

of the radius when computing the volume.

Choice e is wrong because you misinter-

preted the relationship between the radius

and the height. Specifcally, the given infor-

mation means that the height is 3(60 feet),

not that the radius is 3(60 feet).

41. (6,8). You need to translate the given point 7 units to the right and 2 units upward. Conse-

quently, the point (–1,6) translates to the point

(–1 + 7, 6 + 2) = (6,8).

42. a. The tent is made up of fve faces. The front and the back of the tent are congruent equi-

lateral triangles. Dropping an altitude from

the top vertex to the opposite side gives the

height of the triangle. This creates a 30-60-

90 triangle, so the height is 4√3 feet. Thus, the area of the front and back is

(4√3 ft.)(8 ft.) = 16√3 ft.2; so their combined area is 32√3 ft.2. The other three faces of the tent are congruent rectangles with width 8

feet and length 12 feet, so each has an area of

(8 ft.)(12 ft.) = 96 ft.2. Their combined area

is 3(96) = 288 ft.2. Therefore, the surface

area is (288 + 32√3) ft.2. Choice b is the vol- ume, not the surface area. Choice c did not

include the bottom of the tent. Choice d did

not include the two top side portions of the

tent. Choice e included only one of the two

triangular sides of the tent (that is, you for-

got either the front or the back).

43. e. The largest whole number that goes into all of 18, 30, and 12 is 6. The largest power of p

2that goes into all of 18p q, 30pq2, 12pq3 is p,

and the largest power of q that goes into all

of these terms is q. So, the greatest common

factor is 6pq. Choice a is the least common

multiple. Choice b is wrong because 12 is

not a factor of 18 or 30, and the power of q

is not correct. Choice c is a common factor

of all three terms, but is not the greatest

common factor. Choice d is the product of

all three terms; this is a common multiple,

but not a common factor.

108108

109109

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 109 9/7/17 2:07 PM

______

_______

______

_______ _________ _______ _________

_______________ __________

_________

_______

_________

_______

_________

_______

44. c. First, arrange the members of each data set in increasing order. Then, compute each of

their means and medians.

I. 0, 26, 26, 26, 26

II. –22, –22, –22, 98, 98

III. 26, 26, 26, 26

The median for I is 26, but the mean is 26(4)

5 = 20.8. So, the mean is not 26.

The median for II is –22, which is not 26. 26 + 26The median for III is = 26. The mean2

26(4)is = 26.4 45. a. Transform the division problem into a mul-

tiplication problem. Then, factor all numer-

ators and denominators and cancel factors

common to the numerator and denomina-

tor, as follows: 32x – 8 16x2 – 4x 32x – 8 2x – 1 = · 4x2 – 1 ÷ 2x – 1 4x2 – 1 16x2 – 4x

28(4x – 1) 2x – 1 = (2x – 1)(2x + 1) · 4x(4x – 1) 2 = x(2x + 1)

2 = 2x2 + x

Choice b is incorrect because you did not

distribute the x through both terms in the

denominator when simplifying 2 x(2x + 1).

Choice c is incorrect because you incorrectly

canceled the 2’s in numerator and denomi-

nator of 2 ; these are terms, not factors,2x2 + x and cannot be canceled in this manner.

Choice d is incorrect because you did not

distribute the x through both terms in the 2denominator when simplifying x(2x + 1), and

you incorrectly canceled the 2’s in numera-

tor and denominator of 2 ; these are2x2 + x terms, not factors, and cannot be canceled

in this manner. Choice e is incorrect because

you canceled the wrong factor in the

denominator with 2x – 1 in the numerator.

46. b and c. Choices a and d are not correct selec- tions because the bulk of the data (more than

50%) are to the left of the y-axis, so the median

is negative. Choices b and c are correct selec-

tions because more than 50% of the data are to

the right of the y-axis, so the median is posi-

tive. Choice c is not a correct selection because

the median is 0.

47. e. Statement I is false because it is the result of incorrectly canceling common terms, not

factors, in the numerator and denominator.

This is never true when a and b are positive

integers. In fact, the only way it can be true

is if either a or b is zero. Statement II is false

because if b = 1, then a · b = a. Statement III

is true because this is the way fractions are

added. The common denominator is ab.

Multiplying the top and bottom of frst frac-

tion by b and the top and bottom of the sec-

ond fraction by b and then adding the

fractions yields this statement.

48. c. First, observe that to move A to A' , we must move the point left 10 units and then up 2

units. The translation rule (x,y) → (x – 10, y + 2) describes this action. Applying this to

all points of the square ABCD moves it to a

new location in the plane. Now, observe that

this square is larger than LMNP so that the

scale factor must be less than 1. Observe that

A' B' is three times the length of AB; the same is true of the other three pairs of sides

since it is a square. So, the scale factor should __1be 3 . Choice a would be used to transform

square LMNP into ABCD. Choice b used the

wrong scale factor; this would create a

square three times larger than ABCD. Choice

d is wrong because you did not pay attention

to the value of the hash marks when forming

the translation rule. Choice e is wrong

because while the scale factor is correct, the

translation rule moves ABCD to the right

and down rather than left and up.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 110 9/7/17 2:07 PM

___

__________

___

____ __

49. a, d, and e. Choice a is a correct selection because this is the very defnition of probability.

Choice b is not a correct selection because the

model suggests a long-run likelihood of getting

a 4. No defnitive conclusion can be drawn from

just ten rolls of the die, though if you were to

continue to roll the die and repeatedly get a 4

and no other number, then the validity of the

model could be called into question. Choice c is

not a correct selection because the model sug-

gests a long-run likelihood of getting a 4. No

defnitive conclusion can be drawn from 100

rolls of the die, though it does suggest that the

model may be incorrect. Choice d is a correct

selection because the model suggests a long-run

likelihood of getting a 4. No defnitive conclu-

sion can be drawn from just 20 rolls of the die.

Choice e is a correct selection because the

model suggests a long-run likelihood of getting

a 4. Such rolls are independent of each other

and certainly can come out this way and not

contradict the model.

2550. 6 w2 + –1,000w + –70,000 = 0. Since the fve pens are identical and no fence is needed along

the backside by the barn, there are fve sides of

length w and six sides of length l that need fenc-

ing. Since Jacob has 1,200 feet of fence to use to

construct all fve pens, the sum of the lengths of

all sides of the fve pens must be 1,200. This

leads to the following equation relating w and l:

5w + 6l = 1,200. Next, the combined area of the

fve pens is (5w) · l. To get an expression in

terms of only w, solve the perimeter equation

for l and substitute it in: 1,200 – 5w5w + 6l = 1,200 ⇒ l = 6

The combined area of the pens is 1,200 – 5__________ w 25___ 2(5w) · l = (5w) · = 1,000w – 6 6 w

We are given that the combined area is to be

70,000 square feet. To fnd the width of each

pen, we equate the expression for the area to 2570,000: 1,000w – 6 w

2 = 70,000. Take all terms

to the right side to get the equivalent equation 25 6 w

2 – 1,000w – 70,000 = 0.

51. c, d, and e. Choice a is not a correct selection because the square root of any perfect square is

rational; for instance, √9 = 3. Choice b is not a correct selection because the set of rational

numbers is closed under division, so the quo-

tient must be rational. Choice c is a correct

selection because √2 · √2 = 2, for instance. Choice d is a correct selection by the very

nature of how rational and irrational numbers

behave. Choice e is a correct selection because 2 = 1 6, which is irrational.33

2052. 9 p meters. Since the radius of the circle is 5 meters, the circumference of the entire circle

is 2pr = 10p meters. The central angle opposite the arc whose length we seek, labeled x, is 80°.

So, the portion of the circle to which this arc 80 2 corresponds is 360 = 9 . So, the length, x, of

__2 ___this arc is 9 · 10p meters = 20 9 p meters.

110110

111111

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 1–

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 111 9/7/17 2:07 PM

_______ _____ _______ ________

___________

____________

______________

53. e. First, write each fraction with the least com- mon denominator (x + 1)2. Then, subtract

the numerators by simplifying each expres-

sion and then combining like terms, as

follows: 2 x 2 x(x + 1)– = – (x + 1)2 x + 1 (x + 1)2 (x + 1)2

2 – x(x + 1)= (x + 1)2 2 – x2 – x = (x + 1)2

–(x2 + x – 2)= (x + 1)2 –(x – 1)(x + 2)= (x + 1)2

Choice a is wrong because you did not dis-

tribute x to both terms when simplifying the

product x(x + 1). Choice b is wrong because

you subtracted the numerators without frst

converting the second fraction to an equiva-

lent one whose denominator is (x + 1)2.

Choice c is wrong likely because of factoring

55. 12 gallons. Two of the walls have dimensions 18 feet by 10 feet; the combined area of these

two walls is 2 · (18 · 10) feet2 = 360 feet2. The

other two walls have dimensions 22 feet by

10 feet; the combined area of these two walls is

2 · (22 · 10) feet2 = 440 feet2. The ceiling has

dimensions 18 feet by 22 feet, so its area is

396 feet2. The total square footage that must be

painted is 360 + 440 + 396 = 1,196 square feet.

This must be multiplied by 3 to apply three

coats, giving the total square footage to be

3,588 square feet. Finally, divide this by 300 to

obtain 11.96 gallons of paint, which we round

to 12.

56. b and e. Choice a is not a correct selection because the left side equals 7, but the right side

equals 5. Choice b is a correct selection because

using the properties of radicals yields 1 1 ⋅ 5 51

5x2 + x – 2 incorrectly. Choice d is wrong . Choices c and d are= = = 5 5 ⋅ 5 5 because you did not distribute x to both

terms when simplifying the product x(x + 1)

and you used (x + 1)3 as the least common

denominator instead of (x + 1)2, but in so

doing did not multiply the numerator and

denominator of the frst fraction by x + 1 to

convert it to an equivalent fraction with this

denominator.

54. a, c, and d. Choice a is a correct selection because each number in this set has 2, 3, and 6

as factors and so cannot be prime. Choice b is

not a correct selection because 6, for instance, is

not divisible by 4. Choice c is a correct selection

because every number in this set is divisible by

2 and hence is even, not odd. Choice d is a cor-

rect selection because every number in this set

is of the form 6n for some whole number n,

which means each number is a multiple of 6.

Choice e is not a correct selection because you

are confusing the term factor with multiple. For

the members of this set to be factors of 6, they

must all divide into 6 evenly. The only one for

which this is true is 6 itself, because all the other

members are larger than 6.

both not correct selections because e and p are irrational and so cannot be equal to fnite deci-

mals; these are only approximations. Choice e is __1 __1 a correct selection because 5 > 7 and taking the

square root of both sides retains the inequality.

PRAXISCorePP_03_23-112.indd 112 9/7/17 2:07 PM

113

c h

a p

t e

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 113 9/7/17 2:07 PM

4 PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 2

CHAPTER SUMMARY Here is your second full-length test for each Praxis® Core Aca- demic Skills for Educators test: Reading, Writing, and Mathe- matics. Now that you have completed the first practice test, take these tests to see how much your score has improved.

Like Chapter 3, this chapter contains three full-length tests that mirror the Reading, Writing, and Math-ematics Core tests. Although the actual exam you will take is computer-based, the question types for each exam are replicated here for you in the book. This time, as you take these practice tests, you should simulate the actual test-taking experience as closely

as you can. Find a quiet place to work where you won’t be disturbed. Follow the time constraints noted at the

beginning of each test.

After you fnish taking your tests, review the answer explanations. (Each individual test is followed by its

own answer explanations.) See A Note on Scoring on page 375 to fnd information on how to score your exam.

Good luck!

To access online PRAXIS Core practice that provides instant scoring and feedback: • Navigate to your LearningExpress platform and make sure you’re logged in. • Search for the following subtests, select one, and then click “Start Test.” • Praxis Core: Reading Practice Test 2 • Praxis Core: Mathematics Practice Test 2 • Praxis Core: Writing Practice Test 2

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 114 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Reading Practice Test 2

Time: 85 Minutes

Directions: Read the following passages and answer

the questions that follow.

Use the following passage to answer questions 1

through 4.

Commuting to an offce was once the work-

force norm, but communication technologies

such as e-mail and Skype have made working

from home a desirable and common option for

5 an increasingly large number of today’s work-

ers. Working from home—or telecommuting—

has a number of benefts that working in an

offce simply does not offer. The time clock

does not rule telecommuters, forcing them to

10 complete their duties between nine and fve.

Telecommuters can perform their duties

according to their own schedules. Plus, they

don’t have to work with managers breathing

down their necks or with potentially distracting

15 coworkers. It’s no surprise that 47% of telecom-

muters are “very satisfed” with their work situ-

ations, as opposed to the paltry 27% of

traditional commuters who are “very satisfed”

with theirs. Job satisfaction is not just a boon to

20 the worker; it also benefts the employer,

because when workers are happier with their

jobs, they are more productive. Furthermore,

when they do not have to punch out at 5:00

P.M., Monday through Friday, employees are

25 more likely to work late nights or weekends

until their projects are completed.

1. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between telecom-

muting and job satisfaction?

a. Telecommuting is a problem and job

satisfaction is a solution.

b. Telecommuting is a cause and job

satisfaction is an effect.

c. Telecommuting is an idea and job

satisfaction is supporting evidence.

d. Telecommuting is an idea and job

satisfaction is an explanation.

e. Telecommuting is a view and job satisfaction

is a contrasting view.

2. In order to evaluate the validity of the author’s claim regarding the percentage of telecommut-

ers who are “very satisfed” with their jobs, it

would be most helpful to know which of the

following?

a. the companies that employ these

telecommuters

b. the names of the people polled

c. how many people are “somewhat satisfed”

d. the source of the statistic

e. the defnition of “very satisfed”

3. Which off the following is an unstated assump- tion the author of the passage makes?

a. Skype is a more useful communication

technology than e-mail is.

b. Working from home did not exist before

communication technologies such as Skype

and e-mail.

c. Companies should ban traditional

commuting altogether.

d. Traditional commuters will go home at 5:00

even if they have work to complete.

e. There are no benefts to spending one’s day

with coworkers.

114114

115115

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 115 9/7/17 2:07 PM

4. Which of the following conclusions can be made from the passage?

a. Companies that make telecommuting an

option for their employees are likelier to be

successful than ones that don’t.

b. Traditional commuting will likely cease to

exist sometime in the near future.

c. Companies that rely on traditional

commuters will have to make the work day

longer to compete with ones that allow

telecommuting.

d. Telecommuting has a negative impact on the

economy, because it means the sale of fewer

cars and less gasoline.

e. Offce managers at companies that do not

allow telecommuting are incapable of

increasing offce productivity.

Use the following passage pair to answer questions 5

through 8.

Passage 1

Many studies make it clear that sleep depriva-

tion is dangerous. Sleep-deprived people who

are tested by using a driving simulator or by

performing a hand-eye coordination task per-

5 form as badly as or worse than those who are

intoxicated. Sleep deprivation also magnifes

alcohol’s effects on the body, so a fatigued per-

son who drinks will become much more

impaired than someone who is well rested.

10 Since drowsiness is the brain’s last step before

falling asleep, driving while drowsy can—and

often does—lead to disaster. Caffeine and other

stimulants cannot overcome the effects of

severe sleep deprivation.

Passage 2

I used to have terrible trouble sleeping—or

more accurately—staying asleep. The cause was

not psychological but physical. I would wake up

in the middle of the night with severe lower

5 back pains and be unable to fall back to sleep

for as much as four hours. I initially thought

the cause of this pain was my daytime activities.

Perhaps I was exercising improperly or I was

lugging around too much weight in my back-

10 pack during my morning and evening com-

mutes. Ultimately, I realized the problem was

my mattress. The pillow-top mattress on my

bed seemed so comfortable in the showroom,

but it does not provide uniform body support.

15 Not long after purchasing a new, medium-frm

mattress, I enjoyed my frst night of uninter-

rupted sleep in years.

5. For which of the following situations would information in both Passage 1 and Passage 2 be

useful?

a. improving one’s health

b. selecting the best mattress

c. understanding the effects of caffeine

d. writing an essay on hand-eye coordination

e. evaluating the effectiveness of sleeping pills

6. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the two

passages?

a. Passage 1 describes a cause and Passage 2

describes an effect.

b. Passage 1 describes the frst step in a process,

and Passage 2 describes the next step.

c. Passage 1 describes a problem, and Passage 2

describes a possible solution.

d. Passage 1 describes a general principle, and

Passage 2 describes a specifc detail.

e. Passage 1 describes a condition, and Passage

2 contrasts it by describing the opposite

condition.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 116 9/7/17 2:07 PM

7. The author of Passage 2 explains that he thought his daytime activities caused his back

pains to

a. imply that his conclusions may not be

entirely reliable.

b. indicate that understanding the cause of

back pains can be diffcult.

c. explain all the possible causes of back pains.

d. prove that the source of back pains can

never be explained defnitively.

e. show that he was putting too much strain on

his back during the daytime.

8. In Passage 1, the term impaired most nearly means

a. sentient.

b. apprehensive.

c. disturbed.

d. blemished.

e. hampered.

Use the following passage to answer questions 9

through 12.

Necessity is the frst lawgiver; all the wants that

had to be met by this constitution were origi-

nally of a commercial nature. Thus, the whole

constitution was founded on commerce, and

5 the laws of the nation were adapted to its pur-

suits. The last clause, which excluded foreigners

from all offces of trust, was a natural conse-

quence of the preceding articles. So compli-

cated and artifcial a relation between the

10 sovereign and his people, which in many prov-

inces was further modifed according to the

peculiar wants of each, and frequently of some

single city, required for its maintenance the

liveliest zeal for the liberties of the country,

15 combined with an intimate acquaintance with

them. From a foreigner, neither could well be

expected. This law, besides, was enforced recip-

rocally in each particular province; so that in

Brabant no Fleming, and in Zealand no Hol-

20 lander could hold offce; and it continued in

force even after all these provinces were united

under one government.

Above all others, Brabant enjoyed the

highest degree of freedom. Its privileges were

25 esteemed so valuable that many mothers from

the adjacent provinces removed thither about

the time of their accouchement, in order to

entitle their children to participate, by birth, in

all the immunities of that favored country; just

30 as, says Strada, one improves the plants of a

rude climate by removing them to the soil of

a milder.

Source: Excerpt from History of the Revolt of the

Netherlands by Friedrich von Schiller

9. The author of this passage would most likely agree with which of the following

assumptions?

a. Foreigners are generally not to be trusted.

b. Crossing borders to give birth is morally

suspect.

c. Laws, as a rule, develop in response to a need

for laws.

d. Unifcation is a natural tendency for smaller

provinces.

e. No person should be immune to legal

restrictions.

116116

117117

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 117 9/7/17 2:07 PM

10. Which statement, if true, would most weaken the position that foreigners are not able to hold

a position of trust?

a. People are able to study the laws of other

countries through comprehensive programs

designed to immerse them in the intricacies

of the laws.

b. Even after many years living in a foreign

land, politicians have generally shown

favoritism toward their native land.

c. Research shows that the age of a candidate

holding an offce of trust has a greater

infuence than his or her country of origin

on his or her ability to succeed.

d. The level of distrust a population feels for a

foreign-born leader or politician can rarely

be eradicated.

e. Many successful nations, such as the United

States, were built on a population that

mostly originated from other locations.

11. This passage can best be summarized as a a. defense of a thesis that increased freedom

leads to more vigorous commerce.

b. reconciliation of opposing views of

constitutional development.

c. contrasting and comparison of vagaries of

preunifcation provincial law.

d. review of similarities and contrasts among

preunifcation provincial laws.

e. polemic advocating the desirability of legal

reciprocity among neighboring provinces.

12. Which justifcation does the text provide as support for the exclusion of foreigners from all

offces of trust?

a. The laws were extremely complex,

necessitating extensive familiarity with their

nuances.

b. Stringent enforcement of the laws would be

impossible.

c. Mutual distrust prevailed at this time among

the various provinces.

d. The election of foreigners to offces of trust

would necessitate an unnatural unifcation.

e. Opening up positions to foreigners that were

previously limited to citizens could take

away local job opportunities.

Use the following passage to answer questions 13

through 16.

The night and the day are not generally equal.

There is, however, one occasion in spring, and

another in autumn about half a year later, on

which the day and the night are each twelve

5 hours at all places on Earth. When the night

and day are equal, the point which the Sun

occupies on the heavens is termed the equinox;

an equinox occurs in March and then again in

September. In any investigation of the celestial

10 movements, the positions of these two equi-

noxes on the heavens are of primary impor-

tance. The discovery of this remarkable celestial

movement known as the precession of the equi-

noxes is attributed to the mastermind

15 Hipparchus. The inquiry that led to his discov-

ery involved a most profound investigation,

especially when it is remembered that in the

days of Hipparchus, the means of observation

of the heavenly bodies were only of the crudest

20 description. We can but look with astonishment

on the genius of the man who, in spite of such

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 118 9/7/17 2:07 PM

diffculties, was able to detect such a phenome-

non as the precession, and to exhibit its actual

magnitude. The ingenuity of Hipparchus

25 enabled him to determine the positions of each

of the two equinoxes relative to the stars that lie

in its immediate vicinity. After examination of

the celestial places of these points at different

periods, he was led to the conclusion that each

30 equinox was moving relatively to the stars,

though that movement was so slow that 25,000

years would necessarily elapse before a com-

plete circuit of the heavens was accomplished.

It can be said of his discovery that this was the

35 frst instance in the history of science in which

we fnd that combination of accurate observa-

tion with skillful interpretation, of which, in

the subsequent development of astronomy, we

have so many splendid examples.

Source: Excerpt from Great Astronomers by

Robert S. Ball

13. It can be inferred from the passage that the way in which Hipparchus contributed most impor-

tantly to science was which of the following?

a. He was the frst to observe the heavens.

b. He was frst to perceive the equinoxes.

c. He was the frst to combine observation with

skillful interpretation.

d. He worked primarily with crude

instruments of observation.

e. He was the frst to realize that Earth rotates

with a tilted axis around the Sun.

14. According to the passage, which is NOT a true statement about the earth’s equinoxes?

a. Day and night are equivalent in length on

the equinoxes.

b. The equinoxes fall on the same day for both

the northern and southern hemispheres.

c. It takes 25,000 years for a complete

precession to occur.

d. The distance from Earth to the Sun is the

same on the equinoxes.

e. One equinox follows about six months after

another.

15. Which best describes the general organization of the passage?

a. Two opposing scientifc theories are

introduced, and then those theories are

dissected.

b. The problem of balanced sunlight is

presented, and then the solution is

determined.

c. An inequality is established, and then the

causes of the inequality are investigated.

d. A scientifc breakthrough is portrayed, and

then the resulting effects are illustrated.

e. A natural phenomenon is described, and

then its defnition and discovery are detailed.

16. In the context of the text, the word immediate in line 27 could be replaced with which of the

following words to have the least impact on

what the sentence means?

a. swift

b. neighboring

c. frsthand

d. current

e. remote

118118

119119

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 119 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage to answer questions 17

through 19.

The information on a standard compact disc

(CD) is contained in a single spiral track of pits,

starting at the inside of the disc and circling its

way to the outside. This information is read by

shining light from a 780 nm wavelength semi-

conductor laser. Information is read as the laser

moves over the bumps (where no light will be

refected) and the areas that have no bumps,

also known as land (where the laser light will be

10 refected off the aluminum). The changes in

refectivity are interpreted by a part of the com-

pact disc player known as the detector. It is the

job of the detector to convert the information

collected by the laser into the music that was

15 originally recorded onto the disc.

LASER DISC MEDIA MEDIA THICKNESS LASER WAVELENGTH INFORMATION CAPACITY

CD 1.2 mm 780 nm 700 MB

DVD 0.6 mm 650 nm 4.7 GB

Blu-ray Disc 1.1 mm 405 nm 25 GB

17. According to the table, if a disc’s capacity depends on the size of the laser’s wavelength,

and 1 gigabyte (GB) equals 1,000 megabytes

(MB), then

a. the longer the wavelength, the smaller the

capacity.

b. the shorter the wavelength, the smaller the

capacity.

c. the longer the wavelength, the larger the

capacity.

d. the shorter the wavelength, the larger the

capacity.

e. the wavelength and the capacity are

unrelated.

18. Which information is included in both the pas- sage and the table?

a. The wavelength of the laser that reads a CD.

b. How a laser reads a CD.

c. A comparison between the DVD and the

CD.

d. The capacity of a CD.

e. The length of the laser that reads a DVD.

19. Based on the information in the passage, what would most likely happen if the detector on a

CD player malfunctioned?

a. The spiral track would not be read properly.

b. The pits and land would look like one unit.

c. The changes in refectivity would be

absorbed back into the laser.

d. The music would play backward.

e. The information read by the laser would not

be converted into music.

Use the following passage to answer questions 20 and 21.

Astronauts expose themselves to a wide range

of dangers and hardships as a result of their pro-

fession. Space travel is itself, of course, a risky

endeavor. But one of the most imperceptible

5 sources of distress for astronauts is the constant

exposure to microgravity, a gravitational force

in space that is one millionth as strong as the

force on Earth. In prolonged space fight, aside

from the obvious hazards of meteors, rocky

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 120 9/7/17 2:07 PM

10 debris, and radiation, astronauts have to deal

with muscle atrophy brought on by weightless-

ness caused by this microgravity. To try to

counteract this deleterious effect, astronauts

engage in a daily exercise regimen while in

15 space. Effective workouts while in space include

riding a stationary bike, treadmill running

while harnessed, and working against a resistive

force, such as a bungee cord. When they return

to Earth, astronauts face a protracted period of

20 weight training to rebuild their strength.

20. Which sentence in the passage best presents readers with a major point rather than a minor

point of the passage?

a. “Astronauts expose . . . profession.”

b. “Space travel . . . endeavor.”

c. “But one . . . Earth.”

d. “To try . . . space.”

e. “Effective workouts . . . cord.”

21. As it appears in the passage, the word atrophy (line 11) most closely means

a. pain.

b. deterioration.

c. weakening.

d. cramping.

e. augmentation.

Use the following passage to answer questions 22

through 24.

Geometry sets out from certain conceptions

such as “plane,”“point,” and “straight line,” with

which we are able to associate defnite ideas,

and from certain simple propositions (axioms)

5 which, in virtue of these ideas, we are inclined

to accept as “true.” Then, on the basis of a logi-

cal process, the justifcation of which we feel

ourselves compelled to admit, all remaining

propositions are shown to follow from those

10 axioms, i.e., they are proven. A proposition is

then correct (“true”) when it has been derived

in the recognized manner from the axioms. The

question of “truth” of the individual geometri-

cal propositions is thus reduced to one of the

15 “truth” of the axioms. Now it has long been

known that the last question is not only unan-

swerable by the methods of geometry, but that

it is in itself entirely without meaning. We can-

not ask whether it is true that only one straight

20 line goes through two points. We can only say

that Euclidean geometry deals with things

called “straight lines,” to each of which is

ascribed the property of being uniquely deter-

mined by two points situated on it.

Source: Excerpt from The Special Theory of Rel-

ativity by Albert Einstein

22. The author’s assertion in line 18 that it is in itself entirely without meaning refers to

a. geometrical propositions.

b. the nature of straight lines.

c. the truth of the axioms of geometry.

d. the methods of geometry.

e. any question of the truth of geometry.

23. It can be inferred from the passage that the truth of a geometrical proposition depends on

which of the following?

a. the concept of straight lines

b. the validity of Euclidean geometry

c. the logical connection of the ideas of

geometry

d. our inclination to accept it as true

e. the truth of the axioms

24. In this passage, the author is chiefy concerned with which of the following topics?

a. a defnition of geometric axioms

b. the truth, or lack thereof, of geometrical

propositions

c. the logical process of defning straight lines

d. the ability to use geometrical propositions to

draw conclusions

e. the precise conceptions of objects such as

planes or points

120120

121121

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 121 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage to answer questions 25

through 30.

What Will the New Procedures Do?

Memo

To: Employees of IMPEL

From: Management

Re: New Security Procedures

Date: June 15

As a result of some incidents that have occurred

with unauthorized persons in secure parts of

Building A, as of June 30, new procedures will

go into effect for security in that building. From

5 now on, all employees reporting to work should

enter through the employee entrance at the side

of the building on Murray Street. No employee

is to enter through the main entrance. In order

to be admitted, each employee must have a

10 valid photo ID. The ID needs to be swiped to

unlock the door. Make sure not to allow

another person to enter with you even if you

know the person. Each employee needs to

swipe his or her own ID in order to be regis-

15 tered as being on the job.

The main entrance will be for visitors only. The

receptionist there will call the party that the vis-

itor is coming to meet so that he or she can

come to the main desk to escort the guest to his

20 or her offce. Visitors will be given temporary

passes, but they cannot have full run of the

offce.

In addition, all employees will also be required

to log in on their computer when they begin

25 work and log out when they take a break. Make

sure to log out and in when taking lunch

breaks.

If an employee sees someone whom he or she

believes is unauthorized to be in Building A,

30 that employee should take immediate action

and report the event to Mr. Shields, our head of

security. Do not approach the person, but sim-

ply call Mr. Shields’s offce. His extension is 890.

If there is no answer, make a written report and

35 e-mail it to [email protected].

If employees have any questions regarding these

regulations, please contact the Human

Resources department at extension 550. Ms.

Hardy will be able to respond to your queries.

40 Thank you for your cooperation in this matter.

We feel that with these additional procedures,

our workplace will be made more secure for

everyone concerned. Ideally, this will result in

improved work output, since any possibility of

45 a security breach will be prevented.

25. Which of the following best restates the phrase “security breach” (line 45)?

a. a compromise in the safety of the offce

b. a blow to the confdence of employees

c. a distraction because of an employee’s

personal problems

d. a defense against employees not doing their

jobs

e. an overstepping of boundaries by an

employee

26. Based on the excerpt, which of the following can be inferred about management?

a. They are concerned about the safety of

employees.

b. They believe that the offce is completely

secure.

c. They want employees to fll out time sheets.

d. They want to track employee work habits.

e. They are suspicious of specifc employees.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 122 9/7/17 2:07 PM

27. Which of the following could be prevented by the new security procedures?

a. visitors entering through the main entrance

b. employees swiping IDs to open doors

c. employees entering through the side

entrance

d. unauthorized persons wandering around

Building A

e. any complaints about company procedures

28. Imagine an employee sees a person in Building A without an ID badge. According to the

memo, which of these actions should the

employee take?

a. Call Mr. Shields’s offce to make a report.

b. Tell the person to leave the building.

c. Call the receptionist in the main entrance.

d. Report the event to Ms. Hardy.

e. Send a company-wide alert email.

29. Which of the following best describes the style in which this memo is written?

a. complicated and unclear

b. academic and dry

c. straightforward and direct

d. detailed and technical

e. friendly and warm

30. Which of the following best describes the way in which the memo is organized?

a. by listing information in the order of

importance

b. by sequence of events

c. by presenting a problem and then a solution

d. by comparing and contrasting issues

e. by offering anecdotes to illustrate points

made

Use the following passage pair to answer questions 31

through 34.

Passage 1

The demotion of Pluto’s status in our solar sys-

tem from planet to dwarf planet in 2006 was an

upsetting development for many fans. After all,

Pluto is shaped like the other planets—and

5 Pluto even has its own moon! However, the

recent discovery of additional celestial bodies

similar to Pluto’s shape and size forced scien-

tists to agree on the defnition of a planet; plan-

ets must now be round, orbit the sun, and

10 dominate the neighborhood along their orbit

through their gravitational pull.

Passage 2

A dwarf planet has the mass of a standard

planet, but it does not orbit the sun. The term

came into use in 2006 as part of a recategoriza-

tion of our Sun’s natural satellites. It became a

5 household word when Pluto—formerly catego-

rized as one of our solar system’s nine plan-

ets—became a dwarf planet offcially. Surely, it

is the best-known dwarf planet, yet it is only

one of four in our solar system. Closer to Earth

10 than Pluto is Ceres, which was also formerly

classifed as a planet. Further out are Haumea,

Makemake, and Eris. Eris is informally known

as “the tenth planet.”

31. Which of the following best describes the rela- tionship between Passage 1 and Passage 2?

a. Passage 1 introduces an idea and Passage 2

expands upon it.

b. Passage 1 makes an argument and Passage 2

contradicts it.

c. Passage 1 introduces a diffcult concept and

Passage 2 explains it.

d. Passage 1 states facts and Passage 2 states

opinions.

e. Passage 1 makes a claim and Passage 2

supports that claim.

122122

123123

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 123 9/7/17 2:07 PM

32. Which of the following phrases from Passage 2 is an example of fgurative language?

a. standard planet

b. household word

c. best-known

d. formerly classifed

e. the tenth planet

33. In what way is the attitude of the author of Passage 1 different from that of the author

of Passage 2?

a. The author of Passage 1 is more serious than

the author of Passage 2.

b. The author of Passage 1 is more skeptical

than the author of Passage 2.

c. The author of Passage 1 is more cynical than

the author of Passage 2.

d. The author of Passage 1 is more technical

than the author of Passage 2.

e. The author of Passage 1 is more playful than

the author of Passage 2.

34. Which statement, if true, would best help to explain why Pluto lost its offcial designation

as a planet?

a. Its size was signifcantly smaller than any

other designated planet.

b. Its general orbit contains a greater amount

of debris in its path than the other planets.

c. Its moon was discovered to be merely an

asteroid that was captured by Pluto’s gravity.

d. Its orbit around the sun had a greater

elliptical shape than the orbits of the other

planets.

e. Its mass is responsible for hydrostatic

equilibrium, creating a nearly round shape.

Use the following passage to answer questions 35

through 37.

Jessie Street is sometimes called the Australian

Eleanor Roosevelt. Like Roosevelt, Street lived a

life of privilege, while at the same time devoting

her efforts to working for the rights of the dis-

5 enfranchised, including workers, women, refu-

gees, and Aborigines. In addition, she gained

international fame when she was the only

woman on the Australian delegation to the con-

ference that founded the United Nations—just

10 as Eleanor Roosevelt was for the United States.

JESSIE STREET TIMELINE DATE EVENT

April 18, 1889 Born

June 17, 1911 Joins suffragettes to fight for women’s right to vote

February 10, 1916 Marries Kenneth Whistler Street

December 18, 1929 Establishes the United Associations of Women

March 12, 1932 Proposes the General Social Insurance Scheme

April 1945 Appointed to Australia’s delegation to found the United Nations

November 1945 Helps found the Women’s International Democratic Federation

February 1947 Becomes the deputy chair of the Status of Women Commission

March 14, 1967 Publishes her autobiography, Truth or Repose

July 2, 1970 Dies

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 124 9/7/17 2:07 PM

35. Based on information in the passage and the chart, when did Jessie Street gain international

fame?

a. April 1889

b. June 1911

c. December 1929

d. April 1945

e. March 1967

36. Which of the following can be learned only by reading the chart?

a. Jessie Street worked for women’s rights.

b. Jessie Street was interested in the plight of

Aborigines.

c. Jessie Street lived a life of privilege.

d. Jessie Street was very similar to Eleanor

Roosevelt.

e. Jessie Street wrote an autobiography.

37. Which of the following inferences may be drawn from the information presented in the

passage?

a. Eleanor Roosevelt and Jessie Street worked

together to include women in the United

Nations Charter.

b. Usually, people who live lives of privilege do

not spend much time participating in

political activities.

c. Discrimination in Australia is much worse

than it ever was in the United States.

d. At the time of the formation of the United

Nations, few women were involved in

international affairs.

e. The United Nations has been ineffective in

helping the disenfranchised all over the

world.

Use the following passage to answer questions 38

through 41.

Mental and physical health professionals may

consider referring clients and patients to a

music therapist for a number of reasons. It

seems a particularly good choice for the social

worker who is coordinating a client’s case.

Music therapists use music to establish a rela-

tionship with the patient and to improve the

patient’s health, using highly structured musical

interactions. Patients and therapists may sing,

play instruments, compose music, dance, or

simply listen to music.

The course of training for music thera-

pists is comprehensive. In addition to their for-

mal musical and therapy training, music

therapists are taught to discern what kinds of

interventions will be most benefcial for each

individual patient. Because each patient is dif-

ferent and has different goals, the music thera-

pist must be able to understand the patient’s

situation and choose the music and activities

that will do the most toward helping the patient

achieve his or her goals. The referring social

worker can help this process by clearly articu-

lating each client’s history.

Although patients may develop their

musical skills, that is not the main goal of

music therapy. Any client who needs particular

work on communication or on academic, emo-

tional, and social skills, and who would beneft

from music therapy, is an excellent candidate

for music therapy.

124124

125125

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 125 9/7/17 2:07 PM

38. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this passage?

a. “The Use of Music in the Treatment of

Autism”

b. “How to Use Music to Combat Depression”

c. “Music Therapy: A Role in Social Work?”

d. “Training for a Career in Music Therapy”

e. “The Social Worker as Music Therapist”

39. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the passage?

a. Music therapy can succeed where traditional

therapies have failed.

b. Music therapy is a relatively new feld.

c. Music therapy is particularly benefcial for

young children.

d. Music therapy probably will not work well

for psychotic people.

e. Music therapy is appropriate in only a

limited number of circumstances.

40. Which of the following best organizes the main topics addressed in this passage?

a. I. the role of music therapy in social work

II. locating a music therapist

III. how to complete a music therapist

referral

b. I. using music in therapy

II. a typical music therapy intervention

III. when to prescribe music therapy for

sociopaths

c. I. music therapy and social work

II. training for music therapists

III. skills addressed by music therapy

d. I. how to choose a music therapist

II. when to refer to a music therapist

III. who benefts the most from music

therapy

e. I. music therapy as a cost-effective treatment

II. curriculum of a music therapy program

III. music therapy and physical illness

41. Which of the following lines from the passage contains an error in logic?

a. Mental and physical health professionals may

consider referring clients and patients to a

music therapist for a number of reasons.

b. Music therapists use music to establish a

relationship with the patient and to improve

the patient’s health, using highly structured

musical interactions.

c. The course of training for music therapists is

comprehensive.

d. Because each patient is different and has

different goals, the music therapist must be

able to understand the patient’s situation

and choose the music and activities that will

do the most toward helping the patient

achieve his or her goals.

e. Any client who needs particular work on

communication or on academic, emotional,

and social skills, and who would beneft

from music therapy, is an excellent candidate

for music therapy.

Use the following passage to answer question 42.

According to a recent poll, the number of stu-

dents in the high school environmental club

has increased by 40% over the past three years.

This increase is the reason why more students

5 have begun recycling their paper and cans dur-

ing this period.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 126 9/7/17 2:07 PM

42. Which of the following, if true, most signif- cantly weakens the preceding argument?

a. The school installed recycling bins in all

classrooms fve years ago.

b. Most students join the environmental club

in order to add one more activity to their

college applications.

c. Not all students participated in the poll.

d. Two years ago, the school began giving

detention to any student caught throwing

recyclable materials in the regular trash.

e. The environmental club has begun hanging

up more posters about recycling.

Use the following passage to answer questions 43

through 45.

Businesses today routinely keep track of large

amounts of both fnancial and nonfnancial

information. Sales departments keep track of

current and potential customers; marketing

5 departments keep track of product details and

regional demographics; accounting depart-

ments keep track of fnancial data and issue

reports. To be useful, all this data must be orga-

nized into a meaningful and useful system.

10 Such a system is called a management informa-

tion system, abbreviated MIS. The fnancial hub

of the MIS is accounting.

43. This passage is most likely taken from a. a newspaper column.

b. an essay about modern business.

c. a legal brief.

d. a business textbook.

e. a business machine catalog.

44. According to the information in the passage, which of the following is least likely to be a

function of accounting?

a. helping businesspeople make sound

judgments

b. producing reports of many different kinds of

transactions

c. assisting with the marketing of products

d. assisting companies in important planning

activities

e. providing information to potential investors

45. According to the information in the passage, all of the following would be included in a com-

pany’s MIS EXCEPT

a. potential customers.

b. fnancial data.

c. regional demographics.

d. employee birthdates.

e. product details.

Use the following passage to answer question 46.

The salesperson of the month at Smith’s Used

Cars sold 26 cars in February. Diana sold 22

cars in February.

46. Based only on the information provided, which of the following must be true?

a. Diana is not salesperson of the month at

Smith’s Used Cars.

b. The salesperson of the month is the person

who sold the most cars that month.

c. Diana does not work at Smith’s Used Cars.

d. The salesperson of the month made more

money in February than Diana did.

e. The salesperson of the month is better at

selling cars than Diana is.

126126

127127

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 127 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage to answer question 47.

Thomas Nast (1840–1902), the preeminent

political cartoonist of the second half of the

nineteenth century, demonstrated the power of

his medium when he used his art to end the

5 corrupt Boss Tweed Ring in New York City. His

images, frst drawn for Harper’s Weekly, are still

in currency today: Nast created the tiger as the

symbol of Tammany Hall, the elephant for the

Republican Party, and the donkey for the

10 Democratic Party.

47. The author cites Thomas Nast’s depiction of an elephant for the Republican Party as an exam-

ple of

a. an image that is no longer recognized by the

public.

b. the saying, “the pen is mightier than the

sword.”

c. art contributing to political reform.

d. a graphic image that became an enduring

symbol.

e. the ephemeral nature of political cartooning.

Use the following passage to answer questions 48 and 49.

Typically people think of genius, whether it

manifests in Mozart’s composing symphonies

at age fve or Einstein’s discovery of relativity, as

having a quality not just of the supernatural,

5 but also of the eccentric. People see genius as a

“good” abnormality; moreover, they think of

genius as a completely unpredictable abnormal-

ity. Until recently, psychologists regarded the

quirks of genius as too erratic to describe

10 intelligibly; however, Anna Findley’s ground-

breaking study uncovers predictable patterns in

the biographies of geniuses. These patterns do

not dispel the common belief that there is a

kind of supernatural intervention in the lives of

15 unusually talented men and women, however,

even though they occur with regularity. For

example, Findley shows that all geniuses experi-

ence three intensely productive periods in their

lives, one of which always occurs shortly before

20 their deaths; this is true whether the genius lives

to 19 or 90.

48. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

a. “Understanding Mozarts and Einsteins”

b. “Predicting the Life of a Genius”

c. “The Uncanny Patterns in the Lives of

Geniuses”

d. “Pattern and Disorder in the Lives of

Geniuses”

e. “Supernatural Intervention in the Life of the

Genius”

49. Given the information in the passage, which of the following statements is true?

a. Anna Findley is a biographer.

b. All geniuses are eccentric and unpredictable.

c. A genius has three prolifc periods in his or

her life.

d. Mozart discovered relativity.

e. Geniuses experience three fallow periods in

their lives.

Use the following passage to answer question 50.

Sushi, the thousand-year-old Japanese delicacy,

was once thought of in this country as

unpalatable and too exotic. But tastes have

changed, for a number of reasons.

50. In the passage, unpalatable most nearly means a. not visually appealing.

b. not tasting good.

c. bad smelling.

d. too expensive.

e. rough to the touch.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 128 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage to answer questions 51

through 54.

The Caribbean island of Saint Martin is a favor-

ite vacation spot, one that is popular with tour-

ists from various countries. The French and

Dutch settled on the island in the 1600s. Today,

the island is divided between the two. The

French capital is Marigot; the Dutch capital is

Philipsburg.

Tourists on vacation soon discovered that

Saint Martin has an intriguing history. Twelve

hundred years ago, the Arawak Indians inhab-

ited all the islands of the West Indies, and were

a peaceful people living under the guidance of

their chiefs. In the 1300s, three hundred years

after the Arawaks frst arrived on Saint Martin,

they were defeated and forced to abandon the

island by a more hostile tribe of Indians that

originated in South America. This new tribe

was called the Carib. The Caribbean Sea was

named after them. Unlike the Arawaks, they

had no permanent chiefs or leaders, except in

times of strife. They were also extremely war-

like. Worse, they were cannibalistic, eating the

enemy warriors they captured. In fact, the very

word cannibal comes from the Spanish name

for the Carib Indians. The Spanish arrived in

the ffteenth century and, unfortunately, they

carried diseases to which the Indians had no

immunity. Many Indians succumbed to com-

mon European illnesses. Others died from the

hard labor forced upon them.

51. According to the passage, all the following are true about the Carib Indians EXCEPT

a. a sea was named after them.

b. they were peaceful fshermen, hunters, and

farmers.

c. they ate human fesh.

d. they settled after defeating the Arawak

Indians.

e. during times of war, they had temporary

leaders.

52. According to the passage, the Carib Indians were fnally defeated by

a. sickness and forced labor.

b. the more aggressive Arawak tribe.

c. the Dutch West India Company.

d. the French explorers.

e. a cannibalistic tribe.

53. One can infer from the passage that the word strife (line 21) means

a. cannibalistic.

b. war.

c. labor.

d. chief.

e. Carib.

54. According to the article, present-day Saint Martin

a. belongs to the Spanish.

b. is independent.

c. belongs to the Carib.

d. is part of the U.S. Virgin Islands.

e. is shared by the French and the Dutch.

128128

129129

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 129 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following passage to answer questions 55 and

56.

Although protected by the Australian govern-

ment, the Great Barrier Reef faces environmen-

tal threats. Crown-of-thorns starfsh feed on

coral and can destroy large portions of reef.

5 Pollution and rising water temperatures also

threaten the delicate coral. But the most pre-

ventable hazard to the reef is tourists. Tourists

have contributed to the destruction of the reef

ecosystem by breaking off and removing pieces

10 of coral to bring home as souvenirs. The gov-

ernment hopes that by informing tourists of

the dangers of this seemingly harmless activity

they will quash this creeping menace to the

fragile reef.

55. Which key word from the passage helps the transition from the natural threats the Great

Barrier Reef faces to the human-caused threats

it faces?

a. Although

b. also

c. But

d. and

e. creeping

56. The primary purpose of this passage is to a. inform the reader that coral reefs are a

threatened, yet broadly functioning,

ecosystem.

b. alert the reader to a premier vacation

destination in the tropics.

c. explain in detail how the Great Barrier Reef

is constructed.

d. recommend that tourists stop stealing coral

off the Great Barrier Reef.

e. dispel the argument that coral is a plant, not

an animal.

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Reading Practice Test 2 Answers and Explanations

1. b. In this passage, telecommuting and job satis- faction share a cause-and-effect relationship,

because job satisfaction is the result of tele-

commuting. That means telecommuting is

the opposite of a problem (choice b). Since

telecommuting and job satisfaction share a

complementary, not contrasting, relation-

ship, choice e can be eliminated.

2. d. Statistics are hard to trust if the reader does not know from where the statistics were

taken. For all the reader of this passage

knows, the author could have taken these

statistics from an unreliable blog or even

made them up himself. Including the source

of the statistics would help the reader to

evaluate their validity. Knowing the names

of the people polled (choice b), the compa-

nies for which they work (choice a), or how

many people were “somewhat satisfed”

(choice c) would have little bearing on the

validity of these statistics. The term “very

satisfed” is fairly self-explanatory, so e is not

the best answer choice.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 130 9/7/17 2:07 PM

3. d. The author makes the point that telecom- 4. a. The author explains that telecommuters are muters who do not have to punch a time more satisfed with their jobs and more pro-

clock at 5:00 are likely to work past that ductive than traditional commuters, which

time, with the implication that this is differ- should result in a company with less

ent from how traditional commuters employee turnover and greater output than

approach their work. So, you can conclude those that do not allow telecommuting. So,

that the author probably assumes traditional it is fairly logical to conclude that companies

commuters will go home at 5:00 even if they that make telecommuting an option for their

have work to complete. However, the author employees are likelier to be successful than

never implies a comparison between Skype ones that don’t, even though the author does

and e-mail (choice a) or suggests that work- not cite any explicit evidence to support this

ing from home did not exist before commu- conclusion. However, it is extreme to con-

nication technologies such as these (choice clude that traditional commuting is likely to

b), which is untrue anyway. Although the cease to exist altogether (choice b), since

author clearly favors telecommuting over many jobs simply cannot be done from

traditional commuting, choice c is an home. The author does not suggest that

extreme assumption. The same can be said companies with employees who do not tele-

of choice e, even though the author men- commute will have to make the work day

tions one downside of sharing an offce with longer (choice c), nor is there any discussion

coworkers. of the impact of telecommuting on the

economy at all (choice d). Although the

author mentions a downside of offce man-

agers, choice e is still an extreme conclusion

to draw.

5. a. A good night of rest is essential to good health, and both of these passages suggest

ways to achieve better rest. Passage 1 sug-

gests drinking less alcohol and Passage 2

suggests sleeping on a mattress that provides

uniform body support. Choice b is too spe-

cifc; only Passage 2 refers to mattress selec-

tion, so this choice does not make use of

information in both passages. Only Passage

1 refers to caffeine, and it only explains that

caffeine does not help one to stay awake; it

does not explain the effects of caffeine

(choice c). Only Passage 1 refers to hand-eye

coordination, and the passage does not pro-

vide very much information about it, so the

passage would not be a very good source for

an essay on hand-eye coordination (choice

d). Neither passage mentions sleeping pills

(choice e).

130130

131131

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 131 9/7/17 2:07 PM

6. c. Passage 1 describes the problem of sleep deprivation, and for those suffering sleep

deprivation because they sleep on an inade-

quate mattress, Passage 2 provides a possible

solution to that problem. Passage 1 neither

describes a cause (choice a) nor a frst step

in a process (choice b) nor a general princi-

ple (choice d). Although Passage 1 does

describe the condition of sleep deprivation,

Passage 2 does not contrast it by describing

the opposite condition (choice e); the condi-

tions in both passages are very similar.

7. b. If understanding the cause of back pains was not diffcult, the author would have known

his mattress was causing his pains right

away. This information helps the reader

understand that back pains can have a num-

ber of causes, and fguring out the exact

cause might not be easy. Making a wrong

guess is not enough to prove that someone’s

ultimate fndings should be questioned, so a

is not the best answer choice. The author’s

daytime activities explain only a couple of

possible causes of back pains, so choice c is

too extreme. The author’s back pains reduce

dramatically, so that he can enjoy his frst

night of uninterrupted sleep in years after get-

ting a new mattress, which indicates that the

source of back pains can be explained defni-

tively and contradicts choice d. Since the

author’s daytime activities were not the

cause of his back pains, choice e does not

make sense.

8. e. The passage claims that lack of sleep magni- fes alcohol’s effects on the body, implying that

it hampers a person’s ability to function. The

other choices (a, b, c, and d) aren’t accurate

defnitions of impaired.

9. c. The assertion that laws develop in response to a need for laws is contained in the frst

sentence of the passage and further sup-

ported in the second sentence. Choice a is

incorrect; while the author explicitly argues

that foreigners should not hold a position of

offces of trust, the reason is not simply

because they are not to be trusted. The

author provides the example of children

being born in a different province to entitle

their children to participate, but he gives no

clear indication as to whether such a practice

is or is not morally suspect, so choice b is

incorrect. The author gives no indication

that unifcation is a natural tendency for

smaller provinces, making choice d incor-

rect. The statement in choice e may seem

like something the author might agree with,

given that the author supports foreigners’

exclusion from holding offces of trust.

However, it is a leap to assume that he would

necessarily agree that just because foreigners

should not hold an offce of trust, no person

should be immune to legal restrictions. It is

beyond the scope of the passage.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 132 9/7/17 2:07 PM

10. a. One reason the author provides as to why foreigners cannot hold offces of trust is

because they cannot be as familiar with the

laws as natural-born citizens. However, a

program such as the one described in this

choice might eliminate this unfamiliarity,

thus weakening the author’s argument.

Choices b and d are incorrect because either

would strengthen the author’s position; they

would provide further evidence that foreign-

ers should not hold offces of trust. The fact

in choice c might weaken the author’s argu-

ment slightly—by suggesting that age is an

even greater factor in a person’s ability to

hold an offce of trust—but it does not say

that being born abroad is not still a factor. A

better choice more signifcantly weakens the

argument. The overly general statement in

choice e does not address the specifc issues

that the author raises in regard to a foreign-

er’s ability to hold an offce of trust. While

this point may help weaken the argument

somewhat, there is a more specifc statement

that weakens the argument more

signifcantly.

11. d. The author discusses the laws of preunifed Netherlands provinces, specifcally pointing

out similarities and differences, such as that

certain laws were enforced in each province

but that other provinces were so free that

mothers moved there before giving birth to

earn the immunities of that land. The pas-

sage does not defend the argument that

increased freedom leads to increased com-

merce, so choice a is incorrect. Choice b is

incorrect: This passage discusses the origins

of provincial law in the preunifed Nether-

lands, but the only mention of a constitution

is to suggest that it was founded on com-

merce. Choice c is incorrect. To know that

this choice is incorrect requires you to know

the meaning of the word vagaries, which

connotes capriciousness and does not apply

to the author’s discussion of legal develop-

ment in the provinces. Choice e is incorrect;

reciprocity in neighboring provinces is men-

tioned in this passage in regard to the rights

of foreigners holding offce. However, this

specifc attribute of the law—or the advo-

cacy of its desirability—is not the main point

of the passage.

132132

133133

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 133 9/7/17 2:07 PM

12. a. The frst three sentences set up and support the discussion of the exclusion of foreigners

from offce. In that section of the passage, it

is mentioned that a foreigner could not be

expected to be acquainted with these unnec-

essarily complicated laws, meaning that

choice a is correct. The end of the frst para-

graph refers to the reciprocity of the laws

across provinces, suggesting that the laws

would need to be enforced. But that did not

say that enforcement would be impossible,

making choice b incorrect. Even though for-

eigners were excluded from holding offce,

the passage does not provide distrust, choice

c, as a cause of the exclusion. Neither a nec-

essary unifcation nor a potential job loss is

given as support for the main idea, so

choices d and e are both incorrect.

13. c. This passage discusses Hipparchus’s discov- ery of the equinoxes. The fnal sentence in

the passage sums up the importance in

terms of the discovery’s contribution to sci-

ence, saying that it was the “frst instance in

the history of science” in which observation

was combined with such skillful interpreta-

tion. Hipparchus observed the heavens as

part of his investigation, but the passage

does not suggest that he was the frst to do

this, making choice a incorrect. The state-

ment in choice b is not supported by the

passage; Hipparchus may have discovered

the equinoxes and determined the magni-

tude of their precession, but he was not the

frst to perceive them. The passage states that

Hipparchus used crude instruments, but this

statement is not given to describe his most

important contribution to the sciences, so

choice d is incorrect. The statement in

choice e is not a contribution made by Hip-

parchus, at least not as mentioned in the

given passage. Earth’s tilt may cause the sea-

sons, but that is not mentioned in the pas-

sage, nor is Hipparchus given the credit for

the contribution.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 134 9/7/17 2:07 PM

14. d. The passage makes no statement about the distance from the Sun to Earth on the equi-

noxes, so there is no support for the state-

ment in choice d. The passage begins with

the statement that day and night are not

generally equal. However, it then states that

day and night are equal on the equinoxes,

making choice a an incorrect selection. By

suggesting that this occurs “at all places on

Earth,” the passage indicates that the equi-

noxes fall on the same day for both hemi-

spheres. While the spring equinox occurs in

the northern hemisphere in March and the

southern hemisphere in September, the two

general equinoxes both share the same day

on Earth. Therefore, choice b is also an

incorrect selection. Hipparchus discovered

that the equinox was moving in relation to

the stars, but that it would take 25,000 years

to complete a precession, making choice c an

incorrect selection. Because the equinoxes

are separated by “half a year” in the passage,

choice e must be an incorrect selection as

well.

15. e. The passage begins with a description of the phenomenon of the equinoxes, and then

goes on to defne the term equinox and

explain its discovery by Hipparchus. The

passage does not begin with an introduction

of opposing scientifc theories or a problem,

so choices a and b are incorrect. Likewise,

the passage does not begin with a scientifc

breakthrough, so choice d cannot be correct.

Choice c mentions an inequality, which

could describe the unequal day and night,

but it is not the inequality but the equality—

the equivalent day and night on the

equinoxes—that the passage focuses on,

making choice c incorrect.

16. b. The word immediate in the sentence is being used to describe the nearby stars that are

adjacent to the area of the equinoxes. The

words in choices a, c, and d could each be

used to replace the word immediate in differ-

ent sentences, but they would have an

impact on the meaning of the sentence from

this passage. Therefore, each is incorrect.

Remote, choice e, nearly means the opposite

of the word immediate as it appears in this

passage, so it is not correct either.

17. d. According to the table, the Blu-ray disc is the disc that uses the laser with the shortest

wavelength (405 nm), and it also has the

largest capacity (25 GB); therefore, it is rea-

sonable to conclude that the shorter the

wavelength, the larger the capacity. Choices

a, b, and c are incorrect. Choice e contra-

dicts the question.

18. a. The wavelength of the laser that reads a CD (780 nm) is the only information included

in both the passage and the table. There is

no mention of the DVD in the passage, so

choices c and e do not make sense. How a

laser reads a CD is discussed only in the pas-

sage (choice b), and a CD’s capacity (choice

d) is included only in the chart.

19. e. The last sentence in the passage states that the detector’s function is to convert the

information collected by the laser into

music, which wouldn’t happen if the detec-

tor malfunctioned. The other choices (a, b,

c, and d) aren’t the most accurate or likely

occurrences of a detector malfunction.

134134

135135

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 135 9/7/17 2:07 PM

20. c. The main point of the passage is the effect of 22. c. To answer this question, you have to fnd the microgravity on astronauts. This third sen-

tence of the passage both introduces micro-

gravity to the reader and describes it as an

imperceptible source of distress for astro-

nauts. The initial sentence of the passage,

choice a, makes a general claim about the

diffculties of life as an astronaut. However,

the passage is not merely about these diff-

culties, but it is specifcally about one partic-

ular danger: microgravity and its effects. The

fact that space travel is a risky endeavor,

choice b, is not the main point of the pas-

sage. This sentence serves to point out the

obvious, but it is the following sentence—

which serves to contrast this apparent fact—

that better sums up the main point of the

passage. The main point of the passage is not

the astronauts’ attempts to counteract the

negative effects of microgravity or a list of

astronauts’ workouts, so choices d and e are

incorrect.

21. b. Atrophy represents deterioration, frequently in response to underuse. When in space,

muscles adapt to the lack of gravity and lose

their strength through deterioration. There

is no indication in the passage that atrophied

muscles cause the astronauts any amount of

pain, so choice a is incorrect. Although a

muscle that atrophies may be weakened, the

primary meaning of the phrase to atrophy is

to waste away or deteriorate, making choice c

incorrect. The passage does not suggest that

astronauts’ muscles cramp during space

fight, so choice d is not correct. An augmen-

tation means an increase or an expansion.

This is opposite to the effect that micrograv-

ity has on astronauts’ muscles, so choice e is

not correct either.

antecedent of it. First, you discover that it

refers to the last question. Then you must

trace back to realize that the last question

itself refers to the “truth” of the axioms in the

previous sentence. By determining how the

parts of the text relate to one another, you

can determine the meaning of the assertion.

Choice a is incorrect; the it in this line does

not refer to geometrical propositions. While

the question of the “truth” of the individual

geometrical propositions is thus reduced to

one of the “truth” of the axioms, it is there-

fore the truths that are being referred to as

without meaning, not the propositions

themselves. The passage does not delve into

the nature of straight lines until after the line

referred to in this question, so choice b is

not correct. Choice d is incorrect; the pas-

sage states that the last question is not only

unanswerable by the methods of geometry,

meaning that the it is referring to the last

question and not the subject of the preposi-

tional phrase that follows: by the methods of

geometry. Choice e is a bit tricky, but it can

help to identify the subject. The it from this

line refers to the last question, which can be

traced back to mean the “truth” of the axioms

in the previous sentence. It is not, therefore,

the question of the truth, but the truth itself.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 136 9/7/17 2:07 PM

23. e. Lines 12 through 15 contain the statement that argues that the truth of the propositions

depends on the truth of the axioms, making

choice e correct. The concept of straight

lines is not addressed until late in the pas-

sage, and it is not introduced as the basis for

the truth of geometrical propositions, so a is

not correct. It is the truth of the axioms, not

the validity of Euclidean geometry or a con-

nection of geometric ideas, choices b and c,

that plays the role of determining the truth

of a geometrical proposition. Choice d is

incorrect; there is no indication that suggests

that it is merely our inclination to accept the

truth that determines whether a geometrical

proposition is indeed true.

24. b. The author repeatedly refers to truth in rela- tion to geometrical propositions. See, for

example, lines 12 through 15. The author

(Albert Einstein) is laying the groundwork

for an argument that the principles of geom-

etry are only apparently true. Choices a and

c are incorrect. While the author presents a

defnition for axioms and straight lines, they

are not the topic, which presents his chief

concern. While geometrical propositions are

a key aspect of the passage and the subject of

the author’s chief concern, it is not the abil-

ity to use them to draw conclusions that is

his primary focus, so choice d is incorrect.

The author introduces planes and points as a

starting point to show how geometry is built

on certain conceptions. However, these con-

ceptions are not the author’s primary con-

cern, so choice e is not the best answer.

25. a. This phrase means that the security was somehow broken, so choice a is correct. This

can be seen in the very frst section of the

memo: “As a result of some incidents that

have occurred with unauthorized persons in

secure parts. . . .” The other choices are not

suggested by these words. They have nothing

to do with security being compromised.

26. a. The point of the memo is that there were some security incidents that needed to be

addressed. Based on the memo, you cannot

infer any of the other choices. The only clear

inference is choice a.

27. d. If you read the memo carefully, you will see that choice d is the one option the new regu-

lations will defnitely help prevent. It is men-

tioned in the frst paragraph. The other

options are not mentioned in the memo.

28. a. Again, a close reading of the text will reveal an employee should call Mr. Shields if a

stranger is seen in Building A. This informa-

tion can be found in the fourth paragraph.

This is the only correct option.

29. c. The memo is direct and to the point. It is not technical. It’s quite clear and not at all

academic. The tone is professional, not

warm.

30. c. The memo states a problem at the beginning and then describes the new regulations that

will solve it—a way to keep unauthorized

people out of secure parts of Building A. The

memo does not rank events in any order

(choices a or b), and does not offer a com-

parison or contrast of any points.

136136

137137

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 137 9/7/17 2:07 PM

31. a. Passage 1 introduces the ideas of dwarf plan- ets and Pluto’s status as a dwarf planet;

Passage 2 expands upon those ideas by dis-

cussing other, less well-known dwarf planets.

Neither passage makes an argument (choice

b); both accept the idea of dwarf planets and

Pluto’s status as one. Passage 2 does not

explain anything about dwarf planets that

has not already been described in Passage 1,

so choice c is incorrect. Both passages focus

on facts without indulging in opinions, so

choice d does not make sense. Passage 1

makes a claim that Pluto is a dwarf planet,

but it also supports that claim with its own

details; the details in Passage 2 are not

needed to support Passage 1, so choice e is

not the best answer choice.

32. b. The phrase household word is an idiom meaning a familiar name or phrase. Choices

a, c, and d are not examples of fgurative

language. You may have been confused by

choice e because it is a nickname, but a nick-

name is not a form of fgurative language.

33. e. The author of Passage 1’s playful attitude is evident in the description of Pluto’s changed

status as a “demotion” (planets cannot be

demoted; only people can), the reference to

the planet’s “fans,” and the exclamation that

“Pluto even has its own moon!” There are no

such playful touches in Passage 2. The frst

author’s playfulness contradicts the idea that

he or she is more serious than the author of

Passage 2, so choice a is incorrect. The

author of Passage 1 is nether skeptical

(choice b) nor cynical (choice c). One can-

not have a technical (choice d) attitude.

34. b. The fnal stipulation of a planet’s attributes, according to the new defnition of a planet, is

that it must dominate the neighborhood

along its orbit through its gravitational pull.

The statement in choice b, referring to the

debris in its path, suggests that Pluto does not

dominate its neighborhood in the same way

that the other planets do. It is true that Pluto

is much smaller than the other planets, choice

a, but the size of an object is not listed among

the new criteria for a planet. Pluto had always

been much smaller than any other planet.

Passage 1 mentions that Pluto has a moon as

evidence for its status as a planet. However,

the absence or presence of a moon is not cited

as justifcation for the classifcation of a

planet, making choice c incorrect. According

to the new defnition of a planet, a planet

must orbit the sun. But neither passage men-

tions the specifc orbit of the sun—or its

shape—so the statement in choice d cannot

be a possible explanation. The statement in

choice e describes why Pluto is round, as are

the eight planets in our solar system. This

actually meets the frst defnition of a planet

and would therefore not be a reason why

Pluto lost its status as an offcial planet.

35. d. According to the passage, Jessie Street “gained international fame when she was the

only woman on the Australian delegation to

the conference that founded the United

Nations.” The chart indicates this happened

in April 1945. Choice a is very unlikely

because few people gain international fame

in the month in which they are born.

Choices b, c, and e also are incorrect.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 138 9/7/17 2:07 PM

36. e. Only the chart mentions Jessie Street’s auto- biography, Truth or Repose. The fact that she

worked to secure women’s rights (choice a)

is mentioned in both the passage and the

chart. The information in choices b, c, and d

is only mentioned in the passage.

37. d. Because the author mentions that two women attending an international confer-

ence is an accomplishment (for which at

least one gained international fame), the

reader can surmise that it was a rare occur-

rence. Choices b, c, and e are far beyond the

scope of Passage 1; choice a might be true,

but would require information not con-

tained in the passage.

38. c. This passage provides information to social workers about music therapy, and makes the

claim that it can have a positive role, which

the title in choice c indicates. Choice e is

incorrect because the frst sentence speaks of

mental and physical health professionals

referring their clients and patients to music

therapists, not actually serving as music

therapists. Choice d is possible, but does not

summarize the passage as well as choice c.

Choices a and b refer to topics not covered

in the passage.

39. a. Based on the information provided in the passage, particularly in the last sentence,

choice a is the best inference. The other

choices (choices b, c, d, and e) are beyond

the scope of the passage.

40. c. Choice c provides the best outline of the pas- sage. The other choices (a, b, d, and e) all

contain points that are not covered by the

passage.

41. e. The sentence in choice e makes the error of circular reasoning by stating that a client

“who would beneft from music therapy . . .

is an excellent candidate for music therapy.”

Circular reasoning is when someone makes a

claim that is the same as its own conclusion.

The statements in the other answer choices

(a, b, c, and d) are perfectly logical.

42. d. If students have a strong motivation to recy- cle other than membership in the environ-

mental club (i.e., detention), then this

weakens the author’s assertion that recycling

has gone up because of increased member-

ship in the club. Choice a is incorrect

because it refers to a change made prior to

the increase in the number of students recy-

cling. Choice b is wrong because the stu-

dents’ motivation for joining the club is

unrelated to whether they recycle. Choice c is

incorrect because not all students need to

participate in order for the poll to be valid.

Choice e is incorrect because it would

strengthen the author’s argument, not

weaken it.

43. d. The passage contains objective language and straightforward information about account-

ing, such as one might fnd in a business

textbook. While the information could theo-

retically appear in any of the other answer

choices (a, b, c, and e), a business textbook

is the most likely spot.

44. c. The second sentence of the passage speaks of a marketing department separate from the

accounting department, so it is least likely

that assisting with the marketing of products

would be a function of accounting. The

other choices (a, b, d, and e) are much more

likely to be handled by the accounting

department.

138138

139139

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 139 9/7/17 2:07 PM

45. d. All the other choices (a, b, c, and e) are listed in the passage; employee birthdates (choice

d) would not be included.

46. a. While all the other choices (b, c, d, and e) may be true, the fact that Diana sold 22 cars

in February and the salesperson of the month

sold 26 means that they are not the same per-

son. None of the other choices can be proven

based only on the information given.

47. d. The author cites Thomas Nast’s symbols for Tammany Hall and the Democratic and

Republican Parties as examples of images

that have entered the public consciousness

and are “still in currency today”; thus they

are enduring. Choices a and c are inaccurate,

and choices b and e are unrelated to Nast’s

depiction.

48. c. This title expresses the main point of the pas- sage—that while there are predictable pat-

terns in the life of a genius, the pattern

increases the sense of something supernatural

touching his or her life. Choices a and b are

too general. Choice d is inaccurate because

the passage does not talk about disorder in

the life of a genius. Choice e covers only one

of the two main ideas in the passage.

49. c. Based on the information provided in the passage, it’s true that a genius has three pro-

lifc periods in his or her life. All the other

statements (choices a, b, d, and e) are not

supported by information provided in the

passage.

50. b. Unpalatable may be defned as not agreeable to taste (from the Latin palatum, which

refers to the roof of the mouth). The other

choices (a, c, d, and e) aren’t accurate defni-

tions of the word.

51. b. The Carib were not in any way described as peaceful, but rather as hostile people. All the

other choices (a, c, d, and e) are accurate

descriptions of the Caribs and are explicitly

mentioned in the passage.

52. a. The last two lines of the passage explicitly state that the Caribs were defeated by sick-

ness and the ravages of forced labor. Choice

b is incorrect because the Arawaks were

defeated by the Carib. Neither the Dutch

(choice c) nor the French (choice d) nor

another cannibalistic tribe (choice e) was

mentioned in the role of conquerors.

53. b. Strife means war, which can be inferred by the information provided in the passage.

Choice a is mentioned as a characteristic

that the Carib exhibited toward their ene-

mies in times of strife; it is not the meaning

of strife. Choices c and e are not mentioned

in conjunction with being warlike or with

strife. Choice d makes no sense because the

times of strife were when the tribe allowed a

chief to be chosen.

54. e. Present-day Saint Martin belongs to the French and the Dutch. Choices b and d have

no support in the passage. Choices a and c

are incorrect. The Spanish are mentioned in

the passage only in conjunction with the

Carib Indians.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 140 9/7/17 2:07 PM

55. c. The sentence that introduces the idea of human-caused threats to the Great Barrier

Reef is, “But the most preventable hazard to

the reef is tourists.” But is the transitional

word that begins this sentence. Although

(choice a), also (choice b), and and (choice

d) can all be used as transitional words, but

they are not used in this passage to transi-

tion from the natural threats the Great Bar-

rier Reef faces to the human-caused threats

it faces. You may have been confused by

choice e since creeping seems like a threaten-

ing word. However, creeping cannot function

as a transitional word.

56. a. This statement encapsulates the primary purpose of the entire passage, not just a part

of it. Choices c and e are too specifc to be

correct. Choices b and d are not supported

by the passage.

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Writing Practice Test 2

Part I: Multiple-Choice

Time: 40 Minutes

Directions: Choose the letter for the underlined por-

tion that contains a grammatical error. If there is no

error in the sentence, choose e.

1. Even as the music industry pushes further into a b

the realm of the digital world, there are still a c

large number of people who collect vinyl

records and old-style amplifers and speakers. d

No error e

2. Today’s ski jackets are made with synthetic a

fabrics that are very light but yet provide b c

exceptional warmth and comfort. No error d e

3. After the director and assistant director both a

resigned, we could only guess who would be b c

hired to take their positions. No error d e

4. In Homers painting, a man in a storm at sea a b

is realistically portrayed. No error c d e

5. My favorite part though, is the vegetable chips a b

my mom buys from the health food store; they c d

are delicious. No error e

140140

141141

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 141 9/7/17 2:07 PM

6. Kwanzaa, a Swahili word meaning a

a harvest’s frst fruits, is a nonreligious holiday b

that honors African-American heritage and c d

culture. No error e

7. The record time for solving a Rubik’s cube is held by a 14-year-old male named Feliks a b

Zemdegs, who affectively completed the puzzle c

in 6.77 seconds on November 13, 2010. No error d e

8. There are many types of extreme sports, such like a

slacklining, a sport of daredevil proportions b

in which athletes walk and tumble across nylon c

webbing that has been stretched across a cavern d

and anchored on each end. No error e

9. Either the physicians or the hospital a

administrator are going to have to make a b

decision to ensure the fair treatment of c d

patients. No error e

10. Because they close resemble each other, many a b

people think that Sara and Heather are c

identical twins instead of fraternal. No error d e

11. The Department of State has foreign policy a

responsibilities that include the promotion of b

peace, must protect U.S. citizens abroad, and c d

the assistance of U.S. businesses in the foreign

marketplace. No error e

12. Contestants in the Scripps national spelling bee a

watched eighth-grader Sukanya Roy from b

Pennsylvania win the spelling bee’s coveted c

trophy and $40,000 in college scholarship funds. d

No error e

13. Here are one of the three scarves you left at a b c

my house yesterday morning. No error d e

14. I think I will do good on my fnal exam a

because I am confdent that I am well prepared, b c

rested, and relaxed going into the classroom. d

No error e

15. I thought Johan’s dish of gumbo was a

more spicier than Harold’s, but the judges b c d

disagreed. No error e

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 142 9/7/17 2:07 PM

16. Last Thursday, as the president of the university a b

addressed the student body, she made an c

illusion to the construction of a new stadium d

for the football team. No error e

Directions: For questions 17–28, choose the best

replacement for the underlined portion of the sentence.

If no revision is necessary, choose a, which always

repeats the original phrasing.

17. The principle objective of the documentary is to show you how global warming will effect

climates around the world.

a. principle objective of the documentary is to

show you how global warming will effect

b. principle objective of the documentary is to

show you how global warming will affect

c. principal objective of the documentary is to

show you how global warming will affect

d. principal objective of the documentary is to

show you how global warming will effect

e. principle objective of the documentary is to

show you how global warming will have

effected

18. This was the third of the three assignments the professor gave during this the month of

October.

a. This was the third of the three assignments

the professor gave during this the month of

October.

b. Of the three assignments the professor gave

during October, this was the third one.

c. Thus far during the month of October, the

professor had given three assignments and

this was the third.

d. This third assignment of the professor’s

given during the month of October was one

of three assignments.

e. This was the third assignment the professor

had given during the month of October.

19. I don’t have no math homework this weekend, but I have to work on my paper for social

studies.

a. I don’t have no math homework this

weekend, but I have to work on my paper for

social studies.

b. I dont have any math homework this

weekend, but I have to work on my paper for

social studies

c. I don’t have any math homework this

weekend, but I have to work on my paper for

social studies.

d. I don’t have any math homework this

weekend, but I have too work on my paper

for social studies.

e. I don’t have any math homework this

weekend, but I has to work on my paper for

social studies.

142142

143143

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 143 9/7/17 2:07 PM

20. Built in Boston, the U.S.S. Constitution was given the nickname “Old Ironsides” because

her thick oak planks had defected many deadly

cannonballs in battle.

a. Built in Boston, the U.S.S. Constitution was

given the nickname “Old Ironsides” because

her thick oak planks had defected

b. Built in Boston, the U.S.S. Constitution was

given the nickname “Old Ironsides” because

her thick oak planks defect

c. The U.S.S. Constitution, being built in

Boston, is nicknamed “Old Ironsides”

because her thick oak planks had defected

d. Built in Boston, the U.S.S. Constitution will

be given the nickname “Old Ironsides”

because her thick oak planks had defected

e. The U.S.S. Constitution, to be built in

Boston, was given the nickname “Old

Ironsides” because her thick oak planks had

defected

21. Any passenger who is getting off at the next stop should move to the front.

a. passenger who is getting off at the next stop

b. passenger, who is getting off at the next stop

c. passenger who is getting off at the next stop,

d. passenger, who is getting off at the next stop,

e. passenger, whom is getting off at the next

stop,

22. The Gulf Stream is a warm current on the Atlantic’s surface, it originates in the Gulf of

Mexico and fows northeast.

a. Atlantic’s surface, it originates

b. Atlantics’ surface; it originates

c. Atlantic’s surface. Originating

d. Atlantics’ surface, and originating

e. Atlantic’s surface; it originates

23. My sister is mowing the lawn; my cousins and I is washing the windows.

a. mowing the lawn; my cousins and I is

washing the windows.

b. mowing the lawn; my cousins and I are

washing the windows.

c. mowing the lawn, my cousins and I are

washing the windows.

d. mowing the lawn: my cousins and I are

washing the windows.

e. mowing the lawn my cousins and I are

washing the windows.

24. Thomas has various study strategies; he takes notes, an outline, and answering practice

questions.

a. takes notes, an outline, and answering

practice questions.

b. took notes, outlining, and practicing

questions.

c. takes notes, makes outlines, and answers

practice questions.

d. taking notes, outlines and practiced

questions.

e. took notes, making outlines, and answer

practice questions.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 144 9/7/17 2:07 PM

25. Prometheus and epimetheus, his brother, created life on earth, Epimetheus began with

animals.

a. Prometheus and epimetheus, his brother,

created life on earth, Epimetheus began with

animals.

b. Prometheus and Epimetheus, his brother,

created life on Earth; Epimetheus began with

animals.

c. Prometheus and epimetheus his brother,

created life on earth, Epimetheus began with

animals.

d. Prometheus and Epimetheus: his brother

created life on earth; Epimetheus began with

animals.

e. Prometheus and Epimetheus, his brother,

created life on earth Epimetheus began with

animals.

26. We loved our trip to the top of the Empire State Building where you could see the Statue

of Liberty, all of New York’s bridges, and the

tiny people on the streets below.

a. Empire State Building where you could see

b. Empire State Building; you could see

c. Empire State Building; where we saw

d. Empire State Building; we saw

e. Empire State Building in that you saw

27. When my father was young, him chopped fre- wood with axes.

a. When my father was young, him chopped

frewood with axes.

b. When my father was young, he chopped

frewood with axes.

c. When my father was young, his chopped

frewood with axes.

d. When my father was young, they chopped

frewood with axes.

e. When my father was young, it chopped

frewood with axes.

28. I have, an author of thrilling books for chil- dren, always admired Virginia Hamilton.

a. I have, an author of thrilling books for

children, always admired Virginia Hamilton.

b. I have, an author, always admired Virginia

Hamilton, of thrilling books for children.

c. I have always admired Virginia, an author of

thrilling books for children, Hamilton.

d. I have always admired Virginia Hamilton an

author of thrilling books for children.

e. I have always admired Virginia Hamilton, an

author of thrilling books for children.

Directions: Select the best answer for the following

questions.

29. Which of the following pieces of information would be least relevant in an essay about the

causes of World War II?

a. The causes of World War II have been the

topic of many books.

b. World War II offcially began when Germany

invaded Poland.

c. World War II began on September 1, 1939.

d. The treaty that ended World War I caused

unrest that led to World War II.

e. World War II fnally ended on September 2,

1945.

144144

145145

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 145 9/7/17 2:07 PM

30. Which of the following pieces of information would be least relevant in an essay about the

silent flm era?

a. Buster Keaton, Lillian Gish, and Charlie

Chaplin were some of the biggest stars of the

silent flm era.

b. The silent flm era saw the rise of all the

most important flm genres, including

drama, historical epic, comedy, horror, and

science fction.

c. Released in 1927, The Jazz Singer was the

frst flm to include spoken dialogue.

d. Title cards with printed words conveyed

dialogue and narration in silent flms.

e. Many contemporary flms include long

stretches of silent footage.

Directions: Choose the letter for the underlined por-

tion of the citations that contains an error. If there is

no error in the citation, choose e.

31. Ebook citation: Brueton, Diana. Many Moons: The Myth and

Magic, Fact and Fantasy of Our Nearest Heav-

enly Body. New York: Prentice Hall Press, 1991. a b

Google Books. Web. July 17, 2015. No error. c d e

32. Magazine citation: Bhob, Stewart. “Who Was William M. Gaines?”

a b

Comics Buyers Guide. February 28, 1997. c d

No error. e

Use the following passage to answer questions 33

through 36.

(1) According to the U.S. Centers for Disease

Control (CDC), almost 50% of American teens

are not vigorously active on a regular basis,

contributing to a trend of sluggishness among

Americans of all ages. (2) Adolescent female

students are particularly inactive: 29% are inac-

tive compared with 15% of male students.

(3) Unfortunately, the sedentary habits of

young “couch potatoes” often continues into

adulthood. (4) According to both the CDC and

the Surgeon General’s 1996 Report on Physical

Activity and Health, Americans become

increasingly less active with each year of age.

(5) Inactivity can be a serious health risk factor,

setting the stage for obesity and associated

chronic illnesses like heart disease or diabetes.

(6) Exercise sets the stage for building bone,

muscle, and joints, controlling weight, and pre-

venting the development of high blood

pressure.

(7) Some studies suggest that physical

activity may have other benefts for you.

(8) One CDC study found that high school stu-

dents who take part in team sports or are physi-

cally active outside of school are less likely to

engage in risky behaviors, like using drugs or

smoking. (9) Physical activity does not need to

be strenuous to be benefcial. (10) The CDC

recommends moderate, daily physical activity

for people of all ages, such as brisk walking for

30 minutes or 15 to 20 minutes of more intense

exercise. (11) A survey conducted by the

National Association for Sport and Physical

Education questioned teens about their atti-

tudes toward exercise and what it would take

to get them moving. (12) Teens chose friends

(56%) as their most likely motivators for

becoming more active, followed by parents

(18%) and professional athletes (11%).

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 146 9/7/17 2:07 PM

33. Which conclusion does the writer support with evidence from multiple resources?

a. Americans become increasingly less active

with each year of age.

b. Exercise sets the stage for building bone,

muscle, and joints, controlling weight, and

preventing the development of high blood

pressure.

c. Physical activity needs to be strenuous to be

benefcial.

d. Inactivity can be a serious health risk factor,

setting the stage for obesity and associated

chronic illnesses like heart disease or

diabetes.

e. “Couch potatoes” are people who spend

most of their time watching television and

eating unhealthy snacks.

34. In context, which revision to sentence 3 (sen- tence 3 follows) is most needed?

Unfortunately, the sedentary habits of

young “couch potatoes” often continues

into adulthood.

a. As it is now.

b. Unfortunately, the sedentary habits of young

“couch potatoes” often continuing into

adulthood.

c. Unfortunately, the sedentary habits of young

“couch potatoes” often continue into

adulthood.

d. Unfortunately, the sedentary habit of young

“couch potatoes” often continues into

adulthood.

e. The sedentary habits of young “couch

potatoes” often continues into adulthood.

35. In context, which revision to sentences 5 and 6 (sentences 5 and 6 follow) is most needed?

Inactivity can be a serious health risk

factor, setting the stage for obesity and

associated chronic illnesses like heart

disease or diabetes. Exercise sets the stage

for building bone, muscle, and joints,

controlling weight, and preventing the

development of high blood pressure.

a. As it is now.

b. Inactivity can be a serious health risk factor,

setting the stage for obesity and associated

chronic illnesses like heart disease or

diabetes. Building bone, muscle, and joints,

controlling weight, and preventing the

development of high blood pressure.

c. Inactivity can be a serious health risk factor,

setting the stage for obesity and associated

chronic illnesses like heart disease or

diabetes. Exercise sets the stages for building

bone, muscle, and joints, controlling weight,

and preventing the development of high

blood pressure.

d. Inactivity can be a serious health risk factor,

setting the stage for obesity and associated

chronic illnesses like heart disease or

diabetes. Exercise sets the stage for building

bone, muscle, and joints, and preventing the

development of high blood pressure.

e. Inactivity can be a serious health risk factor,

setting the stage for obesity and associated

chronic illnesses like heart disease or

diabetes. The benefts of exercise include

building bone, muscle, and joints,

controlling weight, and preventing the

development of high blood pressure.

146146

147147

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 147 9/7/17 2:07 PM

36. In context, which revision to sentence 7 (sentence 7 follows) is most needed?

Some studies suggest that physical activity

may have other benefts for you.

a. Change studies to study.

b. Replace for you with as well.

c. Replace suggest with suggests.

d. Replace other with the same.

e. Replace benefts with advantages.

Use the following passage to answer questions 37

through 40.

(1) Toni Morrison is one of the most renowned

and respected writers of our generation.

(2) Morrison’s visions are as epic and vivid as

her social conscience is formidable. (3) She is

perhaps best known for her 1977 novel Song of

Solomon and the 1987 novel Beloved, which

director Jonathan Demme adapted into a major

feature flm starring Oprah Winfrey. (4) Then, I

personally fnd her most powerful work to be

the 1973 novel Sula.

(5) The fctional setting of Sula—the

African-American section of Medallion, Ohio, a

community called “the Bottom”—is a place

where people, and even natural things, are apt

to go awry, to break from their prescribed

boundaries, a place where bizarre and unnatu-

ral happenings and strange reversals of the

ordinary are commonplace. (6) The very name

of the setting of Sula is signifcant; the Bottom

is located high up in the hills. (7) The novel is

furthermore flled with images of bad stuff,

both psychological and physical. (8) A great

part of the lives of the characters, therefore, is

taken up with making sense of the world, set-

ting boundaries, and devising methods to

control what is essentially uncontrollable. (9)

One of the major devices used by the people of

the Bottom is the seemingly universal one of

creating a scapegoat—in this case, the title

character Sula—upon which to project both the

evil they perceive outside themselves and the

evil in their own hearts. (10) Essentially, Morri-

son uses the small community of Sula to convey

good insights about our global society.

37. In context, which revision to sentences 3 and 4 (sentences 3 and 4 follow) is most needed?

She is perhaps best known for her 1977

novel Song of Solomon and the 1987 novel

Beloved, which director Jonathan Demme

adapted into a major feature flm starring

Oprah Winfrey. Then, I personally fnd

her most powerful work to be the 1973

novel Sula.

a. Replace Then with However.

b. Replace She with Morrison.

c. Replace best with greatest.

d. Replace director with flmmaker.

e. Change I to me.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 148 9/7/17 2:07 PM

38. In context, which revision to sentence 5 (sentence 5 follows) is most needed?

The fctional setting of Sula—the African-

American section of Medallion, Ohio, a

community called “the Bottom”—is a

place where people, and even natural

things, are apt to go awry, to break from

their prescribed boundaries, a place where

bizarre and unnatural happenings and

strange reversals of the ordinary are

commonplace.

a. As it is now.

b. The fctional setting of Sula is the African-

American section of Medallion, Ohio, a

community called “the Bottom.” It is a place

where people, and even natural things, are

apt to go awry, to break from their

prescribed boundaries, a place where bizarre

and unnatural happenings and strange

reversals of the ordinary are commonplace.

c. The fctional setting of Sula—the African-

American section of Medallion, Ohio, a

community called “the Bottom”—is a place

where people, and even natural things, are

apt to go awry. They break from their

prescribed boundaries.

d. The fctional setting of Sula—the African-

American section of Medallion, Ohio, a

community called “the Bottom”—is a place

where people, and even natural things, are

apt to go awry.

e. The fctional setting of Sula is a place where

people, and even natural things, are apt to go

awry, to break from their prescribed

boundaries, a place where bizarre and

unnatural happenings and strange reversals

of the ordinary are commonplace.

39. In context, which revision to sentence 7 (sentence 7 follows) is most needed?

The novel is furthermore flled with

images of bad stuff, both psychological

and physical.

a. Replace novel with book.

b. Change bad stuff to mutilation.

c. Replace furthermore with not.

d. Change physical to philosophical.

e. Replace is with are.

40. In context, which revision to sentence 10 (sentence 10 follows) is most needed?

Essentially, Morrison uses the small

community of Sula to convey good

insights about our global society.

a. Replace Essentially with Incidentally.

b. Change small to pathetic.

c. Replace good with profound.

d. Change Sula to novel.

e. Replace global with worldwide.

148148

149149

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 149 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Part IIa: Argumentative Essay

Time: 30 Minutes

Directions: Carefully read the essay topic that follows. Plan and write an essay that addresses all points in the

topic. Make sure that your essay is well organized and that you support your central argument with concrete

examples. Allow 30 minutes for your essay.

There are more vegetarians in this country than ever before. Should school and workplace cafeterias

accommodate this dietary preference by offering vegetarian selections? Use specifc reasons and examples

to support your argument.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 150 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

150150

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 151 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

________________________________________________________________________________________

151151

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 152 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

152152

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 153 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

________________________________________________________________________________________

153153

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 154 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

154154

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 155 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

________________________________________________________________________________________

155155

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 156 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

156156

157157

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 157 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Part IIb: Source-Based Essay

Time: 30 Minutes

Directions: The following assignment requires you to

use information from two sources to discuss the most

important concerns that relate to a specifc issue. When

paraphrasing or quoting from the source, cite each

source used by referring to the author’s last name, the

text’s title, or any other clear identifer. Allow 30 min-

utes for your essay.

Source 1

Assignment

Read the two passages carefully and then write an

essay in which you identify the most important con-

cerns regarding the debates concerning the adoption

of the Bill of Rights to the United States Constitution.

Your essay must draw on information from both of

the sources. In addition, you may draw on your own

experiences, observations, or reading. Be sure to cite

the sources whether you are paraphrasing or directly

quoting.

“John DeWitt” (pseudonym), Anti-Federalist Paper #2, Massachusetts, October 27, 1787 That the want of a Bill of Rights to accompany this proposed System, is a solid objection to it, pro- vided there is nothing exceptionable in the System itself, I do not assert. . . . A people, entering into society, surrender such a part of their natural rights, as shall be necessary for the existence of that society. They are so precious in themselves, that they would never be parted with, did not the pres- ervation of the remainder require it. They are entrusted in the hands of those, who are very willing to receive them, who are naturally fond of exercising of them, and whose passions are always striving to make a bad use of them. They are conveyed by a written compact, expressing those which are given up, and the mode in which those reserved shall be secured. Language is so easy of explanation, and so difficult is it by words to convey exact ideas, that the party to be governed cannot be too explicit. The line cannot be drawn with too much precision and accuracy. The necessity of this accu- racy and this precision increases in proportion to the greatness of the sacrifice and the numbers who make it. That a Constitution for the United States does not require a Bill of Rights, when it is consid- ered, that a Constitution for an individual State would, I cannot conceive. The difference between them is only in the numbers of the parties concerned[;] they are both a compact between the Gov- ernors and Governed the letter of which must be adhered to in discussing their powers. That which is not expressly granted, is of course retained.

The Compact itself is a recital upon paper of that proportion of the subject’s natural rights, intended to be parted with, for the benefit of adverting to it in case of dispute. Miserable indeed would be the situation of those individual States who have not prefixed to their Constitutions a Bill of Rights . . . those powers which the people by their Constitutions expressly give them; they enjoy by positive grant, and those remaining ones, which they never meant to give them, and which the Constitutions say nothing about, they enjoy by tacit implication, so that by one means and by the other, they became possessed of the whole. . . . That insatiable thirst for unconditional control over our fellow-creatures, and the facility of sounds to convey essentially different ideas, produced the first Bill of Rights ever prefixed to a Frame of Government. The people, although fully sensible that they reserved every title of power they did not expressly grant away, yet afraid that the words made use of, to express those rights so granted might convey more than they originally intended,

(continues)

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 158 9/7/17 2:07 PM

they chose at the same moment to express in different language those rights which the agreement did not include, and which they never designed to part with, endeavoring thereby to prevent any cause for future altercation and the intrusion into society of that doctrine of tacit implication which has been the favorite theme of every tyrant from the origin of all governments to the present day.

Source 2

Alexander Hamilton writing as “Publius,” Federalist Paper #84, “Certain General and Miscellaneous Objections to the Constitution Considered and Answered” (1788) It has been several times truly remarked that bills of rights are, in their origin, stipulations between kings and their subjects, abridgements of prerogative in favor of privilege, reservations of rights not surrendered to the prince. . . . It is evident, therefore, that, according to their primitive signifcation, they have no appli- cation to constitutions professedly founded upon the power of the people, and executed by their immedi- ate representatives and servants. Here, in strictness, the people surrender nothing; and as they retain every thing they have no need of particular reservations. . . .

But a minute detail of particular rights is certainly far less applicable to a Constitution like that under consideration, which is merely intended to regulate the general political interests of the nation, than to a constitution which has the regulation of every species of personal and private concerns. If, therefore, the loud clamors against the plan of the convention, on this score, are well founded, no epithets of reproba- tion will be too strong for the constitution of this State. But the truth is, that both of them contain all which, in relation to their objects, is reasonably to be desired.

I go further, and affrm that bills of rights, in the sense and to the extent in which they are con- tended for, are not only unnecessary in the proposed Constitution, but would even be dangerous. They would contain various exceptions to powers not granted; and, on this very account, would afford a color- able pretext to claim more than were granted. For why declare that things shall not be done which there is no power to do? Why, for instance, should it be said that the liberty of the press shall not be restrained, when no power is given by which restrictions may be imposed? I will not contend that such a provision would confer a regulating power; but it is evident that it would furnish, to men disposed to usurp, a plau- sible pretense for claiming that power. They might urge with a semblance of reason, that the Constitution ought not to be charged with the absurdity of providing against the abuse of an authority which was not given, and that the provision against restraining the liberty of the press afforded a clear implication, that a power to prescribe proper regulations concerning it was intended to be vested in the national govern- ment. This may serve as a specimen of the numerous handles which would be given to the doctrine of constructive powers, by the indulgence of an injudicious zeal for bills of rights.

158158

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 159 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

________________________________________________________________________________________

159159

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 160 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

160160

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 161 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

________________________________________________________________________________________

161161

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 162 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

162162

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 163 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

________________________________________________________________________________________

163163

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 164 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

164164

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 165 9/7/17 2:07 PM

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

________________________________________________________________________________________

165165

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 166 9/7/17 2:07 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

166166

167167

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 167 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Writing Practice Test 2 Answers and Explanations

1. e. Because there are no grammatical, idiom- atic, logical, or structural errors in this sen-

tence, choice e is the best answer.

2. c. Because the words but and yet mean the same thing, this sentence contains a redun-

dancy. Either one of these words should be

deleted.

3. e. Because there are no grammatical, idiom- atic, logical, or structural errors in this

sentence, choice e is the best answer.

4. a. Homer’s requires an apostrophe “s” to show possession.

5. a. A comma is needed in this sentence to indi- cate or set off parenthetical elements. A par-

enthetical element is segment that can be

removed without changing the essential

meaning of that sentence.

6. e. Because there are no grammatical, idiom- atic, logical, or structural errors in this sen-

tence, choice e is the best answer.

7. c. The correct word choice would be effectively, meaning “to cause a result.” Affective refers

to “the ability to infuence or alter someone’s

mental state.”

8. a. In this comparison, the word as should be used instead of like. The use of as completes

the idiom such as.

9. b. When two subjects are connected with the conjunction or, the subject that is closer to

the verb will determine whether the verb is

singular or plural. The verb in this sentence

should be is because administrator—the

closer subject—is singular.

10. a. This is a grammatical error. Because the word modifes the verb resemble, the adverb

closely should be used instead of the adjec-

tive close.

11. c. This is an error in sentence construction. For proper parallel construction in the sentence,

must protect should be changed to the protec-

tion of to match the promotion of and the

assistance of.

12. a. Scripps National Spelling Bee is a proper noun. It is the specifc name used to identify

a contest, so it must be capitalized.

13. a. This is an error in agreement. The singular noun one requires the singular verb is. When

the subject (in this case one) follows the

verb, as in a sentence beginning with here or

there, be careful to determine the subject. In

this sentence, the subject is not the plural

noun scarves but the singular one of the

three scarves.

14. a. In this sentence, the word good is being used as an adverb telling how the student thinks

he or she will do on the test. Therefore, good

should be replaced with well. This is a word-

choice error.

15. b. Using more or most before a comparative adjective or adverb is an example of a redun-

dancy. In this sentence, just using the word

spicier is enough to establish the proper

comparison between the two dishes of

gumbo.

16. d. This is an error of commonly confused homonyms (words that sound alike). The

use of the word illusion makes this sentence

illogical. An illusion is something that is

not what it seems. The correct word choice

would be allusion, which means a reference

or hint.

17. c. The word principle, meaning rule, can only be used as a noun. Principal, meaning lead-

ing or main, can be used as a noun or as an

adjective. In this sentence, it is clearly an

adjective, which rules out choices a, b, and e.

Choice d incorrectly uses the word effect.

The verb affect means to produce an effect

(noun) on something.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 168 9/7/17 2:07 PM

18. e. This is the only choice that does not contain excessive wordiness and matches the tenses

of was and had given. In choice a, the phrase

the third of the three is a redundancy. Choice

b is also repetitive in using both three and

third. Choices c and d, although constructed

differently, make the same error.

19. c. This is the only choice that is grammatically correct in every way. Choice a is a double

negative using the word no. Choice b needs

an apostrophe in the word don’t. Choice d

uses the word too when it should be to.

Choice e uses the word has, which is the

wrong subject-verb agreement.

20. a. When constructing sentences, unnecessary shifts in verb tenses should be avoided.

Choice a is best because all three verbs in the

sentence indicate that the action occurred in

the past (built, was given, and had defected).

In choice b, there is a shift to the present

(defect). Choice c begins in the present

(being built, is nicknamed), and then shifts to

the past (had defected). Choice d starts in

the past tense (built), shifts to the future

(will be given), and then reverts back to the

past (had defected). Finally, choice e shifts

from the future (to be built) to past tense

(was given, had defected).

21. a. The clause who is getting off at the next stop is a restrictive (essential) clause and should not

be set off by commas. Choices b, c, d, and e

are all punctuated incorrectly. In addition,

choice e uses the pronoun whom, which is

the wrong case.

22. e. There are two potential problems in this sentence. One is the possessive form of the

word Atlantic, and the other is the punctua-

tion between the two clauses. Choice e uses

the correct possessive form (there is only

one Atlantic Ocean), and the correct punc-

tuation (a semicolon should be used

between two independent clauses). Choice a

is incorrect because it creates a comma

splice. Choice b uses the incorrect possessive

form. Choice c creates a sentence fragment.

Choice d creates faulty subordination.

23. b. This sentence requires a semicolon to sepa- rate the independent clauses and subject-

verb agreement between my cousins and I

and are.

24. c. The second clause of this sentence requires a parallel construction. Choice c is the only

one in which all three elements are parallel.

25. b. Choice b is correct, as it correctly punctuates this sentence with commas around the par-

enthetical his brother, inserts a semicolon

between the independent clauses, and capi-

talizes Earth and Epimetheus (as the latter is a

person’s name and therefore a proper noun).

26. d. Choice d is correctly punctuated with a semicolon between two independent clauses,

and there is no shift in person (i.e., every-

thing is in the frst person). Choices a, b, and

e are incorrect because the sentence shifts

from the frst person (we) to the second per-

son (you). Choice c uses a semicolon when

no punctuation is necessary.

27. b. The original sentence has an error in pro- noun case; it requires the nominative pro-

noun he instead of the objective pronoun

him. Choice c requires he instead of the pos-

sessive pronoun his. Choices d and e would

not be grammatically incorrect if the pro-

noun did not refer to my father, but because

the pronoun does refer to my father, they are

wrong.

168168

169169

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 169 9/7/17 2:07 PM

28. e. The original sentence contains a misplaced modifer. The phrase an author of thrilling

books for children modifes Virginia Hamil-

ton, so it should be placed directly before or

after that name and offset with a comma.

Only choice e places the modifer correctly.

Choice b is particularly confusing because it

splits up the modifer. Choice c mistakenly

places the modifer in the middle of the

name it modifes. Choice d fails to offset the

modifer with a comma.

29. a. Books about the causes of World War II might be relevant resources for an essay on

that topic, but the fact that such books exist

is irrelevant. Choices b and d pertain directly

to the causes of World War II. The date the

war began (choice c) would certainly be rel-

evant information to include in an essay

about the causes of World War II. While the

date the war ended (choice e) might seem

off topic for an essay about the causes of the

war, it would likely be more relevant than

the fact that World War II has been the

topic of many books.

30. e. The fact that many contemporary flms include long stretches of silent footage is not

particularly relevant to a discussion of the

silent flm era. The information in choices a,

b, c, and d are all more relevant to the topic.

31. a. The title of a book should always be itali- cized, but this citation fails to italicize the

title. The other elements of the citation are

all written and formatted correctly.

32. d. When citing a magazine article, it is impor- tant to include the page number/numbers

on which the article originally appeared

immediately after the date of publication.

This citation fails to include the page num-

ber/numbers. The other elements of the cita-

tion are all written and formatted correctly.

33. a. In sentence 4, the writer cites both the CDC and the Surgeon General’s 1996 Report on

Physical Activity and Health as sources of

this information. Although the information

in choices b and d may have come from

resources, the writer does not cite them in

the passage, so they are not the best answer

choices. In sentence 9, the writer states the

opposite of the conclusion in choice c. The

writer never explicitly defnes the term couch

potato in the passage, so choice e cannot be

correct.

34. c. Sentence 3 contains a subject-verb agree- ment error. The plural subject habits needs

the plural verb continue. Choice c corrects

this error with the plural verb continue.

Choice b uses the wrong verb tense. While

choice d uses the singular verb continues

with the singular subject habit, the subject

refers to the plural couch potatoes, so it needs

to be plural, as well. Choice e merely

removes the transitional word Unfortunately

without correcting the subject-verb agree-

ment error.

35. e. As originally written, sentence 6 repeats the phrase set the stage from sentence 5. Remov-

ing that phrase from sentence 6 makes the

sentences less repetitious and monotonous.

Choice e removes that phrase while remain-

ing grammatically correct. Choice b removes

the phrase, but it is a fragment because it

also removes the subject exercise. Choice c

changes the singular stage to the plural

stages, which makes the sentence awkward

and fails to correct the original problem of

monotony. Choice d removes information

arbitrarily (controlling weight) and fails to

correct the original problem of monotony.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 170 9/7/17 2:07 PM

36. b. As it is originally written, sentence 7 is not consistent with the style of the rest of the

passage. The majority of the passage is writ-

ten in the third-person point of view. Sen-

tence 7 switches to the second person by

referring to the reader as you. Choice b cor-

rects this shift in style by removing the

phrase for you. Choice c fails to correct that

shift in style and introduces a subject-verb

agreement error by changing suggest to sug-

gests. Choice d changes the meaning of the

sentence. Choice e merely replaces the word

benefts with the synonym advantages with-

out correcting the style-shift error.

37. a. Sentence 4 introduces an idea (Sula is Toni Morrison’s most powerful novel) that is

somewhat contrary to the ideas in sentence 3

(Song of Solomon and the 1987 novel Beloved

are Toni Morrison’s best-known novels).

Therefore, However would be the best transi-

tional word to begin sentence 4, since it indi-

cates a contrary idea. Then indicates an idea

that follows the previous one without con-

tradicting it. Choice b changes a pronoun to

a proper name unnecessarily. Choice c

replaces a word with a synonym that creates

an idiom error (greatest known). Choice d

replaces director with the synonym flm-

maker without improving the sentence.

Choice e makes the sentence grammatically

incorrect.

38. a. Although sentence 5 is long and complex, it is grammatically correct, and its length and

complexity provide the variety necessary to

maintain the reader’s interest and prevent

the passage from becoming monotonous.

Although the other answer choices are all

grammatically correct, none of them

improves upon sentence 5 as it is now.

Choices c, d, and e make cuts that deprive

the passage of information.

39. b. The majority of this passage is written for an educated, adult audience. Using the euphe-

mism bad stuff does not respect that audi-

ence’s intelligence. The word mutilation is

much more precise. Choice a replaces novel

with the synonym book without improving

the sentence. Choices c and d change the

meaning of the sentence. Choice e creates a

grammatical error.

40. c. The word good is not used incorrectly in this sentence, but it is not a very strong word

choice. Replacing it with the stronger word

profound makes the sentence more effective.

Choice a changes the sentence’s meaning

since Incidentally has the opposite meaning

of Essentially. Choice b also makes the

meaning of the sentence inaccurate. Choice

d is incorrect because the writer is not using

the word Sula to mean the novel’s title in

this sentence; she is referring to the commu-

nity in the novel. Choice e replaces the word

global with a synonym (worldwide) that does

not make the sentence incorrect, but does

not improve it either.

Sample Responses for the Argumentative Essay

Following are sample criteria for scoring an argu-

mentative essay.

A score 6 writer will n create an exceptional composition with a clear

thesis that appropriately addresses the audience

and given task. n organize ideas effectively and logically, include

very strong supporting details, and use smooth

transitions. n present a defnitive, focused thesis and clearly

support it throughout the composition.

170170

171171

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 171 9/7/17 2:07 PM

n include vivid, strong details, clear examples, and

supporting text to support the key ideas. n exhibit an exceptional level of skill in the usage of

the English language and the capacity to employ

an assortment of sentence structures. n build essentially error-free and varied sentences

that accurately convey intended meaning.

A score 5 writer will n create a commendable composition that appro-

priately addresses the audience and given task. n organize ideas, include supporting details, and

use smooth transitions. n present a thesis and support it throughout the

composition. n include details, examples, and supporting text to

enhance the themes of the composition. n generally exhibit a high level of skill in the usage

of the English language and the capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build mostly error-free sentences that accurately

convey intended meaning.

A score 4 writer will n create a composition that satisfactorily addresses

the audience and given task. n display satisfactory organization of ideas, include

adequate supporting details, and generally use

smooth transitions. n present a thesis and mostly support it throughout

the composition. n include some details, examples, and supporting

text that typically enhance most themes of the

composition. n exhibit a competent level of skill in the usage of

the English language and the general capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build sentences with several minor errors that

generally do not confuse the intended meaning.

A score 3 writer will n create an adequate composition that basically

addresses the audience and given task. n display some organization of ideas, include some

supporting details, and use mostly logical

transitions. n present a somewhat underdeveloped thesis but

attempt to support it throughout the

composition. n exhibit an adequate level of skill in the usage of

the English language and a basic capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build sentences with some minor and major

errors that may obscure the intended meaning.

A score 2 writer will n create a composition that restrictedly addresses

the audience and given task. n display little organization of ideas, have inconsis-

tent supporting details, and use very few

transitions. n present an unclear or confusing thesis with little

support throughout the composition. n include very few details, examples, and support-

ing text. n exhibit a less than adequate level of skill in the

usage of the English language and a limited

capacity to employ a basic assortment of sentence

structures. n build sentences with a few major errors that may

confuse the intended meaning.

A score 1 writer will n create a composition that has a limited sense of

the audience and given task. n display illogical organization of ideas, include

confusing or no supporting details, and lack the

ability to effectively use transitions. n present a minimal or unclear thesis. n include confusing or irrelevant details and exam-

ples, and little or no supporting text.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 172 9/7/17 2:07 PM

n exhibit a limited level of skill in the usage of the

English language and little or no capacity to

employ basic sentence structure. n build sentences with many major errors that

obscure or confuse the intended meaning.

Sample Score 6 Argumentative Essay It’s a fact: more and more people across the United

States are vegetarian, and school and workplace cafete-

rias should be required to provide vegetarian lunch

options for them. There are many reasons why vegetar-

ians choose this diet: health concerns, moral issues, and

religion among them. Schools and workplaces should

honor these reasons by making it easier for vegetarians

to purchase healthful, meat-free lunches.

Some vegetarians are responding to the generally

unhealthy American diet, which often includes plenty of

fast food and processed meats. They prefer salads, vege-

tables, and protein sources such as beans, soy-based

products, and dairy products. However, cafeterias, both

in schools and in businesses, tend to resemble fast food

restaurants, offering such items as hamburgers, fried

chicken, pizza, French fries, and sodas. If they also

stocked healthier, meat-free choices, not only would the

vegetarians be accommodated, but others would have

the opportunity to enjoy healthier options.

It would not be diffcult to transform the typical

school or workplace cafeteria into a vegetarian-friendly

one. Many of the lunch selections currently offered could

be made vegetarian with a few simple and inexpensive

substitutions. Veggie burgers offered alongside beef

burgers, for example, would give vegetarians a satisfac-

tory option. Tacos, burritos, and other Mexican entrees

could be made with beans rather than ground beef. A

salad bar would serve the dual purpose of providing

both vegetarians and others concerned about their

health and weight the opportunity for a satisfying meal.

These changes, while relatively simple for cafeterias to

incorporate, would provide vegetarians with acceptable

lunch selections, and in the process, provide all the stu-

dents or employees they serve with more healthful alter-

natives.

Comments on the Sample Argumentative Essay That Received a Score of 6 The author has created a solid, good argument with a

clear thesis that is both defnitive and focused. This

essay successfully addresses the issue at hand with an

effective organization. The supporting details are cor-

rect, logical, and relevant. It uses smooth transitions,

clear examples, and specifc details. The key ideas are

readily apparent and explored throughout the essay

through varied sentence structures. The author dis-

plays a clear mastery of the subject and of the English

language.

Sample Score 4 Argumentative Essay In the United States there are many people who are veg-

etarian. Many of these people are students or workers

who eat lunch at their cafeterias on a daily basis. Sur-

prisingly though, school and workplace cafeterias are

not required to provide vegetarian options. That means

that most often they don’t. That means that vegetarians

may be limited to lunches comprised of French fries, or

pizza loaded with cheese. While these are vegetarian

(non-meat), they are not healthy, especially if they are

eaten every day.

Schools and businesses should have a wider vari-

ety of vegetarian options. Such as a salad bar, or per-

haps even something with tofu. Entrees that use beans

or soy-based products instead of meat would also be

good. It wouldn’t cost cafeterias more money to provide

vegetarian lunches. In fact, the ingredients used to make

them (like beans) are typically much cheaper than their

carnivorous counterparts (like ground beef). Salads

require little preparation in comparison with French

fries, which could save money on payroll. Also, cafete-

rias could buy premade vegetarian selections in bulk,

just as they do non-vegetarian dishes. These premade

foods are becoming more and more popular, and are

not more expensive.

While cafeterias can’t meet all the demands of

those they serve, it is important to offer those committed

to a vegetarian lifestyle the choice to eat healthfully and

172172

173173

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 173 9/7/17 2:07 PM

meat-free. Schools should create a menu that offers

these options for all students.

Comments on the Sample Argumentative Essay That Received a Score of 4 The author has done a workmanlike job. The essay

accomplishes what it sets out to do, addressing the

issue at hand. It is fairly well organized and gives rea-

sonable details and arguments. It wants somewhat for

style, but displays adequate rhetorical skills and mas-

tery of the English language. For the most part, it is

grammatically and orthographically correct.

Sample Score 1 Argumentative Essay Many people are vegetarian and don’t eat meat. This

may be because they are afraid of diseases found in

meat, such as mad cow disease, salmanella, or avian

infuenza. Or, they may not eat meat because of their

religion. Some care about animal rites, and others are

vegetarian because they are concerned about their

health. They believe a vegetarian diet will help them

lose weight and in general improve their health. But

this is not necessarily the case. You could just eat French

fries, cold cereal, and pizza every day and be a vegetar-

ian. Vegetarians need to learn about how to eat this diet

and make it healthy too. School and workplace cafete-

rias could help by offering them good selections at

lunch.

Comments on the Sample Argumentative Essay That Received a Score of 1 The essay is short, poorly organized, and does not

fulfll the requirements. There are a number of gram-

matical and spelling mistakes, as well as poor transi-

tions and weak sentence structure. The argument is

not convincing, and the author does not give the

appearance of caring much about the subject.

Sample Responses for the Source-Based Essay

Following are sample criteria for scoring a source-

based essay.

A score 6 writer will n create an exceptional composition explaining why

the concerns are important and support the

explanation with specifc references to both

sources. n organize ideas effectively and logically, include

well-chosen information from both sources, link

the two sources in the discussion, and use smooth

transitions. n exhibit an exceptional level of skill in the usage of

the English language and the capacity to employ

an assortment of sentence structures. n build essentially error-free and varied sentences

that accurately convey intended meaning. n cite both sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 5 writer will n create a commendable composition that explains

why the concerns are important and supports the

explanation with specifc references to both

sources.. n organize ideas effectively and logically, include

information from both sources, link the two

sources, and use smooth transitions. n generally exhibit skill in the usage of the English

language and the capacity to employ variety in

sentence structures. n build mostly error-free sentences that accurately

convey intended meaning. n cite both sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 4 writer will n create a composition that satisfactorily explains

why the concerns are important and supports the

explanation with specifc references to both

sources.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 174 9/7/17 2:07 PM

n use information from both sources to convey why

the concerns discussed in the sources are

important. n display satisfactory organization of ideas, include

adequate details, and link the two sources. n exhibit a competent level of skill in the usage of

the English language and the general capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build sentences with several minor errors that

generally do not confuse the intended meaning. n cite both sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 3 writer will n create an adequate composition that basically

addresses the audience and given task but conveys

the importance of the concerns in only a limited

way. n use information from only one source or inade-

quately from both sources to convey why the con-

cerns discussed in the sources are important. n display some organization of ideas and include

some supporting details. n exhibit an adequate level of skill in the usage of

the English language and a basic capacity to

employ an assortment of sentence structures. n build sentences with some minor and major

errors that may obscure the intended meaning. n cite sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 2 writer will n fail to explain why the concerns are important. n use information from only one source poorly or

fail to convey why the concerns discussed in the

sources are important. n display little organization of ideas, have inconsis-

tent supporting details, and fail to link the two

sources. n exhibit a less than adequate level of skill in the

usage of the English language and a limited

capacity to employ a basic assortment of

sentence structures.

n build sentences with a few major errors that may

confuse the intended meaning. n fail to cite sources when quoting or paraphrasing.

A score 1 writer will n display illogical organization of ideas, include

confusing or no supporting details, and fail to

adequately address the concerns raised by the

sources. n include confusing or irrelevant details and exam-

ples, and few or no supporting references. n exhibit a limited level of skill in the usage of the

English language and little or no capacity to

employ basic sentence structure. n build sentences with many major errors that

obscure or confuse the intended meaning.

Sample Score 6 Essay The Bill of Rights—the frst ten amendments to the U.S.

Constitution—is a part of American jurisprudence that

is today often taken for granted. The Bill of Rights

grants such fundamental liberties as the freedom of

speech, freedom of religion, and protection against

unreasonable search and seizure. However, there was a

vigorous debate in the early Republic over whether a

Bill of Rights should be adopted. Ironically, it was Alex-

ander Hamilton, author of many of the Federalist

Papers and proponent of a strong central government—

the side eventually victorious—that would argue

against the adoption of such a bill.

“John DeWitt,” speaking for the anti-Federalists,

raises sound arguments in favor of a bill of rights.

Entering into a form of government, by its nature,

entails giving up some of one’s natural rights. (This

train of thought was in keeping with Enlightenment fg-

ures such as John Locke.) These rights are so important

and fundamental, that one must carefully delineate

what powers are allotted to the government, and which

retained, or, as he writes, “The line cannot be drawn

with too much precision and accuracy.” Furthermore,

such legislation would prevent any confusion. Antici-

pating modern debates over the “original intent” of the

174174

175175

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 175 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Founding Fathers, “DeWitt” points out that “Language

is so easy of explanation, and so diffcult is it by words

to convey exact ideas, that the party to be governed can-

not be too explicit.” Thus, the new nation needed a bill

of rights to eliminate any ambiguity.

One Federalist argument claimed that a constitu-

tional bill of rights was unnecessary owing to the fact

that states already had such verbiage affxed to their

own constitutions. DeWitt counters this by saying that

if states had Bills of Rights, why not the Federal govern-

ment? To do so would be a check on governmental over-

reach, and reassure people that they retained all rights

not specifcally allocated to the Federal government.

In rebutting this, Hamilton, writing for the Feder-

alists, deploys two arguments. First, he makes an appeal

to the dignity of the new nation: bills of rights were

made between rulers and subjects, and are not suited to

a free country of free citizens. This, however, is mere

rhetoric, and Hamilton proceeds to the meat of the mat-

ter. He points out that the central government was

intended to be weak, and thus a Bill of Rights is super-

fuous: “a minute detail of particular rights is certainly

far less applicable to a Constitution like that under con-

sideration . . . than to a constitution which has the regu-

lation of every species of personal and private concerns.”

Worse, by explicitly mentioning exceptions to powers

not even mentioned, they would “afford a colorable pre-

text to claim more than were granted.” Thus, a bill of

rights, Hamilton feared, could lead to emboldened citi-

zens seeking to overstep their granted rights.

The debates over the American Bill of Rights are

one of the ironies of history. The very statutes that today

ensure our liberties—and which have been expanded by

judicial opinion to include contingencies that would

have been completely foreign to the Founding Fathers

like immigration rights and interracial marriage—were

once seen as superfuous and even detrimental to a

democratic way of life. Ultimately—in this matter, at

least—the Anti-Federalists would prevail, and the frst

ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution stand as one

of the foundational documents of the Western concept

of freedom and liberty.

Comments on the Sample Source-Based Essay That Received a Score of 6 This is an outstanding essay. The author has clearly

explained why the topic is important, making refer-

ence to both sources, and clearly, effectively, and logi-

cally organized the ideas under discussion. The

author has linked these ideas together into a thematic

and impartial essay on the subject of the debate over

the Bill of Rights. She or he clearly understands the

issue, and has additionally brought in a great deal of

outside information. The use of the English language

is exemplary, with a wide variety of error-free sen-

tences that clearly convey the intended meaning. Both

sources are extensively and accurately cited. The

author furthermore correctly understands the use of

advanced rhetorical techniques like irony and logical

fallacies.

Sample Score 4 Essay From the very beginning, the Bill of Rights, which gives

Americans freedom of speech, the freedom of religion,

and freedom to own guns has been the subject of the

controversy. The two sides of the debate were the Feder-

alists and Anti-Federalists. The Federalists did not want

a Bill of Rights, while the Anti-Federalists did.

John de Witt says that when people form govern-

ments, they give up some rights. It is therefore impor-

tant to say which rights are given up, for as he says,

“The line cannot be drawn with too much precision and

accuracy.” He also says that people might be confused as

to which rights were given up. A Bill of Rights would

help to prevent this confusion. Also, if states had Bills of

Rights, why shouldn’t the Federal government? This

would prevent people from taking too much power,

since people naturally want to gain power over other

people.

Alexander Hamilton disagrees with this opinion.

First, he says that Bills of Rights were made between

rulers and subjects. Since Americans are not subjects,

they do not need a Bill of Rights. He also says that since

the government would not have any powers the Consti-

tution did not grant it, a Bill of Rights is not needed.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 176 9/7/17 2:07 PM

He is even afraid that giving a Bill of Rights might

make the government think it had more power than it

really did.

Obviously, the Anti-Federalists won this debate.

Still, I feel that that people should listen to Alexander

Hamilton today. The government has taken too much

power. The Bill of Rights is there to stop the government

from over-reaching.

Comments on the Sample Source-Based Essay That Received a Score of 4 This composition satisfactorily explains why the con-

cerns in the topic are important and supports the

explanation with specifc information and references

to both sources. However, though the author is able

to deploy information from both sources to discuss

the source, he or she does not have a deep historical

background. The essay is satisfactorily organized and

uses adequate details. The use of English is compe-

tent, with some variety in sentence structures. Errors

are minor, and do not interfere with general under-

standing. Finally, the essay writer fails to be com-

pletely objective.

Sample Score 1 Essay Today, the government does a lot of things it shouldn’t.

The government wants to take away guns (2 Amend-

ment) and make us buy health care even if we like the

health care we have right now (1 Amendment). Also the

CIA and NSA are spying on us and violating our rights

against searching and seizing.

The Founding Fathers came up with the best sys-

tem of government anywhere. They knew what they

were ding. In the Bill of Rights to the Constitution, they

insured that we would not have our rights taken away.

The problem with America today is that people are not

listening to what the Founding Fathers said.

I think that we should go back to the original

intent of the Founding Fathers. The USA should be One

Nation Under God, Indivisible, With Liberty and Jus-

tice.

Comments on the Sample Source-Based Essay That Received a Score of 1 This essay displays an illogical organization of ideas

and badly mismanages supporting details. The author

shows no understanding of the issues. What details

the essay does bring in are completely irrelevant. It

also fails to adequately address the concerns raised by

the sources. The level of English usage is poor at best

and confuses the intended meaning. Finally, it fails to

deal with the sources objectively.

176176

177177

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 177 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Mathematics Practice Test 2

Time: 85 Minutes

Directions: Choose the best answer to each of the

following questions.

1. Alec needs 432 inches of molding to put along the ceiling of his dining room. How many

yards of molding should he buy?

a. 12

b. 43.2

c. 15,552

d. 36

e. 440

2. John, Mike, and Dillon are painting a fence. John paints 1 of the fence and Mike paints 2 4 5 of the fence. How much of the fence is left to

paint for Dillon?

3. The Andersons went out to dinner Saturday night and had a bill of $190.00. They gave the

server a 25% tip. How much money did the

Andersons tip their server?

a. $19

b. $47.50

c. $38

d. $38.50

e. $47

4. Tanya can pack 4 boxes of fragile dishware in 25 minutes. How many minutes would it take

her to pack 28 boxes of fragile dishware?

5. Consider the line in the graph that follows:

(–4,1)

(3,–2)

Which of the following is the equation of this

line?

a. 7x + 3y = 15

b. 3x + 7y = –5

c. 7x + 3y = 15

d. y + 2 = –(x – 3)

e. y + 4 = – 3 (x – 1)7

6. John must rent vans to take the children from his summer camp on a feld trip. There are 34

children, 6 counselors, and 11 assistants who

will be going on the trip. If each van can

accommodate 9 people, how many vans must

John rent?

a. 9

b. 51

c. 6

d. 5

e. 7

7. Which of the following is equivalent to 6 × 7 + 6 × 9?

a. 6(7 + 9)

b. 6 + 7 × 6 + 9

c. (6 × 7) + 9

d. (6 × 7) × (6 × 9)

e. 6(7 × 9)

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 178 9/7/17 2:07 PM

8. Out of 100 workers polled at a local factory, 75 said they would favor being offered a course in

management. If there are 25,000 workers, how

many would you expect to favor being offered

such a course?

a. 1,875

b. 18,750

c. 15,000

d. 16,000

e. 19,000

9. Which of the following is equivalent to the expression xy · yzx5?

2 2a. 5x y z 5 2b. x y z

c. 12xyz 6 2d. x y z

e. x6y6z5

10. Jake rents a car for $200 each month, which includes 1,000 miles for the month. He is

charged an additional $0.55 for each mile

driven over 1,000. If x represents the total mile-

age Jake drives each month, and if he always

drives over 1,000 miles per month, which of

the following expressions can be used to calcu-

late his total monthly car rental bill?

a. 200 + 0.55x

b. 200 + 0.55(x – 1,000)

c. 200x + 0.55

d. 200 × 0.55x

e. 200x + 0.55(x – 1,000)

11. Suppose a = –5, b = –2, and c = –3. Evaluate 2ac – abc.

12. Given the equation y = 7 + 3(2x − 2), what is the value of y when x = 6?

a. 14

b. 21

c. 25

d. 35

e. 37

Use the following chart to answer question 13.

How People Get to Work

Car

Bicycle

Bus

Walk Taxi

13. What is the total percentage of people who use a car or bicycle to get to work?

a. 50%

b. 25%

c. 80%

d. 40%

e. 55%

14. Which of the following fractions is/are between 1 5 and

1 8? Indicate all that apply.

1 a. 4 b. 1 3

1c. 7

d. 7 2

3 e. 16

178178

179179

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 179 9/7/17 2:07 PM

15. Jessica received grades of 85, 90, 70, 85, and 100 on her math tests this semester. What grade

will she receive in math for the semester?

a. 70

b. 85

c. 86

d. 90

e. 100

Use the following fgure to answer questions 16 and

17.

17. If Paul drives to work fve days a week using route A to B, how many fewer miles will he

drive than if he used route A to C to B over a

period of 3 weeks?

a. 15 miles

b. 20 miles

c. 35 miles

d. 45 miles

e. 60 miles

18. Which of the following is the solution of this

system of equations?

⎧ ⎨ ⎩

−x – 4y = 18

4y + x = 26

12 c

a. x = 10, y = –2

b. x = 2, y = 6

c. x = 0, y = 0

d. x = 22, y = 1

e. no solution

19. Aidan and James sell a total of 48 magazines. If Aidan sells 3 times more magazines than

James, how many magazines does James sell?

20. Nella wants to buy wood chips to cover the 5

(Numbers indicate miles)

16. Paul drives to work each day using the route A to C to B, which is a total of 17 miles. Recently,

a new road was fnished that went directly

from A to B. How many fewer miles will Paul

be driving each day to work if he uses the new

route?

a. 2 miles

b. 3 miles

c. 4 miles

d. 5 miles

e. 6 miles

play area in her backyard. The area is 12 feet

long and 6 feet wide. She wants the wood chips

to be 3 inches deep. How many cubic inches of

wood chips does Nella need to buy?

a. 216 cubic inches

b. 500 cubic inches

c. 2,160 cubic inches

d. 21,160 cubic inches

e. 31,104 cubic inches

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 180 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following dot plot to answer questions 21 and 22. 24. Mary has exactly 1,560 hours until her vacation begins. How many days are there before her

X vacation begins?X X X X X a. 30 X X X b. 50 X X X X X X X c. 65 X X X X X d. 75

X X X X X X e. 37,4403 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Quiz Scores KEY: X = 1 Student 25. A rose garden on a square plot of land has an

open wooden fence that is 320 feet long around

its perimeter. What is the approximate length 21. According to the dot plot, how many students of the diagonal of this plot of ground to the

scored at least an 8 on the quiz? nearest foot? a. 5 a. 80 feet b. 8 b. 226 feet c. 11 c. 6,400 feet d. 16 d. 139 feet e. 27 e. 113 feet

22. What fraction of students earned a 7 or 8 on Use the following graph to answer questions 26 and 27. the quiz?

8 Car Rental Rates a. 10 240 6 220b. 10

2008 c. 27 180 6 160d. 27

14 e. 27

R at

e in

$ 140

120

100

23. Alexa is making costumes for the school play. 80 She needs 15 yards of fabric to make 3 cos-

40 tumes. How many yards of fabric would she 20 need to make 8 costumes? 0

110

160

210

200 300 400 a. 30 yards

b. 40 yards

c. 45 yards

d. 50 yards

e. 60 yards

100 Miles Traveled

26. Which equation best represents the graph? a. y = 2x

b. y = x − 40

c. y = 2x − 40

d. y = 1 2 x + 40

e. y = 1 2 x + 10

180180

181181

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 181 9/7/17 2:07 PM

27. If the x-axis is extended, what will y be when x = 700?

a. 260

b. 300

c. 310

d. 360

e. 400

28. A factory operates 15 machines that each make between 90 and 120 tennis balls per minute.

Which of the following could be the number of

tennis balls produced in an hour if all 15

machines are working at the same time?

a. 900

b. 1,200

c. 9,000

d. 28,000

e. 90,000

29. The area of Melissa’s rectangular garden is 330 square feet. The width of the garden is 15 feet.

How many feet of fence does Melissa need to

buy to surround the entire garden?

a. 20 feet

b. 34 feet

c. 74 feet

d. 85 feet

e. 94 feet

30. Which of the following numerical expressions is an irrational number?

a. √8 × √2 b. 1255 c. (√21)2

d. 2 – √81 e. √169 – 49

__ __1 431. Let s(x) = 3 – 2x2 + 4 and r(x) = 5x2 – 10x .2 3 x Which of the following is equivalent to

6s(x) – 15 r(x)?

a. –11x2 + 9

b. __31 3 x 4 – 3x2 + 9

c. 4x4 – 13x2 + 9

d. 4x4 – 13x2

e. 4x4 + 13x2 – 9

32. Write the following expression as a single deci- mal: (2.7 × 10–3) ÷ (3.6 × 10–3).

33. For which of the following values of a does the trinomial x2 + ax + 24 factor? Select all that

apply.

a. 25

b. −10

c. −11

d. 11

e. 2

34. Patrick has $1,860 saved up from his past fve birthdays. He wants to allot himself $75 per

week for social activities and $40 per week for

gas and food, and wants to keep $400 in the

account to avoid monthly maintenance fees.

Which of the following inequalities can be used

to determine x as the number of weeks he can

continue to withdraw from the account?

a. 115x + 1,860 ≥ 400

b. 115 + 1,860x ≥ 400

c. 75x + 1,860 ≤ 400

d. –115x + 1,860 ≥ 400

e. 1,860 ≤ 400 + 115x

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 182 9/7/17 2:07 PM

Use the following table to answer questions 35 and 36. Use the following bar graph to answer questions 37

and 38. SNOWMOBILE RENTAL RATES

College Enrollment by ClassHOURS OVER 1 RATE 350

1 $17 300

2 $24

Chem Physics Econ PoliSci Psych Introductory Courses

3 $31

4 $38

250

En ro

llm en

200

35. It costs $250 to rent a snowmobile for the frst hour. The chart shows the rates for additional

hours. What would be the total cost for Tom

and Mary if Tom rented a snowmobile for

4 hours, and Mary rented one for 3 hours?

a. $281

b. $288

c. $560

d. $569

e. $622

36. Letting r = rate, and x = number of hours, which equation best represents the data in the

chart?

a. r = 7x + 10

b. r = 10 + 7

c. r = 5x + 12

d. r = 16x + 1

e. r = 5x + 10

150

100

37. According to the chart, what was the approxi- mate total enrollment for the classes shown?

a. 900

b. 1,000

c. 1,025

d. 1,050

e. 1,100

38. What is the approximate proportion of stu- dents who took PoliSci?

1 a. 2

b. 14 1 c. 3

d. 2 3 3 e. 4

182182

183183

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 183 9/7/17 2:07 PM

39. The formula for the surface area of a right cir- cular cylinder (including the areas of the two

bases) is given by SA = 2pr2 + 2prh, where r is the radius of the base and h is the height of the

cylinder. If the height equals 3 times the radius

and the surface area is 200p square feet, which of the following is the radius?

a. 5 feet

b. √50 feet c. 25 feet

d. 15 feet

e. 5p feet

40. Let y = f(x) be a given function and suppose the point (2,–3) lies on its graph. Consider

the translation of this function given by

g(x) = f(x + 4) – 1. To what point would the

given point correspond on the graph of g(x)?

41. Jackie’s bank balances were $20 on Monday, $0 on Tuesday, $45 on Wednesday, and $25 on

Thursday. What was Jackie’s mean balance for

the week?

a. $20.00

b. $22.50

c. $25.00

d. $25.50

e. $30.00

Use the dot plot to answer questions 42 through 44.

Number of Pencils Each Student Has X

X X X

X X X X X X

X X X X X X X X

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 KEY: X = 1 Student

42. How many students are surveyed on this dot plot?

a. 9

b. 10

c. 18

d. 38

e. 40

43. What is the approximate average number of pencils owned by the students surveyed?

a. 5.6

b. 4.5

c. 10

d. 6.6

c. 10.2

44. What is the mode of the data indicated by the dot plot?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 6

d. 9

e. 10

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 184 9/7/17 2:07 PM

45. Neil digitally records birthday parties and charges $120 for the recording. His weekly

overhead expenses amount to $390, and he

spends $30 on supplies for each recording.

How many birthday parties must Neil record

each week before he breaks even?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 10

e. 50

46. Jan and her sister entered a raffe at the football game. Jan put her name on 3 tickets, and her

sister put her name on 5 tickets. If there are 100

total tickets and only one winner, what are the

chances that Jan or her sister will win the

raffe?

a. 5.0

b. 0.50

c. 0.005

d. 0.8

e. 0.08

47. Which of the following statements is/are true? Select all that apply.

a. All rectangles are rhombi.

b. There is a rectangle that is not a

parallelogram.

c. Some rhombi are not squares.

d. A parallelogram is a square.

e. All squares are rectangles.

Use the chart to answer question 48.

x y

2 4

4 7 6 10

8 13

48. Which of the following equations best describes the relationship shown in the chart?

a. 2x = y

b. y = x + 3

c. 2x + 3 = y 3x + 2d. 2 = y 2x + 3 e. = y2

49. The ages of the starting lineup for the New York Yankees are as follows:

26, 29, 35, 29, 22, 31, 35, 21, 27

What is the median age of the Yankees’ starting

lineup?

a. 21

b. 35

c. 14

d. 28.5

e. 29

50. Ellen’s square kitchen has a perimeter of 48 feet. What is the area of the kitchen?

a. 12 square feet

b. 12 feet

c. 24 square feet

d. 560 square feet

e. 144 square feet

184184

185185

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 185 9/7/17 2:07 PM

51. Jessica has 3 skirts, 4 shirts, and 2 hats. How 54. Consider the two triangles DABC and DA'B'C': many different combinations of skirts, shirts,

and hats can she wear?

a. 7

b. 14

c. 24

d. 28

e. 32 3

52. If p and q are prime numbers, what is the least common multiple of 18p2, 30pq2, 42pq3?

Aa. 6p 2 3b. 6p q

c. 2p 2 3d. 630p q

4 5e. 22,680p q

53. Tom needs to buy paint so that he can paint the emblem on the basketball court. The circu-

lar emblem has a diameter of 12 feet. If paint

cans come in quarts, and it takes 1 quart to

paint 50 square feet, how many quarts of paint

will Tom have to buy? Use 3.14 for p. a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

y B'(8,9)

C 5

Assume that DABC can be transformed into DA'B'C' by frst translating DABC and then applying an appropriate dilation centered at

the origin. Which of the following translation

rule–dilation combinations will result in this

transformation?

a. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x – 8,y – 3) and then perform a dilation centered at the

origin with a scale factor of 2.

b. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x + 8,y – 3) and then perform a dilation centered at the

__1 origin with a scale factor of 2 .

c. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x + 8,y + 3) and then perform a dilation centered at the

__1 origin with a scale factor of 2 .

d. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x + 8,y + 3) and then perform a dilation centered at the

origin with a scale factor of 3.

e. Translate using the rule (x,y) → (x + 8,y + 3) and then perform a dilation centered at the

origin with a scale factor of 2.

A'(8,3) C'(18,3)

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 186 9/7/17 2:07 PM

_________ _________

______

55. Six students are running for class president. John has a 18 chance of winning and is half as

likely to win as Mike. Kelly has the same chance

of winning as Mike. Julie, Kelvin, and Roger all

have the same chance of winning. What chance

does Kelvin have of winning? 1

a. 2 1b. 3 1 c. 4

d. 3 8 1 e. 8

56. Jason was asked to choose a marble from a bag. If he chose a red marble, he would win a prize.

The bag contained 20 blue marbles, 20 black

marbles, 20 green marbles, 18 yellow marbles,

and 2 red marbles. Which of the following dec-

imals shows Jason’s chances of choosing a red

marble?

a. 0.025

b. 0.25

c. 0.08

d. 0.8

e. 2.5

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Mathematics Practice Test 2 Answers and Explanations

1. a. This is a conversion problem. There are 36 inches in 1 yard. Converting from a smaller

unit to a larger unit requires division: 432 ÷

36 = 12. You can also check division with

multiplication: 36 × 12 = 432. 72. 20. The frst step is to rewrite all fractions

with a common denominator. The lowest

common denominator for 1 and 5 2 is 20:4

1 5 5 2 4 8× = , and × = 20. These frac-4 5 20 5 4 tions represent portions of the fence that

5 8 13have been painted, so + = of20 20 20 the fence has been painted. Therefore,

13 20 13 71 − = − = 20 of the fence is left20 20 20 for Dillon to paint.

3. b. To compute a percent of a number, multiply by the decimal of the percent. The decimal

for 25% is 0.25: 0.25 × $190 = $47.50.

4. 175 minutes. Let x represent the number of minutes needed to pack 28 boxes of fragile

dishware. Set up the following proportion: 4 boxes 28 boxes = 25 minutes x minutes

Cross multiply and solve for x:

4x = (25)(28)

x = 25(7)

x = 175

So, Tanya can pack 28 boxes in 175 minutes.

5. b. We can identify two points on the graph: (–4,1) and (3,–2). The slope of the line con-

1 – (–2) __3taining these two points is m = = – 7 .–4 – 3 Using point-slope form with this slope and

the point (3,–2) yields y – (–2) = – 3 7 Now, we simplify as follows:

y – (–2) = – 3 (x – 3)7 y + 2 = – 3 (x – 3)7 7y + 14 = –3(x – 3)

7y + 14 = –3x + 9

3x + 7y = –5

(x – 3).

186186

187187

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 187 9/7/17 2:07 PM

6. c. For this problem, you must frst determine how many people will be going on the trip

by adding: 34 + 6 + 11 = 51. Since these peo-

ple will be splitting into groups of 9, you

should divide: 51 total people divided by 9

in each van equals 5 remainder 6. However,

the remainder here represents people, so

there will be 5 vans with 9 people, and one

van with 6 people, for a total of 6 vans.

7. a. This is an example of the distributive prop- erty of multiplication over addition. Factor

out 6 to get the equivalent expression

6(7 + 9).

8. b. 75 out of 100 is 75%. To compute 75% of 25,000, multiply 25,000 × 0.75 = 18,750.

9. d. Gather like variables in the product and add their exponents:

5 6 2xy · x yz = (x · x5) · (y · y) · z = x y z

10. b. His rental fee will include the $200 plus $0.55 × the number of miles he drives over

1,000 miles. If x = total miles, then x – 1,000

= the total miles driven over 1,000.

Therefore, the expression becomes 200 +

0.55(x – 1,000).

11. 60. Substitute the values of a, b, and c into the expression and use the order of opera-

tions to simplify:

2ac – abc = 2(–5)(–3) – (–5)(–2)(–3)

= 30 – (–30)

= 30 + 30

= 60

12. e. Substitute x = 6 and follow the order of operations (PEMDAS). Multiply inside the

parentheses frst, and then subtract: y = 7 +

3(2 × 6 – 2); y = 7 + 3(12 – 2); y = 7 + 3(10).

Then, multiply: y = 7 + 3(10); y = 7 + 30.

Finally, add: y = 37.

13. d. Since there are no values given, you must approximate the percentages based on the

size of the areas for car and bicycle. It could

not be 50%, 55%, or 80% because that

would be half the chart or bigger. 25% is 1 4 of the chart, but this only describes the per-

centage who take a car to work. 40% is the

best choice because it accurately describes

how the percentage of people who take a car

or bicycle to work is slightly less than half of

the graph.

14. c and e. To solve this problem, convert each fraction to a decimal. You are looking for

fractions with decimals between 18 = 0.125

and 1 = 0.2. Of the fractions given, only 1 ≈5 7 0.1429 and 3 = 0.1875 fall between these16 two values.

15. c. Jessica’s overall grade for the semester will be the average of the grades on her tests. To fnd

the average of a group of numbers, frst add

the numbers; then divide by the number of + 85 + 86 + 90 + 100 430 numbers: 70 = = 86.5 5

16. c. The new route from A to B represents the hypotenuse of the right triangle. You can

fnd the hypotenuse using the Pythagorean

theorem, a2 + b2 = c2: 122 + 52 = c2; 144 + 25

= 169. The square root of 169 = 13. Subtract

the length of the new route from the length

of his old route: 17 – 13 = 4 miles.

17. e. Using the 4 fewer miles that Paul drives each day using this new route, multiply that value

by 5 to get 20 fewer miles driven each week.

Over a period of 3 weeks, this would be

20 × 3 = 60 fewer miles driven.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 188 9/7/17 2:07 PM

18. d. The method of elimination is the most eff- cient one to use here. Add the two equations

to cancel the y terms:

x – 4y = 18

+ (x + 4y = 26)

2x = 44

x = 22

Now, substitute x = 22 into the frst equation

x – 4y = 18 to obtain 22 – 4y = 18. Solving

for y then yields y = 1. So, the solution of the

system is x = 22, y = 1.

19. 12. For this problem, use an algebraic equa- tion. Let James be J, and since Aidan sells 3

times more than James, Aidan will be 3J. The

equation becomes 3J + J = 48. Combine like

terms:

4J = 48. Finally, divide each side by 4: J = 12.

James sells 12 magazines.

20. e. To correctly solve this problem, it is impor- tant to frst change the feet to inches.

Remember, there are 12 inches in 1 foot: 12

feet is equal to 144 inches, and 6 feet is equal

to 72 inches. To fnd the volume of this

rectangular area, multiply length times

width times height: 144 × 72 × 3 =

31,104 cubic inches.

21. c. On this dot plot, one X is equal to one stu- dent who earned a particular score on the

quiz. Looking only at the X’s for 8, 9, and 10,

add to see that there are 11 students

represented.

22. e. Add all the X’s on the dot plot to fnd the total number of students who took the quiz.

There are 27 X’s, so this is the denominator

of the fraction. The question asks for the

fraction of students who scored a 7 or 8, so

add the X’s for those two scores. There are

14 students who scored either a 7 or 8, so the 14

fraction is 27 .

23. b. To solve this problem, set up a proportion 15 xand cross multiply: = 8 . Cross multiply:3

15 × 8 = 3x; 120 = 3x. Finally, divide both

sides by 3: x = 40 yards.

24. c. This problem requires you to convert a smaller unit to a larger unit. To go from a

smaller unit to a larger unit, you must

divide. Divide 1,560 hours by 24 hours per

day to get 65 days.

25. e. Since the garden is a square, each of its four sides has the same length. Since the perime-

ter is 320 feet, each side has length 80 feet.

The diagonal of the garden can be viewed as

the hypotenuse h of a right triangle whose

legs both have length 80 feet. Using the

Pythagorean theorem yields 802 + 802 = h2,

which simplifes to h2 = 12,800. So,

h = √12,800 ≈ 113 feet. 26. e. Because there are points labeled on the

graph, you can use them to fnd the slope of 160 − 110 50 1the line: m = = = 2. This300 − 200 100

eliminates all but two of the equations given.

To determine which of the two equations is

correct, plug an x-value into the equations.

The one that produces the correct y-value is 1the correct equation: y = 2(200) + 10;

y = 100 + 10; y = 110. The point (200,100) 1is labeled on the line, so y = 2 x + 10 is the

correct equation.

27. d. To fnd the y-value, plug x = 700 into the 1 equation of the line: y = 2(700) + 10;

y = 350 + 10; y = 360.

28. e. First, calculate the minimum number of ten- nis balls that could be produced in an hour

by 15 machines: 90 balls per minute × 60

minutes in an hour × 15 machines = 81,000.

Do the same for the maximum number:

120 × 60 × 15 = 108,000. Of the given possi-

ble numbers of balls produced, only 90,000

falls within this range.

188188

189189

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 189 9/7/17 2:07 PM

29. c. To determine how much fencing is needed to go around the entire garden, you need to

calculate the perimeter. The perimeter of a

rectangle is found by adding twice the length

and twice the width. So, you must frst fnd

the length of the garden. You are given the

area and width of the garden, and remember

that the area of a rectangle is found by mul-

tiplying length times width. Find the length

by dividing: 330 ÷ 15 = 22 feet. Now, the

perimeter of the garden is 2(22) + 2(15) =

44 + 30 = 74 feet.

30. e. Observe that √169 – 49 = √120. Since 120 is not the square of a rational number, this

quantity is irrational.

31. c. To compute 6s(x) – 15 r(x), frst distribute 6 through each term of s(x) and distribute the

–__5 1 through each term of r(x), and then add

like terms: __ __ __1 __6s(x) – 15 r(x) = 6(

3 – 2x2 + 4) – 1 (5x2 – 10x4)2 3 x 5 = (9 – 12x2 + 2x4) – (x2 – 2x4)

= 9 – 12x2 + 2x4 – x2 + 2x4

= 4x4 – 13x2 + 9

32. 0.75. Simplify each of the two quantities enclosed within parentheses. Then, divide

resulting decimals, as follows:

(2.7 × 10–3) ÷ (3.6 × 10–3) = 0.0027 ÷ 0.0036 = 27 ÷ 36 = 0.75

33. a, b, c, and d. For a, the trinomial would fac- tor as (x + 1)(x +24). For b, the trinomial

would factor as (x – 4)(x – 6). For c, the tri-

nomial would factor as (x – 3)(x – 8). For d,

the trinomial would factor as (x + 3)(x + 8).

34. d. Let x represent the number of weeks he can make withdrawls from the account. Since he

withdraws $115 per week (for social activi-

ties, gas, and food), the total he withdraws in

x weeks is $115x. So, after x weeks, there is

1,860 – 115x dollars left in the account. This

amount must be greater than or equal to

400 dollars in order to avoid fees. So, the

inequality used to model this situation is

–115x + 1,860 ≥ 400.

35. d. Use the table to determine the cost of each person’s rental, and then add the values.

Tom’s frst hour was $250, and then his 4

additional hours were $38 more: $250 + $38

= $288. Mary’s frst hour was also $250, and

then her 3 additional hours were $31 more:

$250 + $31 = $281. Therefore, the total cost

is $288 + $281 = $569.

36. a. Use trial and error to fnd which equation best represents the data in the chart. By

plugging the hours in the chart in for x, you

see that r = 7x + 10 is the equation that

shows all the correct values for r.

37. e. The question asks for the approximate total enrollment, so you must round the numbers

represented by the bars on the graph. By

rounding, represent Chem as 150, Physics as

150, Econ as 325, PoliSci as 250, and Psych as

225: 150 + 150 + 325 + 250 + 225 = 1,100.

38. b. There are approximately 1,100 total students enrolled, and 250 of them are enrolled in

PoliSci. This represented as a fraction would 250

be 1,100. Because the question asks for the

approximate fraction, round 1,100 to 1,000 250 1and then reduce: = 4 .1, 000

39. a. Let r represent the radius of the base. Then, the height h = 3r. Using the surface area for-

mula for a right circular cylinder yields the

following equation that we must solve for r:

200p = 2pr2 + 2pr(3r) 200p = 2pr2 + 6pr

2200p = 8pr 225 = r

5 = r

So, the radius is 5 feet.

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 190 9/7/17 2:07 PM

40. (–2,–4). You need to translate the given point 4 units to the left and 1 unit down. In such case,

(2,–3) would become (2 – 4, –3 – 1) = (–2,–4).

41. b. The mean is the same as the average. To fnd the average, add all the values and divide

by the total number of values: $20 + $0 + $45 + $25 $90 = = $22.50.4 4

42. c. On this particular dot plot, one X represents one student. There are a total of 18 X’s on

the line plot, so there were 18 students

surveyed.

43. a. To fnd the average, add all the values and divide by the total number of values. How-

ever, in this situation, the values are the

numbers of pencils, not the numbers of stu-

dents. You must add the amount of each

number indicated by the X’s, not just the

number of X’s. For example, 4 students

had 9 pencils, so this value in the average

would be 4 × 9. Do this for each column

where there are X’s, and since there are

18 students, divide this all by 18: (1 × + × + × + × + × + × + × + × + × +(2 1) (3 2) (4 3) (5 3) (6 2) (7 0) (8 2) (9 4) ×1) (10 0)

+ + + + + + + + + 1001 2 6 12 15 12 0 16 36 0 = = = 5.555555…18 18 ≈ 5.6.

44. d. The mode is the number that occurs most often. In this case, that would be 9 pencils,

which occurs 4 times.

45. c. Neil reaches the break-even point when his sales for a week equal his costs for the week.

We know that Neil’s weekly overhead

expenses are fxed at $390. He also spends

$30 on materials for each recording. He then

charges $120 for the recording. Use the fol-

lowing equation to fnd this point:

$390 + $30x = $120(x)

Solve for x:

390 + 30x = 120x

390 = 90x

x = 4.3

So, Neil must record 5 parties to break even

(4 would not be enough).

46. e. Since either Jan or her sister is being picked, we must add 3 and 5. There are 100 total

tickets, so the chances that Jan or her sister 8 will win are 100. Since the probabilities are

8 written in decimal form, change 100 to the

decimal 0.08.

47. c and e. For c, any quadrilateral whose opposite sides are parallel and for which all four sides

have the same length is a rhombus. If there is

no right angle, then it cannot be a square. For e,

a rectangle must have opposite sides parallel

and contain a right angle. Squares satisfy these

conditions, as well as having all four sides

congruent.

48. d. The easiest way to solve problems like these is to use substitution and the process of

elimination. By substituting each x-value

into the equations, you fnd that the only

equation that works for every value of x is 3x + 2 y = .2

49. e. The median is the middle number of a set of data when arranged in increasing order. The

given ages in increasing order are 21, 22, 26,

27, 29, 29, 31, 35, 35. The number 29 is in

the middle, so it is the median age for the

Yankees’ starting lineup.

50. e. The kitchen is a square, so its four sides are of equal length. You can fnd the length of

the sides by dividing the perimeter by 4:

48 ÷ 4 = 12 feet. Area is then calculated

by multiplying length × width: 12 × 12 =

144 square feet.

51. c. Each skirt, shirt, and hat can be paired together in any combination, and order

doesn’t matter. This can be solved using the

counting principle and multiplication:

4 × 3 × 2 = 24 combinations.

190190

191191

–PRAXIS® CoRe ACAdemIC SkIllS foR eduCAtoRS: PRACtICe teSt 2–

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 191 9/7/17 2:07 PM

52. d. The smallest whole number into which all of 18, 30, and 42 divides evenly is 630. Also, the

2smallest power of p into which each of 18p ,

30pq2, 42pq3 divides is p2, and the smallest 3power of q into which each divides is q .

2Hence, the least common multiple of 18p , 2 330pq2, 42pq3 is 630p q .

53. c. The equation for the area of a circle is 2A = pr . The diameter of the circle is given as

12 feet, so the radius is 6 feet: A = p(6)2 = 36p ≈ 113.04 square feet. If each quart of paint will cover 50 square feet, then Tom

needs to buy 3 cans of paint.

54. e. First, observe that in order to move A to A', we must move the point right 8 units and

then up 3 units. This is described by the

translation rule (x,y) → (x + 8,y + 3). Apply- ing this to all points of the triangle DABC moves it to a new location in the plane. Now,

observe that this triangle is smaller than

DA'B'C ', so that the scale factor must be greater than 1. Observe that A'B' is twice the length of AB, and A'C ' is twice the length of AC. So, the scale factor should be 2.

55. e. The chance of someone winning the election is 1. If John has a 18 chance of winning, and if

he is half as likely to win as Mike, that means

that Mike has a 1 chance of winning. Since4 Kelly has the same chance of winning as

Mike, she also has a 1 chance. If you add the4 chances for John, Mike, and Kelly, you get 58,

leaving a 8 3 chance that Julie, Kelvin, or

Roger will win. Since they all have the same

chance, each has a 18 chance to win. There-

fore, Kelvin has a 18 chance of winning.

56. a. First, determine the total number of marbles in the bag by adding the numbers given:

20 + 20 + 20 + 18 + 2 = 80. Since there are

only 2 red marbles, Jason’s chances of choos- 2ing a red marble are 80 . To fnd the decimal,

divide 2 by 80, which is 0.025.

PRAXISCorePP_04_113-192.indd 192 9/7/17 2:07 PM

193

c h

a p

t e

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 193 9/7/17 2:08 PM

5 PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3

CHAPTER SUMMARY Here is your third set of full-length tests in this book for each Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators test: Reading, Writ- ing, and Mathematics. Now that you have taken two full sets of practice exams, take these exams to see how much your score has improved.

This time, as you take these practice tests, you should simulate the actual test-taking experience as closely as you can. Find a quiet place to work where you won’t be disturbed. Follow the time constraints noted at the beginning of each test. After you fnish taking your tests, review the answer explanations. (Each individual test is followed by its

own answer explanations.) See A Note on Scoring on page 375 to fnd information on how to score your test.

Good luck!

To access online PRAXIS Core practice that provides instant scoring and feedback: • Navigate to your LearningExpress platform and make sure you’re logged in. • Search for the following subtests, select one, and then click “Start Test.” • Praxis Core: Reading Practice Test 3 • Praxis Core: Mathematics Practice Test 3 • Praxis Core: Writing Practice Test 3

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 194 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Reading Practice Test 3

Time: 85 Minutes

Directions: Read the following passages and answer

the questions that follow.

Refer to the following passage for questions 1 through 7.

For reasons scientists have yet to fully under-

stand, reasons that might be related to warming

water temperatures or overfshing, jellyfsh

populations are swelling across the planet’s

5 oceans. This gives rise to a number of concerns.

For swimmers and recreational divers, this is a

problem, as jellyfsh are not only a nuisance but

also a potential danger. Unfortunately, jellyfsh

offer almost no nutritional value and serve little

10 function in the seas—meaning that their

unpleasant population growth might be diff-

cult to curtail. However, one animal that can

help address this problem is the ocean sunfsh.

One of the most unusual-looking creatures

15 found in the oceans, the mammoth and oddly

shaped ocean sunfsh is the heaviest bony fsh

ever discovered. This giant fsh averages more

than a ton in weight, and its diet consists

almost entirely of jellyfsh. Because jellyfsh

20 contain so few nutrients, the sunfsh must eat

the jellyfsh in large quantities. Though sunfsh

are a delicacy in some countries, such as Japan,

the world would be better served to adopt the

European Union’s ban on the sale of sunfsh.

1. Which is most similar to the sunfsh, based on the way in which its diet results in a clear bene-

ft to human beings?

a. the spider, which eats mosquitoes and other

insects

b. the tuna, which eats squid and shellfsh

c. the rhinoceros, which eats grass and fruits

d. the grizzly bear, which eats fsh

e. the tick, which eats mammalian blood

2. Which description of a sunfsh best represents a statement of opinion, rather than a statement

of fact?

a. It is the largest bony fsh.

b. It eats primarily jellyfsh.

c. It has an unusual appearance.

d. Its sale is banned in Europe.

e. It is eaten by people.

3. Which best describes how the passage is structured?

a. Two ocean creatures are compared and

contrasted.

b. Events related to a sea creature are provided

in chronological order.

c. A sea creature is described, and then its

attributes are detailed.

d. The dietary constraints of one creature are

listed, and then a solution is given.

e. A distressing trend related to a sea creature is

described, and then a potential solution is

offered.

4. In the context of the passage, the word curtail in line 12 most nearly means

a. reverse.

b. increase.

c. withstand.

d. curb.

e. liberate.

5. Which key word from the passage helps transi- tion the passage from the negative characteris-

tics of jellyfsh to the positive attributes of

ocean sunfsh?

a. unfortunately

b. diffcult

c. however

d. entirely

e. though

194194

195195

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 195 9/7/17 2:08 PM

10 mountain’s top at 29,028 feet—the planet’s6. Which statement best describes the author’s position regarding ocean sunfsh?

a. There are creatures larger than the sunfsh in

the ocean.

b. Population change of the sunfsh remains a

mystery to scientists.

c. The sunfsh should expand its diet to other

creatures besides the jellyfsh to better adapt.

d. Protections for sunfsh should be set in place

to help limit the jellyfsh population.

e. The sunfsh fails to serve a valuable or

important purpose in the ocean.

7. Which idea provides the best support for the statement in the last sentence of the passage?

a. Waters are warming throughout the United

States and the remainder of the world.

b. The increase in jellyfsh populations might

be related to warming waters or overfshing.

c. Due to the limited nutritional value of

jellyfsh, sunfsh must eat great quantities of

them.

d. The ocean sunfsh is a large creature and has

been described as having an odd appearance.

e. Japan is one country where jellyfsh are

located.

Refer to the following passage for questions 8 through

10.

Arguably the most famous feature on the most

famous mountain on Earth, the Hillary Step is

a narrow, nearly vertical 40-foot rock wall near

the peak of Mount Everest. Covered in snow

and ice at 28,750 feet, the Hillary Step presents

the last great danger for climbers trying to

reach the summit. Once the Hillary Step has

been conquered, climbers have only a few hun-

dred feet of moderate climbing to reach the

highest point. Named for Sir Edmund Hillary,

one of the two climbers to frst ascend it, the

step now features a fxed rope for modern-day

climbers to use; such an advantage was unavail-

15 able during Hillary’s initial 1953 ascent, making

his achievement all the more venerable.

8. For which reason is the Hillary Step most likely the most famous feature on Mount Everest?

a. The Hillary Step was named after the great

climber Sir Edmund Hillary.

b. The Hillary Step acts as the fnal signifcant

obstacle to the mountain’s summit.

c. The Hillary Step is one of the most diffcult

technical climbs in mountain climbing.

d. The Hillary Step had not been successfully

ascended until 1953.

e. The highest point of the world is located

where the Hillary Step ends.

9. In the passage, the word venerable in line 16 most nearly means

a. hazardous.

b. technical.

c. advantageous.

d. serious.

e. admirable.

10. According to the information in the passage, it can reasonably be concluded that the Hillary

Step

a. is easier to ascend now than it was in 1953.

b. is responsible for countless casualties on the

mountain.

c. requires several hours of climbing to

traverse.

d. is located at the highest point on the planet.

e. has been traversed by a total of two climbers

since the early 1950s.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 196 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Refer to the following graph for questions 11 and 12.

This graph provides data regarding average precipita-

tion in the town of Springfeld during the months of

December, January, February, and March.

Average Precipitation in Springfield during Winter Months

In ch

5.6

4.2

2.8

1.4

0 December January February March

Month Rainfall Snowfall

11. Which conclusion about the precipitation in Springfeld is supported by the information

in the bar graph?

a. The only months of the year when snowfall

occurred were December, January, February,

and March.

b. There was more combined precipitation, in

inches, in February than in March.

c. Each month depicts a decreasing amount of

rainfall, in inches.

d. There was less snowfall, in inches, in

December and January combined than

in February.

e. The only month depicted in which rainfall

exceeded snowfall was December.

12. Based on the information provided in the graph, which of the following statements is

true on average?

a. There is more hail than snow in February.

b. There is more snowfall in January than in

March.

c. There is less sleet than snow during the

month of December.

d. There is slightly higher rainfall in December

than in March.

e. Snowfall and rainfall amounts are equal

during the month of February.

Refer to the following passage for questions 13 through

16.

The success of the immune system in defending

the human body relies on a dynamic regulatory

communications network consisting of mil-

lions and millions of cells. Organized into sets

5 and subsets, these cells pass information back

and forth like clouds of bees swarming around

a hive. The result is a sensitive system of checks

and balances that produces a prompt, appropri-

ate, effective, and self-limiting immune

10 response.

At the heart of the immune system is the

ability to distinguish between self and nonself

molecules. When immune defenders encounter

cells or organisms carrying nonself molecules,

15 the immune troops move quickly to eliminate

the intruders. The body’s immune defenses do

not normally attack its own tissues because of

the presence of self-markers, which are unique

to the DNA and indicate that the cells belong to

20 the host body. Rather, immune cells and other

body cells coexist peaceably in a state known as

self-tolerance.

When a normally functioning immune

system attacks a nonself molecule, the system

196196

197197

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 197 9/7/17 2:08 PM

25 can remember the specifcs of the foreign body.

Upon subsequent encounters with the same

species of molecules, the immune system reacts

accordingly. With the possible exception of

antibodies passed during lactation, this so-

30 called immune system memory is not inherited:

An immune system must learn from experience

with the many millions of distinctive nonself

molecules in the sea of microbes we live in.

13. When a person gets the chicken pox virus for the frst time, the person’s immune system

will most likely

a. prevent the person’s offspring from future

infection with the chicken pox virus.

b. distinguish between its body cells and the

cells of the chicken pox virus.

c. remember previous experiences with the

chicken pox virus.

d. attack its own tissues.

e. recall the specifcs of the foreign body from

ancestors’ experiences.

14. Which statement represents the main idea rather than a supporting detail from the

passage?

a. The effectiveness of the human body’s

immune system lies in its complex

organizational structure.

b. The basic function of the immune system is

to distinguish between self and nonself.

c. Immune cells and body cells can coexist due

to self-tolerance.

d. The human body is an extraordinary and

complicated mechanism.

e. The human body presents an opportune

habitat for microbes.

15. Based on the information in the passage, why might tissue transplanted from father to

daughter have a greater risk of being detected

as foreign than tissue transplanted between

twins who share the same DNA?

a. The twins’ tissue would carry the same self-

markers and therefore would be less likely to

be rejected.

b. The age of the twins’ tissue would be the

same and, therefore, less likely to be rejected.

c. The daughter’s immune system would reject

tissue from a male donor.

d. The twins’ immune systems would

remember the same encounters with

childhood illnesses.

e. The immune systems of twins contain more

self-markers than the immune systems of

nontwins.

16. As it appears in the passage, the word sensitive in line 7 most nearly means

a. able to react.

b. delicate.

c. indifferent.

d. nervous.

e. sensible.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 198 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Refer to the following passage for question 17.

It might be diffcult to envision with today’s

technologies and comforts, but the early Euro-

pean expeditions to the Americas were incredi-

bly arduous. The journeys took several months,

during which time the travelers faced extreme

isolation, limited supplies due to space con-

straints, and great uncertainty about what to

expect upon arrival.

17. Which journey would be most similar to the early European expeditions to the Americas?

a. luxury cruise across the Atlantic

b. solo skydive

c. robotic probe sent to Venus

d. jet fight to Asia

e. trip by astronauts to another planet

Refer to the following passage for questions 18 through

22.

One of Benjamin Franklin’s most useful and

important inventions was a stove called, appro-

priately, the Franklin stove. This invention

improved the lives of countless homeowners in

5 the eighteenth century and beyond. Compared

to the stoves that were used at the time of his

invention, Franklin’s stove allowed a fre to be

maintained inside a home in a much less dan-

gerous way. Franklin’s stove could burn less

10 wood and generate more heat than its predeces-

sors. This feature saved its users considerable

amounts of money that would have been

needed to buy wood.

As its inventor, Benjamin Franklin was

15 offered the right to patent his stove. A patent

would have meant that only Franklin could

make and sell the useful stoves, resulting in his

becoming one of the richest people in the

country. However, Franklin declined the oppor-

20 tunity for the patent, believing instead that the

stove’s design should be available to anyone

who wanted to use it. In his autobiography,

Franklin wrote, “As we enjoy great advantages

from the inventions of others, we should be

25 glad of an opportunity to serve others by any

invention of ours; and this we should do

freely and generously.”

18. The primary purpose of the frst paragraph of the passage is to

a. discuss a particularly useful invention by

Franklin.

b. provide details for materials needed to build

a Franklin stove.

c. explain the scientifc process through which

a Franklin stove works.

d. tell the ways in which Franklin made money

from his stoves.

e. compare different types of stoves.

19. Which best describes the function of the word however in the second paragraph?

a. to compare important physical descriptions

of a critical development

b. to compare several benefts of a lifesaving

invention

c. to contrast the advantages of an invention

with its drawbacks

d. to compare the usefulness of an invention

with its extreme costs

e. to contrast an inventor’s altruistic motives

with the potential for great wealth

198198

199199

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 199 9/7/17 2:08 PM

20. Considering the context of the passage and the sentence in which it appears, the word right in

line 15 most likely means

a. correct.

b. good health.

c. turn.

d. legal permission.

e. exact.

21. Based on information provided in the passage, it can reasonably be concluded that Benjamin

Franklin was

a. afraid of fnancial setbacks due to starting a

fre inside his home.

b. interested primarily in inventing items that

would be good investments.

c. about to become one of the wealthiest

people in the country.

d. less concerned with acquiring money than

with helping his fellow humans.

e. limited to stoves as an invention because

they were inexpensive.

22. Based on information in the passage, it can reasonably be inferred that the Franklin stove

was

a. expensive.

b. dangerous.

c. effcient.

d. small.

e. stylish.

Refer to the following passage for questions 23 through

25.

The U.S. government has spent more than $10

billion each year since 1989 on the National

Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).

Furthermore, the government agency’s budget

5 is expected to increase every year, with its

annual spending estimated to surpass $20 bil-

lion for the frst time during the mid-2010s.

A hefty fraction of this budget is spent on

space operations, including the construction

10 and maintenance of the International Space

Station (ISS). At a time when the country is fac-

ing domestic crises with unemployment,

energy, and healthcare, it can be diffcult to jus-

tify the exorbitant costs of space exploration.

15 Nevertheless, the indirect benefts of space

exploration are impossible to ignore; the valu-

able research and development associated with

NASA’s space program have resulted in an

incredibly wide variety of important everyday

20 technological advancements, ranging from

water flters to improved highway safety.

23. How is the key word nevertheless used in the last sentence of the passage?

a. to accentuate the fnancial concerns of space

exploration

b. to list additional domestic concerns that

should be granted a higher priority

c. to suggest that too great a portion of NASA’s

budget is spent on space operations

d. to show that the fnancial expenditures of

the agency have been changing

e. to provide a contrast with the monetary

costs of a government agency

24. As it is used in the context of the sentence, which word best describes the meaning of

exorbitant in line 14?

a. excessive

b. external

c. extra

d. excellent

e. exciting

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 200 9/7/17 2:08 PM

25. Which sentence best describes the author’s atti- 25 of water pollution; some species are facing tude toward the fnancial costs of the National

Aeronautics and Space Administration?

a. The costs must be curtailed to allow for

increased funding for domestic crises.

b. The costs are very high, but the rewards

make the agency a worthwhile expense.

c. The costs should decrease at a time when the

government operates with a fnancial defcit.

d. The increasing costs of running the

government agency are simply indefensible.

e. The high costs should be validated during

periods of planetary exploration, such as a

trip to Mars.

Refer to the following passage for questions 26 through

32.

Sharks have layers of sharp teeth in their jaws

that allow them to cut through a fsh’s bones or

a shellfsh’s hard shell. The shark will eat almost

all creatures found in the ocean––from crabs

5 and turtles to seals and penguins. If an animal

is too big, a shark will simply tear it into smaller

chunks before eating it. This ancient fsh has

been patrolling Earth’s waters for longer than

400 million years and can now be found in all

10 the planet’s seas, from the surface to a depth of

below a mile. Species of sharks can be massive,

with a length of up to 46 feet, and some can be

swift, with bursts of speed of up to 30 miles per

hour.

15 Despite all the impressive physical charac-

teristics of the shark that would make it seem

especially treacherous to humans, an average of

fewer than fve people in the world are killed

each year by sharks—fewer than are killed by

20 wasps or lightning. By contrast, an estimated

100 million sharks are killed each year as a

result of fshing. In addition to the negative

results of overfshing, sharks suffer from habitat

loss due to coastal development and the impact

severe population decline as a result. Many peo-

ple share a groundless fear of shark attacks;

perhaps they should instead be fearful of losing

one of the planet’s most remarkable creatures

30 to extinction.

26. Which statement, if it were true, would most signifcantly strengthen the author’s argument?

a. The smallest shark in the world reaches a

length of only about 8 inches when fully

grown.

b. Of the nearly 400 species of sharks in the

world, only four have been known to be

dangerous to humans.

c. Swimming in a group is safer than

swimming alone because sharks are less

likely to attack an individual in a group.

d. Other than humans, sharks have very few

natural predators.

e. The bull shark, known for its aggressive and

often unpredictable nature, can often be

found in shallow waters near beaches.

27. In the context of the passage, the word ground- less in line 27 can be replaced by which word to

incur the least alteration in meaning?

a. sound

b. aquatic

c. terrifying

d. justifable

e. unwarranted

28. The author’s attitude toward sharks could best be described as

a. reverential.

b. frightened.

c. ambivalent.

d. quarrelsome.

e. cautionary.

200200

201201

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 201 9/7/17 2:08 PM

29. Which sentence best describes the organization of the two paragraphs of the passage?

a. A detailed description of the creature is

provided, and then common perceptions of

it are supported.

b. The evolution and history of an animal are

offered, and then its present-day status is

detailed.

c. The intimidating physical characteristics are

listed, and then a defense of the creature is

given.

d. A series of harmless attributes is discussed,

and then a list of hazardous characteristics

is described.

e. The distinguishing features of an organism

are provided, and then those features are

described in further detail.

30. Which creature shares a relationship with humans that is similar to the relationship

between sharks and humans?

a. ladybugs, because they are often purchased

to rid a garden of pests

b. frogs, because, despite their attractive

appearance, most species are toxic

c. caterpillars, because they go through a series

of life stages during complete

metamorphosis

d. deer, because they generally have a fear of

humans and frequently will run when

approached

e. snakes, because many people fear them,

despite the fact that very few types of

snakes are venomous

31. Which detail from the passage would best sup- port the idea that Congress should pass a bill to

protect sharks?

a. More people are killed each year by wasps or

lightning than by shark attacks.

b. The shark will eat almost every creature

found in the ocean.

c. The shark can be found in all the planet’s

seas.

d. Some shark species are facing severe

population loss.

e. Many people share a groundless fear of

shark attacks.

32. Which sentence from the passage contains an opinion from the author?

a. Sharks have layers of sharp teeth in their

jaws that allow them to cut through a fsh’s

bones or a shellfsh’s hard shell.

b. The shark will eat almost all creatures found

in the ocean—from crabs and turtles to seals

and penguins.

c. This ancient fsh has been patrolling Earth’s

waters for longer than 400 million years and

can now be found in all the planet’s seas,

from the surface to a depth of below a mile.

d. By contrast, an estimated 100 million sharks

are killed each year as a result of fshing.

e. Many people share a groundless fear of

shark attacks; perhaps they should instead

be fearful of losing one of the planet’s most

remarkable creatures to extinction.

Refer to the following passage for questions 33 and 34.

Jane Austen died in 1817, leaving behind six

novels that have since become English classics.

Most Austen biographers accept the image of

Jane Austen as a sheltered spinster who knew

5 little of life beyond the drawing rooms of her

Hampshire village. They accept the claim of

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 202 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Austen’s brother, Henry: “My dear sister’s life

was not a life of events.”

Biographer Claire Tomalin takes this view

10 to task. She shows that Jane’s short life was

indeed tumultuous. Not only did Austen expe-

rience romantic love (briefy, with an Irish-

man), but her many visits to London and her

Refer to the following graph for questions 35 and 36.

The local zoo provided this graph to offer data

regarding the animals known as “big cats.”

Number of Big Cats at Local Zoo 10

8 Male

6 Female

Lion Tiger Leopard Cheetah

relationships with her brothers (who served in

15 the Napoleonic wars) widened her knowledge Nu m

be r

beyond her rural county, and even beyond Eng- 2 land. Tomalin also argues that Austen’s unmar- 0 ried status benefted her ability to focus on her

writing. I believe that Jane herself may have

20 viewed it that way. Although her family 35. Based on the information in the chart, which destroyed most of her letters, one relative

recalled that “some of her [Jane’s] letters, tri-

umphing over married women of her acquain-

tance, and rejoicing in her freedom, were most

25 amusing.”

33. In order to evaluate the validity of the author’s claim that Austen’s marital status helped her

writing, it would be helpful to know which of

the following?

a. why the author mentions the biographer

Claire Tomalin

b. how single women were regarded in Austen’s

time period

c. whether marriage would actually prevent a

woman from writing during Austen’s era

d. the reliability of the source of the quotation

at the end of the passage

e. more details about Austen’s tumultuous life

34. What word best describes the tone of the passage?

a. somber

b. critical

c. apathetic

d. appreciative

e. playful

statement can accurately be made?

a. Lions are the most popular big cats at the

local zoo.

b. The zoo has an equal number of female

cheetahs and female lions.

c. Tigers are more diffcult than other animals

to contain in captivity.

d. The zoo has more male leopards than female

leopards.

e. The cheetah is the fastest animal on the

planet.

36. Based on the graph, it is clear that a. lions are the largest of the cats.

b. only lions and tigers are considered big cats.

c. not all zoos identify lions, tigers, and

leopards as big cats.

d. the local zoo identifes lions, tigers, leopards,

and cheetahs as big cats.

e. the only animals considered big cats are

lions, tigers, leopards, and cheetahs.

202202

203203

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 203 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Refer to the following passage for questions 37 through

40.

Experts generally assert that Guiana, located

north of the Pará river district, and Brazil,

located south of the Pará river district, form

two distinct provinces in terms of animal and

vegetation species. This is due to the fact that

Guiana and Brazil each support a large number

of ecologically distinct habitats. Many species

are indigenous to each region, meaning that

these species originated in the region naturally.

As a result, experts consider Guiana and Brazil

to be centers of distribution in the dissemina-

tion of their indigenous species across tropical

America.

The Pará river district is located midway

between Guiana and Brazil. Guiana and Brazil

each have a nucleus of tableland––a broad, ele-

vated area. The Pará river district, the valley

between them, forms an expanse of low-lying

land. Due to the geography of the area, it is

necessary to examine whether the river valley

received its population of animal and vegeta-

tion species from Guiana and Brazil or it has a

suffcient number of endemic species, meaning

that, like Guiana and Brazil, it is a center of dis-

tribution of species rather than merely a recipi-

ent of these species. To make this determina-

tion, it is necessary to closely compare the

species found in the river valley with the species

in the other regions. Based on the

comparisons, it is necessary to determine

whether species are identical, only slightly

modifed, or quite specifc to the river valley.

37. Which sentence best summarizes the main point of the passage?

a. The animals and vegetation of the Pará river

district are distinct from those of Guiana

and Brazil.

b. The Pará river district supports a substantial

quantity of ecologically distinct habitats.

c. Ecological considerations override most

other considerations with respect to the Pará

river district.

d. It has yet to be determined whether the Pará

river district is an ecologically distinct area.

e. The government of the Pará river district has

historically failed to support biological

expeditions.

38. Based on passage details, Guiana and Brazil form two distinct provinces due to the

a. distribution center.

b. nucleus of tableland.

c. valleys and expanses.

d. recipients and comparisons.

e. animal and vegetation species.

39. The location of the Pará river valley is impor- tant to information in the passage, as this river

valley is located

a. north of Guiana and Brazil.

b. between Guiana and Brazil.

c. south of Guiana and Brazil.

d. east of Guiana and Brazil.

e. far from Guiana and Brazil.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 204 9/7/17 2:08 PM

40. Based on statements in the passage, which of the following actions would the author most

likely support?

a. additional research regarding species in the

Pará river valley and in nearby areas

b. relocation of endemic species from Guiana

and Brazil to the Pará river valley

c. blocking comparison of species found in

Guiana and Brazil

d. removal of indigenous species from Guiana

and Brazil

e. introduction of new species to the Pará river

valley

Refer to the following passage for questions 41 through

43.

One of the most unusual creatures on Earth,

the sloth of Central and South America is

famous for its sluggish speed. In fact, its name

is actually a form of a word frequently used to

5 describe it: “slow.” However, don’t mistake the

sloth’s lack of speed for simple laziness. The

creature’s languid motion developed out of a

necessity to avoid predators. For example, by

moving so slowly in the trees they call home,

10 sloths have adapted a self-defense against harpy

eagles that might be attracted to obvious move-

ments. As seen from above or below a tree, a

sloth can easily be mistaken for vegetation. In

fact, its fur is specialized to grow algae, adding

15 to the creature’s camoufage. Combined with its

renowned slow pace, the sloth appears much

more like hanging foliage than an appetizing

snack.

41. Based on information in the passage, which conclusion can reasonably be drawn?

a. The sloth is the slowest creature on Earth.

b. The sloth’s fur is dangerous to other animals.

c. The sloth refuses to leave the protection of

the trees.

d. Deforestation of the Americas is

endangering the sloth.

e. Sloths fnd unusual ways to protect

themselves from other animals.

42. Based on the content of the passage, the author would most likely agree with which of the fol-

lowing statements?

a. Algae is important to the sloth’s diet.

b. Many animals are similar to the sloth.

c. There is a great deal to be learned from

observing sloths.

d. Harpy eagles should be eliminated from the

sloth’s environment.

e. Sloths’ trees should be groomed by humans

to provide a safer habitat.

43. Which statement is supported by the discus- sion of the sloth’s sluggish speed?

a. Sloths are lazy.

b. Sloths have developed in such a way as to be

able to avoid predators.

c. Sloths lack intelligence.

d. Sloths exemplify curious creatures that can

be viewed from above or below a tree.

e. Sloths need new habitats.

204204

205205

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 205 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Refer to the following passages for questions 44 and 45.

Passage 1

Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart’s remarkable musi-

cal talent was apparent even before the age

most children are able to sing a simple nursery

rhyme. His father Leopold recognized his

5 unique gifts and devoted himself to his son’s

musical education. By age 5, Wolfgang had

composed his frst original work. By age 6,

when Wolfgang was not only a virtuoso harpsi-

chord player but also a master violin player, he

10 gave his frst public concert. The audience was

stunned, and word of his genius traveled.

Passage 2

After Wolfgang Mozart’s frst public concert, his

father was quickly inundated with invitations

for the boy to play. Leopold seized the opportu-

15 nity and booked as many concerts as possible at

courts throughout Europe. A concert could last

up to three hours, and Wolfgang played at least

two of these concerts per day. Today, Leopold

might be considered the worst kind of stage

20 parent, but at the time it was not uncommon

for prodigies to make extensive concert tours.

Even so, it was an exhausting schedule for a

child who was just past the age of needing an

afternoon nap.

44. Which is the best summary of the information in both passages?

a. Wolfgang Mozart was a popular musical

artist and is still popular today. His father

assumed a big role in beginning Wolfgang’s

lengthy and exhausting career.

b. Wolfgang Mozart performed at least two

three-hour concerts daily. This exhausting

schedule began when Wolfgang gave his frst

concert and people learned that he was a

genius who could do amazing musical work.

c. Wolfgang Mozart created many musical

compositions, and he was spurred on by his

father. His music is now used in schools

around the world, including elementary

schools, middle schools, high schools,

and colleges.

d. Wolfgang Mozart wrote his frst composition

at the age of 5, and by the age of 6 he could

play the harpsichord and the violin. People

were amazed when Wolfgang gave his frst

concert. His musical talent was clear.

e. Wolfgang Mozart began composing music at

a young age. His father set up many concerts

for the boy to perform. While Wolfgang’s

father might be considered too demanding

today, this was not the case long ago.

45. Based on the passages, which claim would the author most likely make?

a. Children should take long naps much more

frequently.

b. People should be judged within the context of

the historical framework in which they live.

c. Parents should make certain their children

play musical instruments during the school

day.

d. Musical artists should refrain from playing

multiple concerts in a single day.

e. Family members should mind their own

business and refrain from meddling in the

business of others.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 206 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Refer to the following passage for questions 46 through

49.

The skyline of St. Louis, Missouri, is fairly

unremarkable, with one prodigious excep-

tion––the Gateway Arch, located on the banks

of the Mississippi River. Part of the Jefferson

5 National Expansion Memorial, the arch is an

amazing structure built to honor St. Louis’s role

as the gateway to the west. In 1947, a group of

citizens, the Jefferson National Expansion

Memorial Association, held a nationwide com-

10 petition to select a design for a new monument

to celebrate the growth of the United States.

Other U.S. monuments at the time featured

spires, statues, or imposing buildings, but the

winning plan for this contest was a completely

15 different type of structure. The man who won,

Eero Saarinen, later became a famous architect.

In designing the arch, Saarinen wanted to “cre-

ate a monument that would have lasting signif-

cance and would be a landmark of our time.”

20 The Gateway Arch is a masterpiece of

engineering, a monument even taller than the

Great Pyramid in Egypt. In its own way, the

arch is at least as majestic as the Great Pyramid.

The Gateway Arch is shaped as an inverted cat-

25 enary curve, the same shape that a heavy chain

will form if suspended between two points.

Covered with a sleek skin of stainless steel, the

arch often refects dazzling bursts of sunlight.

46. Which statement from the passage includes both a fact and an opinion?

a. In its own way, the arch is at least as majestic

as the Great Pyramid.

b. The Gateway Arch is part of the St. Louis

skyline.

c. The Gateway Arch is located on the banks of

the Mississippi River.

d. The Gateway Arch is a masterpiece of

engineering, a monument even taller than

the Great Pyramid in Egypt.

e. The Gateway Arch is shaped as an inverted

catenary curve, the same shape that a heavy

chain will form if suspended between two

points.

47. According to the passage, Saarinen’s winning design was

a. sanctioned by the U.S. government.

b. unlike any other existing monument.

c. part of a series of monuments.

d. less expensive to construct than other

monuments.

e. shaped like the Great Pyramid.

48. The role that the Jefferson National Expansion Memorial Association played in relation to the

Gateway Arch was to

a. build a tall structure.

b. hold a design competition.

c. create spires and statues.

d. provide clear blueprints.

e. develop a stainless steel skin.

49. Which best describes the author’s attitude toward the Gateway Arch?

a. impressed

b. curious

c. agitated

d. surprised

e. humorous

206206

207207

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 207 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Refer to the following graph for questions 50 and 51.

Signifcant wolf populations exist in Idaho and Wyo-

ming. The graph depicts the wolf populations in

these two states during a six-year period.

Wolf Population in Idaho and Wyoming, 2004–2009

M in

im um

N um

be r o

f W ol

ve s 1,000

800

600

400

200

0 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

Year

Idaho Wyoming

50. Which statement is supported by data in the graph?

a. The minimum wolf population in Idaho in

2002 was greater than 200.

b. The combined minimum wolf population in

Idaho and Wyoming in 2007 was greater

than 1,000.

c. By 2010, there were more than 1,000 wolves

in Idaho.

d. The wolf population decline in Wyoming in

2008 was a result of low temperatures.

e. In 2004, there were large numbers of wolf

subspecies in Wyoming and Idaho.

51. Based on data in the graph, which statement about wolves is accurate?

a. Food sources were more readily available for

wolves in Wyoming than those in Idaho

during the years shown in the graph.

b. From 2005 to 2006, the minimum wolf

population in Idaho declined.

c. From 2008 to 2009, the minimum wolf

population remained about the same in

Idaho.

d. There are fewer predators of wolves in Idaho

than in Wyoming.

e. From 2006 to 2007, wolves were better cared

for in Idaho than in Wyoming.

Refer to the following passage for questions 52 through

56.

With more than 22,000 miles behind her on her

29,000-mile journey around the world, Amelia

Earhart piloted her plane through overcast

skies, far above ocean waves. The time was

5 8:40 A.M., July 2, 1937: 39 years after Earhart’s

birth, 15 years after Earhart had become the

frst woman to make a solo U.S. round-trip

fight, one month after Earhart had begun the

current journey, one day after Earhart had

10 taken off on the current leg of the trip, and

scant minutes before Earhart would make her

fnal radio transmission––and then disappear.

Earhart accumulated vast accolades prior

to her disappearance; her passion for fying was

15 clear. When Earhart was 23, she convinced her

father to pay the $10 fee for her to ride skyward

as a passenger at an air show. Her father’s

investment paid off in myriad ways. She would

later say, “By the time I had got two or three

20 hundred feet off the ground, I knew I had to

fy.” To pay for fying lessons and her frst small

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 208 9/7/17 2:08 PM

plane, Earhart drove a sand and gravel truck

and organized mail at a telephone company.

These endeavors became additional invest-

25 ments in her future.

Earhart’s disappearance has been the

source of great speculation; however, no defni-

tive evidence has ever been uncovered to show

what happened on that fateful day. And only

30 speculation can detail the additional impact

Earhart’s investments might have had on his-

tory if she and her plane had not disappeared

in 1937.

52. Within the context of the passage, the word leg in line 10 could be replaced with which of the

following words to have the least impact on

the meaning of the sentence?

a. limb

b. joke

c. segment

d. appendage

e. dilapidation

53. Which is a thread woven by the author throughout the passage?

a. Earhart’s disappearance remains a mystery.

b. Earhart’s father was instrumental in her

career.

c. Earhart’s experiences emphasize the dangers

of fying.

d. The fnal journey of Earhart’s fying career

was clearly diffcult.

e. The investments in Earhart’s life resulted in

major achievements.

54. Which event included in the passage was the earliest event to spark Earhart’s interest in

fight?

a. driving a sand and gravel truck

b. ending an important radio transmission

c. heading skyward as a passenger at an air

show

d. soaring above ocean waves in overcast

weather

e. becoming the frst woman to make a

historical solo fight

55. Based on information in the passage, which statement is a logical conclusion?

a. Evidence regarding Earhart’s fnal fight has

been hidden from offcials.

b. Earhart’s radio was the major cause of the

fate that befell her aircraft in 1937.

c. Efforts were not made to locate Earhart and

her plane after the disappearance.

d. Earhart would have continued to garner

accolades if she had continued to fy beyond

1937.

e. Earhart would not have begun to fy if she

had not earned funds through sorting mail.

56. If Amelia Earhart were alive today, which would most likely and most accurately describe

her attitude toward space travel?

a. bored and irritated

b. interested and content

c. startled and belligerent

d. trepidatious and scornful

e. captivated and exhilarated

208208

209209

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 209 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Reading Practice Test 3 Answers and Explanations

1. a. The ocean sunfsh eats jellyfsh, which is benefcial to human beings, as this aids in

limiting the population of jellyfsh. The spi-

der’s diet of mosquitoes is benefcial to

human beings, as it helps to minimize the

number of mosquitoes and other insects in

the environment. The diet in choices b and d

might be similar to the diet of sunfsh, as

both eat water-dwelling creatures, but this is

not the information addressed by the ques-

tion; the question relates to diets that are

benefcial to human beings. In choices c and

e, the diet is neither similar to the diet of the

sunfsh nor benefcial to human beings.

2. c. Whether an item looks unusual is a matter of opinion, not a matter of fact that can be

proven or disproven. Choices a, b, d, and e

can be proven.

3. e. The beginning of the passage references the rapidly expanding population of jellyfsh

and the problems presented by the jellyfsh.

The remainder of the passage references a

specifc type of fsh that eats jellyfsh in large

quantities, thus providing a potential solu-

tion for overpopulation. While two creatures

are described in the passage, the passage

does not focus on comparing and contrast-

ing these creatures, so choice a is incorrect.

Choices c and d describe things not in the

passage. Because events are not provided in

chronological order, choice b is incorrect.

4. d. The word curtail in the passage is describing the diffculty of limiting the population

growth of jellyfsh. The word curtail, there-

fore, must have a meaning similar to that of

limit, such as curb. If growth were curtailed,

it might not reverse. It could simply be lim-

ited in the future, so choice a is incorrect.

Choices b and e are incorrect because they

are antonyms of curtail. Context makes it

clear that curtail does not refer to with-

standing continuing population growth

(choice c).

5. c. The beginning of the passage includes infor- mation about negative aspects of the jellyfsh

population. The key word however suggests a

shift from negative to positive within the

passage. The words in choices a and b do not

help to provide a transition from negative to

positive. The word entirely in choice d does

not help to provide a transition from one

direction to an opposite direction within the

passage. The word though in choice e does

provide a transition at the end of the pas-

sage, but it does not help to transition from

content about jellyfsh to content regarding

sunfsh.

6. d. The author makes the case throughout the passage that unpleasant jellyfsh are increas-

ing in numbers, but the sunfsh might be

able to curtail this population growth.

Therefore, the author would most likely

agree that sunfsh should be protected.

Choices a, b, and c are not supported by any

evidence in the passage. Choice e is negated

by the information in the passage.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 210 9/7/17 2:08 PM

7. c. The fnal sentence of the passage states that the ocean sunfsh should be protected across

the world, as it is in the European Union.

This answer choice provides the best support

for the statement. Choices d and e do not

provide support for the fnal sentence in the

passage. Choice a does not provide a reason

that ocean sunfsh should be protected,

while choice b does not relate to a ban on

fshing for sunfsh.

8. b. The passage states that once the diffcult Hillary Step is conquered, it is only a few

hundred feet of moderate climbing to the

mountain’s top. Therefore, the step is the

fnal signifcant obstacle to the summit, and

this is the reason it is most likely the moun-

tain’s most famous feature. Choices a and d

do not explain why the step is such a well-

known feature; instead, they provide history

regarding the mountain. Although the Hill-

ary Step is diffcult, the passage does not say

that is the reason it is most likely the moun-

tain’s most famous feature, so choice c is not

the best answer choice. Choice e is incorrect

because several hundred feet remain to be

ascended after the Hillary Step.

9. e. The end of the passage accentuates the diff- culties that Sir Edmund Hillary faced in his

initial ascent of Mount Everest; conse-

quently, his climb must be respected. There-

fore, the best synonym for venerable is

admirable. The climb itself might have been

hazardous (choice a) or technical (choice b);

however, venerable describes the achieve-

ment. The rope is advantageous (choice c);

however, this word cannot correctly be used

to replace venerable in the passage. The pas-

sage context shows that serious (choice d) is

not correct in meaning to replace venerable.

10. a. The passage mentions the advantage of the fxed rope on the Hillary Step, a climbing

advantage that has not always been available.

Therefore, although it is still diffcult to

ascend, it is now easier to ascend than it

once was. There is no mention in the passage

that the step is responsible for many casual-

ties (choice b) or requires several hours to

traverse (choice c). Choice d is incorrect

because the passage states that there are sev-

eral hundred feet to travel above the step. It

is also not reasonable to conclude that only

two climbers have traversed the Hillary Step

since the early 1950s (choice e).

11. e. In December the total rainfall was 2.4 in., whereas the total snowfall was 1.8 in.

Although the graph depicts only the four

months of December, January, February, and

March, it is possible that snowfall occurred

during other months, so choice a is incor-

rect. Choice b is incorrect because in Febru-

ary the total was 7.2 in., whereas in March

the total was 7.8 in. The amount of rainfall

rose in March, so choice c is incorrect.

Choice d is incorrect because the total was

6.5 in. in December and January but 6 in. in

February.

12. d. The average amount of rainfall during December is 2.4 inches, and the average

amount during March is 2.3 inches. The

graph provides the average snowfall and

rainfall but not the amount of hail, so it is

not possible to determine the amount of hail

referred to in choice a. Choice b is incorrect

because the graph shows that snowfall is

greater during March than during January.

The graph depicts snowfall and rainfall but

not the amount of sleet, so it is not possible

to determine the amount of sleet referred to

in choice c. Choice e is incorrect because the

bars depict a much greater quantity of snow-

fall than rainfall during February.

210210

211211

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 211 9/7/17 2:08 PM

13. b. The passage mentions that the immune sys- 15. a. The passage states that self-markers are tem is capable of distinguishing between

body cells and nonbody cells. Every person’s

immune system must learn to recognize and

deal with nonself molecules through experi-

ence; therefore, people’s immune systems are

not able to prevent their offspring from con-

tracting an infection (choice a), nor can the

immune system remember ancestors’ experi-

ences with a virus (choice e). Choice c is

incorrect because this is the person’s frst

encounter with the virus; the immune sys-

tem has not had previous experiences with

it. A normally functioning immune system

will not attack its own tissues, so choice d is

incorrect.

14. b. According to the passage, the ability to dis- tinguish between self and nonself is at the

heart of the immune system. This is evident

in the frst half of the passage and further

emphasized throughout the passage. Choice

a is an incorrect selection because, although

the passage begins with a description of the

complexity of the immune system, the pas-

sage as a whole does not focus specifcally on

the structure of the immune system. While

the point expressed in choice c is made in

the passage, it represents only a minor point

about the balance between self cells and

nonself cells; it does not represent the main

point of the passage. The statement in choice

d is too general to be considered the main

idea of the passage. A major point could be

that the human body’s immune system is an

extraordinary and complicated mechanism,

but the passage does not focus on the

human body’s capabilities in general. The

fnal sentence of the passage suggests that

the human body is exposed to a sea of

microbes (choice e), but this is not the focus

of the passage. The passage is about the

immune system as a whole.

unique to DNA, meaning that identical

twins would have the same self-markers;

because self-markers are responsible for pre-

venting the body’s immune system from

attacking its own tissues, this explanation

makes the most sense. There is no indication

in the passage that the age of tissue would

have any relevance to whether a body identi-

fes the tissue as self or nonself; therefore,

there is no support for answer choice b.

Choice c is incorrect because the passage

does not suggest that gender of the host

body plays any role in an immune system

identifying a cell or tissue as self or nonself.

Choice d is incorrect because previous ill-

nesses, even if they were shared by the twins

during childhood, would not set precedent

for tissues being shared between them.

Choice e is incorrect because the passage

does not provide information about the

number of self-markers in twins versus

nontwins.

16. a. The word sensitive has several defnitions. In the context of this passage, it is being used to

describe the immune system––specifcally,

the ability of the immune system to react

quickly and effectively. The meaning able to

react is accurate. The word sensitive can also

mean delicate (choice b), but this meaning

does not make sense within the context of

the passage. The meaning of indifferent in

choice c does not make sense within the con-

text of the passage. The word sensitive can

mean nervous (choice d), but this meaning

does not make sense within the context of

the passage. Although the word sensible in

choice e has the same base as sensitive, these

words have different meanings.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 212 9/7/17 2:08 PM

17. e. Because a trip by astronauts would be lengthy, it would expose astronauts to

extreme isolation. The size of the spacecraft

would also limit the available supplies. Addi-

tionally, the astronauts would be uncertain

about what to expect when they arrived.

These factors are similar to the early Euro-

pean expeditions to the Americas. A luxury

cruise (choice a) and a jet fight (choice d)

would provide passengers with comfort and

expediency, both of which the early Euro-

pean expeditions to the Americas lacked. A

solo skydive (choice b) might be similarly

frightening, but it would not require a con-

siderable amount of time, so this is not the

best answer choice. During a robotic probe

(choice c), there would be no explorer who

would undergo the stress and diffculties of

the journey.

18. a. The frst paragraph of the passage discusses one specifc invention created by Benjamin

Franklin: a stove called the Franklin stove.

Choice b is incorrect because details for

these materials are not included. The passage

does not provide much information about

the scientifc process through which a

Franklin stove works (choice c). Choice d is

incorrect because, although the passage

mentions the fact that Franklin could have

made a great deal of money from his stoves,

it also states that he declined to patent the

stove. The frst paragraph offers only a gen-

eral comparison of the Franklin stove to

other stoves; that is not the primary purpose

of the paragraph, so choice e is incorrect.

19. e. The word however separates ideas about the riches Franklin could have received from his

invention from ideas about his decision to

share the stove’s design. Choice a is incorrect

because the word however is not being used

to compare important physical descriptions.

Nor is the word however being used to com-

pare benefts (choice b), to contrast advan-

tages and drawbacks (choice c), or to

compare usefulness with costs (choice d).

20. d. Benjamin Franklin was the inventor of the Franklin stove. Therefore, according to the

passage, he was offered the right, or legal

permission, to patent his stove. The other

choices (a, b, c, and e) are incorrect. Those

meanings of right do not make sense within

the context of the passage and the sentence

in which the word right appears.

21. d. Based on the fact that Franklin declined the opportunity to patent his stove, it can be

inferred that he was less concerned with

making money than with helping others.

This is reinforced by the quote from Frank-

lin at the end of the passage. There is no evi-

dence in the passage to support the

statement in choice a. The passage states that

Franklin could have become one of the rich-

est people in the country if he had patented

his stove; the fact that he did not patent the

stove indicates that he was not primarily

motivated by potential income or becoming

wealthy, so choices b and c are incorrect.

There is no evidence in the passage to sup-

port the inference in choice e.

212212

213213

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 213 9/7/17 2:08 PM

22. c. The passage mentions that the Franklin stove burned less wood and generated more

heat than its predecessors, which means it

was very effcient. Since neither the price, the

size, nor the style of the stove is mentioned

in the passage, it cannot reasonably be

inferred that the Franklin stove was expen-

sive (choice a), small (choice d), or stylish

(choice e). Choice b is incorrect because the

Franklin stove was designed to be much

safer than other stoves.

23. e. The word nevertheless is generally used to provide a contrasting transition. In this pas-

sage, it is used to contrast the high costs of

NASA with its important technological

advancements. The use of the word never-

theless to provide a contrasting transition is

not shown by answer choices a and b.

Choice c is incorrect because the word nev-

ertheless does not suggest that space opera-

tions specifcally make up too great a

fraction of NASA’s budget. Contrary to

choice d, the passage states that the fnancial

expenditures of the agency have not changed

a great deal throughout the past decade, but

are steadily increasing.

24. a. The passage focuses on the high costs of NASA. Therefore, the meaning of exorbitant

must refect these high costs. Choices b, c,

and d are incorrect, as they are not sup-

ported by context in the sentence. Choice e is

incorrect because although space travel

might be exciting, that is not the meaning

of exorbitant.

25. b. The author mentions the high costs of oper- ating NASA but ends the passage with a dec-

laration of support for the agency’s valuable

research and development. Choice a is

incorrect because after acknowledging that it

might be diffcult to justify the expense dur-

ing times of domestic crises, the author

states: Nevertheless, the indirect benefts of

space exploration are impossible to ignore.

There is no specifc support in the passage to

suggest that the author would want the costs

to decrease during a time of defcit (choice

c) or to be validated during periods of plan-

etary exploration (choice e). Choice d is not

supported by evidence in the passage.

26. b. The author’s chief argument is that, despite the public perception, sharks are not espe-

cially dangerous to humans; if only 1% of

shark species were dangerous to humans,

this would strengthen the argument. The

statements in choices a and d are not rele-

vant to the author’s argument. The state-

ment in choice c provides a potential

method for avoiding a shark attack; however,

it does nothing to weaken or strengthen the

author’s argument. The statement in choice

e would make sharks seem more dangerous

to people, which would weaken the author’s

argument.

27. e. The author explains that fatal shark attacks are exceedingly rare, and then refers to the

fear of sharks as groundless, which means

without support or unwarranted. Choices a

and d are not supported by the context of

the passage. It is true that sharks are aquatic

(choice b), but this is not the meaning of the

word groundless as it appears in the passage.

While some might describe sharks as terrify-

ing (choice c), this is not the meaning of the

word groundless as it appears in the passage.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 214 9/7/17 2:08 PM

28. a. The author describes the shark as massive, swift, and impressive, and refers to it as one

of the planet’s most remarkable creatures. This

shows that the author is treating the shark

with reverence. Choice b is incorrect since

the author explains that fear of sharks is

largely unwarranted. The author has a strong

positive opinion about sharks, so the atti-

tude would not be best described as ambiva-

lent (choice c). The author has not made

statements to reasonably lead to the conclu-

sion in choice d. The author’s attitude

toward sharks would not be best described

as cautionary (choice e).

29. c. The frst paragraph of the passage describes the physical characteristics of the shark, such

as its size, speed, and jaws. The passage ini-

tially describes the shark in ways that are

intimidating, but the second paragraph

defends the shark as causing few human

deaths and in turn suffering from popula-

tion decline. Choice a is incorrect, as com-

mon perceptions of the shark are not

supported in the second paragraph. Choice

b is incorrect because, although the passage

briefy mentions the history of the animal,

its evolution and present-day status are not

the focus of the organization of the passage.

Choice d is incorrect; the attributes dis-

cussed are not harmless. Choice e is incor-

rect; features of the shark are not described

in further detail in the second paragraph.

30. e. The author points out that many people fear shark attacks, even though they do not hap-

pen often. Similarly, many people fear

snakes, even though most snakes are not

dangerous. Choices a, b, and c are incorrect;

people do not generally fear ladybugs, frogs,

or caterpillars. Choice d is incorrect; deer

may fear people, but people do not generally

fear deer as they do sharks.

31. d. The detail that the shark’s population num- bers are declining would best support the

idea of a conservation bill. The details in

choices a and e might provide reasons to

refrain from killing sharks, but they do not

necessarily indicate that sharks need protec-

tion through legislation. The details in

choices b and c do not directly support the

protection of the shark.

32. e. This answer is an opinion; it cannot be sup- ported by concrete evidence. When the

author suggests that people should be fearful

of losing one of the planet’s most remark-

able creatures, the author is providing a

statement of personal beliefs. The other

choices (a, b, c, and d) are statements of fact.

They can be proven through concrete

evidence.

33. d. This evaluation question asks you to con- sider the evidence used to support the

author’s claim that Jane Austen viewed her

unmarried status as a beneft to her writing.

Because the author employs a quotation

from one of Austen’s relatives to back up her

claim, it would be helpful to know more

about the source. A greater degree of detail

and description (which relative? can the rel-

ative be considered reliable?) would

strengthen the author’s argument.

214214

215215

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 215 9/7/17 2:08 PM

34. b. To determine the tone of the passage, you need to look at the author’s point of view,

style, and word choice. Because the author’s

style and word choice are not formal, you can

eliminate choice a, somber. Her style and

word choice are not overly casual, either, so

you can strike choice e, playful. The author

uses the third-person point of view for most

of the passage, signaling that the passage is

attempting to be objective. Because the

author uses the frst-person point of view to

make a claim, you can infer that the author is

not apathetic (choice c) about her subject.

Although the author may indeed be appre-

ciative (choice d) about her subject, her word

choice does not support this.

35. b. According to the graph, the zoo has six female lions and six female cheetahs. Choice

a is incorrect because the graph does not

provide data regarding the popularity of the

cats at the zoo. The graph does not provide

data regarding the diffculty of containing

animals in captivity (choice c). The graph

shows that the zoo has eight female leopards

and only four male leopards, not more male

leopards than female leopards as stated in

choice d. Choice e is incorrect because the

graph does not provide data regarding the

speed of animals.

36. d. The graph title is “Number of Big Cats at Local Zoo.” This makes it clear that the zoo

identifes all of the animals included in the

graph as big cats. Although the zoo has more

lions than other big cats, the chart does not

indicate that lions are the largest of the cats

as stated by choice a. The graph title is

“Number of Big Cats at Local Zoo,” which

makes it clear that the zoo identifes all of

the animals included in the graph as big cats,

not just lions and tigers as stated in choice b.

Choices c and e are incorrect. The graph

does not provide any details that support

these claims.

37. d. The author’s main point in this passage is to set forth the need to investigate the ecologi-

cal status of Pará. Choice a is incorrect

because the animals and vegetation of Pará

are not necessarily distinct; the passage asks

whether the species in the Pará district are

identical, only slightly modifed, or quite

specifc to the species of the other regions.

The passage states that Guiana and Brazil

support a large number of ecologically dis-

tinct habitats, but it does not make this

claim defnitively about Pará, so choice b is

incorrect. The passage does not focus on the

overriding importance of Pará’s ecological

considerations (choice c). There is no evi-

dence in the passage to support the claim

that Pará’s government has failed to be sup-

portive of expeditions as stated in choice e.

38. e. The passage states that Guiana and Brazil form two distinct provinces in terms of their

animal and vegetation species. The passage

references the fact that Guiana and Brazil are

considered distribution centers (choice a),

but this is not the major reason Guiana and

Brazil form two distinct provinces. Choice b

is incorrect because, although the passage

references the nucleus of tableland that

exists in Guiana and in Brazil, these table-

lands are not the major reason Guiana and

Brazil form two distinct provinces. The pas-

sage references valleys and expanses (choice

c), but these are not major reasons Guiana

and Brazil form two distinct provinces.

These terms in choice d are referenced in the

passage, but they do not identify the major

reason Guiana and Brazil form two distinct

provinces.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 216 9/7/17 2:08 PM

39. b. The fact that the Pará river valley is located between Guiana and Brazil is important to

the information in the passage, which relates

to the species in Guiana, Brazil, and the Pará

river valley. The other choices (a, c, d, and e)

are incorrect. Passage details show that they

are not the location of the river valley.

40. a. In the passage, the author suggests that com- paring species found in the Pará river valley

with those found in contiguous regions

should be pursued. There is no evidence in

the passage to suggest that the author would

advise relocation of species (choice b),

blocking comparison of species (choice c),

removal of indigenous species from Guiana

and Brazil (choice d), or introduction of

new species (choice e).

41. e. Disguising itself as vegetation in a tree is an unusual method of protection. It is true that

the passage references the slow speed of the

sloth; however, based on information in the

passage, it is not logical to draw the conclu-

sion in choice a that the sloth is the slowest

creature on Earth. There is no evidence in

the passage to support the conclusions in

choices b, c, and d.

42. c. The passage focuses on the observation of the sloth and the information gleaned from

such observation. It makes sense that the

author would agree that there is a great deal

to be learned from observing sloths. Algae is

mentioned only in conjunction with the

sloth’s fur growing algae; there is no evi-

dence to support choice a’s statement that

algae is important to the sloth’s diet. The

author states that the sloth is one of the most

unusual creatures on Earth, so likely would

not agree with choice b’s statement that

many animals are similar to the sloth. While

the author mentions harpy eagles as preda-

tors, there is no evidence in the passage to

support the idea that they should be

removed from the sloth’s habitat (choice d).

There is no evidence in the passage to sup-

port choice e.

43. b. The information in the passage makes it clear that the languid motion is a factor in

the sloth’s ability to avoid predators. Choice

a is incorrect because the author states that

the sloth’s speed should not be mistaken for

laziness. There is no evidence in the passage

to support the argument that sloths lack

intelligence (choice c) or need new habitats

(choice e). While the passage mentions the

fact that sloths may be viewed from above or

below a tree, this is not related to the sloth’s

speed or curiosity, so choice d is incorrect.

216216

217217

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 217 9/7/17 2:08 PM

44. e. This answer includes information from the frst passage, which details the early years of

Wolfgang’s musical career. It also includes

information from the second passage about

the many concerts Wolfgang performed and

the attitudes in the past and present regard-

ing his father’s demands. Choice a is incor-

rect because there is no information in

either passage about Mozart’s popularity

today. Choice b summarizes only informa-

tion from Passage 2. The details in the pas-

sages do not support the summary in choice

c that Wolfgang’s music is now used in

schools around the world. Choice d summa-

rizes only information from Passage 1.

45. b. In Passage 2, the author states that whereas Leopold would be considered the worst kind

of stage parent today, this would not have

been the case in the historical period during

which Wolfgang and Leopold lived. While

naps are mentioned in one of the passages,

there is no evidence in either of the passages

to support the statement in choice a.

Although the author mentions musical

instruments, there is no evidence in either

passage to support the statement in choice c.

Although the author mentions Wolfgang

playing at least two concerts a day when he

was a child, there is no evidence in either

passage to support the statement in choice d.

Although the author references the many

concerts played by Wolfgang at the demand

of his father, the statement in choice e is not

supported by evidence in the passages.

46. d. The Gateway Arch is a masterpiece is an opin- ion because it cannot be verifed through

facts or statistics, and the fact that the mon-

ument is even taller than the Great Pyramid

can be verifed through measurements.

Choice a contains an opinion but not a fact.

Choices b, c, and e each contain a fact but

not an opinion; the buildings that compose

the skyline, the location of the arch, and the

arch’s shape can all be verifed.

47. b. The passage states that the plan was a com- pletely different type of structure. The

details in choices a, c, d, and e are not

included in the passage.

48. b. The passage indicates that the association held a design competition. The passage does

not indicate that the task of the association

was to build a tall structure (choice a). The

passage does not indicate that the task of the

association was to create spires and statues

(choice c). The passage does not indicate

that the task of the association was to pro-

vide blueprints (choice d). The passage

does not indicate that the task of the associa-

tion was to develop a stainless steel skin

(choice e).

49. a. The author describes the Great Arch as a masterpiece and as being as majestic as the

Great Pyramid. This makes it clear that the

author is impressed by the Great Arch.

Although the author might be curious about

the Great Arch and want to learn more

about it, choice b is not directly supported

by information in the passage. There is no

evidence in the passage to indicate that the

author feels agitated about the Great Arch

(choice c). Choice d is not directly supported

by information in the passage. Choice e is

incorrect because there is no evidence in the

passage to suggest that the author’s attitude

is humorous.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 218 9/7/17 2:08 PM

50. b. This response is supported by data in the graph. Choice a is incorrect because the

graph does not provide data for 2002.

Choice c is incorrect because the graph does

not provide data for 2010. The graph does

not provide data regarding temperatures

(choice d), nor does it provide data regard-

ing wolf subspecies (choice e).

51. c. The graph shows that the minimum wolf population was higher than 800 during both

2008 and 2009. Choice a is incorrect because

the graph does not provide information

about food sources. The graph does not

show that the minimum wolf population

decreased during this time span (choice b).

Choice d is incorrect because, although there

were fewer wolves in Wyoming than in

Idaho during the years depicted in the

graph, the graph does not indicate why; this

could have been due to predators, but there

are no data in the graph to support this

assumption. Choice e is incorrect because,

although the depicted population was

greater in Idaho than in Wyoming during

this time, there is insuffcient information in

the graph to determine the reason for this

disparity.

52. c. A leg of a trip is a segment of a trip. Choice a is incorrect because the defnition of limb

that relates to leg would reference a part of

the anatomy, and this meaning does not

make sense within the context of the pas-

sage. Although there is an idiom that refers

to “pulling someone’s leg,” this meaning of a

joke (choice b) does not make sense within

the context of the passage. The defnition of

appendage (choice d) that relates to leg

would reference a part of the anatomy; this

meaning does not make sense within the

context of the passage. There is an idiom

that refers to “being on its last legs” in refer-

ence to an item that is dilapidated (choice e)

or falling apart, but this meaning does not

make sense within the context of the

passage.

53. e. The passage references the investment Ear- hart’s father made and the investments Ear-

hart made herself. Choice a is incorrect. It is

true that Earhart’s disappearance remains a

mystery, but this is not a thread woven

throughout the passage; this information is

introduced only at the end of the passage.

Choice b is incorrect. It is true that Earhart’s

father provided the funds for her frst fight,

but his infuence is not a thread woven

throughout the passage; information related

to Earhart’s father appears only in the mid-

dle of the passage. Choice c is incorrect. Ear-

hart’s disappearance is addressed in the

passage, but there is not a general emphasis

placed on the dangers of fying. Choice d is

incorrect. It is clear that the fnal journey of

Earhart’s fying career must have been diff-

cult––since she disappeared––but the fnal

journey is not a thread woven throughout

the passage.

218218

219219

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 219 9/7/17 2:08 PM

54. c. Earhart’s fight as a passenger at an air show 56. e. Text evidence shows that Earhart was capti- sparked her interest. Choice a is incorrect.

Earhart drove a sand and gravel truck to

earn funds for her endeavors; however, driv-

ing the truck did not spark her interest in

fight. Choice b is incorrect because Earhart’s

interest in fight was sparked long before she

ended the radio transmission referenced in

the passage; this radio transmission occurred

just before she disappeared. Earhart’s inter-

est in fight was sparked long before the

event in choice d; as the passage states, this

event occurred just before she disappeared.

The solo fight referenced in the passage

(choice e) occurred after Earhart’s interest in

fight was initially sparked through a ride in

a plane at an air show.

55. d. Passage details show that Earhart had received many accolades, and based on her

dedication and accomplishments, it is logical

to infer that she would have continued to

garner accolades. Choice a is incorrect

because there are no details in the text to

support the inference that evidence has been

hidden. Although the radio transmission

occurred just before the disappearance, there

are no details in the text to support the

inference that the radio transmission caused

the disappearance (choice b). Choice c is

incorrect. Based on Earhart’s accomplish-

ments as detailed in the passage, and based

on the fact that offcials would make efforts

to locate any missing pilot and fight, it

would be logical to infer that great effort

would have been made to locate Earhart and

her aircraft after the disappearance. Choice e

is incorrect because, based on passage

details, it is clear that Earhart was dedicated

to fight; if the job of sorting mail had not

been available, it is logical to infer that she

would have found another job to help her

earn the funds she needed.

vated and exhilarated by fying airplanes. It

is logical to assume that she would have the

same feelings about space travel. Text evi-

dence does not support choice a, as evidence

in the text shows Earhart’s enthusiasm for

air travel. Choice b is incorrect because

whereas Earhart would certainly be inter-

ested in space travel, text evidence shows

that her interest would be much more pas-

sionate than mere contentment. While Ear-

hart might be startled by the great advances

in air travel, text evidence does not support

answer choice c; it is not logical to assume

that she would be belligerent about travel

into space. Choice d is incorrect because text

evidence shows that Earhart was at the fore-

front of air travel, so it does not indicate that

she would feel trepidatious. Additionally,

text evidence points to her support of air

travel, so it does not make sense that she

would be scornful of space travel.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 220 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Writing Practice Test 3

Part I: Multiple-Choice

Time: 40 Minutes

Directions: Each of the following 15 questions con-

sists of a sentence that contains four underlined por-

tions. Read each sentence, and decide whether any of

the underlined parts contains an element that would

be considered incorrect or inappropriate in carefully

written English. The error or concern may be in

grammatical construction, word use, punctuation, or

capitalization. Select the underlined portion that

must be revised to produce a correct sentence. If a

sentence contains no errors, select “No error.” No

sentence contains more than one error.

1. They had already clearly lied to him, but he a b

was very foolish enough to trust them again. c d

No error e

2. Many locales have statewide laws that a b

prohibit dog owners from allowing their dogs c

to run lose in specifc types of public areas. d

No error e

3. When Rosa visited Japan last summer a b

for her graduate program, she sees many c d

Shinto temples. No error e

4. In reference to teaching children, we would a

agree that all childrens strengths and challenges b c

should be considered. No error d e

5. Earthquakes are extremely diffcult to predict, that is why most scientifc investigations

a b

take place after occurrences of earthquakes. c d

No error e

6. Midori and Pat disagreed regarding every a

aspect of the project; it was clear that they b c

saw eye to eye on the preparations that needed d

to be made. No error e

7. Some people believe it’s more important to a b

enjoy working at a job than large sums c

of money. No error d e

8. Contestants in the international palms resort a

youth spelling bee watched as an eighth-grade b

student from Pennsylvania won the spelling c

bee’s trophy. No error d e

9. The event brings in spectators from across the globe, and they showcase the surfng skills

a b

of all the local surfers. No error d e

220220

221221

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 221 9/7/17 2:08 PM

10. He knew perfectly good that it was time for a b

him to do the dishes; however, immediately c

after dinner, he thought of an excuse for d

leaving the house. No error e

11. The audience applauded politely for the a

sick actor, he hadn’t performed to the best of b c

his ability. No error d e

12. Several landscape designers submitted bids a

for the shopping mall project, and the property b

owner awarded the contract to the designer

whose proposal was the least expensive. c d

No error e

13. The frst-year teachers in King Central a b

School District are; Kamal, Dana, Keisha, and c d

Julieta. No error e

14. The customer called the store many times a b

that day, but they never answered. No error c d e

15. Either the board president or the accounts a

administrator will need to act to insure the fair b

treatment of all employees in the company. c d

No error e

Directions: In each of the following questions, part

of the sentence or the entire sentence has been under-

lined. Beneath each sentence, the underlined words

are written in fve ways. The frst option repeats the

original underlined content, but the other four differ.

If the original sentence is the best option, select the

frst choice; otherwise, select one of the other choices.

This part of the test measures correctness and effec-

tiveness of expression. Pay particular attention to

usage in grammar, word choice, sentence construc-

tion, capitalization, and punctuation. Select the

option that best expresses information presented in

the original sentence. Your answer should be free of

awkwardness, ambiguity, and redundancy.

16. To improve his results, the experiment was repeated by exercising greater control of the

variables.

a. the experiment was repeated

b. he repeated the experiment

c. the experiment repeated

d. he and me repeated the experiment

e. their experiments was repeated

17. Alternative medicine which includes massage and yoga, has become increasingly appealing to

Americans.

a. medicine which includes massage and yoga,

has

b. medicine, which includes massage and yoga

has

c. medicine which include massage and yoga,

has

d. medicine, which include massage and yoga,

has

e. medicine, which includes massage and yoga,

has

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 222 9/7/17 2:08 PM

18. Nobody could believe the luck they had that day.

a. Nobody could believe

b. Nobody could hardly believe

c. Nobody would never believe

d. Nobody would not believe

e. Nobody would always not believe

19. Although the car hit the roadblock, it wasn’t damaged.

a. Although the car hit the roadblock, it wasn’t

damaged.

b. The car hit the roadblock but did not

damage it.

c. The car hit the roadblock, it wasn’t damaged.

d. Although the car hit the roadblock, it was

damaged.

e. Even though the car hit the roadblock, it

wasn’t damaged.

20. It is the general consensus that the principal is kind and has intelligence.

a. is kind and has intelligence.

b. is kinder and has intelligence.

c. is kind and intelligent.

d. has kind intelligence.

e. has kindness and intelligent.

21. He asked if my Aunt and Grandfather would organize the family reunion.

a. my Aunt and Grandfather

b. My aunt and grandfather

c. my Aunt and grandfather

d. my aunt and Grandfather

e. my aunt and grandfather

22. The committee threw a huge end-of-the-year party for them and I.

a. them and I

b. they and I

c. their and me

d. their and I

e. them and me

23. The dog, sleeping in its bed, not noticing the cat in the room.

a. The dog, sleeping in its bed, not noticing the

cat in the room.

b. The dog, asleep in its bed. Not noticing the

cat in the room.

c. The dog, sleeping in its bed; not noticing the

cat in the room.

d. The dog was sleeping in its bed, not noticing

the cat in the room.

e. The dog. Was sleeping. In its bed and not

noticing the cat in the room.

24. As past history has illustrated, we should learn from our mistakes.

a. As past history has illustrated,

b. As past history has illustrated

c. As history has illustrated,

d. As history has illustrated

e. As passed history has illustrated,

25. The swimmer explained how to do the back- stroke on the train.

a. The swimmer explained how to do the

backstroke on the train.

b. The swimmer explain how to do the

backstroke on the train.

c. The swimmers explains how to do the

backstroke on the train.

d. The swimmer on the train explained how to

do the backstroke.

e. The swimmer on the train explain how to do

the backstroke.

222222

223223

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 223 9/7/17 2:08 PM

26. The therapist massaged gently along the patient’s spine.

a. massaged gently

b. massaged gentle

c. massage gentle

d. massage gently

e. messaged gently

27. Not only did we inadvertently write the wrong address on the invitations, but we also forgot to

include a telephone number.

a. but

b. nor

c. or

d. and

e. neither

28. After the solution splattered, scientists took off their lab coat right away.

a. scientists took off their lab coat

b. scientists took off their lab coats

c. scientists take off their lab coat’s

d. scientists takes off their lab coats

e. scientists’ took off their lab coat

29. They wouldn’t have required such diffcult instructions if they hadn’t developed such a

complicated process.

a. They wouldn’t have required such diffcult

instructions if they hadn’t

b. They wouldnt have required such diffcult

instructions if they hadn’t

c. They wouldn’t have required such diffcult

instructions if they, hadnt

d. They wouldn’t have, required such diffcult

instructions if they hadn’t

e. They wouldnt have required such, diffcult

instructions if they hadnt

Directions: Some parts of the following passage need

to be improved. Read the passage and then answer

the questions about specifc sentences. In choosing

your answers, pay attention to development, organi-

zation, word choice, tone, and the standards of writ-

ten English.

(1) Creating a lush garden requires a great deal

of care and time. (2) The fower bed should

consist of appropriate proportions of soil, rice

hulls, and mulch. (3) If fower beds have been

properly covered with fowers, they will

fourish.

(4) The Floral society of America pub-

lishes a number of annual pamphlets regarding

the optimal shapes and layouts for fower beds.

(5) Those who follow the advice will have good

gardens. (6) Other than initial planting, there

are many considerations in creating and main-

taining a healthy garden. (7) For example, suff-

cient water is essential, suffcient sunlight is also

a basic requirement.

(8) After fowers have bloomed, it is nec-

essary to “deadhead” the blooms of some types

of fowers. (9) Deadheading consists of pinch-

ing back the blooms that are beginning to die.

(10) This practice results in fuller, lovelier

blooms. (11) For fowers with multiple blooms,

some gardeners like to begin the deadheading

process at the top of the fower, descending

down to the lowest blooms to complete the

process. (12) Be certain to select fowers that

will grow well in your region. (13) Pinching

blooms is one of the steps that must be care-

fully considered by gardeners.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 224 9/7/17 2:08 PM

30. Which is the most effective way to write sen- tence 3 (reproduced below)?

If fower beds have been properly covered

with fowers, they will fourish.

a. As it is now.

b. Flower beds have been properly covered with

fowers, they will fourish.

c. If fower beds have been properly covered

with fowers, it will fourish.

d. If fower beds have been properly covered

with fowers, the fowers will fourish.

e. Flower beds has been properly covered with

fowers; properties will fourish.

31. What is the correct and most effective way to write sentence 4 (reproduced below)?

The Floral society of America publishes a

number of annual pamphlets regarding the

optimal shapes and layouts for fower beds.

a. As it is now.

b. the Floral Society of america publishes a

number of annual pamphlets regarding the

optimal shapes and layouts for fower beds.

c. The Floral Society of America publishes a

number of annual pamphlets regarding the

optimal shapes and layouts for fower beds.

d. The foral society of america publishes a

number of annual pamphlets regarding the

optimal shapes and layouts for fower beds.

e. The Floral Society Of America publishes a

number of annual pamphlets regarding the

optimal shapes and layouts for fower beds.

32. Which is the most effective way to write sen- tence 5 (reproduced below)?

Those who follow the advice will have good

gardens.

a. As it is now.

b. Those who follow the advice will have

gorgeous gardens.

c. Those who follow the advice will have giant

gardens.

d. Those who follow the advice will have nice

gardens.

e. Those who follow the advice will have

gregarious gardens.

33. What is the most effective way to write sen- tence 7 (reproduced below)?

For example, suffcient water is essential,

suffcient sunlight is also a basic

requirement.

a. As it is now.

b. For example, suffcient water is essential,

suffcient sunlight is also. A basic

requirement.

c. For example, suffcient water is essential

suffcient sunlight is also a basic

requirement.

d. For example suffcient water is essential,

suffcient sunlight is also a basic

requirement.

e. For example, suffcient water is essential;

suffcient sunlight is also a basic

requirement.

224224

225225

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 225 9/7/17 2:08 PM

34. What is the most effective way to write sen- tence 11 (reproduced below)?

For fowers with multiple blooms, some

gardeners like to begin the deadheading

process at the top of the fower, descending

down to the lowest blooms to complete the

process.

a. As it is.

b. For fowers with multiple blooms, some

gardeners like to begin the deadheading

process at the top of the fower, descending

to the lowest blooms to complete the

process.

c. For fours with multiple blooms, some

gardeners like to begin the deadheading

process at the top of the fower, descending

down to the lowest blooms to complete the

process.

d. For fowers with multiple blooms, some

gardeners likes to begin the deadheading

process at the top of the four, descending

down to the lowest blooms to complete the

process.

e. For fowers with multiple blooms, some

Gardeners like to begin the deadheading

process at the top of the fower, descending

to the lowest blooms to complete the

process.

35. Which sentence should be removed from the fnal paragraph to eliminate a sentence that

fails to be relevant to the paragraph’s main

idea?

a. After fowers have bloomed, it is necessary to

“deadhead” the blooms of some types of

fowers.

b. Deadheading consists of pinching back the

blooms that are beginning to die.

c. This practice results in fuller, lovelier

blooms.

d. Be certain to select fowers that will grow

well in your region.

e. Pinching blooms is one of the steps that

must be carefully considered by gardeners.

36. Which sentence would be the most effective concluding sentence to add to the passage?

a. Guidance is available as you work to

determine which fowers to plant in your

garden.

b. The layout of your garden should be your

frst consideration as you tackle the many

issues related to creating your dream garden.

c. Always remember the importance of

planting in a sunny location as you prepare

the soil and mulch for your garden.

d. Carefully planning and meticulously

maintaining your garden will lead to the fne

results desired by profcient gardeners.

e. Gardeners would be wise to have ample

water for taking care of the many fowers

they will purchase.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 226 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Directions: The questions that follow will measure

your basic research skills. Read each question and

then select the best option.

37. Read the following citation. Drummond, Analise M., and Johann Small,

eds. Assessing Education in Georgia and

California. Mahwah, NJ: Publishing Interest

Associates, 2013. Print.

Based on the citation, which of the following is

accurate?

a. Georgia, Analise, and Johann developed

content for this book.

b. The edition of the book in the citation is the

second edition.

c. The author of the book is N. J. Mahwah.

d. The book was published on the Web.

e. There are two editors of this book.

38. Which information would be most relevant to support a text expressing the following

opinion?

Opinion:

Our city’s sales tax should be increased by 1

cent.

a. Additional income is needed to repair the

city’s roads and bridges.

b. Some stores have opened in the city, while

others have closed.

c. A major magazine recently declared the city

to be one of the nicest in the nation.

d. The city is trying to attract shoppers from

nearby areas to shop in the city’s stores.

e. Home sales have increased near the city’s

lake, but sales have dropped in other areas.

39. Of these sources, which would be the most credible and relevant for a school project

focused on consuming a balanced diet?

a. nutrition statements from a food

manufacturer regarding a specifc product

b. statistics and other data based on a

university’s nutrition studies

c. farming details from a vegetable farmer’s

nutritious crops

d. students’ opinions regarding nutritious

favorite foods

e. online nutrition articles about junk food

40. Of the listed strategies, which answer choice shows the most effective order to follow for

writing a research paper?

a. revise, narrow, outline, brainstorm, draft

b. narrow, draft, revise, brainstorm, outline

c. draft, outline, narrow, revision, brainstorm

d. outline, draft, revise, brainstorm, narrow

e. brainstorm, narrow, outline, draft, revise

226226

227227

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 227 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Part IIa: Argumentative Essay

Time: 30 Minutes

Directions: Read the opinion stated below. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? Support

your views with specifc reasons and examples from your own experiences, observations, or reading. Allow 30

minutes for your essay.

A football team should immediately and permanently remove a player accused of assault. If the team fails

to do so, people should refuse to attend the team’s games. Assault is a serious crime and is not to be toler-

ated. Football is glorifed in our country, and after a player steps onto the feld, the player’s morals, ethics,

and common sense go out the window.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 228 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

228228

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 229 9/7/17 2:08 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

________________________________________________________________________________________

229229

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 230 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

230230

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 231 9/7/17 2:08 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

________________________________________________________________________________________

231231

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 232 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

232232

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 233 9/7/17 2:08 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

________________________________________________________________________________________

233233

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 234 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

234234

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 235 9/7/17 2:08 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

________________________________________________________________________________________

235235

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 236 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Part IIb: Source-Based Essay

Time: 30 Minutes

Directions: The following essay assignment asks that

you to use information from two different sources to

discuss the most important concerns that relate to a

specifc issue. Allow 30 minutes to write your essay.

Assignment

Fossil fuels have come under fre due to their unsus-

tainability and the pollution they cause when burned.

As a result, alternative energy sources have been

explored and implemented. There are many types of

Source 1

alternative energy sources, including solar and wind.

Both of the following resources focus on the use of

solar power. The benefts and detriments of each are

explored. Each piece clearly refects the viewpoint of

its author.

Read the two passages carefully and then write

an essay in which you identify the most important

concerns regarding the issue and explain why they are

important. Your essay must draw on information

from both of the sources. In addition, you may draw

on your own experiences, observations, or reading.

Be sure to cite the sources whether you are paraphras-

ing or directly quoting.

Solar energy is the wave of the future. Individuals and businesses should be moving forward to imple- ment solar energy solutions for their energy needs. In an age when the practice of burning fossil fuels belches tremendous quantities of pollution into the atmosphere, solar power can provide for energy needs in a clean, environmentally friendly way. Of course, this is not the only advantage of solar power.

Unlike power that comes from the burning of fossil fuels, solar power is a renewable resource; it is a sustainable resource. There can be no life on Earth without the sun; as long as there is sun- light, the sun provides thermal energy. . . . Fossil fuels are not renewable. They can be depleted. Once this happens, they are no longer available to provide energy. The renewable, sustainable nature of solar energy is a major boon in supplying energy needs.

Some alternative methods of energy production, such as use of wind turbines, result in a great deal of noise, which is disturbing to those who live and work near the turbines. Noise is not an issue with solar energy. The thermal energy is collected from the sun’s heat through solar panels; this pro- cess does not create noise.

A major positive factor in use of solar energy is the cost. Use of solar energy does not result in bills that must be paid to an electricity provider. This means astounding savings! Additionally, living off of the grid, meaning “away from electricity sources,” means that energy can be obtained in places where the infrastructure to provide electricity has not been developed. . . . In addition to the savings from living off of the grid, rebates and other economic incentives are often available from state and local governments when consumers choose to use solar energy.

Utilizing solar energy is a positive experience in so many ways. It should definitely be the top contender for satisfying energy needs.

Adapted from: Ling, Andrea. Energy: Crisis, Solutions, and Counterpoints. Philadelphia: Pencil, Quill, and Scroll, 2014. 289–305. Web. Aug. 10, 2014.

236236

237237

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 237 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Source 2

Solar energy has been touted as the energy source that everyone should pursue; however, while it is not without some merit, solar energy has serious drawbacks. Proponents speak volumes regarding the tremendous savings of solar energy. The major fact they tend to omit, however, is the astro- nomical expense of installing solar panels, also known as “solar cells.”

A single solar cell can cost in excess of $1,500, and a single cell is generally not sufficient to serve the needs of an entire household or business. The price per cell rises for specific types of thin- film solar cells. . . . Installation fees must be added to these costs. And the idea that people can live “off of the grid” with solar panels is often a misnomer. Solar cells generally supply only a portion of the needs for a household or business, so there are still electricity bills to pay, albeit generally lower bills when solar cells are being used in addition to the electricity provided.

While it is true that local and federal governments often offer incentives for use of solar energy, they also often offer incentives for use of other energy types, some alternative and some traditional. . . . So, while there might be incentives when solar energy is used, there are also incentives with other types of energy sources.

Another major drawback of solar energy is its intermittent nature. Clearly, sunlight is required to catalyze solar energy. After the sun sets, there is no thermal energy being produced. It is impos- sible to accurately predict the number of cloudy days versus sunny days during a year. Of course, most consumers utilize the vast majority of energy during peak times of a hot day, so the corre- sponding nature of availability of solar energy is valuable. . . . Additionally, pollution can have a negative impact on productive use of solar energy, which adds to the intermittent nature of availability.

Proponents of solar energy often wax poetic about its pollution-free nature. Stating that solar energy is a completely pollution-free source is erroneous, however. Greenhouse gases might be emitted during production of some types of solar cells. Additionally, it is important to remember that the cells must be transported to locations of installation, and this transportation causes pollu- tion. Granted, this might be considered less serious than the pollution caused by the burning of fossil fuels; however, it is important to provide a balanced outlook on the subject. . . .

Adapted from: Salazar, Oscar. “The Truth about Solar Energy.” Energy Forecasting for Our Times. 15.1 (2013): 98–104. Web. Aug. 10, 2014.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 238 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

238238

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 239 9/7/17 2:08 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

________________________________________________________________________________________

239239

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 240 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

240240

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 241 9/7/17 2:08 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

________________________________________________________________________________________

241241

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 242 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

242242

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 243 9/7/17 2:08 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

________________________________________________________________________________________

243243

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 244 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

244244

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 245 9/7/17 2:08 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

________________________________________________________________________________________

245245

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 246 9/7/17 2:08 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

246246

247247

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 247 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Writing Practice Test 3 Answers and Explanations

1. c. The phrase very foolish enough is redundant. The adverb very could be used, or the adverb

enough could be used, but not both. In

choice a, the verb had agrees in person and

number with the subject they. The word

clearly in choice b is an adverb, the correct

part of speech to modify the verb lied. There

are no errors in the infnitive to trust in

choice d.

2. d. The word lose has been mistaken for the word loose. The word lose means being

unable to fnd, while the word loose means

without restraint. In choice a, statewide is a

correctly spelled adjective that modifes the

word laws. The relative pronoun in choice b,

that, is correct. The preposition from in

choice c is correct.

3. d. The verb sees represents a shift in tense. The verb visited (in the dependent clause) is in

the correct tense, the past tense, as indicated

by the phrase last summer. To avoid a shift in

tense, the verb in the independent clause

must also be in the past tense, so the correct

verb would be saw, rather than sees. The

phrase last summer indicates that the verbs

in the sentence must be in past tense. The

verb visited in choice a is in past tense. In

choice b, the word Japan identifes a country,

so it must be capitalized. The preposition,

modifers, and object of the preposition in

choice c have no errors.

4. b. The word children’s is possessive in the sen- tence, so it requires an apostrophe between

the letter n and the letter s. The introductory

clause in choice a is correctly punctuated by

a comma. The words in choice c are spelled

correctly, and no comma is required preced-

ing the word and, as it is not used to join two

independent clauses. In choice d the word

should does not create a shift from the word

would.

5. a. This sentence contains two independent clauses, so a semicolon, not a comma, is

required at the end of the frst independent

clause. There are no errors in the modifers

and the noun in choice b. The preposition

and its object are correct, and the word

occurrences is spelled correctly in choice c. In

choice d, the preposition and its object are

used correctly.

6. d. The meaning of the idiom saw eye to eye is “agreed with one another.” This idiom does

not make sense in the sentence, as the sen-

tence begins by stating that Midori and Pat

disagreed regarding every aspect of the proj-

ect. No comma is required between Midori

and Pat in choice a. The semicolon in choice

b correctly punctuates two independent

clauses. In choice c the pronoun they agrees

with Midori and Pat.

7. c. As originally written, the sentence lacks par- allel structure. The phrase large sums must

be revised so it is parallel with the phrase to

enjoy your job (e.g., to have large sums). In

choice a, the apostrophe in the word it’s is

correct. It’s is a contraction that means it is.

The modifers are correct in choice b and

there are no errors in the preposition and its

object in the prepositional phrase used in

choice d.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 248 9/7/17 2:08 PM

8. a. International Palms Resort Youth Spelling Bee is a proper noun; all words in the proper

noun must be capitalized. In choice b, the

hyphenation for eighth-grade is correct, as

eighth-grade precedes the noun. The past-

tense verb won in choice c is parallel to the

past-tense verb watched. An apostrophe is

required to form the possessive in choice d.

The name of the spelling bee is not included

within this phrase, so capitalization of bee’s

is not required.

9. b. The pronoun they does not agree with the antecedent, which is event. The noun event is

singular, so the correct pronoun would be it

(singular), rather than they (plural), requir-

ing it showcases. The comma in choice a is

required, as it appears between two indepen-

dent clauses joined by and. The word surfng

is an adjective that is spelled and used cor-

rectly in choice c. The same is true for the

word local in choice d.

10. b. This modifer modifes the verb knew, so it must be an adverb (well), not an adjective

(good). The verb in choice a agrees with the

subject and is in the correct tense. In choice

c, the semicolon that appears before the con-

junction (however) and the comma that

appears after the conjunction are both cor-

rect punctuation. The verb thought (choice

d) has been correctly written in the past

tense. It is in the same tense as the verb

knew, which appears in the other indepen-

dent clause within the sentence.

11. c. As originally written, the sentence is a run- on. It contains two independent clauses. A

semicolon would be required to replace the

comma; alternatively, the original sentence

could be split into two separate sentences.

The word politely modifes the verb

applauded in choice a, telling how the audi-

ence applauded, so the adverb politely is cor-

rect. The word sick modifes the noun actor,

so the adjective sick is correct in choice b.

The use of the possessive pronoun his in

choice d is correct.

12. e. The sentence is free of errors. The noun designers is spelled correctly, and the plural

form is correct in choice a. The comma in

choice b is correctly placed, as the word and

joins two independent clauses. The relative

pronoun whose used in choice c is correct.

The comparative adjective in choice d, least,

is correct, as several designers are being

compared.

13. c. The semicolon should be deleted. The frst- year teachers in King Central School District

are is not a complete sentence. The adjective

frst-year must by hyphenated in choice a, as

it precedes the noun it modifes. In choice b

the name of the school district is a proper

noun, so all words must be capitalized. The

capitalization and commas in choice d are

correct.

248248

249249

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 249 9/7/17 2:08 PM

14. d. In this sentence, they is a vague pronoun. The pronoun they does not have a clear

antecedent. Who never answered? A store

cannot answer. Employees at a store can

answer, though, so the sentence could be

corrected in this way: The customer called the

store many times that day, but the employees

never answered. In choice a, the word cus-

tomer is spelled and used correctly. The

adjective many correctly modifes the noun

times in choice b. A comma is the correct

punctuation to separate two independent

clauses joined by the conjunction but, as

shown in choice c.

15. b. The word insure means “to make arrange- ments for compensation.” The phrase insure

against means “to protect someone from

something.” The word ensure means “to

make certain an event or condition will

occur or be met.” The word ensure would be

correct in this sentence. The word or is the

correct correlative conjunction to match the

word either in choice a. The preposition,

modifer, and object in choice c are all cor-

rect. The word company in choice d is spelled

and used correctly.

16. b. As originally written, the sentence contains a dangling modifer. When the underlined

part of the sentence is replaced by he

repeated the experiment, the pronoun he

cures the issue. With the revision offered in

choice c, the sentence still contains a dan-

gling modifer. If answer choice d included

only the pronoun he, but not the pronoun

me, it would be correct. The pronoun me is

in the objective case, not the subjective case.

Choice e is incorrect because the phrase their

experiments does not comport to the pro-

noun he in the preceding clause.

17. e. The clause which includes massage and yoga is a nonessential clause, so it must be set off

from the rest of the sentence by commas.

The information in this clause is not essen-

tial to an understanding of the sentence. If

the information in the clause were essential

to the understanding of the sentence, then

commas would not be required. In addition,

the verb includes agrees with the subject

medicine, so this answer choice is correct.

The clauses presented in choices a, b, and c

are nonessential clauses, so they must be set

off from the rest of the sentence by commas.

The information in these clauses is not

essential to the understanding of the sen-

tence. If the information in the clauses were

essential to the understanding of the sen-

tence, then commas would not be required.

Choice d is incorrect because while the

answer choice correctly includes commas to

set off the nonessential clause, the verb

include does not agree with the subject medi-

cine, so this answer choice is incorrect.

18. a. Grammar and usage in the sentence are cor- rect. Choices b, c, d, and e are incorrect

because they all contain double negatives.

19. b. This sentence makes it clear that the car hit the roadblock but did not damage the road-

block. Choice a is incorrect because the

antecedent of the pronoun it is unclear. Is it

the car that was not damaged? Is the road-

block that was not damaged? Based on the

construction of the sentence, it is not possi-

ble to make this determination. Choices c, d,

and e are incorrect for the same reasons as a.

Additionally, answer choice c includes a

comma to separate two independent clauses,

which creates a run-on, and the use of

although in answer choice d and even though

in choice e make the sentence even more

confusing.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 250 9/7/17 2:08 PM

20. c. The words kind and intelligent are both adjectives, so use of the two adjectives pro-

vides parallel structure. Choices a, b, and e

are incorrect because they all lack parallel

structure, and choice d changes the meaning

of the original sentence.

21. e. The words aunt and grandfather are com- mon nouns; these words do not name a spe-

cifc aunt and a specifc grandfather, so the

words aunt and grandfather should not be

capitalized. Choices a, c, and d contain

errors in capitalization. The words aunt and

grandfather are common nouns; these words

do not name a specifc aunt and a specifc

grandfather, so neither of these words

should be capitalized. Choice b contains a

different error in capitalization. The word

my does not begin the sentence, so it should

not be capitalized.

22. e. The pronouns them and me are both in the objective case, as required for the object of a

pronoun. The direct object them in choice a

is in the correct case, the objective case, but

the pronoun I is in the subjective case, rather

than the objective case (me). Choice b is

incorrect because the pronouns are in the

subjective case (they and I), rather than the

objective case (them and me). While the pro-

noun me is in the correct case for the object

of a preposition, the word their is a posses-

sive pronoun, making choice c incorrect. As

in choice c, the word their in choice d is a

possessive pronoun, and the pronoun I is in

the subjective case, not the objective case, as

required for the object of a preposition.

23. d. This is a complete sentence. Choices a, b, c, and e are incorrect because none of them are

complete sentences.

24. c. The phrase past history is redundant, as the word history indicates a time in the past. The

word past has been deleted in this answer

choice, which cures the problem. Choices a

and b both contain the redundant phrase

past history, making them incorrect. Addi-

tionally, a comma is required after the intro-

ductory clause in choice b. This is also the

reason why choice d is incorrect. Choice e

mistakes the word passed for past, and even

if the word past (rather than passed) had

been included, the answer choice would still

be incorrect, as the phrase past history is

redundant.

25. d. The modifer on the train has been moved, so it is no longer misplaced. This sentence

makes it clear that the swimmer on the train

was explaining how to do the backstroke.

Choices a, b, and c all contain a misplaced

modifer (on the train). The swimmer is on

the train while explaining the backstroke;

the swimmer is not explaining a swimming

style to be used while on the train. Addition-

ally, in choices b and c, as well as choice e,

the verb does not agree with the subject.

26. a. The word gently is an adverb that tells how the therapist massaged the spine. The word

gentle in choice b is an adjective, so it would

be correct to describe the noun massage––a

gentle massage––but not the action of mas-

saging the spine. In choices c and d the verb

does not agree with the subject. While an

adverb (gently), rather than an adjective

(gentle) is included in choice e, the word

messaged is mistaken for the word massaged.

250250

251251

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 251 9/7/17 2:08 PM

27. a. The phrase not only appears in the frst clause, so but is the correct correlative pro-

noun in the second clause. Due to use of not

only and also, the correlative conjunctions

nor, or, and neither are incorrect in choices

b, c, and e. Choice d is incorrect because the

use of the phrase not only in the frst clause

and the word also in the second clause

requires a different correlative conjunction.

28. b. The noun in the subject, scientists, is plural. The noun in the predicate must agree with

the plural subject. The noun in the predi-

cate, coats, is plural, so it agrees with the plu-

ral subject. Choices a and c are incorrect

because the noun in the subject is plural.

The noun in the predicate must agree with

the plural subject. The noun in the predicate

does not agree with the plural subject. The

singular verb, takes, in choice d does not

agree with the plural subject, scientists.

Choice e is incorrect because the word scien-

tists in the sentence is not possessive, so the

apostrophe in the word is incorrect. Addi-

tionally, the noun in the predicate does not

agree with the noun in the subject.

29. a. The apostrophe in wouldn’t and the apostro- phe in hadn’t replace the letter o in the word

not. Apostrophes are required in the words

wouldn’t and hadn’t, making choices b, c,

and e incorrect. Additionally, the comma

should not have been inserted in choice d as

well as choice e.

30. d. This revision clarifes the sentence, as the vague pronoun they has been removed; the

vague pronoun they is replaced by the fow-

ers. This revision makes it clear that the

fowers will fourish. There is a more effec-

tive way to write the sentence, as the original

sentence contains the vague pronoun they. It

is not possible to tell whether they refers to

fower beds or to fowers. For this reason,

choices a, b, and c are incorrect. Addition-

ally, choice b creates a run-on sentence, and

choice c uses the pronoun it, which is incor-

rect in number, as it is singular; the two

nouns in the sentence, beds and fowers, are

plural. Choice e is incorrect. The verb has

been does not agree with the noun beds.

Additionally, addition of the word properties

changes the meaning of the sentence.

31. c. This is the correct answer. All of the words in the organization’s name––other than the

minor word of––must be capitalized, making

choices a, b, d, and e incorrect. Additionally,

the frst word of the sentence must always be

capitalized.

32. b. The adjectives good and nice (choice d) are vague and overused, but the adjective gor-

geous is much stronger. Choice c is incorrect

because the passage does not reference large

fower beds or gardens, so the adjective giant

does not make sense within the context of

the passage. The word gregarious (choice e)

means sociable; a garden would not be

described in this way.

33. e. A semicolon has been inserted to replace the comma. This cures the run-on issue and cre-

ates two complete sentences. Answer choices

b, c, and d all contain run-on sentences. A

comma must follow the introductory phrase

for example, and removing the comma

between essential and suffcient does not cure

the problem.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 252 9/7/17 2:08 PM

34. b. This is the correct answer. The phrase descending down is redundant, making

choices c and d incorrect. The word descend-

ing means “proceeding in a downward direc-

tion.” Additionally, in choice c the word four

has been mistaken for the word fower and in

choice d the verb likes does not agree with

the subject gardeners. The word gardeners is

also a common noun, so capitalizing it as in

choice e is incorrect.

35. d. Selecting fowers that grow well in a region is not relevant to the paragraph’s main idea.

The paragraph focuses on information

about the deadheading process, and choices

a, b, c, and e all relate to that process.

36. d. The entire passage relates to planning and maintaining a garden, so this sentence sum-

marizes the information in the passage and

provides a strong conclusion. While the pas-

sage does reference the importance of guid-

ance, layout, sunlight, and water choices, a,

b, c, and e fail to summarize the ideas in the

passage and would not provide a strong

conclusion.

37. e. The abbreviation eds. and the location of the text Drummond, Analise M., and Johann

Small, eds. within the citation show that

there are two editors of the book. Choice a is

incorrect because the names Analise and

Johann are the frst names of the editors and

Georgia is part of the title of the book. There

is no indication within the citation that this

is a second edition, making choice b incor-

rect. The publishing house is located in

Mahwah, NJ, so choice c is incorrect. Choice

d is incorrect because if the text had been

published on the Web, the fnal word in the

citation would be Web, not Print.

38. a. The city needs additional income to repair roads and bridges, and this additional

income could come from an increase in the

city’s sales tax. Choices b, c, and e are not

clearly relevant to the opinion. This state-

ment in choice d undermines the opinion,

rather than supporting it.

39. b. A university’s nutrition studies are likely to be balanced and unbiased. A food manufac-

turer’s statements might be biased in an

effort to increase sales. The food manufac-

turer would have a vested interest in the

framing and dissemination of information;

therefore choice a is incorrect. The informa-

tion from a vegetable farmer (choice c)

would likely be narrow and would not be the

most relevant. Students’ opinions (choice d)

might not be based on fact and might not be

strongly supported. Such opinions could

easily be based simply on personal prefer-

ence, in which case the opinions would lack

credibility for the purpose of the project.

Choice e is incorrect because online articles

might provide information about the prob-

lems with junk food, but they would not

necessarily provide information about con-

suming a balanced diet.

40. e. The writing process generally proceeds in this order: brainstorming ideas, narrowing

ideas, creating an outline, writing a draft,

and writing at least one revision. Choices a,

b, c, and d are incorrect.

252252

253253

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 253 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Sample Responses for the Argumentative Essay

Sample Score 6 Response I agree that assault is a serious crime and is not to be

tolerated. It is a big step, however, to move from this

statement to the statement that a football team should

immediately and permanently remove a player accused

of assault or that people should stop attending games if

the team fails to do so. The key word to consider in this

statement is accused.

I have read many books and articles about crime,

and I have seen many news segments about people who

have been accused of crimes but who have been found

not guilty of having committed them. My aunt is a

prosecuting attorney, and she has told me that people do

sometimes fle charges in cases in which a person is

found to be not guilty. While it would be reasonable to

suspend a player while there is an investigation and a

trial regarding an assault, it would not be reasonable to

remove a player permanently. It is possible that the

player could be found not guilty or that the charges

against the player could be dismissed.

It is also important to consider the variety of peo-

ple other than players and team offcials who beneft

from football games. For example, people make incomes

from working in the parking lot, preparing and serving

food at the concession stands, maintaining the feld, and

cleaning after a game. When key players are removed

from teams, this can have a huge impact on the number

of people who attend the games. This in turn has an

impact on the incomes of the people who work at the

feld. My neighbor sells sweatshirts and other team

memorabilia at games, and she has told me that when

attendance drops, her income also drops, and she needs

her income to support her family. There is some risk in

every job, and if a player is convicted of assault and

removed, this is a risk the workers at the feld face. It’s

not fair, though, for the players to face this risk due to

just a charge without a conviction.

I agree that football is glorifed in our country.

Players are often looked upon almost as royalty, and

this can cause people to look the other way when a foot-

ball player does something wrong, but I think it is a

gross generalization to state that a player’s morals, eth-

ics, and common sense go out the window when the

player steps onto the feld. This might be true of some

players, but it is certainly not true of all players. Many

players show strong morals and ethics. Many are

devoted to their families and participate in community

service.

Like all people, football players must be looked

upon as individuals who prove their true moral fber

through their actions. Certainly, if a football player is

convicted of assault, then the player should be perma-

nently removed from the team and the league, but until

such a conviction, a permanent removal is unfair to the

player and to others who make their living in ways

related to football games.

About This Essay This powerful response begins by clearly stating the

writer’s position, sharply focusing on the word accused.

The essay continues with strong organization and sup-

port through reasons, details, and examples. After the

introduction, the writer provides details of books she

has read, as well as the example of an aunt who is a

prosecuting attorney; the writer shares the explanation

provided by her aunt, an explanation in which her

aunt told her about cases in which the accused was

found to be not guilty. The writer powerfully connects

this example to the possibility of a football player being

accused of assault but perhaps not being guilty.

The essay moves forward to discuss the impact

of removal of a key player on others who earn an

income through jobs related to football. This insight-

ful example provides a dimension that other writers

might not even consider, which elevates this essay’s

score. For support, the writer provides details related

to specifc types of jobs that could be affected, as well

as the example of someone the writer knows person-

ally. The writer also provides an insightful discussion

of income risk and whether this risk should be antici-

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 254 9/7/17 2:08 PM

pated simply due to an accusation. This again elevates

the level of the essay.

The writer continues by stating agreement with

the statement that football is glorifed in our country.

The writer connects this statement to the action of

offcials who look the other way when a player does

something wrong; however, the writer clearly notes

disagreement with the statement that a player’s mor-

als, ethics, and common sense go out the window

when the player steps onto the feld. The writer

insightfully points out that this statement is a gross

generalization, stating that many players are devoted

to family and community.

The writer concludes by stating that football

players are individuals and must be looked upon as

such. The writer restates the position frst asserted at

the beginning of the essay.

Throughout the essay, the writer offers strong

organization, as well as sentences of a variety of struc-

tures and lengths. This enhances the fow and read-

ability of the essay. This strong essay is free from

errors in mechanics, usage, and grammar. The power

of all of these elements unquestionably brings the

essay to a score of 6.

Sample Score 5 Response It is not really fair to permanently remove a player who

has been accused of assault, and it is not fair for fans to

stop attending games if the team fails to take action, so I

disagree with these parts of the prompt, but I do agree

that assault is serious, and I do agree that football is

glorifed in our country.

For many years, I have seen news reports and read

magazine articles detailing inexcusable behavior of

football players. These reports have included many

kinds of unacceptable behavior, including incidences of

assault, disorderly conduct, and conducting dog-fght-

ing rings. The football teams have generally looked in

the other direction and refused to punish these players.

I read that one football player was convicted of

conducting dog-fghting rings. He was unspeakably

cruel to these living creatures. Then he later became a

football player again. A major team put him back on

the feld. Violence is at the heart of so many of these

negative behaviors, and the violence is not acceptable.

This player should never have been allowed to begin

playing football again. Allowing him to do so sent a

strong message to others, the message that violence is

acceptable and should not have an impact on putting a

person in a position of great income and infuence. After

all, many adults and children alike look up to football

players as role models.

On the news, there have been videos of football

players assaulting their girlfriends, and this action is

rough and frightening. There have also recently been

reports of football offcials looking the other way when

these players do something wrong, just as there have

been such reports for many years. The players make a

great deal of money for the teams and for those associ-

ated with football, so the people in charge just look the

other way. This is not acceptable.

It is important for teams to stop looking the other

way when this type of behavior occurs. Action must be

taken to let players know that this kind of behavior will

no longer be tolerated. When the status quo continues,

when players are allowed to commit assaults and not

suffer consequences, it sadly makes sense that many

players will likely continue to engage in this behavior.

I do believe that a player charged with assault

should be temporarily suspended from play, but I think

this it is important for this suspension to be temporary

until such time as it is determined whether the player

actually committed the assault. At the company I work

for, a worker was charged with having taken money from

the company bank account for personal use. The worker

was fred, but it was discovered later that the worker had

not taken the money. The worker lost the job unfairly.

Of course, all of this said, I do not in any way con-

done assault, after a conviction, a player should def-

nately be removed from a team. It is important to let

these players know that that they cannot get away with

assaults, just because the players are of value to the

income of their teams. There should be a no-tolerance

policy for assault across the board––no matter how

254254

255255

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 255 9/7/17 2:08 PM

important a person seems to be to the public and no

matter how much money that person can generate for

self and for others. Still, a player should not be removed

permanently from play due to just an accusation.

About This Essay The writer opens by stating a position on each of the

key points of the prompt. The writer states disagree-

ment with the act of permanently removing players

accused of assault; the writer also states disagreement

with fans refusing to attend games if the team fails to

so remove the players. The writer states agreement,

however, that assault is serious and that football is

glorifed in our country. The ability to sort out por-

tions of the opinion expressed in the prompt is

important, and this writer has clearly demonstrated

the ability to do so.

After the introduction, the writer provides exam-

ples of players who have shown criminal behavior in

their actions, such as the player who was running a

dog-fghting ring. These examples are strong and pow-

erful; however, it isn’t until the writer has stated these

examples that the reader learns that the writer is using

these examples to support a position related to tempo-

rary suspension from play after an accusation of

assault. The writer’s ideas in the examples are powerful

and effective; however, they would be much more

effective if the writer had mentioned the position

regarding temporary suspension prior to providing

examples. As organized, this is a bit confusing, though

the reader can look back through the examples to con-

nect the ideas. A bit of change in organization here

would have helped to elevate the essay to a score of 6.

The writer concludes by strongly disavowing

any support of assault and again drawing a distinc-

tion between being accused of a crime and being con-

victed of a crime. This reinforces the position already

stated by the writer.

The essay provides a variety of sentence types

and lengths, though the effectiveness of the sentences

fails to rise to a level of consistency. Some of the sen-

tences are quite long, and a greater variety in length

would be much more effective.

There are a couple of errors in grammar,

mechanics, and usage, such as this run-on with a

spelling error: Of course, all of this said, I do not in

any way condone assault, after a conviction, a player

should defnately be removed from a team. With some

work in these areas, this essay could be brought up

to a score of 6.

Sample Score 4 Response I agree that people should refuse to go to a team’s games

if the team fails to immediately and permanently

remove a player who is accused of assault. When an

assault occurs, the situation must be treated swiftly. A

message must be sent right away that this kind of

behavior is not to be accepted by anyone. If the team

fails to do as it should. Then it is up to the fans to take

matters into their own hands.

Football has always been glorifed in our country,

and I believe that the glorifying of the sport has led to

inappropriate behavior being tolerated. There is a great

deal of money to be made based on football play, and

offcials might sometimes allow this income to cloud

their judgment. If this were not the case, then many

players would allready have been seriously dealt with

after committing assaults, and this has just not been the

case. I have read newspaper articles about players who

have committed assault and have then just been sus-

pended for a game or two.

In those situations, the offcials failed to act, but

the fans could have, and they should have. The fans

should not turn a blind eye. If the team fails to act, then

the fans must act. This will hit the offcials in the pock-

etbook, which will demand their attention.

It is sad that the pocketbook, rather than morals

and ethics, seems to be the cause of change. This does

not mean that all players’ morals, ethics, and common

sense go out the window when they step onto a football

feld, though. For some, it seems that this happens, but

it is certainly not the case for all.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 256 9/7/17 2:08 PM

In conclusion, it is important to immediately and

permanently remove a player accused of assault, and if

a team fails to do so, people should refuse to attend the

team’s games. This will result in important changes that

need to happen.

About This Essay This essay shows competence. The writer opens by

stating the clear position that people should refuse to

go to games if a team fails to immediately and perma-

nently remove a player accused of assault. The writ-

er’s message in the opening paragraph shows the

writer’s belief that fans can exert power over teams

who fail to act appropriately.

There is control in the writer’s organization and

development of ideas. After the opening, the writer

goes on to discuss agreement with the statement that

football is glorifed in our country and that this has

led to inappropriate behavior being tolerated. The

writer mentions a brief example, but clearer and more

powerful reasons would have been more effective.

The writer continues by commenting on the

fans having an obligation to act, which would “hit

the offcials in their pocketbook.” Although this

point is connected to the writer’s position, elabora-

tion on the point could have brought this essay up

to a higher level.

As the essay goes on, it references morals and

ethics, stating that some players suffer from a lack of

morals and ethics but all players do not. This is a

cogent statement, but it lacks the details and exam-

ples to give it great power.

The essay concludes by reiterating the writer’s

position, but it fails to end with any great insight or

memorable statement for the reader.

Overall, the essay shows adequate use of language

and general control of grammar, usage, and mechan-

ics, but there are a few errors in these areas. For exam-

ple, it includes a sentence fragment: If the team fails to

do as it should. It also contains a spelling error: all-

ready. This word is often misspelled, so it is one the

writer should have studied prior to taking the exam.

Sample Score 3 Response The issue of assault is a serious one. And it is important

to take a serious look at it. Anyone commiting assault

should be punished, it doesn’t matter whether the

offender is a famous football player or someone unknown.

Should a football team remove a player accused of

assault? Where there is smoke, there is fre. If a person is

accused of assault, chances are that the person did com-

mit it. And the player might be able to get out of the

charge after it is fled, so it doesn’t make sense to wait

until the charge go all the way through the courts. I

know about these legal loopholes because my friend was

assaulted, but the person who committed the assault got

out of it because of a legal loophole. That just wasn’t

fair. Why was that person allowed to go free? There

should have been strong and swift punishment. Anyone

who thinks the legal system can fnd the truth is not

thinking clearly.

Football is glorifed in our country, but that is

okay. It should be glorifed. The players work hard. The

people associated with the teams work hard. We should

reward hard work. But glorifying football doesn’t mean

that players should be allowed to assault others. We

have to get a handle on this immediately. Assault is just

not okay.

About This Essay This essay displays some competence; however, it is

clearly fawed. It is limited in stating a position. It

opens by discussing the seriousness of assault, but it

does not state a position regarding the opinion

expressed in the prompt.

The essay also shows limited control in the

organization and development of ideas. In the second

paragraph, the reader is given an idea of the writer’s

position through this statement: Where there is smoke,

there is fre. Still, the writer does not clearly explain a

position, and the example provided by the writer

regarding the writer’s friend is relevant but not clear.

In the fnal paragraph, the writer does state a

position regarding whether football is glorifed, and it

provides a reason that relates to a reward for hard

256256

257257

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 257 9/7/17 2:08 PM

work, but this reason is not insightful or powerful. As

the essay concludes, the writer makes this statement:

Assault is just not okay. The prompt does not focus on

whether assault is okay, so the writer is digressing in

the conclusion.

This essay displays an accumulation of errors in

the use of language and in mechanics, grammar, and

usage. For example, the frst paragraph contains this

run-on with a spelling error: Anyone commiting assault

should be punished, it doesn’t matter whether the

offender is a famous football player or someone

unknown. Additionally, there is an error in subject-

verb agreement in this phrase: so it doesn’t make sense

to wait until the charge go all the way through the courts.

Sample Score 2 Response Should a team remove a player who is accused of

assault? Should fans stop going to games? Who knows if

the player really did it? Why should the player lose a job

over something that mite not be true.

And I don’t know why people complain that football

is glorifed. Its been part of country for so many years. It

gives entertainment, and it makes money for lots of peo-

ple. Its ok to glorify something that does that much good.

Assault is bad. Assault is a terrible thing. No one

should put up with it, no one should have to go through

it. And anyone who assaults someone else should be

punished. But just because someone is accused of

assault. This doesn’t mean the person actually did it.

About This Essay This essay is seriously fawed. It states no clear posi-

tion, and it displays weak organization. It offers inad-

equate reasons, examples, and details for support,

and it is riddled with errors in usage, mechanics, and

grammar. The essay opens with a string of questions,

one of which is incorrectly punctuated and contains a

spelling error: Why should the player lose a job over

something that mite not be true. This is confusing for

the reader and shows a lack of organization.

In the second paragraph, the writer mentions

the glorifcation of football and makes statements

about football making money for lots of people. The

paragraph references football as something that does

that much good. This is unclear and offers a lack of

support. Additionally, this paragraph contains errors

in Its and ok.

As the essay concludes, it makes this statement:

Assault is bad. The paragraph goes on to state that no

one should put up with it and that no one should

have to go through it. This doesn’t relate to whether

players should be removed immediately and perma-

nently, as stated in the prompt. The fnal paragraph

also includes a run-on and a fragment: No one should

put up with it, no one should have to go through it. But

just because someone is accused of assault.

Sample Score 1 Response Yes. Do remove these palyers. And fans should stop going

to games. Who do those plyers think they are? They can’t

get away with this. They can’t behave this way.

I’ve seen peepul on tv who have been assaulted.

They look scared, they look terribul. No one else is sup-

posed to do this. Why can football palyers do it? The

teams should take them out of the sport right away.

Teams should keep others safe, and they shud show that

assault is not ok. Better for the future.

About This Essay This essay contains serious and persistent writing

errors. It is incoherent. The reader cannot determine

a true position. Examples, reasons, and details are

sorely lacking, and this essay has errors in usage,

grammar, spelling, and mechanics throughout its

content. The writer opens by making this statement:

Do remove these palyers. It’s not clear exactly what the

writer means here. The writer seems to be very emo-

tional, as is clear through the following questions.

Who do those plyers think they are? They can’t get away

with this. They can’t behave this way. This emotion,

however, drowns out rational statements the writer

might have made to relate to the prompt.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 258 9/7/17 2:08 PM

Sample Responses for the Source-Based Essay

Sample Score 6 Response Issues related to solar energy focus on renewability and

sustainability, availability, environmentally friendly

nature, and cost, as well as intermittent nature and

noise. In Andrea Ling’s piece, she wholeheartedly sup-

ports solar energy: “Solar energy is the wave of the

future” (Energy: Crisis, Solutions, and Counter-

points). She begins by discussing the environmentally

friendly nature of solar power, as compared to the pol-

lution caused by burning fossil fuels. Ling further dif-

ferentiates solar power from energy that comes from

fossil fuels. Fossil fuels are not renewable; however, solar

energy is a renewable resource (Ling).

Ling discusses the quiet nature of capturing and

utilizing solar energy. This process does not create the

noise that comes from the use of wind turbines (Ling).

As Ling discusses cost and availability of energy,

she explains that solar energy can be made available in

locations where other forms of energy would be too

costly to develop. She provides the example of the vast

infrastructure required to lay a grid for electricity. Inso-

far as cost, Ling points out that use of solar energy

means no bills from an electricity provider. She goes on

to mention government rebates and other economic

incentives.

While Ling does make many good points, it is

interesting to note the irony in the title of her book:

Energy: Crisis, Solutions, and Counterpoints. Ling so

avidly promotes solar energy that she fails to discuss the

complexities of use of this energy source, complexities

that necessarily indicate counterpoints to her position.

In “The Truth about Solar Energy,” Oscar Salazar

cogently raises a number of these counterpoints. Ling’s

position would have been much stronger if she had

acknowledged and addressed each of these.

Salazar elaborates on the postured inexpensive

nature of solar panels. The solar panels, also known as

“solar cells,” can cost more than $1,500 each, and one is

generally not enough. There are installation fees to con-

tend with––in addition to the costs of the cells (Sala-

zar).

Insofar as a lack of electricity bills is concerned,

Salazar points out that solar cells alone generally do not

supply suffcient energy, so electricity bills, even though

somewhat decreased, will remain in play. Salazar’s

credibility is bolstered by his acknowledgment that the

electricity bills will likely be decreased due to the use of

solar energy.

Salazar discusses the intermittent nature of solar

energy, a fact overlooked by Ling, and Salazar also

points out that obtaining solar energy does not occur

without a pollution cost. Greenhouse gases might be

emitted during production of solar cells, and pollution

arises as cells are transported (Salazar).

Ling’s position and Salazar’s are at odds with one

another; however, both raise interesting points. Sala-

zar’s are presented through a more balanced approach

and so are more credible. Still, both authors make excel-

lent points about the use of solar energy, and when ana-

lyzed together, these authors’ pieces provide foundations

from which readers can draw reasonable and valuable

conclusions.

About This Essay This essay demonstrates a high degree of competence.

The writer opens by clearly elucidating the issues and

their importance. The writer provides well-chosen

reasons and examples and also offers powerful

insight, which raises this essay to a score of 6. After

discussing the position of Andrea Ling regarding

solar energy, the writer points out the irony in the

title of Ling’s book, which includes the word Counter-

points. The writer is quick to note that Ling fails to

provide and address counterpoints to her position,

and the writer explains that doing so would have

made Ling’s position stronger.

The writer’s insight continues as the writer

points out Salazar’s mention of a decrease––while not

a total lack––of electricity costs with use of solar pan-

els. The writer notes the bolstered credibility that

Salazar garners through this balanced approach.

258258

259259

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 259 9/7/17 2:08 PM

The writer organizes and develops ideas logi-

cally, beginning with a statement of the issue, con-

tinuing with specifcs of Ling’s position, and then

addressing specifcs of Salazar’s position. Throughout

these paragraphs, the writer weaves comments

regarding the credibility of each of the authors. The

writer concludes by acknowledging that both authors

make valid points, while one author appears more

credible than the other.

Throughout the essay, the writer offers great

variety in sentence structure and length. The writer’s

development, organization, support, incorporation

of links between the two sources, as well as proper

citation when paraphrasing and quoting––in addi-

tion to the absence of errors in mechanics, usage, or

grammar––easily warrant a score of 6.

Sample Score 5 Response Primary issues related to solar energy focus on the avail-

ability and sustainability of this resource, as well as the

expense, noise, and pollution linked to use of energy

sources. As Andrea Ling points out, solar energy is

renewable and does not result in the pollution caused by

fossil fuels (Energy: Crisis, Solutions, and Counter-

points). Oscar Salazar is quick to point out, however,

that solar energy has its own pollution costs, including

possible greenhouse gases emitted during production

and pollution that occurs through transportation of

solar energy equipment (“The Truth about Solar

Energy”).

Ling discusses the distinction between quiet solar

energy and the noisy alternative methods of energy pro-

duction, such as wind turbines. This point is not

addressed in Salazar’s piece.

Ling discusses availability and cost of solar energy,

explaining that solar energy can be provided in loca-

tions where traditional energy sources, such as electric-

ity, are not available. This ties into her discussion of

cost, as it would be too costly to provide the infrastruc-

ture for an electric grid in many locations. This point is

not discussed in Salazar’s piece.

In locations where electricity is available, solar

energy can result in savings from living off of the grid,

meaning “away from energy sources” (Ling). Salazar is

quick to point out, though, that solar energy generally

does not meet all the energy needs of a consumer, so

having solar energy does not necessarily mean eliminat-

ing costs of electricity.

Ling points out that “rebates and other economic

incentives area often available from state and local gov-

ernments when consumers choose to use solar energy.”

Salazar makes his own point in this regard, he explains

that local and federal offcials often offer incentives for a

variety of types of energy. Salazar also discusses a major

negative aspect of solar energy, an aspect that Ling does

not mention. Salazar points out the intermittent nature

of solar energy, explaining that solar energy is generated

only while the sun shines.

In conclusion. Ling and Salazar have very differ-

ent viewpoints regarding solar energy. Aspects of both

should be carefully considered by anyone studying

energy sources or considering alternative energy sources.

About This Essay Although this essay shows clear competence, it

includes minor errors. The essay begins by explaining

important issues. It incorporates information from

both sources to identify and explain important con-

cerns regarding solar energy. The ideas are organized

and developed clearly. The writer presents informa-

tion in a position-rebuttal format, frst explaining

Ling’s position regarding a specifc point and then

immediately addressing Salazar’s statements that

rebut or clarify the point. This organizational struc-

ture is quite effective and allows the reader to clearly

see how the two pieces relate to one another. The

writer also addresses points that are covered in only

one of the two pieces.

The writer does a very strong job of supporting

points with examples and details from each of the

pieces, for example: In locations where electricity is

available, solar energy can result in savings from living

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 260 9/7/17 2:08 PM

off of the grid, meaning “away from energy sources”

(Ling). Salazar is quick to point out, though, that solar

energy generally does not meet all the energy needs of a

consumer, so having solar energy does not necessarily

mean eliminating costs of electricity.

Though it is true that the writer does a good job

of linking the pieces and distinguishing between the

two authors’ positions in regard to specifc points, the

writer does not provide powerful insight and analysis

regarding the positions of the authors. Had the writer

done so, this piece would likely have been elevated to

a score of 6.

Some sentence variety is demonstrated by the

writer; however, the essay would have been stronger

with greater variety. Both sources are cited by the

writer when the writer paraphrases and quotes, and

the essay is generally free from errors in grammar,

usage, and mechanics, although the essay includes a

fragment (In conclusion.) and a run-on (Salazar

makes his own point in this regard, he explains that

local and federal offcials often offer incentives for a

variety of types of energy.).

Sample Score 4 Response There are many kinds of energy sources. Many people

use electricity as an energy source for they’re homes and

businesses. Solar energy is an alternative type of energy

that is being used. It is important to fne alternative

energy sources, as fossil fuels are being burned and are

not renewble. Once they are depleted, they are gone for-

ever (Energy Crisis, Solutions, and Counterpoints).

“Solar energy is the wave of the future.” This is

what authur Andrea Ling believes. She believes that

people should be using solar energy. She explains that

solar power does not cause pollution. She also explains

that solar energy is renewable.

Wind turbines is noisy, but solar power is quiet

(Ling). This is a big advantage of solar power.

Solar power does not cost as much as electricity,

and it can be easyer to get solar power than electricity in

areas that are out in the middle of nowhere (Ling). It is

also much less expensive to have solar power than elec-

tricity. This is what Ling says. Ling also says that the

government might give money to people who decide to

use solar power.

Oscar Salazar has different ideas (“The Truth

about Solar Energy”). He says that there is pollution

from solar power. He says that there is pollution when

solar cells are made, he says that solar cells have to be

driven to places, and there is pollution during the trans-

portation.

Salazar also writes about the cost of solar power.

He mentions the high cost of the solar cells. He men-

tions the hi cost of installation. He also mentioned that

the government might give money to people for using

many types of power.

Salazar writes about some things that Ling does

not mention. He writes about the intermittent nature of

solar energy. He says that solar energy is produced only

when the sun is shinning, so it is not being produced all

the time.

Ling says that solar energy is the wave of the

future, but Salazar says it is important to have a bal-

anced viewpoint.

About This Essay This essay adequately explains why the concerns are

important, mentioning the issues of renewable

resources, cost, noise, and intermittent availability of

solar power. Even though adequate reasons are pro-

vided, these reasons are not powerful, and while some

links between the sources are offered, these links are

more regurgitation of statements in each article than

cogent reasons that support specifc positions.

The writer does show control in the organiza-

tion and development of ideas, beginning by men-

tioning issues, continuing by mentioning some of

Ling’s points, and then mentioning some of Salazar’s

points. Overall, the writer does not include the depth

of reasons, details, and examples that would be pres-

ent in an essay warranting a higher score.

260260

261261

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 261 9/7/17 2:08 PM

The essay displays adequate use of language and

shows some control of grammar, usage, and mechan-

ics, though there are a number errors. For example,

the third paragraph contains an error in subject-verb

agreement: Wind turbines is noisy, but solar power is

quiet. The ffth paragraph contains a run-on: He says

that there is pollution from solar power. He says that

there is pollution when solar cells are made, he says that

solar cells have to be driven to places, and there is pollu-

tion during the transportation. The sixth paragraph

contains a tense shift: He mentions the high cost of the

solar cells. He mentions the hi cost of installation. He

also mentioned that the government might give money

to people for using many types of power. There are

many spelling errors throughout the essay.

Sample Score 3 Response No, solar energy is not the answer to problems with

energy, it costs a lot. It has to be put in. The govurment

could offer money for this kind of energy. The govument

couldd offer money for many other kinds of energy too.

(“The Truth about Solar Eenrgy”) But if you use solar

energy. You could be using less electricity. (Salazar)

Solar energy is intermit. Sometimes you have it,

sometimes you dont. This is a problem. You mite need

it. But you mite not have it when you do. Even if you

have solar energy, if there is pollution, your solar energy

might not work as well. (Salazar)

Speaking of pollution, some people say there is no

pollution form solar energy. This is not true. There can

be pollution when solar cells are made. There is pollu-

tion when solar panels are driven to places. (Salazar)

About This Essay This essay demonstrates some competence, but it is

obviously fawed. The essay is limited in explaining

why the concerns are important. While the essay

mentions solar energy, it does not discuss clear rea-

sons for the importance of considerations regarding

solar energy. Only one source, the Salazar source, is

mentioned, and the reasons included in the essay are

inadequate.

Still, the writer does explain that solar energy is

expensive to install and that use of solar energy could

mean use of less electricity. The writer also manages

to explain, albeit weakly, the intermittent nature of

solar energy, and the writer does make the point that

solar energy might not be as effective when utilized

during a time of pollution. The writer does also

weakly make the point that pollution can be caused

when solar cells are produced and transported. Thus,

there is a small amount of merit gained for the points

made, but there is only a small amount of merit, due

to the weak manner in which the essay is written.

The writer demonstrates limited control in the

organization and development of ideas, offering

vague references to issues related to solar energy but

clarifying none of them. The essay contains an accu-

mulation of errors in the use of language and in

grammar, usage, and mechanics. For example, the

writer confuses the words might and mite. The writer

omits the apostrophe in the word don’t, and the

writer begins the essay with a run-on.

Sample Score 2 Response We need solar energy, it is a wave. It is for the future. It

is important. It is clean. You don’t have to burn things

to get it. It doesnt pollute. Fosil fuels end, solar energy

does not. Best idea ever.

Wind turbines are noisy. Solar energy is not. Solar

energy is not expensive. Very cheap. People near wind

turbines here the noise. Thermal energy comes from the

sun, you can have solar energy in many places.

It is positive to have solar energy. You can save off

of a grid. The goverment can give you money if you do.

It is a good idee to use solar energy. It is sumthing ever-

won should do. “It should derinately be the top con-

tender for satisfing energy needs.”

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 262 9/7/17 2:08 PM

About This Essay This essay is seriously fawed. It fails to clearly explain

why specifc issues related to solar energy are impor-

tant. Instead, it appears to interject intended, but

confused, restatements of content in the Ling piece,

statements that often do not belong together and do

not make sense in the order in which they are stated.

Only one source, the Ling source, is utilized, and it is

utilized quite weakly; there are no citations, and when

a quote (the fnal sentence in the essay) is pulled from

a source, it contains misspelled words. The organiza-

tion is weak, and there is very little development.

The essay contains frequent serious errors in the

use of language and in grammar, usage, and mechan-

ics. There are many run-ons, fragments, and spelling

errors.

Sample Score 1 Response Power. Something we all need. Can come from sunlight.

Can be expensive. But does not pollute, does not need

electricity.

Sunny days gives more energie. Wind gives energy

to. Neither one comes from fossils. Have to make “solar

cells.” Have to drive to get “solar cells” where their going.

Solar cells sometimes works, sometimes doesn’t.

About This Essay This essay demonstrates fundamental defciencies in

writing skills. Although it vaguely references aspects

of the topic, such as power, sunlight, wind power,

and fossils, the essay is underdeveloped and almost

incoherent. It is flled with serious and persistent

writing errors, such as run-ons, spelling errors, lack

of subject-verb agreement, and fragments.

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Mathematics Practice Test 3

Time: 85 Minutes

Directions: Choose the best answer to each of the

following questions.

1. Using the following diagram, fnd the length in inches of the arc subtended by the angle 240°.

2. Which number is a multiple of 126? a. 14

b. 63

c. 200

d. 326

e. 630

262262

263263

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 263 9/7/17 2:08 PM

3. Cynthia works 35 hours a week selling tennis equipment. She earns a base salary of $10 per

hour and a 10% commission on her weekly

sales. Cynthia wants to earn $700 before taxes

each week. What is the total dollar value of

sales she needs to have in order to reach that

goal?

a. $3,500

b. $7,000

c. $10,500

d. $14,000

e. $35,000

4. Ecologists are trying to determine what per- centage of the fsh population in a certain bay

is infected with a new virus. They decide to rely

on sampling to make their conclusion. Which

of the following approaches is/are valid?

I. Choose two fsh at random from the bay

and assess if they have the virus. Based

on this information, conclude one of

three things: The entire bay is infected,

half the fsh are infected, or none is

infected.

II. Choose a fsh at random from the bay

and determine if it has the virus. Throw

it back into the water, and repeat the

procedure 49 times. Use the percentage

of the fsh identifed as having the virus

as an estimate of the percentage of fsh

that have the virus in the bay overall.

III. Send out 20 boats to different parts of

the bay. At the same time, each boat

selects 30 fsh, determines the number

of fsh that are infected, and releases the

fsh back into the bay. Then tally how

many of the 600 fsh are infected,

compute the percentage, and use this as

an estimate of the percentage of the fsh

population in the bay overall that is

infected.

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. II and III only

e. I, II, and III

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 264 9/7/17 2:08 PM

5. A ladder is leaning against the side of a house. The top of the ladder rests on the house at a

point 7 feet above the ground, and the bottom

of the ladder forms an angle of 45° with the

ground, as shown:

What is the approximate length, l, of the

ladder?

a. 4 feet

b. 7 feet

c. 9.9 feet

d. 12.1 feet

e. 14 feet

6. Find the value of x in this equation: __ x –4 = –5 + x __20 a. – 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 15

e. no solution

7. Choose the answer that is equivalent to √600. a. 10√6 b. 6√10 c. 60

d. 10√60 e. 60√10

8. Your new house sits on a plot of land that is about one acre in size. There is a fence around

the perimeter of the property, and you’re curi-

ous how long the fence is. Which of the follow-

ing would be the best unit of measurement to

use when estimating the length of the fence?

a. millimeters

b. inches

c. feet

d. miles

e. kilometers

9. Consider the function f(x) = 12. What is the value of f(p2) in inches?

10. This dot plot shows the number of Dean’s Scholarship awardees in the senior class at a

university from 2008 through 2014. Each

dot represents 10 awardees.

Select all of the correct statements for the

seven-year period shown.

a. The number of Dean’s Scholarship awardees

decreased steadily.

b. 260 Dean’s Scholarships were awarded.

c. The dot plot is not symmetrical.

d. The mode number of scholarships awarded

annually is 20.

e. The mean number of scholarships awarded

annually is 37.

264264

265265

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 265 9/7/17 2:08 PM

11. One brand of orange juice is sold in different sizes at a supermarket. Which size is the best

deal based on the per-ounce price of juice?

a. 24-ounce bottle for $1.72

b. 18-ounce bottle for $1.35

c. 6-ounce carton for $0.47

d. 32-ounce jug for $2.91

e. 8-ounce carton for $1.00

12. A closet shelf holds a collection of T-shirts: 7 purple, 4 blue, and 9 black. What is the prob-

ability of randomly selecting a T-shirt that is

NOT purple from the shelf? __4 a. 20 __7b. 20 __9 c. 20 __13d. 20

e. 1

13. When building a model of the Titan 34D rocket, a model maker uses a scale of 0.6 inch

for every 7.9 feet of the full-size device. If

the length of a full-size Titan 34D rocket is

90.4 feet, what is the length of the model?

Round your answer to the nearest hundredth

of an inch.

14. Which of these scatterplots show(s) a positive trend? Choose all of the correct graphs.

a. Y

Yb.

c. Y

Yd.

e. Y

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 266 9/7/17 2:08 PM

15. Which of the following is NOT equal to a whole number?

__2 __28 a. 5 – 3 6

b. 1.1 × 0.1 __7 __3 c. 1 ÷8 8

d. 16 × 0.5 __3 e. 200% of 2

__3 __1 416. Let s(x) = – 2x2 + 4 and r(x) = 5x2 – 10x .2 3 x Which of the following is equivalent to

__16s(x) – 5 r(x)?

a. –11x2 + 9 __31b. 3 x

4 – 3x2 + 9

c. 4x4 – 13x2 + 9

d. 4x4 – 13x2

e. –4x4 + 13x2 – 9

17. What is the solution of this system of equations?

−–x + 3y = –4

–x + y = 6

a. x = 6, y = 12

b. x = 1, y = 2

c. x = 1, y = –1

d. x = –11, y = –5

e. no solution

⎧ ⎨ ⎩

18. What is the area of the shaded region of circle Q?

a. __p 2 square inches

b. 3 square inches

c. p square inches d. 3p square inches e. 4p square inches

19. Suppose that a random variable x has the fol- lowing probability distribution:

x –2 –1 0 1 2

P(X = x) 1__ 8

1__ 8

1__ 2

What is the expected value of X?

a. –2

b. 0 __3 c. 4

d. 1

e. 2

266266

267267

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 267 9/7/17 2:08 PM

__320. Henry spends of his free time each week8 __4 reading. Of this amount of time, he spends 9

of it reading comic books. What fraction of his

weekly free time does Henry spend NOT read-

ing comic books?

21. Consider the intersecting graphs shown. To which of the following equations are the

x-coordinates of the points of intersection

the solutions?

(3,6)

y = 1 – x2

2a. 1 – x = x

b. x2 – 2x = 0

c. x2 + x = 0

d. x2 + 2x – 1 = 0

e. 1 – x2 = 0

22. If x = √3200, which of the following inequalities is true?

a. 2 < x < 4

b. 3 < x < 5

c. 6 < x < 6.5

d. 4.5 < x < 5.5

e. 5 < x < 6

23. What type of transformation was used to map quadrilateral WXYZ onto the image W'X'Y'Z'?

Y W'

X'Z

W Y'

X Z'

a. rotation

b. refection

c. translation

d. translation followed by refection

e. translation followed by rotation

24. Which of these is equivalent to –3x(x2 – 3x – 2)? a. –3x2 – 3x – 2

b. x2 – 6x – 2

c. 3x3 – 9x2 – 6x

d. –3x3 + 9x2 + 6x

e. –3x2 + 9x + 6

25. Let y = f(x) be a given function and suppose the point P(2,–3) lies on its graph. Consider the

translation of this function given by

g(x) = f(x + 4) – 1. What point would point P

correspond to on the graph of g(x)?

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 268 9/7/17 2:08 PM

26. Consider the set whose members are these geo- metric fgures:

R S T

U V

If a fgure is selected at random, what is the

probability of selecting a parallelogram?

a. 0 __1b. 5 __2 c. 5 __3d. 5

e. 1

27. A bike ramp is a right triangular prism with the dimensions shown:

6 ft. 20 ft.

8 ft.

What is its total surface area?

a. 368 ft.2

b. 408 ft.2

c. 480 ft.2

d. 504 ft.2

e. 528 ft.2

28. Which of the following statements is/are true? Select all of the correct statements.

a. An irrational number cannot be negative.

b. The difference of two rational numbers can

be an irrational number.

c. The product of a rational number and an

irrational number can be a rational number.

d. The sum of an irrational number and a

rational number must be an irrational

number.

e. The product of two irrational numbers must

be an irrational number.

29. Suppose you spend $903 on a onetime cost for materials necessary to start a snow removal

business. For each driveway you clear of snow,

you earn $40, but it costs $5.25 in gas for each

job. Determine the number of driveways you

must clear order to break even.

a. 20

b. 25

c. 26

d. 52

e. 23

30. The length of a single lap at a university’s pool is 200 feet. How many laps would you need to

swim to swim a distance of 2.2 miles? Round

your answer to the nearest lap. Note that 1 mile

equals 5,280 feet.

268268

269269

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 269 9/7/17 2:08 PM

31. Which of the following is an equation for this quadratic function?

a. f(x) = –3(x – 2)2 + 3

b. f(x) = 3(x + 2)2 + 3

c. f(x) = –3(x + 2)2 – 3

d. f(x) = –3(x + 2)2 + 3

e. f(x) = –3(x + 3)2 + 2

32. Zelda, an event planner, is using a new catering hall for the frst time. The catering hall is

45,000 square feet in area. For guests to be

comfortable, her rule of thumb is to not exceed

a population density of 0.03 people per square

foot. What is the maximum number of people

she thinks should occupy the new space?

a. 135

b. 450

c. 1,350

d. 4,500

e. 45,000

33. What is the most reasonable correlation coeff- cient for the data set depicted by this

scatterplot?

a. –0.91

b. –0.59

c. 0.10

d. 0.60

e. 0.95

34. In 2014, the yearly average birth rate in China is 12.17 births for every 1,000 people. The pop-

ulation of China is 1.357 billion. Determine

how many births are expected in one year.

35. Consider the function f(x) = |x – h| + k, where h and k represent real numbers. Select all of the

following pairs of (h,k) for which the graph of

f(x) is obtained by translating the graph of

g(x) = |x| left by at least 3 units and up by at

least 5 units.

a. h = 4, k = 5

b. h = –4, k = 5

c. h = –4, k = 7

d. h = –4, k = –8

e. h = –6, k = –6

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 270 9/7/17 2:08 PM

36. A rectangle is divided into six congruent squares, as shown:

If the area of one of the squares is 9 square

units, what is the perimeter of the rectangle?

a. 15 units

b. 24 units

c. 30 units

d. 36 units

e. 72 units

37. Which of these is equivalent to √(38 + 11)(60 – 11)? a. 7

b. 14

c. 49

d. 343

e. 2,401

38. Which of the following collections of data has/ have a mean of 44 and a variance of 0?

I. 44, 44, 44, 44, 44, 44

II. 44, 44, 0, 44, 44

III. –44, –44, –44, 176, 176

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I and II

e. I, II, and III

270270

271271

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 271 9/7/17 2:08 PM

39. Consider the data set {–4, –5, –4, –4, –2, –2, 5, d. 5, 5, 5, 6, 9}. Which of the following distribu-

tions best indicates the general shape of this

data set?

40. Which of the following lines could have an equation of the form ax + 3y = 0, where a > 0?

Select all of the correct responses.

a. line A

b. line B

c. line C

d. line D

e. line E

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 272 9/7/17 2:08 PM

______

______ ______

____

______

_______

3 a 4__ ____ __ 241. If ÷ = 3 , then a = ________.4 a + 1 __49 a. 81 __7b. 9 __9 c. 7 __81d. 49 __18 e. 7

42. Consider the set of whole numbers {8, 16, 24, 32}. Select all of the true statements.

a. They are all prime numbers.

b. All of the numbers are divisible by 4.

c. None of the numbers is odd.

d. All of the numbers are multiples of 8.

e. All of the numbers are factors of 8.

43. Consider the triangle DABC with vertices A(–11,3), B(–11,14), and C(–21,5). If DABC is refected over the line x = 2, what are the coor-

dinates of the image of vertex B?

a. (–11,–10)

b. (15,14)

c. (14,–11)

d. (15,27)

e. (–14,11)

44. Which of the following is/are equivalent to __2 – 4x x

? Select all of the correct expressions. __1 x

a. 2 – 4x 1b. 22 – 4x

c. 4x2 – 2 22 – 4x

x d.

__1 x

2e. 2 – 4x

45. What is the solution to the following equation? 5 ln(t + 4) = 5

a. – 4

b. e – 4

c. 1 __ ed. 4

e. 4e

46. The height of the right circular cone shown is twice the diameter of the base. If the diameter

of the base of the cone is 20 inches, what is its

volume?

a. 4,000p in.3

b. 4003 p in.3

4,000pc. 3 in. 3

16,000pd. 3 in. 3

e. 40p in.3

272272

273273

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 273 9/7/17 2:08 PM

_____

47. At the turnpike tollbooth, the cashier-in-train- ing, Meredith, handles fewer than one-third of

the customers handled by two of the more

experienced cashiers, Chris and Dana, com-

bined. Assume that M represents the number

of customers Meredith handles in a typical day,

C represents the number Chris can handle in a

typical day, and D represents the number Dana

can handle in a typical day. Which of the fol-

lowing expressions correctly describes the rela-

tionship among M, C, and D? __1 a. D + C > 3 M

b. C + D + M > 3

c. M > 3(C + D) __1d. M < 3 DC

e. C + D > 3M

48. Segments JK and LK are radii of the circle. Each has a length of 8 cm. If the length of the

arc extending from J to L is 2p feet, what is the value of x?

J Kx°

a. 22.5°

b. 45°

c. 60°

d. 90°

e. 180°

49. The following shows the weight distribution in the average adult. The total average body

weight is 75,000 grams.

ELEMENTS OF WEIGHT THE BODY (IN GRAMS)

muscle mass 25,000 water 19,400 skeleton 12,000 blood 6,000 gastrointestinal tract 2,200 liver 1,800 brain 1,400 lungs 1,100

If the weight of a specifc adult male’s muscle

mass is represented as m grams, which of the

following expressions represents his total body

weight B?

a. B = 75,000m

b. B = 3m __1 c. B = 3 m

d. B = 30m

e. B = 75,000m – 25,000

50. Assume that a and b are positive integers. Which of the following statements is/are

always true? __1I. is less than b.b _____ a + b 2aII. equals when a equals b.2b b + a __ a __ bIII. b is greater than a .

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and III only

d. II and III only

e. I and II only

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 274 9/7/17 2:08 PM

51. What is the solution of this equation? –2(3x – 2) = 4[8 – (2x – 1)]

a. –8.5

b. 17

c. 32

d. 34

e. 68

52. Consider the following data set, where x is a positive integer:

{x + 2, x + 4, x – 4, x – 3, x + 6}

Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. The mode is x – 4.

II. The median is x + 2.

III. The mean is x + 1.

a. II only

b. III only

c. I and II only

d. II and III only

e. I, II, and III

53. A video game studio is considering two differ- ent promotions for its upcoming new release,

as follows:

Promotion X: The frst 10,000 copies sold

will include a code to download

additional content worth $49.99. It is

estimated that 40% of those receiving this

offer will take advantage of it.

Promotion Y: The frst 25,000 copies sold

will include a code to download

additional content worth $29.99. It is

estimated that 30% of those receiving this

offer will take advantage of it.

Overall, the company expects to sell a total of

500,000 copies of this game for $69.99 each.

Select all of the true statements.

a. The cost of promotion X would be about

$0.40 per game sold.

b. The cost of promotion Y would be about

$0.45 per game sold.

c. The total cost of promotion Y would be

$749,750.

d. Promotion Y is more proftable than

promotion X.

e. Promotion X is more proftable than

promotion Y.

54. The low temperature in Tucson on Tuesday was 11°F warmer than on Monday. Wednes-

day’s low temperature was 5°F cooler than

Tuesday’s low temperature. Thursday’s was 9°F

warmer than Wednesday’s low temperature.

The average low temperature for these four

days was 87°F. What was the low temperature

on Tuesday?

a. 94°F

b. 90°F

c. 85°F

d. 79°F

e. 70°F

274274

275275

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 275 9/7/17 2:08 PM

___

55. A certain whole number w can be divided by 7 and 8 without a remainder. Which number is

NOT a factor of w?

a. 4

b. 12

c. 14

d. 28

e. 56

56. Circles C1 and C2 both have a diameter of 6√2. What is the sum of the solid lines in the diagram?

a. 12√2 b. 24

c. 24√2 d. 36√2 e. 144

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Mathematics Practice Test 3 Answers and Explanations

1. 12p inches. First, convert 240° to radians by ____p 4pmultiplying it by 180° . This yields radians.3

Then apply the arc length formula (S = rq), where q is measured in radians and r is the

4pradius) to fnd the answer: · 9 = 12p inches.3 2. e. A multiple of 126 is equal to the product of

126 and any whole number. (In other words:

126n.) We can multiply 126 by 5 to get 630,

which means 630 is a multiple of 126.

Choices a and b are incorrect because 14 and

63 are factors of 126 (meaning a number

that divides 126 evenly), not multiples of

126. Choices c and d are incorrect because a

multiple of 126 is equal to the product of

126 and any whole number. In other words:

126n. We know that 126 × 1 = 126 and 126 × 2 = 252. In order to create 200, n would have

to be a number greater than 1 but smaller

than 2—which means it would not be a

whole number. Using the same logic, there is

no whole number that we could multiply

126 by to arrive at 326.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 276 9/7/17 2:08 PM

3. a. To fnd the answer, let x represent the total of Cynthia’s weekly sales, and rephrase her

10% commission as a rate of 0.10. Fill in the

other facts supplied by the question, and

then solve for x:

(35 × 10) + 0.10x = 700 350 + 0.10x = 700

0.10x = 350

x = 350 ÷ 0.10 = 3,500

In order for Cynthia to earn $700 per week

before taxes, her weekly sales must total

$3,500. Excluding Cynthia’s weekly base sal-

ary in your calculations, you arrived at the

equation 700 = 0.10x (choice b). When solv-

ing the equation, subtract 350 from both

sides to fnd x; adding 350 results in choice c,

which is incorrect. Choice d is likely the

result of an arithmetic error; $14,000 is four

times the amount she needs. Choice e is also

incorrect due to an arithmetic error when

working with the rate. A 10% commission

translates to a rate of 0.10.

4. c. This procedure uses a reasonable number of different fsh from different parts of the bay

to make a reasonable assessment of the

entire population of fsh in the bay. I is not

valid since only two fsh are used. This

would not be representative of the popula-

tion of fsh in the bay. II is not valid because

it is possible that the same fsh are sampled

multiple times. This would not be represen-

tative of the population of fsh in the bay.

5. c. The triangle formed by the ladder, the wall, and the ground is a 45-45-90 triangle. The

ladder is the hypotenuse of the triangle. For

every 45-45-90 triangle, the length of the

hypotenuse is √2 times the length of a side. Here, the side length is 7 feet, so the hypote-

nuse is 7√2 ≈ 9.9 feet. Four feet (choice a) is way too short and likely the result of an

arithmetic error. As a result of the triangle

being 45-45-90, you can infer that the length

of ground is the same length as the wall:

7 feet. But the hypotenuse—the ladder in

this example—would be longer than each of

these sides. In other words, choice b would

be longer than 7 feet. Choice d is incorrect

because in order to fnd the length of the

hypotenuse, multiply one of the legs by √2, not by √3. Choice e is incorrect for a similar reason; to fnd the length of the hypotenuse,

multiply one of the legs by √2, not by 2. 6. b. Begin by multiplying both sides by –4 to

clear the fraction. Then gather the x terms

on one side and the constants on the other,

and simplify: ___ x = –5 + x–4

x = –4(–5 + x)

x = 20 – 4x

5x = 20

x = 4

Choices a and c are incorrect due to arith-

metic errors. To solve for x, divide both sides

by the coeffcient of x. You shouldn’t sub-

tract the coeffcient, as was done in choice d.

276276

277277

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 277 9/7/17 2:08 PM

__________________________ ___

______

_____

___

7. a. Observe that √600 = √10 × 10 × 6 = 10 √6. Choice b is incorrect because 6 and 10

should be switched. 602 does not equal 600,

so √600 cannot equal 60 (choice c). In choice d, observe that 10√60 = √10 × 10 × 60 = √6,000, not √600. Choice e is incorrect for a similar reason. Observe that 60√10 = √60 × 60 × 10 = √36,000, not √600.

8. c. Of the fve choices, millimeters is the small- est unit of measurement. There are more

than 300 mm in 1 foot, so using millimeters

to measure a fence of this size would give an

extremely large fgure that is too detailed for

a general estimate. The next-smallest unit is

inches, which would be an improvement

over millimeters, since there are 12 inches to

1 foot, but of the options here, it is not the

best unit of measurement. Miles and kilo-

meters are not the best units to use for the

opposite reason—they are too large to be

useful to measure a fence that wraps around

an acre of land. They’d produce a number

that is too small. So, of the fve choices, feet

is the best option.

9. 12 inches. Constant functions such as f(x) assign the same output for every input. Here,

the value that the function f(x) assigns to all real

numbers x is 12.

10. b and c. Each dot represents 10 awardees and there are 26 dots, so 260 scholarships were

awarded during the years shown (choice b). The

year 2011 is in the middle of the dot plot. The

dots on either side of that year would have to be

the same in order for the dot plot to be sym-

metrical (choice c). But they’re not. Choice a is

incorrect because the number decreased during

the frst four years but then increased for three

years. The number of scholarships in choice d is

the least number of scholarships awarded annu-

ally. The average number of scholarships

awarded annually for this period is 50 + 50 + 40 + 20 + 30 + 30 + 40 260

7 = 7 , which is

approximately 37 (choice e).

11. a. You can use a proportion to fnd the price per ounce. For choice a, that would mean:

________24 ounces 1 ounce = $1.72 x $1.72 x = ≈ $0.071 per ounce24

As you can see, the only arithmetic done

here is dividing the price by the number of

ounces. Since this is a simple procedure, you

can skip setting up proportions for the rest

of the choices and simply do the same divi-

sion for each answer as a shortcut. Doing so

yields $0.075 per ounce for choice b, $0.078

per ounce for choice c, $0.091 per ounce for

choice d, and $0.125 per ounce for choice e.

Since the cost per ounce is the smallest for

choice a, that is the best buy.

12. d. There are 20 T-shirts on the shelf, and 13 of them are not purple. Because the shirt is

selected at random, all T-shirts are equally

likely to be chosen. So the probability that

the shirt will not be purple is 13 20 .

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 278 9/7/17 2:08 PM

_______

______

13. 6.87 inches. This question requires a propor- tion to answer it. If x represents the length of

the model, then: _______0.6 inch x inches = 7.9 feet 90.4 feet

Cross multiplying yields 7.9x = 54.24, which

means that x ≈ 6.87 inches. 14. b and c. The points rise from left to right, which

shows a positive trend. Even though they do so

along a curve, the points in choice c rise from

left to right, which shows a positive trend. The

points in choice a fall from left to right, which

suggests a negative trend. The points in choice d

take the shape, more or less, of a horizontal line.

This does not show a positive—or negative—

trend. Choice e does not show any trend at all.

15. b. 1.1 × 0.1 = 0.11, which is not a whole num- ber. Choice a is an incorrect selection

because this difference yields a whole

number: __2 __28 __17 __285 – = – 3 6 3 6

__34 __28 = – 6 6 34 – 28 = 6

= 1

The quotient in choice c also yields a whole

number: 7 3 15 3 15__ __ __ __ __ × __81 ÷ = ÷ = = 58 8 8 8 8 3

Choice d is an incorrect selection because

10 × 0.5 = 8, which is a whole number. The __ 3 phrase 200% of 2 (choice e) is equivalent to

2.00 × 32 , which equals 3, a whole number.

16. c. To compute 6s(x) – __5 1 r(x), frst distribute 6

through each term of s(x) and distribute the __1 – 5 through each term of r(x), and then add

like terms: __1 __3 __1 __16s(x) – 5 r(x) = 6( – 2x

2 + 3 x 4) – 5 (5x

2 – 10x4)2 = (9 – 12x2 + 2x4) – (x2 – 2x4)

= 9 – 12x2 + 2x4 – x2 + 2x4

= 4x4 – 13x2 + 9

Choice a is incorrect because you used a __1 __1 coeffcient of 5 instead of – 5 for r(x), so

you added the polynomials instead of sub-

tracting them. In choice b you multiplied the

frst terms for r(x) and s(x) only by their

respective coeffcients. You must distribute

the coeffcient through all terms of these

polynomial expressions. Choice d is incor-

rect because you applied the –1 only to the

frst term of r(x) in the sense that you incor- 4rectly computed –__

1 5 (5x

2 – 10x4) as –x2 – 2x .

You must distribute it to all terms. In choice

e you subtracted the polynomials in the

wrong order; this should be multiplied

by –1.

17. d. The method of substitution can be eff- ciently applied here by solving the second

equation for y. Doing so yields y = 6 + x.

Then substitute this expression for y into

the frst equation, and solve for x:

–x + 3(6 + x) = –4

2x + 18 = –4

2x = –22

x = –11

Substitute this value into the expression that

is solved for y: y = 6 – 11 = –5. So, the solu-

tion is x = –11, y = –5. Choice a satisfes the

second equation but not the frst, choice b

satisfes neither equation of the system, and

choice c satisfes the frst equation but not

the second.

278278

279279

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 279 9/7/17 2:08 PM

__ __

18. d. The area of the entire circle is p · 22 = 4p square inches. Angle PQR is a right angle, so

the unshaded portion represents 4 1 of the

entire circle. This means that the shaded __3 portion represents 4 of the circle. So, the

__3 area of the shaded portion is · 4p = 4 3p square inches. Choice a indicates that you forgot to square the radius when computing

the area of the circle. You forgot to multiply

by p in choice b. Remember, the area of a 2circle of radius r is pr . Choice c is the area

of the unshaded portion, and choice e is the

area of the entire circle.

19. c. To compute the expected value of such a random variable, multiply x times P(X = x)

and add all of them. Doing so yields: __1 __1 __1 __1 __1 __3(–2)( 8 ) + (–1)( 8 ) + 0( 8 ) + 1( 8 ) + 2( 2 ) = 4

Choice a shows the minimum value of the

data set, not the expected value. In choice b

you added the x-values but did not multiply

each one by P(X = x). Meanwhile in choice

d, you added the probabilities, which must

add to 1, but you must multiply each one by

its respective value of x. Even though the

value of x in choice e has the highest proba-

bility associated with it, the expected value is

not this value. Rather, you must multiply

each value of X by its probability of occur-

ring and add those values to fnd the

expected value. __ __420. 27 of his reading time with40. Henry spends 9

__5 comic books, so he must spend 9 of that time

reading material other than comic books. To

determine the fraction of his weekly free time

spent reading material other than comic books,

divide 8 3 by 9

5 : 3 5 3 27__ __ __ × __9 __÷ = = 8 9 8 5 40

21. d. The equation of the parabola is given to be 2y = 1 – x . The slope of the graphed line is 2

and the y-intercept is 0, so that its equation

is y = 2x. If we equate these equations, we get

the equation 1 – x2 = 2x. The solutions of

this equation would yield the x-coordinates

of the points of intersection of the two

graphs shown. Taking all terms to the

right side yields the equivalent equation

x2 + 2x – 1 = 0. The left side of the equation

in choice a is fne, but the right side is not

correct because the equation of the line is

not y = x. The –2x is fne (choice b), but the

x2 term is not correct because the equation

of the graphed parabola is y = 1 – x2. So, 21 – x2 should replace 1 – x . Neither term of

the equation in choice c is correct. The equa-

tions of the shown graphs are y = 1 – x2 and

y = 2x. Equate these to get the desired equa-

tion. Choice e is incorrect because the solu-

tions of this equation give the x-intercepts of

the parabola, not the intersection points of

the two graphs.

22. e. Looking at nearby third powers of integers, note that 53 = 125 < 200 < 216 = 63. So, tak-

ing the cube root throughout this inequality

yields 5 = √3125 < √3200 < √3216 = 6. Note that in choice a, 23 = 8 < x3 < 64 = 43. Since 200

does not lie between 8 and 64, it follows that

√3200 cannot lie between 2 and 4. Note that 33 = 27 < x3 < 125 = 53. Since 200 does not

lie between 27 and 125, it follows that √3200 cannot lie between 3 and 5 (choice b).

Choice c is incorrect because 63 = 216 < x3

< 274.625 = 6.53. Since 200 does not lie

between 216 and 274.625, it follows that

√3200 cannot lie between 6 and 6.5. In choice d, 4.53 = 91.125 < x3 < 166.375 = 5.53. Since

200 does not lie between 91.125 and

166.375, it follows that √3200 cannot lie between 4.5 and 5.5.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 280 9/7/17 2:08 PM

23. d. Translate WXYZ so that X and Z line up with X' and Z'. Then draw the line passing

through vertices X and Z, and refect WXYZ

across this line. The result will be W'X'Y'Z'.

If you rotate (choice a) the fgure WXYZ by

any angle other than 360°, all four vertices

move. Specifcally, X and Z do not remain

where they are once the transformation is

performed. If you do not frst translate

WXYZ, a single refection (choice b) cannot

produce the given image. You must frst

translate WXYZ so that X and Z line up with

X' and Z'. Then, draw the line passing

through vertices X and Z, and refect WXYZ

across this line. Then, the result will be

image W'X'Y'Z'. If you move the fgure by

any distance (choice c), all four vertices

move and keep the same orientation. In the

image shown, X and Z have the same orien-

tation, but Y and W do not. Beginning with

a translation is correct, but then it must be

followed with a refection (choice d), not a

rotation (choice e).

24. d. Use the distributive property and multiply all terms in the parentheses:

–3x(x2 – 3x – 2) = (–3x)(x2) + (–3x)(–3x) + (–3x)(–2)

= –3x3 + 9x2 + 6x

In choice a you multiplied only the frst term

in the parentheses by –3x. You must distrib-

ute this to every term. Choice b is incorrect

because you added the term outside the

parentheses to the quantity enclosed within

them, but you should have multiplied by it.

You did not distribute the negative through

the terms in the parentheses in choice c. In

choice e you distributed only the –3 through

the terms in the parentheses. You must also

multiply by x.

25. (–2,–4). You need to translate the given point 4 units to the left and 1 unit down. So (2,–3)

would correspond to (2 – 4, –3 – 1) = (–2,–4).

26. d. Quadrilaterals R, S, and U are all parallelo- grams, while T and V are not. Because a

fgure is being selected at random, the prob- __3ability that it is a parallelogram is 5 . Choice

a implies that none of the fgures are paral-

lelograms. Choices b, c, and e are incorrect

because of the 5 fgures, 3 are parallelo-

grams, so there is a 3 in 5 chance of selecting

a parallelogram. Additionally, choice e

implies that all members of the set are

parallelograms.

27. e. The ramp is made of fve sides. The two tri- angular sides are congruent and each has an

area of __2 1 (6 ft.)(8 ft.) = 24 ft.2; so, their com-

bined area is 48 ft.2 The bottom of the ramp

has an area of (8 ft.)(20 ft.) = 160 ft.2. The

front slanted side is a rectangle. Using the

Pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse of

the right triangle is 10 ft., so the area of this

rectangle is (10 ft.)(20 ft.) = 200 ft.2. The

back of the ramp is a rectangle with area

(6 ft.)(20 ft.) = 120 ft.2. Therefore, the total

surface area is (48 + 160 + 200 + 120) ft.2

= 528 ft.2.

28. c and d. Note that zero is a rational number. So, for any irrational number y, 0 × y = 0, which is rational (choice c). Adding a rational number,

which has a terminating or repeating decimal

representation, to an irrational number cannot

produce a decimal that is terminating or repeat-

ing (choice d). Choice a is not true because

being a negative number does not affect a num-

ber’s classifcation as rational or irrational.

Because the set of rational numbers is closed

under subtraction, choice b is also not true.

Choice e is not true: the product of two irratio-

nal numbers may be a rational number, such as

in √2 × √2 = 2.

280280

281281

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 281 9/7/17 2:08 PM

_____

___________

__________________

29. c. We must express proft as a function of the number of driveways cleared of snow. The

$903 spent on materials yields negative

proft, so we express it as –903 in our func-

tion. Next, since we earn $40 per driveway

and it costs $5.25 per job, our net gain per

job is $40 – $5.25 = $34.75. This is constant,

so the proft gained from clearing x drive-

ways is $34.75x. This means that the func-

tion describing our proft is P(x) = 34.75x

– 903. Computing the break-even point is an

inverse problem. We know the output (the

proft), but need to determine the input (the

number of driveways cleared) that will yield

it. This means we must solve the equation 0

= 34.75x – 903. We do so as follows:

0 = 34.75x – 903

903 = 34.75x

x ≈ 25.986 Rounding up, you see that you’ll break even

after clearing 26 driveways.

30. 59 laps. Since there are 5,280 feet in 1 mile, there are 5,280 × 2.2 = 11,616 feet in 2.2 miles. Now, to determine the number of laps needed

11,616 to swim 11,616 feet, divide: = 58.08 ≈200 59 laps.

31. d. Looking at the graph, you see that the parab- ola opens downward, and its vertex is (–2,3).

Also, f(–3) = f(–1) = 0. If you graph the

equation in choice d, you’d get a parabola

with these characteristics. The equation in

choice a would produce a parabola with a

vertex of (2,3), but the parabola in the image

has a vertex of (–2,3). The coeffcient of x2 in

choice b is positive, so if you graphed the

equation, you’d get a parabola that opens

upward. The equation in choice c would

produce a parabola with a vertex of (2,–3),

but the parabola in the image has a vertex of

(–2,3). The equation in choice e would pro-

duce a parabola with a vertex of (–3,2), but

the parabola in the image has a vertex of

(–2,3).

32. c. Multiply the square footage and the popula- tion density together to fnd the answer:

45,000 × 0.03 = 1,350 people. The answer in choice a is based on a population density of

0.003, not 0.03. In choice b it looks as if you

divided the square footage by 100, which

would correspond to a population density of

0.01, not 0.03. Choice d is the square footage

divided by 10, which would correspond to a

population density of 0.1, not 0.03. Choice e

shows that there would be 1 person for every

square foot (which would be very crowded!).

Zelda prefers a maximum density of 0.03

people per square foot.

33. a. This correlation coeffcient suggests a strong negative trend, which is what is illustrated in

the scatterplot. Choice b describes a weak

negative trend, and choice c describes a scat-

terplot with almost no trend. Choice d

describes a scatterplot where the data rises

from left to right, showing a weak positive

trend, and choice e describes a strong posi-

tive trend.

34. 16,514,690 births. Let x represent the total number of births expected, and then set up

the following proportion: _____12.17 x = 1,000 1,357,000,000

Solving for x yields:

(12.17)(1,357,000,000) = 1,000x (12.17)(1,357,000,000) = x1,000

16,514,690 = x

35. b and c. The graph in choice b is the graph of g(x) = |x| shifted 4 units left and 5 units up. The

graph in choice c is the graph of g(x) = |x|

shifted 4 units left and 7 units up. Choice a is

incorrect because the graph is shifted 4 units to

the right, while choices d and e are incorrect

because the graph is shifted 8 units and 6 units

down, respectively.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 282 9/7/17 2:08 PM

__ ____ __

_____ __

36. c. If the area of one square is 9 square units, then each side has length √9 = 3 units. Using how the rectangle is subdivided into squares

as shown, we multiply 3 by 2 to get 6 units as

the height of the rectangle, and then multi-

ply 3 by 3 to get 9 units as the length of the

rectangle. The perimeter is 2(6) +2(9) = 30

units. In choice a you did not count both

sides twice when calculating the perimeter

of the rectangle. Choices b and d are incor-

rect because you mistakenly assumed that

the rectangle was itself a square by assuming

all four sides had the same length. Choice e

is incorrect because you multiplied the

perimeter of one square by the number of

squares: 12 × 6. This answer is incorrect because it mistakenly includes the segments

that are inside the rectangle.

37. c. Observe that √(38 + 11)(60 – 11) = √49 × 49 = 49. Choice a represents the square root of

only one factor of the product under the

radical sign. Choice b is incorrect because

you added the square roots of the two indi-

vidual factors rather than multiplying them.

In choice d you found the square root of one

of the factors, but not the other, before mul-

tiplying the results. Choice e is incorrect

because you forgot to take the square root.

38. a. When all the data points are the same, the mean is the same as that data value, and the

variance (average distance from the mean) is

0. In II, the mean is not 44 because you must

divide the sum by the number of data

points, which is 5. The variance is not 0

because all of the points are measurable dis-

tances from the mean. The only time the

variance can be 0 is if all the data points are

equal to the mean. In III, the mean is 44, but

the variance is not 0 because all of the points

are measurable distances from the mean.

39. b. The data can be displayed along the number line using a dot plot as follows:

Observe that the data set is bimodal with

nothing occurring in between those two

clusters. This is the general shape described

by this distribution.

40. a and b. The equation ax + 3y = 0 is equivalent __ a __to y = – 3 x. The slope of this line is –

a and,3 since a > 0, the slope is negative. The lines in

choices a and b have a negative slope since they

fall from left to right. Choice c is incorrect

because the line is vertical; such lines have no

slope. Choices d and e are incorrect because the

lines rise from left to right and so have a posi-

tive slope.

41. d. Rewrite the left side as a multiplication problem and simplify. Then, cross multiply

and solve the resulting equation for a, as

follows: 3 a 4 ÷ = 4 a + 1 3 3 × a + 1 4 = 4 a 3

3a + 3 4 = 4a 3 9a + 9 = 16a

9 = 7a __9 a = 7

Finally, square this fraction by squaring the 2 __81 top and bottom separately to get a = 49.

282282

283283

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 283 9/7/17 2:08 PM

______

______ __

42. b, c, and d. All members of the set are of the form 8n, for some whole number n. Thus, each

one is divisible by 4 (choice b). Choice a is

incorrect because none of the members of this

set is prime, since they are all multiples of the

composite number 8. Choice c is a true state-

ment because all members of this set are even.

Choice d is a true statement because all mem-

bers of the set are of the form 8n, for some

whole number n. This is precisely what it means

to be a multiple of 8. In choice e you are confus-

ing the term factor with multiple. In order for

the members of this set to be factors of 8, they

must all divide into 8 evenly. The only one for

which this is true is 8 itself because all of the

other members are larger than 8.

43. b. When refecting a point across the line x = 2, the y-coordinate will stay the same, but the

x-coordinate will change. Subtract 2 – (–11)

= 13 and add this to 2 to get the new

x-coordinate. So, the image of vertex B is

(15,14). Choice a shows the image across the

line y = 2, not x = 2. Choice c is incorrect

because it shows the image across the line

y = x. The x-coordinate is correct in choice

d, but the y-coordinate should not change

when refecting across the line x = 2. Choice

e is incorrect because this is the image across

the origin (which means refection about the

y-axis, and then the x-axis).

44. d and e. Rewriting the fractions in the numera- tor of the complex fraction with the common

denominator x and then combining them yields

this form (choice d): 2 – 4x2 4x ______2 __2 __ – ___

2 – 4x xx xx _______ ______

= = __1 __1 __1

xxx

In choice e, rewrite the fractions in the numera-

tor of the complex fraction with the common

denominator x, and combine them. Then cancel __1by a factor of :x

22 2 – 4x__2 __2 ___4x ______–– 4x x x ______ x______ x _______ x 2 – 4x2 __ 2= = = · = 2 – 4x1 __1 __1 x 1 x xx

Choice a is not equivalent because you cannot __1 cancel the term in the numerator andx

denominator. You can only cancel like factors.

Neither choices b nor c are equivalent: choice b

is the reciprocal of the fnal simplifed form and

choice c needs to be multiplied by –1 in order

for it to be equal to the given complex fraction.

45. b. Solve for t, as follows: 5 ln(t + 4) = 5

ln(t + 4) = 1

t + 4 = e

t = e – 4

Choice a cannot be the solution, because

ln(0) is not defned. Choice c is incorrect

because you ignored “5 ln” and solved the

linear equation t + 4 = 5. In the process of

solving the logarithmic equation, you did

not solve the equation e = t + 4 correctly;

you should have subtracted 4, not divided by

4 (choice d). Choice e is incorrect because in

the process of solving the logarithmic equa-

tion, you did not solve the equation e = t + 4

correctly; you should have subtracted 4, not

multiplied by 4.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 284 9/7/17 2:08 PM

______

___________ ___________

_______

____

46. c. The height is 2(20 in.) = 40 in. and the radius is 2

1 (20 in.) = 10 in. So, the volume of __1 __1the cone is V = 3 pr2h = 3 p(10 in.)2(40 in.)

4,000p= 3 in. 3. Choice a is incorrect because

__1 you need to multiply by 3 . In choice b you

forgot to square the radius; in choice d the

diameter was used in place of the radius; and

in choice e the answer given is the circum-

ference of the base.

47. e. The phrase Meredith handles fewer than is translated symbolically into “M <”; the

phrase one-third of the customers translates __1 to “ 3 ”; and the phrase Chris and Dana com-

bined translates to “C + D.” So, the correct __1 relationship is M < 3 (C + D). Multiplying

both sides by 3 yields the equivalent inequal-

ity C + D > 3M. Choice a is incorrect __1because the 3 should be replaced by 3. The

inequality in choice b does not make sense

because “3” has no contextual meaning here.

The inequality in choice c means that Mere-

dith handles more than three times the total

customers handled by Chris and Dana in a

typical hour. The product DC should be

replaced by the sum C + D (choice d).

48. b. The length of the entire circle (or its circum- ference) is 2p · 8 = 16p cm. The ratio of the length of arc JL to the circumference is ___2p __1 __1 = 8 . Sector JKL accounts for of the16p 8

__1circle. So, the central angle x should be 8 × 360° = 45°.

49. b. Let B represent the body weight of this adult male. Since the quantities are in proportion,

we have the following: 25,000 grams 75,000 grams

= m grams B grams Solving for B yields

25,000B = 75,000m 75,000mB = = 3m25,000

50. b. Observe that statement I is not correct __1because b is not less than b if b equals 1.

a ____ + b 2aNext, II is correct because “ equals ” 2b b + a __2b __2bis equivalent to = 2b when a = b. Also, III2b

is incorrect because if b is greater than a,

then the reverse inequality is true.

51. b. Simplify both sides of the equation, then gather the x terms on one side and the con-

stants on the other, and then divide by the

resulting coeffcient of x:

–2(3x – 1) = 4[8 – (2x – 1)]

–6x + 2 = 4(8 – 2x + 1)

–6x + 2 = 4(9 – 2x)

–6x + 2 = 36 – 8x

2x = 34

x = 17

Choice a is incorrect because when simplify-

ing the right side of the equation, you did

not distribute the 4 through all terms in the

brackets. Choice c is incorrect because in the

fnal step the coeffcient of x was subtracted

from both sides, rather than divided. Simi-

larly, choice e is incorrect because the coeff-

cient of x was multiplied by both sides,

rather than divided. Choice d is incorrect

because the fnal step was omitted: both

sides need to be divided by the coeffcient

of x, which is 2.

52. d. Statement I is not true because the mode is not x – 4, as this value occurs only once, just

like every other value in this set. II is true,

because when you order the values from

least to greatest, the middle value is x + 2.

III is true because the mean is the sum of the

values divided by the number of values. Here

the sum is 5x + 12 – 7 = 5x + 5. The number

of values is 5, so the mean is x + 1.

284284

285285

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 3–

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 285 9/7/17 2:08 PM

_______

__________

53. a, b, and e. The probability that a person who buys the game will download the additional

4,000content is 500,000 (since 40% of the 10,000 eligi-

ble are expected to download the content) and 496,000the probability that they won’t is 500,000 .

Thus, the expected cost of the promotion is _______4,000 496,000( 500,000 )(49.99) + (0)( 500,000 ) ≈ 0.40 (choice

a). The probability that a person who buys the

game will download the additional content is 0.30(25,000) = 0.015 (since 30% of the 25,000 eli-500,000 gible are expected to download the content)

and the probability that they won’t is 0.985.

Thus, the expected cost of the promotion is

(0.015)(29.99) + (0)(0.985) ≈ 0.45 (choice b). Promotion X costs the company less per game

than does Promotion Y. So, it is more proftable

(choice e).

54. b. Let x represent Monday’s low temperature. Then, Tuesday’s low can be represented by

x + 11, since we know that Tuesday’s low was

11°F warmer than the low on Monday. Like-

wise, Wednesday’s low temperature equals

x + 11 – 5 = x + 6, since it was 5°F cooler

than Tuesday’s low temperature. Also,

Thursday’s low temperature can be repre-

sented by x + 15 since it was 9°F warmer

than Wednesday’s low temperature. Now, we

must set up an equation to solve for x. Mul-

tiply the average low temperature by 4 since

there are 4 days (87 × 4 = 348) and set the sum of the expressions for the low tempera-

tures for Monday through Thursday equal

to 348. Doing so yields

x + (x + 11) + (x + 6) + (x + 15) = 348

This simplifes to 4x + 32 = 348, so that solv-

ing yields x = 79. Finally, we substitute this in

for x into the expression for Tuesday’s tem-

perature, x + 11, to see that Tuesday’s low

temperature was 90°F. Choice a is Thursday’s

low temperature. Choice c is Wednesday’s

low temperature. Choice d is Monday’s low

temperature. Choice e is too low and is likely

the result of an arithmetic error.

55. b. Since 7 and 8 each divide evenly into w, we know that all products of factors of 8 and 7

must also divide evenly into w. Specifcally,

we know that w must be divisible by each of

the following numbers:

2 × 4 = 8 2 × 7 = 14 4 × 7 = 28 2 × 4 × 7 = 56

Note that choices a, c, d, and e are included

in this list, whereas choice b is not. Conse-

quently, we conclude that the answer is

choice b.

56. b. Since the diameter of each circle is 6√2, the radius is half this, or 3√2. Each of the solid lines is the hypotenuse of a 45-45-90 triangle

that has legs that are each 3√2 long. Using the Pythagorean theorem with h being the

length of the hypotenuse, we see that

2(3√2)2 = h2, which simplifes to 36 = h2, so that h = 6. Since there are four such trian-

gles and they are all congruent, we can con-

clude that each of the four solid lines has

this length, so the sum of the lengths is 24.

Choice a is incorrect because the solid lines

are not radii of the circle and therefore do

not have a length equal to half the diameter.

Choice c implies that the length of each solid

line is 6√2, which is not the case. Choice d is likely the result of an arithmetic error. The

radical should not be part of the solution.

Choice e is likely the result of forgetting to

take the square root of 36 when using the

Pythagorean theorem. The length of each

solid line is 6 units, not 36 units.

https://0.015)(29.99

PRAXISCorePP_05_193-286.indd 286 9/7/17 2:08 PM

287

c h

a p

t e

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 287 9/7/17 2:09 PM

6 PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4

CHAPTER SUMMARY Here is your final set of full-length tests for each Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators test: Reading, Writing, and Math- ematics. Now that you have completed three total tests, take these exams to see how much your score has improved.

A s you take this fnal set of practice tests, you should once again simulate the actual test-taking expe-rience as closely as you can. Find a quiet place to work where you won’t be disturbed. Follow the time constraints noted at the beginning of each test. After you fnish taking your tests, review the answer explanations. (Each individual test is followed by its

own answer explanations.) See A Note on Scoring on page 375 to fnd information on how to score your test.

Good luck!

To access online PRAXIS Core practice that provides instant scoring and feedback: • Navigate to your LearningExpress platform and make sure you’re logged in. • Search for the following subtests, select one, and then click “Start Test.” • Praxis Core: Reading Practice Test 4 • Praxis Core: Mathematics Practice Test 4 • Praxis Core: Writing Practice Test 4

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 288 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Reading Practice Test 4

Time: 85 Minutes

Directions: Read the following passages and answer

the questions that follow.

Refer to the following passage for questions 1 through 5.

Thirty years ago, the northern spotted owl was

one of the most common owls in the Pacifc

Northwest. However, these owls live in old-

growth forest, and much of their habitat has

5 been lost to logging and natural disasters. In

1991, the federal government passed laws to

protect the land where the owls live. Now,

though, the owls face a new threat—competi-

tion with the barred owl. Barred owls are larger

10 and more aggressive, and their activity results

in the spotted owls leaving nesting and hunting

grounds.

Scientists have tried several ways to pro-

tect the endangered spotted owl. Some track

15 the owl nests as they monitor activity to deter-

mine when eggs hatch. Some scientists have

even tried to reduce the population of barred

owls. Environmental specialists are working

hard to protect spotted owls, but more research

20 is needed. In addition to the myriad other dan-

gers, the northern spotted owl is threatened by

climate change and competition with other

birds of prey. Given all of these signifcant haz-

ards, scientists must do whatever they can to

25 save the northern spotted owl species.

1. Which is NOT stated or implied by the passage as a threat to the northern spotted owl?

a. logging

b. scientifc research

c. forest fres caused by lightning

d. climate change

e. barred owls in the environment

2. Which statement based on information from the passage represents a statement of opinion,

rather than a statement of fact?

a. Thirty years ago, the northern spotted owl

was one of the most common owls in the

Pacifc Northwest.

b. In 1991, the federal government passed laws

to protect the land where the owls live.

c. Barred owls are larger and more aggressive,

and their activity results in the spotted owls

moving away from nesting and hunting

grounds.

d. Activity is monitored to determine when

eggs hatch.

e. Given all these signifcant hazards, scientists

must do whatever they can to save the

northern spotted owl species.

3. What is the purpose of the phrase Now, though in lines 7–8 within the context of the passage?

a. to contrast the author’s opinion with the

actual facts

b. to reverse the decision that a species must be

protected

c. to question the reasonableness of a

government bill

d. to contrast an earlier protection with current

threats

e. to compare a variety of threats to an

endangered species

288288

289289

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 289 9/7/17 2:09 PM

4. Which sentence provides the best summary of the reading selection?

a. The northern spotted owl suffers from a loss

of habitat.

b. The northern spotted owl faces severe

threats and must be protected.

c. Scientists are struggling to identify ways to

protect the northern spotted owl.

d. The northern spotted owl was once common

in the Pacifc Northwest.

e. The northern spotted owl is an endangered

species.

5. Which detail from the reading selection pro- vides the least support for the main idea?

a. However, these owls live in old-growth

forest, and much of their habitat has been

lost to logging and natural disasters.

b. Now, though, the owls face a new threat––

competition with the barred owl.

c. Barred owls are larger and more aggressive,

and their activity results in spotted owls

leaving nesting and hunting grounds.

d. Owl nests are monitored to determine when

eggs hatch.

e. In addition to the myriad other dangers, the

northern spotted owl is also threatened by

climate change and competition with other

birds of prey.

Refer to the following passage for questions 6 through 8.

In recent years, it is clear that the local minor

league baseball team, the Dowshire Ducks, has

truly become standard weekend entertainment

for hundreds of families. On summer after-

noons, the bleachers in Hulldown Stadium are

teeming with cheering fans. But this hasn’t

always been the case. Even ten years ago, ticket

sales were limited, and the team was largely

ignored. The Ducks rarely won games or placed

10 well in regional tournaments. The arrival of

manager Duncan Brin in 2004, however, started

a new era of success and fame for the Ducks.

6. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?

a. The Dowshire Ducks were once an

unsuccessful baseball team.

b. Throughout the years, there have been many

managers of the Dowshire Ducks.

c. The Dowshire Ducks play their games in

Hulldown Stadium.

d. Due to the work of Duncan Brin, the status

of the Dowshire Ducks has risen.

e. Attending a Dowshire Ducks game is

popular family entertainment.

7. Which best describes the organizational struc- ture of the passage?

a. Details are provided through contrasts, and

then a main idea is provided.

b. A main idea is provided, and then

supporting details are listed.

c. A handful of comparisons are given, and

then several dissimilarities are provided.

d. Defnitions are provided for several

unknown terms, and then a main idea is

stated.

e. A problem is posed, and then potential

solutions are discussed.

8. The word teeming in line 6 could be replaced with which of the following words to result in

the least change in meaning of the sentence?

a. crowded

b. rooting

c. energized

d. vacant

e. teaming

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 290 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Refer to the following graph for questions 9 through 11.

This graph provides data regarding purchases made

by three students during the month of July.

Purchases of Three Students in July

Am ou

nt s

pe nt

(d ol

la rs

)

0 Maria Atul Pat

Food and snacks Movies and games Clothing

July Purchases

9. Based on information in the graph, which inference could reasonably be drawn?

a. Pat will spend more on clothing in August

than María or Atul will.

b. Of the three students whose expenditures

are detailed in the graph, it is clear that Atul

is saving the most money for large

purchases.

c. María spent the same amount on clothing as

she spent on movies and games during July.

d. Atul’s parents cook his meals and prepare

snacks for him.

e. Of the three students whose expenditures

are detailed in the graph, Atul spent the

most on movies and games during the

month of July

10. During July, who spent the greatest total amount for the three types of expenditures

identifed in the graph?

a. María

b. Atul

c. Pat

d. María and Pat tied for the greatest amount

spent.

e. Pat and Atul tied for the greatest amount

spent.

11. Which statement(s) about expenditures is/are supported by data in the bar graph? Choose all

that apply.

a. Clothing prices were higher during July than

during other months of the year.

b. María and Atul shopped together during the

month of July.

c. There were more sales on food and snacks

during July than during other months of the

year.

d. Atul spent the same amount for the

combination of food and snacks, movies and

games, and clothing as María spent for

movies and games only.

e. Pat spent as much for the combination of

food and snacks and movies and games as

Atul spent for clothing only.

290290

291291

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 291 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Refer to the following passage for questions 12 and 13.

Laughter is always the laughter of a group. It

may, perchance, have happened to you, when

seated in a railway carriage, to hear travelers

relating to one another’s stories, which must

5 have been comic to them, for they laughed

rapturously. Had you been one of their com-

pany, you would have laughed like them, but, as

you were not, you had no desire whatsoever to

do so. However spontaneous it seems, laughter

10 always implies a kind of complicity with other

laughers, real or imaginary. How often has it

been said that the fuller the theater, the more

uncontrolled the laughter of the audience! On

the other hand, how often has the remark been

15 made that many comic effects are incapable of

translation from one language to another,

because they refer to the customs and ideas of a

particular social group!

12. The anecdote about the travelers in the railway carriage supports the author’s main argument,

as stated in the frst sentence of the passage.

Which most clearly states how this support

occurs?

a. The anecdote demonstrates through

personal experience that laughter is an

isolated phenomenon.

b. The anecdote illustrates how the specifc

customs and ideas of a person’s society

dictate what is and what is not funny.

c. The anecdote accentuates that an individual

who is not part of an intended audience

might lack a necessary connection to fnd

humor in a situation.

d. The anecdote shows the signifcant impact

of railway travel on a humorous situation.

e. The anecdote demonstrates that laughter is

an inexplicably spontaneous event.

13. In the context of the passage, the word raptur- ously in line 6 could be replaced with which of

the following words to have the least impact on

the meaning of the sentence?

a. enthusiastically

b. painfully

c. morosely

d. awkwardly

e. ridiculously

Refer to the following passage for questions 14 through

20.

Mounting confict between the colonies and

England during the 1760s and 1770s reinforced

growing conviction that Americans should be

less dependent on England for manufacturing.

5 Manufacture of homespun cloth was encour-

aged as a substitute for English imports. But

manufacturing of cloth outside the household

was associated with relief for the poor. Houses

of Industry employed poor families at spinning

10 for their daily bread.

Such practices made many pre-

Revolutionary Americans dubious about

manufacturing. After independence, many

unsuccessful attempts to establish textile

15 factories occurred. Americans needed access to

British industrial innovations, but England had

passed laws forbidding export of machinery or

emigration of those who could operate it. Nev-

ertheless, an English immigrant, Samuel Slater,

20 introduced British cotton technology to

America.

Slater had worked his way up from

apprentice to overseer in England. Drawn by

American bounties for introduction of textile

25 technology, he passed as a farmer and sailed for

America after memorizing details of a revolu-

tionary cloth-making machine. In 1790, he

started the frst permanent American cotton-

spinning mill. Employing a workforce of young

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 292 9/7/17 2:09 PM

30 children, Slater successfully mechanized crucial

processes.

A generation of workers trained under

Slater. Thus began the rapid proliferation of

textile mills during the early nineteenth cen-

35 tury. From the trained workforce in Slater’s frst

mill, the industry spread across New England.

For two decades, before mills modeled on Fran-

cis Cabot Lowell’s factory system offered com-

petition, the “Rhode Island System” of small,

40 rural spinning mills set the tone for early

industrialization.

14. The primary purpose of the passage is to a. account for the decline of rural America.

b. contrast political views held by the British

and the Americans.

c. summarize British laws forbidding the

export of industrial machinery.

d. describe the introduction of textile mills to

New England.

e. provide a cogent argument in support of

industrial development.

15. The passage refers to the work of Houses of Industry to illustrate

a. an early successful program to support

international travel.

b. the perception of cloth production outside

the home as a social welfare measure.

c. the preference for the work of individual

artisans over that of spinning machines.

d. the frst textile factory to be established

within the United States.

e. the utilization of technological advances

being made in England at the time.

16. Based on the passage, it can reasonably be inferred that early American manufacturing

was

a. entirely benefcial.

b. politically and economically necessary.

c. symbolically undemocratic.

d. environmentally destructive.

e. spiritually corrosive.

17. The explanation of Slater’s immigration to the American colonies best helps to support the

author’s claims in the passage by

a. demonstrating Slater’s craftiness in evading

British export laws.

b. showing the attraction of farming

opportunities in the American colonies.

c. explaining the details of British

manufacturing technologies.

d. illustrating American efforts to block

immigration to the colonies.

e. describing the willingness of British factories

to share knowledge with the colonies.

18. The passage infers that Slater viewed child labor as

a. available workforce.

b. necessary evil.

c. unpleasant reality.

d. established institution.

e. outdated.

19. The author implies that the catalyst behind the spread of American textile mills during the

early 1800s was

a. Slater’s voyage on a ship to America.

b. the decline in the ideal of the self-suffcient

American farm family.

c. the expertise of the workforce trained in

Slater’s prototype mill.

d. an increased willingness to support families.

e. the support of British manufacturers who

owned stock in American mills.

292292

293293

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 293 9/7/17 2:09 PM

20. The word modeled in line 37 most closely means

a. posed.

b. displayed.

c. arranged.

d. illustrated.

e. fashioned.

Refer to the following passage for question 21.

Despite an innocuous appearance that brings to

mind an oversized pig or water-dwelling cow,

the hippopotamus is capable of great vicious-

ness. Short legs and hefty bodies (on average,

adults weigh in the neighborhood of 3,000 lbs.)

do not slow the hippo, which can run up to 19

miles per hour in short spurts. That weight,

coupled with tusks that may measure more

than a foot long and a generally aggressive atti-

tude, makes for an unexpected danger. People

would be wise to steer clear of the beasts, and

though young hippos might fall prey to the

lions, crocodiles, and hyenas with which they

share their habitat, full-grown hippos are more

likely to be the aggressors in confrontations

with such notoriously deadly animals.

21. Which description of a hippopotamus best represents a statement of opinion rather than

a fact?

a. It looks like an oversized pig or water-

dwelling cow.

b. It is often aggressive to lions, hyenas, and

crocodiles.

c. It can weigh in the neighborhood of

3,000 lbs.

d. It is capable of running 19 miles per hour

in short spurts.

e. It has tusks that may measure more than a

foot long.

Refer to the following passage for questions 22 through

24.

Wilma Rudolph, a child who contracted polio

and went on to become an Olympic running

champion, is an inspiration for us all. Born pre-

maturely in 1940, Wilma spent her childhood

5 battling illness, including measles, scarlet fever,

chicken pox, pneumonia, and polio, a disease

for which there was no cure at the time. At the

age of four, Rudolph was told she would never

walk again. But Rudolph and her family refused

10 to give up. After years of special treatment and

physical therapy, 12-year-old Rudolph was able

to walk normally again. But walking wasn’t

enough for her; she was determined to be an

athlete. Little time passed before her talent

15 earned her a spot in the 1956 Olympics, where

she won a bronze medal. In the 1960 Olympics,

the zenith of her career, she won three gold

medals.

22. Which statement provides the best summary of the main idea of the reading selection?

a. Rudolph had a great desire to become an

athlete, despite challenges she faced.

b. Rudolph was an Olympic champion who

won a bronze medal and three gold medals.

c. Rudolph overcame extreme diffculty to rise

to great accomplishment.

d. Chicken pox, pneumonia, and polio are very

serious diseases contracted by Rudolph.

e. Many inspirations, such as Rudolph, exist in

the annals of history.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 294 9/7/17 2:09 PM

23. Which of the following is most analogous to the life of Wilma Rudolph?

a. After contracting what was believed to be

polio at age 39, President Franklin Roosevelt

suffered partial paralysis and was forced to

spend much of the rest of his life in braces

or in a wheelchair.

b. Diagnosed with the degenerative nervous

system disorder Parkinson’s disease in 1991,

actor Michael J. Fox took a break from full-

time acting in 2000.

c. Following his fall from a horse in 1995, actor

Christopher Reeve was confned to a

wheelchair until his death in 2004.

d. Nicknamed the “Iron Horse” for his

durability, New York Yankee Lou Gehrig

retired at age 36 due to advanced

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).

e. Although he suffered from severe asthma as

a child, Theodore Roosevelt became a U.S.

president and an avid outdoorsman.

24. What is the meaning of zenith as it is used in line 17 of the passage?

a. peak

b. nadir

c. conclusion

d. epilogue

e. midpoint

Refer to the following passage for questions 25 and 26.

For many students juggling a heavy scholarly

workload and numerous extracurricular activi-

ties, school is tough enough without worrying

about what to wear and how to look cool every

5 day. Much of the clothing students choose to

wear to school of their own accord, such as styl-

ized jeans or tee-shirts that promote personal

beliefs or favorite musical artists, can be a dis-

traction within the classroom’s walls. Further-

10 more, allowing students the freedom to select

their own attire presents an outward inequality;

students who have the fnancial resources to

buy designer-labeled clothing will frequently do

so, resulting in a faunting of fnancial disparity

15 among students.

25. Which adjective best describes the author’s attitude toward an enforced student dress

code?

a. resistant

b. cautious

c. ambivalent

d. concerned

e. sympathetic

26. Which statement, if it were true, would most signifcantly weaken the author’s main

argument?

a. An education study recently demonstrated

that dress codes enhance students’ ability to

learn.

b. A school that employs a stringent dress code

provides a safer educational environment.

c. Restricting students’ right to choose their

clothing limits their independence and

creativity.

d. Tolerance across social groups is improved

through use of a formal dress code.

e. Schools frequently differ as to the style and

color of a mandatory school uniform.

294294

295295

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 295 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Refer to the following passage for questions 27 through

29.

In the long history of soccer, no single player

has changed the game as much as Pelé. Born

Edison Arantes do Nascimento in Brazil in

1940, Pelé played professional soccer for 20

5 years, including in four World Cups for his

native Brazil. Toward the end of his career, he

also played for a North American soccer league.

Though he was well past his prime, Pelé helped

to signifcantly increase American interest in

10 soccer. Counting his time in the American

league, Pelé scored a total of 1,281 goals––the

largest number of goals scored by any profes-

sional soccer player. Pelé’s athletic skills were

some of the most impressive in history. He was

15 awarded the title “Athlete of the Century” by

the International Olympic Committee. By the

time he retired, no one had helped increase the

popularity of soccer more.

27. Which statement from the passage represents a statement of opinion, rather than a statement

of fact?

a. In the long history of soccer, no single player

has changed the game as much as Pelé.

b. Born Edison Arantes do Nascimento in

Brazil in 1940, Pelé played professional

soccer for 20 years, including in four World

Cups for his native Brazil.

c. Toward the end of his career, he also played

for a North American soccer league.

d. Counting his time in the American league,

Pelé scored a total of 1,281 goals––the largest

number of goals scored by any professional

soccer player.

e. He was awarded the title “Athlete of the

Century” by the International Olympic

Committee.

28. Which detail from the passage least supports the main idea?

a. Pelé was born Edison Arantes do

Nascimento in Brazil in 1940.

b. Pelé played professional soccer for 20 years,

including in four World Cup competitions.

c. Pelé helped signifcantly to increase

American interest in soccer.

d. Pelé scored a total of 1,281 goals.

e. Pelé earned the title “Athlete of the Century.”

29. Based on information provided in the passage, which of these athletes is most similar to Pelé?

a. Cristiano Ronaldo, a Portuguese soccer

player who is the highest-paid soccer player

in history

b. Dilma Rousseff, the 36th president of Brazil

and the frst woman to hold the country’s

highest offce

c. Babe Ruth, who helped make baseball the

most popular sport in America by breaking

home-run records

d. Charles Haley, who was a member of fve

Super Bowl–winning football teams from

1986 through 1999

e. Landon Donovan, who scored multiple goals

in the 2010 World Cup for the American

soccer team

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 296 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Refer to the following passage for questions 30 through

36.

Gray wolves once roamed the U.S. Yellowstone

area but were gradually displaced by human

development and hunting by farmers and

ranchers who were trying to protect livestock.

By the 1920s, wolves had practically disap-

peared from the area, migrating north, into

Canadian forests.

Disappearance of wolves had many conse-

quences. Deer and elk populations––major

food sources for wolves––grew rapidly without

this predator. The deer and elk consumed large

amounts of vegetation, reducing plant diversity.

Without wolves, coyote populations also grew

quickly. Coyotes killed many red foxes and

completely eliminated the park’s beavers.

By 1966, biologists asked the government

to consider reintroducing wolves to Yellowstone

Park. The biologists hoped wolves would be

able to control elk and coyote populations.

Many ranchers and farmers opposed the plan;

they feared that wolves would kill livestock or

pets. Other people feared that wolves would no

longer be protected in Yellowstone.

The government spent almost 30 years

developing a reintroduction plan. Although

wolves were technically an endangered species,

Yellowstone’s wolves were classifed as an

“experimental” population. This allowed

greater governmental control over wolf packs.

To counteract potential resistance, the govern-

ment pledged to pay ranchers for livestock

killed by wolves. Today, debates continue as to

how well the gray wolf is ftting in at Yellow-

stone. Elk, deer, and coyote populations have

decreased, while beavers and red foxes have

made a comeback.

30. What is the main idea of the frst paragraph of the passage?

a. Gray wolves were unfairly treated by the

ranchers and farmers.

b. Canada provided a better habitat for gray

wolves than Yellowstone did.

c. Gray wolves were displaced from their

original homes by humans.

d. Gray wolves were a threat to ranchers.

e. It was important to reintroduce the gray

wolves to Yellowstone.

31. According to the passage, biologists asked the government to reintroduce wolves in Yellow-

stone principally in order to

a. control the elk and coyote populations

b. restore the park’s plant diversity

c. control the local livestock

d. protect the wolves from extinction

e. increase tourism revenue

32. In the fourth paragraph, the author references the gray wolf as being a technically endangered

species. This reference most helps to support

the author’s claims in the passage by

a. emphasizing the legal defnition of

endangered.

b. showing that the government controls the

wolves’ status.

c. explaining why the wolves are endangered.

d. highlighting the fact that the Yellowstone

wolves are a special population.

e. accentuating the scientifc usage of the

reintroduction.

296296

297297

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 297 9/7/17 2:09 PM

33. Which most closely identifes the primary organizational structure of the second para-

graph of the passage?

a. compare and contrast

b. cause and effect

c. chronological order

d. order of importance

e. classifcation

34. What is the implied main idea of the article? a. Yellowstone’s wolf program was a mistake.

b. The government is responsible for

reintroducing wolves

c. Wolves are an important part of our

national parks.

d. Yellowstone’s wolf program has been

benefcial for the wolves and the park.

e. It is important not to disrupt the delicate

balance of life in nature.

35. Which statement, if it were true, would most signifcantly weaken the author’s main

argument?

a. The government continues to monitor the

populations of gray wolves, elk, and coyotes.

b. The introduction of the gray wolf has

increased the population diversity of the

Yellowstone area.

c. Yellowstone has been a protected area since

its founding as a national park in 1872.

d. The introduction of the gray wolf allowed

scientists to consider reintroducing beavers

to Yellowstone.

e. The reintroduction of the gray wolf at this

time could ultimately result in a decrease of

benefcial gray wolf characteristics.

36. Which species endured the most similar expe- rience to that of the gray wolves in

Yellowstone?

a. the polar bear, whose northern habitat is

threatened by warming air temperatures and

the resulting reduction of sea ice

b. the possum, which was introduced in non-

native New Zealand in an effort to create a

fur industry but resulted in overpopulation

of the land

c. the muskox, which was hunted to extinction

in Alaska by about 1900 but brought back to

repopulate the land during the 1930s

d. the moa, a series of large New Zealand birds

that were hunted to extinction in about A.D. 1400

e. the house cat, whose introduction to

Australia has resulted in the extinction of

dozens of other species

Refer to the following passage for questions 37 and 38.

It is a statistical anomaly that Barack Obama is

generally recognized as the 44th president of

the United States, yet only 42 other people held

the presidency before he did. This is due to the

5 fact that Grover Cleveland served two non-

consecutive terms in offce, one from 1885 to

1889 and the other from 1893 to 1897. As the

only president to serve nonconsecutive terms,

Cleveland is counted twice in the numbering of

10 the presidents and is therefore considered both

the 22nd and 24th president of the United

States. Given the resulting disparity, it would be

more rational to number the presidents based

solely on the frst term, ignoring any secondary

15 tenures that could complicate the sequence.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 298 9/7/17 2:09 PM

37. Which best describes the author’s opinion regarding the current numbering system for

U.S. presidents?

a. clever

b. illogical

c. reverential

d. presidential

e. rational

38. Which word has the closest meaning to anom- aly as it appears in line 1 of the passage?

a. data

b. irregularity

c. representation

d. conclusion

e. indiscretion

Refer to the following passages for questions 39 through

45.

Passage 1

The frst bicycle, the fragile wooden draisienne,

was invented in Germany in 1818 by Baron Karl

de Drais de Sauerbrun. Riders moved it by

pushing their feet against the ground. In 1839,

5 Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish blacksmith,

developed an improved model with tires that

had iron rims to keep them from getting worn

down. He also used foot-operated cranks, simi-

lar to pedals, as an instrument for faster riding.

10 His didn’t look much like the modern bicycle;

its back wheel was substantially larger than its

front wheel. Although Macmillan’s bicycles

could be ridden easily, they were never pro-

duced in great numbers.

Passage 2

15 In 1861, Pierre and Ernest Michaux invented a

popular bicycle, the velocipede (“fast foot”),

with an improved crank mechanism that con-

nected to the front wheel. Ten years later, Eng-

lish inventor James Starley revolutionized

20 bicycle design. He made the front wheel much

larger than the back wheel, put a gear on pedals

to make the bicycle more effcient, and light-

ened wheels with wire spokes. Although this

bicycle was much lighter and less tiring to

25 ride, it was still clumsy and top-heavy. In 1874,

the frst truly modern bicycle appeared.

Invented by another Englishman, H.J. Lawson,

the safety bicycle had equal-sized wheels; it was

much less prone to toppling over. Lawson

30 attached a chain to pedals to drive the rear

wheel; by 1893, he further improved the bicycle

with air-flled rubber tires, a diamond-shaped

frame, and easy braking.

39. Which sentence summarizes the information from both passages?

a. Lawson was focused on the safety of the

bicycle when he developed his 1874 version.

b. From the early 1800s to the end of the

century, many improvements were made to

the bicycle.

c. Bicycles that were manufactured in 1850 and

1860 shared numerous similarities.

d. The 1818 bicycle could be described as a

rudimentary version of Macmillan’s bicycle.

e. Iron rims created problems for Macmillan’s

bicycles, while Starley’s smaller front wheel

was a positive advance.

40. Kirkpatrick Macmillan affected the develop- ment of the bicycle by

a. improving the overall energy effciency of

the design.

b. increasing the durability of the bicycle.

c. allowing the bicycle to be ridden by the

masses.

d. making the bicycle lighter and easier to ride.

e. adjusting the size of the wheels to make the

front wheel larger.

298298

299299

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 299 9/7/17 2:09 PM

41. Based on information in the passages, which series of improvements to the bicycle repre-

sents the sequence of changes in chronological

order?

a. iron rims, improved crank mechanism, wire

spokes, rubber tires, equal-sized wheels

b. iron rims, gears on pedals, improved crank

mechanism, equal-sized wheels, diamond-

shaped frame

c. iron rims, improved crank mechanism, wire

spokes, easy braking, chain to the pedals

d. diamond-shaped frame, easy braking, equal-

sized wheels, iron rims, wire spokes

e. iron rims, improved crank mechanism, wire

spokes, equal-sized wheels, diamond-shaped

frame

42. The development of the bicycle was most simi- lar to the development of the

a. hot-air balloon, because it helped transport

many passengers great distances without an

engine.

b. automobile, because its design was improved

upon by many inventors during a long

period of time.

c. space station, because its components were

constructed during a period of several years.

d. atomic bomb, because a specifc

technological advance allowed for its

development.

e. radio, because it improved the method and

speed of communication.

43. The word instrument as it is used in line 9 most nearly means

a. item to produce musical sound.

b. tool.

c. formal document.

d. impediment.

e. monitoring device.

44. Based on information in the passage, which prediction for the future of bicycle develop-

ment is most reasonable?

a. The development of the bicycle will cease, as

all potential improvements have been

achieved.

b. The design will regress to the conditions of

the nineteenth-century bicycle, including

unequal wheel sizes.

c. Future modifcations to the bicycle will

further enhance the design and

specifcations.

d. Added weight to the framework design will

improve stability and control.

e. The advent of jet propulsion and safety

features will allow for potential air travel.

45. Who invented the earliest bicycle discussed in the two passages?

a. Pierre and Ernest Michaux

b. James Starley

c. Baron Karl de Drais de Sauerbrun

d. H.J. Lawson

e. Kirkpatrick Macmillan

Refer to the following passage for questions 46 and 47.

Plato, the famous Greek philosopher, taught the

premise that the things of the world around us

are merely copies, or “shadows,” of greater, eter-

nal realities. He used a metaphor, alluding to

5 people living inside a cave, to convey his ideas.

The people inside the cave could not see the

world outside the cave; they could see only

shadows of people and animals passing by.

Plato’s position was that the shadows would

10 seem very real and alive to the people inside the

cave––because that was all they had ever seen

of the outside world. But these shadows were

not the real, living creatures of the outside

world; they were merely refections of them.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 300 9/7/17 2:09 PM

15 Plato held that this temporal world was a nar-

row picture of some greater, eternal reality.

46. Which best explains the way in which the fol- lowing sentence from the passage supports the

author’s claims?

The people inside the cave could not see

the world outside the cave; they could

see only shadows of people and animals

passing by.

a. The sentence provides concrete evidence of a

philosophical truth.

b. The sentence offers a look at the world

outside of a cave.

c. The sentence illustrates a concept through

use of an understandable context.

d. The sentence describes the geographic

location and setting of a story.

e. The sentence shows a vision of an illogical

future.

47. As it appears in line 9 of the passage, the word position most nearly means

a. situation.

b. location.

c. movement.

d. opinion.

e. style.

Refer to the following passage for questions 48 through

51.

A cursory glance at a globe will reveal a fasci-

nating observation: the continents of South

America and Africa, separated by thousands of

kilometers of open ocean, seem to ft together

5 like pieces of a jigsaw puzzle. The eastern edge

of South America, part of modern-day Brazil,

juts out into the Atlantic Ocean at about the

same latitude where the coast of northern

Africa shrivels toward the east. The reason for

10 this geological phenomenon is not pure hap-

penstance. Both massive land masses were once

connected in a supercontinent called Gondwana,

which also contained most of the land found

today in India, Australia, and Antarctica,

15 about 200 million years ago.

The process responsible for Gondwana

splitting into the two separate continents as

they now stand in their current positions is

“continental drift.” The signifcant hypothesis,

20 put forth by German geologist Alfred Wegener

in 1915, states that parts of Earth’s crust can

shift above the planet’s liquid core as time pro-

gresses. A later theory of plate tectonics

expanded on Wegener’s discovery, conjecturing

25 that Earth’s continental plates move in different

directions, which affects the positions of the

continents and explains why South America

and Africa seem to ft like puzzle pieces, despite

their locations on opposite sides of an ocean.

48. The description of the continents of South America and Africa as pieces of a jigsaw puzzle

best helps to support the author’s claims in the

passage by

a. contrasting the signifcant difference

between the land masses.

b. detailing the mystery of the continental

shapes as a puzzle.

c. minimizing the geological importance of the

continents.

d. reinforcing the corresponding physical

relationship of the continents.

e. illustrating the problems scientists faced in

determining the causes of continental drift.

300300

301301

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 301 9/7/17 2:09 PM

49. The word cursory in line 1 could be replaced with which of the following words to result in

the least change in meaning?

a. investigative

b. hasty

c. internal

d. offensive

e. cursive

50. Which statement, if it were true, would most signifcantly strengthen the author’s main

argument?

a. Gondwana was once part of a much larger

supercontinent called Pangaea.

b. Fossils of the same type of plant have been

found in parts of South America and Africa.

c. The African island of Madagascar was once

part of the supercontinent Gondwana.

d. There are countless species of animals that

exist in only South America or Africa, but

not on both continents.

e. Scientists have studied Africa and South

America for decades, arriving at many

theories.

51. According to the passage, which statement can most reasonably be made?

a. Alfred Wegener developed the theory of

plate tectonics.

b. There was a time on planet Earth when there

were no oceans.

c. South America and Africa are roughly the

same size.

d. There is scant evidence that supports the

“continental drift” theory.

e. South America and Africa are located on two

different plates.

Refer to the following graph for questions 52 and 53.

The United States is one of the most culturally

diverse nations on Earth. This is clear from the

“melting pot” moniker so proudly sported by

the nation. The United States is also one of the

5 most climatically diverse nations. The climate

of the United States ranges from very low tem-

peratures to very high temperatures. These very

high temperatures are often described as

“torrid.” Some areas of Alaska rarely get warm

10 enough to melt an ice cube. The weather in

Hawaii is perfect throughout the year. A tem-

perature once recorded in northern Alaska was

–79.8°F, while Hawaii has never recorded a sub-

zero temperature.

52. Which of the following sentences from the pas- sage is an example of an opinion?

a. The United States is one of the most

culturally diverse nations on Earth.

b. The climate of the United States ranges from

very low temperatures to very high

temperatures.

c. Some areas of Alaska rarely get warm

enough to melt an ice cube.

d. The weather in Hawaii is perfect throughout

the year.

e. A temperature once recorded in northern

Alaska was –79.8°F, while Hawaii has never

recorded a sub-zero temperature.

53. Within the context of the passage, the word torrid in line 9 can be replaced with which

word to incur the smallest change in meaning?

a. sweltering

b. dissimilar

c. glacial

d. lukewarm

e. uncomfortable

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 302 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Refer to the following passage for questions 54 through

56.

If you frequently feel drowsy during the day or

fall asleep within fve minutes of lying down,

you might be experiencing sleep deprivation.

Microsleeps, very brief episodes of sleep in an

5 otherwise awake person, are another mark of

sleep deprivation. The widespread practice of

“burning the candle at both ends” in Western

industrialized societies has created so much

sleep deprivation that abnormal sleepiness is

10 now almost the norm.

Studies prove that sleep deprivation is

dangerous. Sleep-deprived people tested with a

driving simulator perform as badly as or worse

than those who are intoxicated. Driver fatigue is

15 responsible for an estimated 100,000 motor

vehicle accidents and 1,500 deaths each year.

Since drowsiness is the brain’s last step before

falling asleep, drowsy driving can often lead to

disaster. The National Sleep Foundation says

20 that if you have trouble keeping your eyes

focused, can’t stop yawning, or can’t remember

driving the last few miles, you are too drowsy to

drive safely.

54. The primary purpose of the passage is to a. offer preventive measures for sleep

deprivation

b. explain why sleeplessness has become a

common state in Western cultures

c. recommend the amount of sleep that is

needed by individuals of a variety of ages

d. alert readers to the signs and risks of failure

to obtain a suffcient amount of sleep

e. discuss the effects of alcohol on a sleep-

deprived person

55. The phrase burning the candle at both ends in line 7 illustrates

a. an unrelenting schedule that affords little

rest

b. an ardent desire to achieve

c. the fames that can ignite when a fammable

item is burned

d. a latent period before a confict or collapse

e. a state of extreme agitation

56. The term norm in line 10 could be replaced with which of the following words to result in

the most minimal change in meaning?

a. outlier

b. standard

c. danger

d. oddity

e. ideal

302302

303303

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 303 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Reading Practice Test 4 Answers and Explanations

1. b. The passage mentions that more research is needed to try to protect the northern spot-

ted owl, but the research is not a threat to

the owl. The passage states that a great deal

of the spotted northern owl’s habitat has

been lost to logging and natural disasters

(choice a). Forest fres are not mentioned

explicitly in the passage as a threat to the

northern spotted owl, but the passage does

mention that a great deal of the owl’s habitat

has been lost as a result of natural disas-

ters—and forest fres caused by lightning are

natural disasters (choice c). Climate change

(choice d) is specifcally mentioned as a

threat to the northern spotted owl. Barred

owls (choice e) are specifcally mentioned as

a threat to the northern spotted owl.

2. e. It cannot be proven or disproven that scien- tists should do all they can for this purpose.

This is a matter of opinion, not fact. The

statements in choices a, b, c, and d can all be

proven or disproven.

3. d. Within the context of the passage, the phrase Now, though is used to describe an addi-

tional threat to the northern spotted owl,

despite the protection provided by a 1991

law. Choices a, b, c, and e are incorrect

because they are not supported by the con-

text of the passage.

4. b. The crux of the passage references the many threats faced by the northern spotted owl, as

well as the need for the protection of the

species. Choices a, c, and d are incorrect

because they discuss supporting details, not

main ideas. The statement in choice e is too

general to summarize the passage.

5. d. The main idea of the passage relates to the northern spotted owl being in need of pro-

tection, as it faces many threats. This answer

choice shows that scientists are trying to

monitor the owls’ nests; this alone provides

the least support for the main idea. Choices

a, b, c, and e mention specifc threats, so

they do not provide the least support for the

main idea, the need for protection of the owl

from threats.

6. d. The passage focuses on the rise of the team as a result of the work of Duncan Brin.

Choices a, c, and e are incorrect because they

are supporting details. Additionally, there is

no evidence in the passage to suggest the

position mentioned in choice b.

7. a. The passage opens with details about the team today, and then the passage contrasts

these details with details about the team’s

earlier problems. The passage then con-

cludes with the main idea. Choice b is incor-

rect because the passage does not begin with

the main idea. The organization of the pas-

sage is not based on a handful of compari-

sons and then several dissimilarities, so

choice c is incorrect. Choice d is incorrect

because defnitions are not provided. Addi-

tionally, choice e is incorrect because the

passage does not open by stating a problem.

8. a. The word teeming is being used to describe the population of the bleachers of a baseball

stadium, to address the number of cheering

fans, so the best word to replace teeming also

relates to the many people in the (crowded)

bleachers. Choices b and c are incorrect

because rooting and energized do not show

the meaning of the word teeming. In choice

d, vacant is an antonym, not a synonym, of

teeming. The word teaming in choice e has a

spelling that is similar to the spelling of

teeming, but teaming is not a synonym of

teeming.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 304 9/7/17 2:09 PM

9. e. The graph key identifes the bar that corre- sponds to movies and games. In the graph,

this bar rises higher for Atul than for the

other students. Choice a is incorrect because

the data in the chart do not address the

month of August, and it’s not reasonable to

infer that just because Pat spent more on

clothing in July, Pat will also spend more on

clothing in August. In fact, it could reason-

ably be argued that the converse is true, that

Pat would not need to spend money on

clothing in August after the clothing pur-

chases in July. Based on data in the graph,

choice b is incorrect because it is not possi-

ble to tell how much money each student is

saving. Choice c is incorrect because Maria

spent $25 on clothing and $15 on movies

and games. Based on data in the graph, it is

not possible to discern whether Atul’s par-

ents provide meals and snacks (choice d).

10. c. The total of the amounts for each type of expenditure is the greatest for Pat. Choices a,

b, d, and e are not supported by the data in

the graph.

11. d. Atul spent $5 on food and snacks, and he spent $10 for clothing––for a total of $15.

María spent $15 for clothing. The graph

depicts only expenditures of three students.

Based on the data, it is not possible to know

whether clothing prices were higher during

July than during other months of the year, so

choice a is incorrect. The graph does not

supply data regarding students shopping

together, making choice b incorrect. Choice

c is incorrect because, based on the data, it is

not possible to know whether clothing prices

were higher during July than during other

months of the year. For the combination of

food, snacks, movies, and games, Pat spent

$45. For clothing, Atul spent $10. Therefore

choice e is incorrect.

12. c. The author shows support for the statement in choice c in the anecdote about the group

of laughing travelers on the railway; because

you were not part of the group, you lacked a

connection and did not fnd the humor

funny. The statement in choice a is contra-

dicted throughout the passage. The fnal

sentence in the text supports choice b, but

the railway anecdote not does relate specif-

cally to the customs and ideas of a society.

Railway travel is not central to the argument,

so choice d is incorrect. Choice e is incorrect

because the author is not using the anecdote

to show that laughter is spontaneous.

13. a. The adverb rapturously, as it appears in the passage, describes the way the travelers in

the railway carriage are laughing. Laughing

rapturously equates to laughing enthusiasti-

cally. The travelers’ laughter is true because

the context of the sentence states that they

were laughing at something comic. Choices

b, c, d, and e are not supported by the

context.

14. d. The passage describes the introduction of British cotton technology to America, specif-

ically to New England. The passage does not

account for the decline of rural America or

contrast political views, so choices a and b

are incorrect. While the passage does men-

tion British laws forbidding the export of

industrial machinery (choice c), this is a

supporting detail, not the primary purpose

of the passage. Choice e is incorrect because

the passage does not provide a cogent argu-

ment in support of industrial development.

15. b. The passage references Houses of Industry as an example of the association of cloth man-

ufacturing with relief of the poor. Choices a,

c, d, and e are incorrect because they are not

supported by evidence in the passage.

304304

305305

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 305 9/7/17 2:09 PM

16. b. The mounting confict between the colonies and England––referenced in the frst sen-

tence of the passage––suggests that America

had political and economic reasons for

developing its own textile industry. While

there were certainly benefcial results from

the manufacturing, it cannot be inferred that

there were no negative effects (choice a).

Choices c, d, and e are incorrect because it is

not suggested in the passage that early

American manufacturing was symbolically

undemocratic, environmentally destructive,

or spiritually corrosive.

17. a. The description of Samuel Slater’s immigra- tion to America shows the deceptive mea-

sures necessary to evade British export laws

and introduce cotton technology to the colo-

nies. Slater posed as a farmer in order to

immigrate to America after committing to

memory the cotton technology he had

learned in an English factory. Choices b and

c are incorrect because the reason for includ-

ing this information was not primarily to

show the attraction of farming opportuni-

ties in the American colonies or to explain

the details of British manufacturing technol-

ogies. Americans were not trying to block

immigration to the colonies, so choice d is

incorrect. The British were attempting to

prevent the knowledge from being shared

with the colonies, making choice e incorrect.

18. a. The author does not offer Slater’s personal viewpoint on child labor, instead stating

only the fact that Slater hired young children

to work in his Rhode Island mill. Therefore,

based on evidence in the passage, it can be

inferred that he viewed child labor as an

available workforce. Because there is no

opinion regarding child labor expressed, it

cannot be inferred that Slater identifed the

labor as a necessary evil; therefore choices b

and c are incorrect. Choices d and e are

incorrect because there is no evidence in the

passage to support either inference.

19. c. According to the passage, the trained work- ers were instrumental in beginning the

spread of cotton mills in New England.

Slater did sail to America (choice a), but his

voyage was not the main catalyst. Choices b,

d, and e are not supported by any evidence

in the passage.

20. e. This response is supported by passage con- text. Choices a, b, c, and d are incorrect

because passage context does not support

these meanings.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 306 9/7/17 2:09 PM

21. a. A statement of opinion is a statement that cannot be proven with facts; not everyone

may agree that a hippopotamus looks like a

pig or a cow, so choice a is merely an opin-

ion. However, it can be scientifcally proven

that the hippo is aggressive to predators

(choice b), weighs around 3,000 lbs. (choice

c), can run 19 miles per hour in short spurts

(choice d), and has tusks that measure more

than a foot long (choice e). These statistics

are all facts, not opinions.

22. c. The passage details Rudolph’s diffculties and shows how she overcame those diffcul-

ties to rise to great accomplishments.

Choices a, b, and d are incorrect because

they provide details about Wilma Rudolph

but do not summarize the main idea of the

passage. While choice e provides an accurate

statement, it does not summarize the

passage.

23. e. The fact that Theodore Roosevelt suffered from severe asthma as a child, but overcame

it as an adult, and then rose to great heights

makes his life most analogous to that of

Wilma Rudolph. While the situation stated

in choice a is similar to that identifed in the

question, the fact that Roosevelt acquired his

illness as an adult makes his situation less

analogous than the situation detailed in

answer choice e. Choice b, c, and d do not

present scenarios analogous to that of a

child overcoming a debilitating illness to

become successful as an adult.

24. a.

25. e.

26. c.

27. a.

The passage states that at the 1960 Olympics,

Rudolph won three gold medals. This is the

greatest accomplishment that Rudolph

achieved as a runner; therefore, it was her

zenith, or peak. A zenith is a high point.

Choice b is an antonym and would suggest

that this was the low point of Rudolph’s

career. Although the high point might be a

conclusion to a great deal of hard work, the

words zenith and conclusion are not synony-

mous (choice c). Choices d and e are incor-

rect because they do not show the meaning

of zenith.

The word sympathetic can be defned as

favorably inclined. Because the author pres-

ents details that support the need for a stu-

dent dress code, the adjective sympathetic

best describes the author’s attitude. Choices

a, b, and c are incorrect because the author

is supportive of a dress code. Additionally,

choice d is incorrect because being sympa-

thetic is not the same as being concerned

about a dress code.

The author holds the position that a dress

code is a good idea. This answer choice

offers the only statement that weakens this

argument. The statements in choices a, b,

and d strengthen the author’s argument.

Meanwhile, choice e is not relevant to the

author’s argument.

It cannot be proven that one player changed

the game of soccer more than any other

player. The statements in choices b, c, d, and

e could be proven true or false.

306306

307307

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 307 9/7/17 2:09 PM

28. a. The main idea of the passage focuses on Pelé being an amazing soccer player who helped

transform the sport. His name, place of

birth, and year of birth do not support this

main idea. The details mentioned in choices

b, c, d, and e greatly help to support the

main idea, which relates to Pelé being an

amazing soccer player who helped transform

the sport. The question asks which detail

supports the main idea the least.

29. c. The passage focuses on Pelé’s talent and his impact on the game of soccer. Because he

transformed his sport in a similar way, Babe

Ruth is most similar to Pelé. Choice a is

incorrect because while Cristiano Ronaldo

was a great soccer player, there is no indica-

tion in the statement that he transformed

the sport in the way Pelé did. Dilma Rousseff

(choice b) is from Brazil, but it is not indi-

cated that she infuenced a sport in the way

Pelé did. Charles Haley was a successful ath-

lete, but there is no indication that he had a

lasting impact on his sport (choice d).

Landon Donovan (choice e) was a great soc-

cer player, but there is no indication in the

statement that he transformed the sport in

the way Pelé did.

30. c. The passage explains that wolves once lived in the Yellowstone area––until confict with

humans caused them to disappear. Choices a

and e are not the main idea of the para-

graph. Choices b and d are too narrow to be

the main idea; they are supporting details.

31. a. Biologists hoped that wolves would help bal- ance the elk and coyote populations. Restor-

ing the park’s plant diversity (choice b) was

a factor, but it is not stated as the principal

motive, so this answer is incorrect. Ranchers

and farmers objected to the wolves killing

their livestock (choice c). Choice d is not

stated as the principal motive. Additionally,

there is no evidence to suggest that wolves

were reintroduced to increase tourism

(choice e).

32. d. This answer is supported by evidence in the passage. The passage suggests the legal def-

nition of endangered (choice a) but does not

explain it. Choice b is a true statement but is

not the best answer. The passage does not

explain why the wolves are endangered or

how science is utilized during the reintro-

duction, so choices c and e are incorrect.

33. b. The second paragraph describes the result of the wolf ’s disappearance. The paragraph is

not structured to compare and contrast, and

is not organized by classifcation, so choices

a and e are incorrect. Although the events

occur in chronological order, choice c, they

are organized to show cause and effect.

Events are not provided in order of impor-

tance, making choice d incorrect.

34. d. The author concludes the article by listing some of the positive effects of the wolf ’s

return: beaver and red fox populations are

being restored, and elk and coyote popula-

tions are balancing to normal levels. There is

no indication that the program was a mis-

take (choice a). Choice b is a supporting

detail and is not suffciently broad to be the

main idea; on the other hand, choice e is too

broad. Choice c is too general; the article

addresses only Yellowstone Park and does

not reference reintroduction in other

national parks.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 308 9/7/17 2:09 PM

35. e. The author’s argument focuses on the rein- troduction of the gray wolf as being benef-

cial. The only statement that provides a

defnitively negative result of the reintroduc-

tion would be a decrease of benefcial gray

wolf characteristics. Choices a and c fail to

strengthen or weaken the argument. Choices

b and d provide a positive effect of the rein-

troduction, so it would strengthen the

author’s argument. The question asks for the

statement that would most weaken the

argument.

36. c. Like the gray wolf, the muskox was driven to extinction within a particular geographic

area; it was then reintroduced to those lands

at a later date. The polar bear is threatened,

but the statement does not indicate that it

has been reintroduced (choice a). The pos-

sum (choice b) was introduced to New Zea-

land, causing environmental havoc, but the

statement does not indicate that it was rein-

troduced there. The moa was hunted to

extinction centuries ago; however, the state-

ment does not indicate that it was ever rein-

troduced (choice d). The statement does not

indicate that the house cat has been in dan-

ger of extinction (choice e).

37. b. The author discusses the numbering system for U.S. presidents; then the author provides

a more rational numbering system. There-

fore, the author most likely believes that the

current system is illogical. Choices a and e

represent the opposite of the author’s opin-

ion, and choices c and d are not supported

by evidence in the passage.

38. b. An anomaly is an abnormality or irregular- ity. Choices a, c, d, and e are not synonyms

of anomaly.

39. b. The two passages provide details about the development of the bicycle from 1818 (the

early 1800s) through 1893 (the late 1800s).

Choice a includes only some of the details

from Passage 2. Neither passage includes the

details from choice c. Choice d includes

information from only Passage 1. Choice e

includes information that contradicts infor-

mation in the passages.

40. b. The passage states that the iron rims kept the tires from getting worn down. This is in con-

trast to the earlier fragile model from 1818.

Therefore, Macmillan increased the durabil-

ity of the bicycle. It might be tempting to

suggest that Macmillan’s improvements to

the bicycle improved its effciency, but there

is no direct correlation in the passage from

his improvements to energy effciency

(choice a). The passage states that Macmil-

lan’s bicycles were never produced in large

numbers; therefore, there is no indication

that he helped the bicycle to be ridden by the

masses (choice c). Although the passage says

that Macmillan’s bicycles could be ridden

easily, lighter weight (choice d) is not a clear

correlation. One of the wheels in Macmil-

lan’s bicycle design was much larger than the

other, but it was not the front wheel that was

larger (choice e).

41. e. Based on the passage, this was the order of the improvements. Choice a does not show

the correct order. The inclusion of gears on

pedals did not occur until 10 years after

Pierre and Ernest Michaux created the

improved crank mechanism (choice b).

According to details, the easy braking repre-

sents a further improvement that Lawson

made only after attaching a chain to the ped-

als to drive the rear wheel (choice c). The list

of improvements to the bicycle’s design in

choice d is provided in alphabetical order,

rather than chronological order.

308308

309309

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 309 9/7/17 2:09 PM

42. b. Like the automobile, the bicycle was devel- oped during a long period of time and

through the contributions of many inven-

tors. Choice a is incorrect, because unlike a

hot air balloon, a bicycle does not transport

multiple passengers over long distances. The

space station (choice c) might have been

constructed throughout several years, but

the bicycle was not; it was improved upon,

not built, during a long time period. There

was no single specifc technological advance

(choice d) that led to the development of the

bicycle. Transporting many passengers was

not instrumental in the development of the

bicycle (choice e).

43. b. The instrument referenced in the passage is a foot-operated crank that improved the rid-

ing experience, so the crank is a tool. The

word instrument can mean item to produce

musical sound, such as a guitar or a piano;

however, the passage does not relate to

music, so context indicates that the defni-

tion of instrument in choice a is incorrect.

Choices c and e each show one defnition of

instrument; however, the context does not

support these meanings. Choice d is not a

correct meaning of instrument.

44. c. Details of a series of modifcations made to the design of the bicycle throughout the

years are chronicled. These modifcations

improved its usability. Therefore, it would be

reasonable to predict that additional modif-

cations would be made to continue develop-

ment. Based on details, it can be inferred

that additional changes will likely occur,

making choice a incorrect. Choices b, d, and

e are not supported by evidence in the

passage.

45. c. The passages state that Baron Karl de Drais de Sauerbrun invented the earliest bicycle.

Pierre and Ernest Michaux invented the ear-

liest bicycle discussed in the second passage,

but the question asks for the earliest bicycle

discussed in both passages, so choice a is

incorrect. Choices b, d, and e are incorrect

simply because these people did not invent

the earliest bicycle.

46. c. The sentence that precedes this statement in the text suggests that Plato used a metaphor

to convey his ideas. This sentence then pro-

vides details of the metaphor, describing the

people inside the cave as seeing only the

shadows of those passing by. The concept of

living in a world of shadows might be diff-

cult to grasp without a description to pro-

vide perspective. The illustrative concept of

living within the walls of the cave does pro-

vide an understandable context. Choice a is

incorrect because the sentence does not pro-

vide any sort of concrete evidence––no

indisputable proof or confrmation––that

Plato’s philosophical idea was, in fact, true.

Choice b is a literal interpretation that does

not support the author’s claims. The

description of a cave is not offered to pro-

vide a setting (choice d) for a story. Choice e

also does not logically support the author’s

claims.

47. d. The word position has more than one mean- ing. Context makes it clear that in this sen-

tence, the word position refers to Plato’s

argument, his point, which is his opinion.

Choices a and b are incorrect because these

meanings of position are not supported by

context. Choices c and e do not show the

correct meaning of position.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 310 9/7/17 2:09 PM

48. d. The author follows the portrayal of the con- tinents as puzzle pieces with a physical

description of their shapes. This shows that

the author is supporting the description of

the physical relationship between the conti-

nents. The author does not make claims to

contrast signifcant differences of the conti-

nents, making choice a incorrect. Choice b is

incorrect because the author is not detailing

a mystery. The author does not minimize the

geological importance of the continents, so

choice c is incorrect. Additionally, the author

is not focusing on problems that scientists

faced in determining causes of continental

drift, so choice e is incorrect as well.

49. b. The author uses the word cursory to suggest that it would not take much time to notice

an obvious pattern in the globe’s continental

patterns. Choice a is an antonym, not a syn-

onym, so it is incorrect. Choices c, d, and e

do not show meanings of cursory and are

not supported by passage context.

50. b. The author makes the argument that the African and South American continents

were once joined. If the same plant were

found to have lived on both continents, this

would lend support to that argument.

Choice a does not relate closely enough to

the author’s main argument that the African

and South American continents were once

joined. Choice c is not relevant to the

author’s main argument. If species were

unique to each continent alone, choice d

would not strengthen the author’s argument.

Choice e is too general to signifcantly

strengthen the author’s main argument.

51. e. The fnal sentence of the passage states that plates can move in different directions,

which has resulted in the current positions

of the continents. Therefore, this answer

choice provides a reasonable statement.

Alfred Wegener developed the theory of

continental drift, but the theory of plate tec-

tonics followed later; the passage does not

suggest who proposed the theory of plate

tectonics, but the statement in choice a can-

not be inferred. Although the passage states

that at one point no ocean existed between

Africa and South America, this does not

indicate that Earth had no oceans (choice b).

The passage does not compare the sizes of

the continents (choice c); it compares their

shapes. Passage evidence does not support

choice d.

52. d. An opinion is a statement that cannot be proven true or false. It cannot be proven true

or false that Hawaii has perfect weather, as

perfect weather is a matter of opinion. Some

people might like cold weather. Some people

might like warm weather. Choices a, b, c,

and e can be proven true or false, so they are

statements of fact.

53. a. The passage contrasts the climate extremes in the United States, comparing very cold

temperatures to torrid temperatures. There-

fore, torrid must have the opposite meaning

of very cold; the best answer choice to

describe that opposite temperature is swel-

tering. The temperatures might be dissimilar

(choice b), but the word torrid does not

mean dissimilar. The word glacial in choice c

does not describe hot weather. The word

lukewarm does not describe hot weather

(choice d). While a torrid temperature might

be uncomfortable, the word torrid does not

mean uncomfortable (choice e).

310310

311311

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 311 9/7/17 2:09 PM

54. d. The frst paragraph of this short passage deals with the symptoms of sleep depriva-

tion, and the second paragraph discusses the

dangers of failure to obtain a suffcient

amount of sleep. Choices a and e do not

show the primary purpose of the passage.

Choice b is too narrow to refect the pas-

sage’s primary purpose. Choice c is not sup-

ported by the passage.

55. a. The image of burning the candle at both ends connotes a state of working hard with-

out adequate rest. Evidence in the passage

does not support choices b, d, or e. Choice c

shows the literal meaning of the phrase; the

author is using the phrase to offer a fgura-

tive meaning.

56. b. The word norm most nearly means custom or normal. Therefore, the word standard

would result in the most minimal change in

meaning. Choices a and d are antonyms, not

synonyms. While sleep deprivation is dan-

gerous (choice c), the word norm does not

mean danger. Context makes it clear that

abnormal sleepiness is not ideal (choice e).

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Writing Practice Test 4

Part I: Multiple-Choice

Time: 40 Minutes

Directions: Each of the following 15 questions con-

sists of a sentence that contains four underlined por-

tions. Read each sentence, and decide whether any of

the underlined parts contains an element that would

be considered incorrect or inappropriate in carefully

written English. The error or concern may be in

grammatical construction, word use, punctuation, or

capitalization. Select the underlined portion that

must be revised to produce a correct sentence. If a

sentence contains no errors, select “No error.” No

sentence contains more than one error.

1. I have all ways been enamored of the concept a

that through computer modeling, we can create b c

an executable model to test a complex system. d

No error e

2. During World War II, the Allies stormed a

Italy and then would launch a massive assault. b c d

No error e

3. Lin and Morgan shared a their daily nutrition a

plan, we weren’t surprised to discover that it b c

included fber, fruit, and protein. No error d e

4. In my opinion, watching a psychological thriller a b

is more interesting than a general drama flm. c d

No error e

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 312 9/7/17 2:09 PM

5. Not only did the unexpected blizzard prevent a

us from leaving the house to go to work, and b c d

the frigid conditions also resulted in burst

pipes. No error e

6. Peoples’ interests differ substantially regarding a b

careers and hobbies; otherwise, this would be a c d

boring world. No error e

7. Oscar and Pat did good in the dance a

competition; they were confdent that they b c

would continue their winning streak in the

few dance competitions remaining in the d

season. No error e

8. Last week, the Hollywood trainer lead the dogs a b

through the exercises to prepare them for the c d

movie scene. No error e

9. Our cousins are from Italy and speak fuent a b

Italian, and they also speak English, French, c d

and Portuguese. No error e

10. Stunned by the audacity of the coworker, it a b c

was turning into a volatile workplace. No error d e

11. The other Senators listened to their colleague, a b

who advocated flibusters for the purpose of

drawing attention to specifc causes. No error c d e

12. Believe it or not, several of our revered a

artists, such as Michelangelo and Leonardo b

da Vinci, lived and created their masterpieces c

during the Middle Ages. No error d e

13. Just among the three of us, I’d have to say that a b

the surprise party is a big mistake; however, I c

know that most of our friends disagree. d

No error e

14. Ana’s sisters arrived to drive the carpool home from soccer practice, so Ana and her friend

grabbed their backpacks and extra gear because b

their sisters were in a hurry. No error c d e

15. The journalist reported, “Of the four people a

running for the governorship, Reynolds is the

less likely to win; this is due to progressive b c d

views that do not appeal to a broad base of the

electorate.” No error e

312312

313313

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 313 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Directions: In each of the following questions, part

of the sentence or the entire sentence has been under-

lined. Beneath each sentence, the underlined words

are written in fve ways. The frst option repeats the

original underlined content, but the other four differ.

If the original sentence is the best option, select the

frst choice; otherwise, select one of the other choices.

This part of the test measures correctness and effec-

tiveness of expression. Pay particular attention to

usage in grammar, word choice, sentence construc-

tion, capitalization, and punctuation. Select the

option that best expresses information presented in

the original sentence. Your answer should be free of

awkwardness, ambiguity, and redundancy.

16. Keisha and Lara worked out the project details themself.

a. themself

b. herselves

c. themselves

d. herself

e. ourselves

17. The teaching assistant asked them to take the books to her and I.

a. her and I

b. she and I

c. her and me

d. she and we

e. we and I

18. My mother who is a flm director is teaching a seminar for flm students attending New York

University.

a. mother who is a flm director is

b. mother, who is a flm director, is

c. mother who is a flm director, is

d. mother, whom is a flm director, is

e. mother, who is a flm director is

19. As soon as they came in from the icy tempera- tures, the children put away their jacket and hat.

a. children put away their jacket and hat

b. children put away their jacket’s and hat’s

c. children put away their jackets and hats

d. children puts away their jackets and hats

e. children’s put away their jacket and hat

20. We cant recall why the mistakes were made, but were certain we will not repeat those mis-

takes in the future.

a. We cant recall why the mistakes were made,

but were certain

b. We can’t recall why the mistakes we’re made,

but we’re certain

c. We cant recall why the mistakes we’re made,

but we’re certain

d. We can’t recall why the mistakes were made,

but we’re certain

e. We can’t recall why the mistakes we’re made,

but were certain

21. The students joined together with their teach- ers for an assembly in the gymnasium.

a. joined together with

b. joined with

c. joining

d. will be joining together with

e. joined

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 314 9/7/17 2:09 PM

22. Currently playing the lead role in a new televi- sion series, you should give a warm round of

applause for Daniella, a rising star.

a. Currently playing the lead role in a new

television series, you should give a warm

round of applause for Daniella, a rising star.

b. You should give a warm round of applause,

currently playing the lead role in a new

television series, for Daniella, a rising star.

c. Currently playing the lead role in a new

television series, you should give a warm

round of applause for a rising star, Daniella.

d. You should give a warm round of applause

for Daniella, a rising star currently playing

the lead role in a new television series.

e. Currently play the lead role in a new

television series. You should give a warm

round of applause for Daniella, a rising star

in a television series.

23. It had been a decade since his Grandmother had published a new Bestseller, but she had

continued to prove herself a prolifc author.

a. his Grandmother had published a new

Bestseller

b. his Grandmother had published a new

bestseller

c. His grandmother had published a new

Bestseller

d. his grandmother had published a new

bestseller

e. His Grandmother had published a new

Bestseller

24. The sun shining on the ocean, dappling ocean waves with golden dots.

a. The sun shining on the ocean, dappling

ocean waves with golden dots.

b. The sun, shining on the ocean; dappling

ocean waves with golden dots.

c. The sun, shining on the ocean. Dappling

ocean waves with golden dots.

d. The sun. Was shining. On the ocean,

dappling ocean waves with golden dots.

e. The sun was shining on the ocean, dappling

ocean waves with golden dots.

25. He hadn’t been expecting the change in per- sonnel, so when the change was announced,

he was shocked and said, “You could have

knocked me over with a feather.”

a. “You could have knocked me over with a

feather.”

b. “That’s the way the cookie crumbles.”

c. “Take the tiger by the tail.”

d. “What a ball of fre!”

e. “Stop bugging me!”

26. Not only did we inadvertently write the wrong address on the invitations, but we also forgot to

include a telephone number.

a. but

b. nor

c. or

d. and

e. neither

314314

315315

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 315 9/7/17 2:09 PM

27. We never knew anybody who could fnish a test so quickly.

a. We never knew anybody who could fnish a

test so quickly.

b. We’ve never knew nobody who could fnish

a test so quickly.

c. We never knew nobody who could fnish a

test so quickly.

d. We never knew anybody who could fnish a

test so quick.

e. We never knew nobody who could fnish a

test so quick.

28. When my cousin arrived for a visit last month, we see friends, go to a play, and eat at our

favorite restaurant.

a. we see friends, go to a play, and eat at our

favorite restaurant

b. we saw friends, went to a play, and ate at our

favorite restaurant

c. we seen friends, went to a play, and eaten at

our favorite restaurant

d. we will see friends, go to a play, and eat at

our favorite restaurant

e. we sees friends, goes to a play, and eats at

our favorite restaurant

29. Each of the ten musical artists in the men’s choral group believed their group would take

top honors at the competition.

a. men’s choral group believed their group

b. men’s choral group believed there group

c. men’s choral group believed his group

d. mens’ choral group believed their group

e. mens choral group believed his group

Directions: Some parts of the following passage need

to be improved. Read the passage and then answer

the questions about specifc sentences. In choosing

your answers, pay attention to development, organi-

zation, word choice, tone, and the standards of writ-

ten English.

(1) Moving can be a stressful endeavor; how-

ever, with the proper preparation, all can go

smoothly.

(2) Initially, it is important to base decisions on

whether the move is a local move or one that

will take you across the country––or perhaps to

a different country––as it can be the most diff-

cult of moves.

(3) This article covers national moves, but not

international moves.

(4) Are you moving within the same city? You

might try some good ideas: consider asking

friends to help you pack and move. (5) If you

are moving a great distance, however, you will

likely need to hire a moving company. (6) To do

a good job of locating a moving company to

best meet your needs, ask friends, colleagues,

and neighbors. (7) Additionally, perform Web

searches to fnd others’ comments about mov-

ers. (8) The National Moving, Packing, and

Transportation Organization maintains a list of

recommended movers and pertinent questions

to ask as you are considering a move.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 316 9/7/17 2:09 PM

(9) If you are packing your own items for a

local move, if you are taking some of the items

to the new location yourself, the packing likely

will not require as much cushioning and wrap-

ping paper. (10) Your items will not be jostled

in a large truck for a long period of time. (11)

The basic fundamentals of environmental

responsibility give rise to an idea you might not

have considered. (12) Be certain to advise oth-

ers of your new address. (13) Instead of the tra-

ditional cardboard boxes, you might consider

obtaining plastic reusable moving crates from a

company specializing in this environmentally

friendly option. (14) This option will allow you

to have the crates delivered, and you can pack

them yourself. (15) Then you can have them

picked up from your new location.

30. Which is the most effective way to write sen- tence 2 (reproduced here)?

Initially, it is important to base decisions on

whether the move is a local move or one that

will take you across the country––or perhaps

to a different country––as it can be the most

diffcult of moves.

a. As it is now.

b. Initially, it is important to base decisions on

whether the move is a local move or one that

will take you across the country. Diffcult.

c. Initially, it is important to base decisions on

whether the move is a local move or one that

will take you across the country or to a

different country, as it can be the most

diffcult of moves.

d. Initially, it is important to base decisions on

whether the move is a local move or one that

will take you across the country––or perhaps

to a different country––as an international

move can be the most diffcult of moves.

e. Initially, it is important to make decisions.

On whether the move is a local move or one

that will take you across the country. Some

moves are diffcult.

31. How can sentence 6 (reproduced here) best be written?

To do a good job of locating a moving

company to best meet your needs, ask

friends, colleagues, and neighbors.

a. As it is now.

b. To do a good job of locating a moving

company, ask others.

c. Do a good job of locating a moving

company to meet your needs.

d. To do an effective job of locating a moving

company to best meet your needs, ask

friends, colleagues, and neighbors.

e. To locate a moving company, talk to other

people who you think might have

information that could possibly help you as

you look to fnd a moving company.

316316

317317

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 317 9/7/17 2:09 PM

32. What is the correct and most effective way to write sentence 8 (reproduced here)?

The National Moving, Packing, and

Transportation Organization maintains a list

of recommended movers and pertinent

questions to ask as you are considering a

move.

a. As it is now.

b. The National Moving, Packing, and

Transportation organization maintains a list

of recommended movers and pertinent

questions to ask as you are considering a

move.

c. The national Moving, Packing, and

Transportation Organization maintains a list

of recommended movers and pertinent

questions to ask as you are considering a

move.

d. The National moving, Packing, And

Transportation Organization maintains a list

of recommended movers and pertinent

questions to ask as you are considering a

move.

e. the National Moving, Packing, and

Transportation Organization maintains a list

of recommended movers and pertinent

questions to ask as you are considering a

move.

33. What is the most effective way to write sen- tence 9 (reproduced here)?

If you are packing your own items for a local

move, if you are taking some of the items to

the new location yourself, the packing likely

will not require as much cushioning and

wrapping paper.

a. As it is now.

b. If you are packing your own items for a local

move if you are taking some of the items to

the new location yourself the packing likely

will not require as much cushioning and

wrapping paper.

c. If you are packing your own items for a local

move. If you are taking some of the items to

the new location yourself, the packing likely

will not require as much cushioning and

wrapping paper.

d. If you are packing your own items for a local

move, if you are taking. Some of the items to

the new location yourself, the packing likely

will not require as much cushioning and

wrapping paper.

e. If you are packing your own items for a local

move, and if you are taking some of the

items to the new location yourself, the

packing likely will not require as much

cushioning and wrapping paper.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 318 9/7/17 2:09 PM

34. What is the most effective way to write sen- tence 11 (reproduced here)?

The basic fundamentals of environmental

responsibility give rise to an idea you might

not have considered.

a. As it is now.

b. The basic fundamentals of environmental

responsibility give rise to an idea you might

knot have considered.

c. The fundamentals of environmental

responsibility give rise to an idea you might

not have considered.

d. The environmental responsibility give rise to

an idea you might not have considered.

e. The fundamentals of environmental

responsibility, an idea you might not have

considered.

35. To eliminate an irrelevant sentence, which sen- tence in the fnal paragraph should be deleted?

a. Your items will not be jostled in a large truck

for a long period of time.

b. Be certain to advise others of your new

address.

c. Instead of the traditional cardboard boxes,

you might consider obtaining plastic

reusable moving crates from a company

specializing in this environmentally friendly

option.

d. This option will allow you to have the crates

delivered, and you can pack them yourself.

e. Then you can have them picked up from

your new location.

36. Which sentence would be the most effective concluding sentence to add to the passage?

a. Organizations are available to help with

moving.

b. Local moves are easier than international

moves.

c. Careful preparation can result in effective

packing and moving.

d. Friends and neighbors can be important

resources as you plan a move.

e. The environment is an important

consideration when you prepare to move.

Research Skills Directions for questions 37 through 40: The ques-

tions that follow will measure your basic research

skills. Read each question and then select the best

option.

37. Read the following citation. Salazar, Joanne, Dinah Feldstein, and

Michael Johnston. Analyzing the Supreme

Court Justices: 1950–Present. 3rd ed. New

York: National Considerations Publishing,

2015. Print.

Based on the citation, which of the following is

accurate?

a. There are three authors of this work.

b. The work has been published online.

c. The work was frst published in 1950.

d. Supreme Court justices wrote the work.

e. This is the second edition of the work.

318318

319319

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 319 9/7/17 2:09 PM

38. Which information would be most relevant to and provide the strongest support of the opin-

ion stated here?

Opinion:

Admission to the city’s neighborhood

swimming pools should be free on

Thursdays through Sundays during

the summer.

a. All pools allow for ample parking.

b. Exercise and a place to gather for activities

are important to all families, and this service

is provided by the pools.

c. All pool cleaning systems are currently in

working order.

d. Lifeguards have been hired to staff pools for

the season, and pools will be safe for all

people in the neighborhood.

e. All pools are in serious need of repair.

39. Which would be the most effective and credi- ble for obtaining primary source, in-depth evi-

dence for a research project focused on a

recently discovered rare local plant?

a. photograph of the rare local plant

b. interview with a local botanist who

specializes in rare plants

c. print or electronic encyclopedia article

regarding rare plants

d. questionnaire that has been completed by a

local offcial in the parks department

e. discussion with students regarding

completed fact-fnding about the rare plant

40. Which best explains why a narrowing triangle can be an important tool in the process of

completing a research paper?

a. Specifc sources for research are clarifed

through a narrowing triangle.

b. Content for the middle of a research paper

can be quickly formulated through a

narrowing triangle.

c. Information can be drawn from the outline

to apply to the research paper while using

the narrowing triangle.

d. Unnecessary time can be invested when

in-depth research is conducted for broad

topics prior to developing a narrowing

triangle.

e. A conclusion for the research paper can

easily be generated through a narrowing

triangle.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 320 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Part IIa: Argumentative Essay

Time: 30 Minutes

Directions: Read the opinion stated here. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? Support

your views with specifc reasons and examples from your own experiences, observations, or reading. Allow 30

minutes for your essay.

Paparazzi, roving photographers of celebrities, are lazy slackers. They should be subject to civil fnes and

criminal penalties when they take photographs while celebrities are participating in activities for their

personal lives. There should also be fnes and criminal penalties when the paparazzi approach young chil-

dren of celebrities to take their photos.

320320

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 321 9/7/17 2:09 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

________________________________________________________________________________________

321321

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 322 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

322322

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 323 9/7/17 2:09 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

________________________________________________________________________________________

323323

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 324 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

324324

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 325 9/7/17 2:09 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

________________________________________________________________________________________

325325

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 326 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

326326

327327

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 327 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Source-Based Essay

Time: 30 Minutes

Directions: The following essay assignment asks that you to use information from two different sources to dis-

cuss the most important concerns that relate to a specifc issue. Allow 30 minutes to write your essay.

Travel to the Moon by humans has been an ongoing source of debate in the United States for many

decades. On July 20, 1969, Neil Armstrong, Buzz Aldrin, and Michael Collins traveled to the Moon. Arm-

strong became the frst human to step onto the lunar surface. Since that time, proponents and opponents

of human lunar travel have frmly stood their ground. Each side has made compelling arguments regard-

ing the potential return of humans to the Moon. During his tenure as U.S. president, Barack Obama

made the decision to suspend plans for future human lunar missions, including the goal of again sending

a human to the Moon by 2015. He referenced the expense of this endeavor and the current needs of peo-

ple on Earth.

Read the two passages carefully and then write an essay in which you identify the most important concerns

regarding the issue and explain why they are important. Your essay must draw on information from BOTH of

the sources. In addition, you may draw on your own experiences, observations, or reading. Be sure to CITE the

sources whether you are paraphrasing or directly quoting.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 328 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Source 1

The United States should reinstate programs for human missions to the Moon. There is a great deal to be learned from such travel. Humans can much more effectively conduct research than the research conducted by robotic probes and rovers. There simply is no replacement for human ana- lytical skills and decisions to be made as research is being conducted. A robotic rover simply lacks this capability, and the clunky “arms” of a robotic rover are not able to carefully and delicately extract and examine samples from the lunar surface.

Earlier lunar missions explored only an infinitesimally small quantity of the Moon’s surface. There is a great deal more area to explore.

The Moon holds many possibilities for people on Earth. For example, human colonies on the Moon might one day be possible. Without initial human travel to the Moon and research regarding the conditions, however, such colonization would not be possible. There are many risks of cataclys- mic events on Earth, including massive volcanic eruptions and asteroid strikes. It is important to begin now to explore potential human habitation of locations other than Earth. . . . It is true that lunar travel and exploration are expensive; however, what price is too steep to place on the poten- tial survival of humanity in the face of potential epic disaster?

The United States must maintain its position at the forefront of other nations in the world. This is important for a variety of reasons, not the least of which is security. It is believed that China, Japan, India, and other nations are working to develop programs for human lunar exploration. While it is not now known exactly what types of weapons or other resources might be developed from a lunar stronghold, it is certainly important that the United States not place itself behind other coun- tries by giving up on lunar exploration. . . .

Adapted from: Patel, Sanjeev. Research and Frontiers: The Moon. New York: Powerful Travel Publish- ing, 2014. 303–312. Web. 5 Oct. 2014.

328328

329329

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 329 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Source 2

President Obama made the right decision when he suspended plans for human lunar missions, including suspending the goal of sending another human to the Moon by 2015. Human lunar mis- sions cost millions of dollars, and there are so many needs here on Earth for those funds.

A human can spend only a short time on the Moon. It makes a great deal more sense to send a robotic rover to the Moon, just as the United States did with the Mars Rovers for Mars exploration. A robotic rover is able to perform many functions that a scientist can perform, and it can remain on a planet for many years without the expense of a return mission. It can feed data back to scientists on Earth. And the cost of sending a robotic rover to the Moon is substantially less than the cost of sending a human to the Moon.

The assertion that humans might colonize the Moon is so remote a possibility as to be laugh- able. In order for humans to live on the Moon, it would be necessary to devise and develop some sort artificial atmosphere under a dome or similar structure. This is far beyond the technology avail- able today or at any point in the foreseeable future.

Certainly, these comments are not meant to pummel any and all ideas of human travel to the Moon. It is feasible for private companies to send humans to the Moon. Indeed, private companies have already begun launches into space from Earth. Should a private U.S. company be motivated by vanity or potential revenue to continue such endeavors, this activity should not be denigrated. Such activity does not dip into the pocketbooks and needs of Americans. Such activity does not require revenue from the U.S. government, revenue that would be better spent in taking care of more pressing needs. . . .

Adapted from: Chin, Midori. “Balancing Priorities: Earth and Moon.” Standard Observation Legal Analysis. 14.3 (2012): 168. Web. 5 Oct. 2014.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 330 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

330330

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 331 9/7/17 2:09 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

________________________________________________________________________________________

331331

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 332 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

332332

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 333 9/7/17 2:09 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

________________________________________________________________________________________

333333

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 334 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________________________________________________________________________________________

334334

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 335 9/7/17 2:09 PM

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

________________________________________________________________________________________

335335

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 336 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Writing Practice Test 4 Answers and Explanations

1. a. The phrase all ways refers to a number of methods. The word always is the adverb that

tells when, so this phrase would correctly be

written always been enamored. The preposi-

tion through (choice b) is correct in the sen-

tence. A comma must follow the

introductory clause, as is done in choice c.

The article an and adjective executable in

choice d correctly modify the noun model.

2. c. The phrase would launch represents a shift in tense from the past-tense verb in the preced-

ing clause. The capitalization and comma

are required in choice a. In choice b the

proper noun Italy must be capitalized, and

no comma is required preceding the word

and, as it does not connect two independent

clauses. There are no errors in the adjective

and noun in choice d.

3. b. This is a run-on, as a comma has been placed to separate two independent clauses.

A semicolon would be the correct punctua-

tion. The possessive adjective their in choice

a is correct, as it agrees with its antecedent,

Lin and Morgan. The pronoun it in choice c

references plan, so it is correct. The verb

included in choice d does not represent a

shift in tense, as it is in the same tense as the

verb shared in the preceding clause.

4. d. The sentence lacks parallel structure. For the sentence to be correct, parallelism would be

required: watching a psychological thriller is

more interesting than watching a general

drama flm. The introductory phrase in

choice a is correctly punctuated by a comma.

The adjective psychological correctly modi-

fes the noun thriller in choice b. The phrase

more interesting in choice c correctly follows

the verb is.

5. d. The phrase not only appears in the frst clause, so but, not and, is the correct con-

junction in the second clause. The adjective

in choice a, unexpected, and noun blizzard

are correct. The pronoun us is correct in

choice b. The phrase to go to work is correct

in choice c.

6. a. The word people is the plural form of the word person. The apostrophe to form the

possessive form of people must precede the

letter s, not follow it: people’s. The verb differ

agrees with the subject interests, and the

adverb substantially is correct in choice b.

The semicolon in choice c correctly separates

two independent clauses, and the comma

correctly follows otherwise. The phrase

would be, conditional, is correct in choice d.

7. a. The word good modifes the verb did. Good is an adjective, so it is incorrect. An adverb is

required to modify a verb. The correct word

would be the adverb well. The semicolon in

choice b is the correct punctuation to join

two independent clauses. The antecedent of

the pronoun they is Oscar and Pat, so they is

the correct pronoun to use in choice c. The

adjective few in choice d is correct, as it

modifes competitions.

336336

337337

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 337 9/7/17 2:09 PM

8. b. The correct word would be led, the past tense of to lead. The introductory clause last

week makes it clear that the action in the

sentence occurred in the past. The comma

must appear after the introductory phrase,

and Hollywood must be capitalized, as it is a

proper adjective (choice a). The preposition

and its object are correct as used in choice c.

The pronoun them agrees with its anteced-

ent: dogs (choice d).

9. e. There are no errors in the conventions of standard grammar and usage in this sen-

tence. The plural form of the verb, are,

agrees with the plural subject, cousins

(choice a). The word Italy is correctly capi-

talized, as it names a country. No comma is

required before the word and (choice b).

The comma must precede the word and, as

the word and joins two independent clauses

as it does in choice c. Commas are required

to separate the items in the list (choice d).

10. c. The pronoun it is vague in this sentence. Based on the content of the sentence, it is

not possible to determine the antecedent. To

correct the sentence, it would be necessary to

frst determine what is being referenced by

the pronoun it. The noun audacity is used

and spelled correctly in choice a. In choice b

the word coworker is correctly spelled. Addi-

tionally, the comma that follows coworker is

correct, as it follows an introductory clause.

The adjective volatile is correctly spelled and

used in choice d, and workplace is a single

compound word.

11. a. The word senators is a common noun, not a proper noun. It does not name specifc sena-

tors, so it should not be capitalized. The pos-

sessive pronoun their (choice b) agrees with

the plural noun senators. The word to is cor-

rectly spelled in choice c. The adjective spe-

cifc is spelled correctly and correctly

modifes the noun causes in choice d.

12. e. The sentence is free of errors. The comma is correctly placed in choice a. The clause in

choice b, such as Michelangelo and Leonardo

da Vinci, must be set off by commas, as it is a

nonessential clause. The verb created as used

in choice c is in the same tense as the verb

lived. The proper noun Middle Ages names a

specifc period in history, so it must be capi-

talized (choice d).

13. e. The sentence is free of errors. Among is cor- rect, as three people are referenced in choice

a. The apostrophe in choice b is correctly

placed in the contraction I’d. Two indepen-

dent clauses are joined by however in choice

c. The semicolon preceding and comma fol-

lowing however provide the correct punctua-

tion. The plural possessive pronoun our

agrees with the three of us in choice d.

14. c. The possessive pronoun must agree with Ana, so the possessive pronoun must be sin-

gular: her, not their. The comma used in

choice a is correctly placed before so. The

word backpack is a compound word; it is

spelled and used correctly in choice b. The

verb does not represent a shift in tense in

choice d.

15. b. The adjective less would be correct in com- parison of two people or things. In this sen-

tence, four people are being compared, so

least would be the correct adjective. The

punctuation that precedes the spoken words

in choice a (a comma with an opening quo-

tation mark) is correct. A semicolon cor-

rectly separates the two independent clauses

in choice c. The word due is spelled and used

correctly in choice d.

16. c. The correct intensive pronoun agrees with Keisha and Taylor, so the correct word is

themselves. Because choices a, d, and e do not

agree, they are incorrect. Herselves (choice b)

is not a word. The correct intensive pronoun

agrees with Keisha and Taylor, so the correct

word is themselves.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 338 9/7/17 2:09 PM

17. c. The direct objects are in the correct case— objective case. The pronoun her in choice a

is correct, as it is in the objective case (the

case for a direct object), but the pronoun I is

incorrect, as it is in the nominative case (the

case for a subject). In choices b, d, and e the

direct objects are in nominative case, rather

than objective case (her and me).

18. b. The clause who is a flm director is a nones- sential clause, so it must be set off from the

rest of the sentence by commas. If the writer

had several mothers, only one of whom was

a flm director, and if this information were

essential to the meaning of the sentence,

then the commas would not be required.

19. c. The noun in the subject, children, is plural. The nouns in the predicate must agree with

the plural subject. The nouns in the predi-

cate, jackets and hats, are plural, so they

agree with the plural subject.

20. d. An apostrophe is required for can’t recall and we’re certain but not for were made, as were

is a verb in the phrase were made.

21. e. The phrase joined together with is redundant. The word joined––without the word together

or with––is correct. Choice a is incorrect

because the phrase joined together with is

redundant. Additionally, choices b and d are

also redundant. Choice c is incorrect because

the word joining does not provide the verb

required by the sentence.

22. d. As originally written, the sentence means that you are currently playing the lead role in

a new television series. The modifer is mis-

placed. The sentence in choice d, however,

corrects the problem by properly placing the

modifer. Choices a, b, c, and e are incorrect

because the modifers are misplaced.

23. d. The noun grandmother is a common noun; it does not name a specifc grandmother, so

the word grandmother is not capitalized. The

word bestseller is also a common noun; it

does not name a specifc bestseller, so it is

not capitalized.

24. e. This is a complete sentence. The remaining answer choices are fragments.

25. a. This idiom means that someone was very surprised. The remaining choices do not

indicate shock.

26. a. The phrase not only appears in the frst clause, so but is the correct coordinating

conjunction in the second clause. Due to use

of not only and also, using nor (choice b) and

neither (choice e) is incorrect. Or (choice c)

is not the correct coordinating conjunction

for use with not only and also. Use of the

phrase not only in the frst clause and use of

the word also in the second clause requires a

different coordinating conjunction than

used in choice d.

27. a. Grammar and usage in the sentence are cor- rect. The past participle that should be used

in choice b is known, not knew. Additionally,

this sentence and choice c include a double

negative: never and nobody. Choices d and e

are incorrect because the word quick in the

sentence modifes the verb fnish, so this

modifer should be an adverb (quickly), not

an adjective (quick). Additionally, the use of

never and nobody in choice e creates a double

negative.

338338

339339

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 339 9/7/17 2:09 PM

28. b. The verbs in the independent clause must comport to the verb in the dependent clause

in number and tense. The verbs saw, went,

and ate comport to the verb arrived in per-

son and number. Due to the phrase last

month and the verb arrived, the verbs in the

independent clause must be in the past

tense, which isn’t the case in choice a. The

verbs in the independent clause must com-

port to the verb arrived in the dependent

clause. In choice c, the verb went comports

to arrived, but the words seen and eaten are

participles, so this answer choice is incorrect.

The verbs in the independent clause must

comport to the verb in the dependent clause

in number and tense, so choice d is incor-

rect. The verbs in choice e do not agree with

the subject.

29. c. The possessive pronoun he agrees with the singular each. The possessive pronoun their

in choice a is plural, not singular. The pos-

sessive pronoun is misspelled as there in

choice b. Even if it were spelled correctly

(their), it would still be incorrect, as the pos-

sessive pronoun must agree with the singular

each. The possessive pronoun their is plural,

not singular. Choice d includes mens’, which

is not a word. Additionally, it includes their,

which is the plural possessive pronoun. This

sentence requires the singular possessive

pronoun––to agree with each. While choice e

includes the possessive pronoun his, which

agrees with the singular each member, the

answer choice also includes mens, which is

not a word.

30. d. This revision clarifes the sentence, as the vague pronoun it has been replaced by an

international move. This revision makes it

clear that international moves can be the

most diffcult moves. Choices b and e create

fragments. Additionally, these choices and

choice c fail to clarify the vague pronoun it.

31. d. The adjective good is vague and overused. Replacing the adjective good with the adjec-

tive effective provides more specifc informa-

tion. Choices a, b, and c are incorrect

because they continue to use the word good.

Additionally, choices b and c delete impor-

tant information that appears in the original

sentence. Choice e is wordy and fails to pro-

vide valuable information.

32. a. All of the words in the organization’s name––other than the minor word and––

must be capitalized. This reasoning makes

all the other answer choices incorrect.

33. e. The word and has been added, which cures the run-on and creates a complete sentence.

Choices b and d are incorrect because they

do not contain complete sentences. Choice c

contains a run-on and a fragment.

34. c. The phrase basic fundamentals is redundant. Deleting the word basic cures the redun-

dancy. Choice b includes the mistake of knot

for not. The revision in choice d changes the

meaning of the sentence. Additionally, the

verb (give) does not agree with the subject

(responsibility). Choice e does not contain a

complete sentence.

35. b. The main idea of the paragraph relates to packing, and advising others of a new

address is not relevant to packing. The

remaining answer choices are relevant to the

main idea of the paragraph, which relates to

packing.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 340 9/7/17 2:09 PM

36. c. The entire passage relates to preparation for packing and moving, so this sentence sum-

marizes the information in the passage and

provides a strong conclusion. While the pas-

sage does reference an organization, choice a

does not summarize the passage and would

not provide a strong conclusion. While the

passage does reference local and interna-

tional moves, this is only a small part of the

passage. Choice b does not summarize the

ideas in the passage and would fail to pro-

vide a strong conclusion. The help of friends

and neighbors is mentioned in the passage,

but this is only a small part of the passage.

Choice d does not summarize the ideas in

the passage and would fail to provide a

strong conclusion. Environmental consider-

ations are mentioned in the passage but are

not the main focus of the passage. Choice e

fails to summarize the ideas in the passage,

and it would not provide a strong

conclusion.

37. a. The authors are Salazar, Feldstein, and John- ston. The word Print indicates that this work

has been published in hardcopy. There is no

indication within the citation that the work

has been published online (choice b). The

1950 date in choice c is part of the title of the

work. The phrase Supreme Court Justices is

part of the work’s title; Supreme Court jus-

tices are not the authors of the work (choice

d). Choice e is incorrect because this is the

third edition of the work, as indicated by

3rd ed.

38. b. Free admission would mean that all families, regardless of ability to pay admission, would

have a place to participate in activities and

exercise. Ample parking could be relevant,

but choice a does not provide the strongest

support for the opinion. While pools would

need to be in working order for families to

be able to swim, choice c does not strongly

support the opinion. It does not relate to

free admission. Safety is important, but

choice d does not strongly support the opin-

ion. It does not relate to free admission.

Choice e is incorrect because it does not sup-

port the opinion.

39. b. The botanist would provide primary source information from an expert. While a photo-

graph (choice a) would be a primary source,

it would not provide in-depth information.

The sources in choice c and e would not pro-

vide primary source material. While the

responses in choice d would provide primary

source material, there is insuffcient infor-

mation in this answer choice to show that

the local park offcials would have in-depth

information regarding the rare plant that is

the subject of the research.

340340

341341

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 341 9/7/17 2:09 PM

40. d. A narrowing triangle is used for the purpose of narrowing a broad idea to a topic that is

suffciently narrow for a project. If in-depth

research is conducted prior to narrowing,

unnecessary time can be invested. A narrow-

ing triangle is used for the purpose of nar-

rowing a broad topic to one that is

suffciently narrow and suitable for a

research project; it is not used to clarify

resources (choice a). The middle of a

research paper (choice b) is not developed

until after the topic has been narrowed,

research has been conducted, and organiza-

tional pattern has been determined. The

outline strategy (choice c) is not used until

after the topic has been narrowed and

research has been conducted. The conclu-

sion (choice e) of a research paper is not

developed until after the topic has been nar-

rowed, research has been conducted, organi-

zational pattern has been determined, and

drafts are being written.

Sample Responses for the Argumentative Essay

Sample Score 6 Response I do not agree that there should be civil and criminal

penalties when paparazzi snap photos of celebrities, nor

do I agree that paparazzi are lazy slackers; however, I

do agree that paparazzi should be subject to civil fnes

and criminal penalties when they approach young chil-

dren of celebrities to take their photos. These children

have not asked for celebrity status. They have not asked

for fame. Even if they have a parent who is a celebrity,

they are just children.

I know from my own experience that my young

children are often frightened when they experience sud-

den movement and loud noises when we are out. I have

seen the clips on television of paparazzi racing toward

the children of celebrities, shouting at these children as

photographers swirl all around them. The children look

absolutely terrifed. Some sob and bury their faces in a

parent’s shoulder as the paparazzi shout at them. It

does not matter how much money the paparazzi can

make from these photographs. Income does not warrant

this type of behavior.

Civil fnes and criminal penalties are a step in the

right direction to show that this type of fear-inducing

behavior around children will not be tolerated; these

sanctions will punish intolerable behavior. Additionally,

these sanctions will serve as a strong deterrent. If the

paparazzi realize they will have to give up the money

they make from the photos, and if they discover that

they could spend time in jail and then have a criminal

record for frightening these children, then they will

think twice before engaging in this behavior. I would

even go so far as to say that the same penalties that

apply to paparazzi for photographing children of celeb-

rities should be extended to the magazines and websites

that publish the photos, as it is important to make the

punishment stringent across the board.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 342 9/7/17 2:09 PM

While it is clear that approaching children of

celebrities to snap their photos is unacceptable, it is not

accurate to refer to the paparazzi as “lazy.” This behav-

ior of the paparazzi is not to be condoned; however,

these photographers race from location to location to try

to get photographs, so it is not truly accurate to charac-

terize them as “lazy slackers.”

While I believe that paparazzi should be subject to

civil fnes and criminal penalties for approaching celeb-

rity children to snap photos, I do not believe this should

also be the case when paparazzi approach celebrities to

take their photos when celebrities’ children are not pres-

ent. Celebrities make millions of dollars. The price I pay

for a movie ticket is becoming more astronomical all the

time; it is currently ten dollars or more and is funneled

in the direction of the celebrities. There is a price the

celebrities pay for fame. This price is being recognizable

and being the target of constant adoration by fans, fans

who want to see the celebrities’ photos as the celebrities

go about their everyday lives. This is part and parcel of

inviting fame, and celebrities know this as they take on

such status.

I do not have to tolerate photographers racing

toward me and snapping my photo as I go to work, head

to the cleaners, or spend time at a local restaurant; how-

ever, I also do not garner the income of a celebrity. If I

did, I would know that fame has many facets and that

one of these is tolerating constant adoration. We all

have negative and positive consequences of our life

choices, and a cadre of photographers is a negative con-

sequence for celebrities who have chosen their life pur-

suits; however, it should never be anticipated as a

negative consequence for their young children, who

have not chosen this life pursuit.

About This Essay This extremely strong response begins by explaining

the parts of the prompt with which the writer agrees

and disagrees, explaining the distinction between

photographs taken of celebrities and photos taken of

their children. The essay continues by providing per-

sonal examples of the fear young children can

experience when faced with loud noises and sudden

movement while out in public. The essay also pro-

vides a clear, strong example of children’s reactions to

the paparazzi when the children are out with their

parents.

The essay continues by stating the reasons for

civil and criminal penalties, and the writer provides

support by stating that the paparazzi would lose

income. The essay also points out the deterrent effect

of criminal penalties. The writer takes the argument

and support one step further by suggesting that web-

sites and magazines publishing the photos should

also face penalties.

As the essay continues, the writer refutes the

position in the prompt that paparazzi are lazy. The

essay provides a strong example, explaining that

paparazzi must race from location to location, which

contraindicates laziness.

The essay then makes a clear and strong point

of elaborating on the position that while paparazzi

should be punished for taking photos of celebrities’

children, the paparazzi should not be punished for

taking photos of the celebrities when their children

are not present. The essay supports this position by

detailing the huge incomes garnered by celebrities.

The essay concludes by drawing a distinction

between the life of the writer and the lives of celebri-

ties. The writer cogently points out that people expe-

rience negative and positive consequences for their

life choices. The writer elaborates by providing details

to explain that the writer does not have to tolerate

hordes of paparazzi when the writer goes through the

daily routine; however, the writer also does not have

the income of a celebrity. As the writer notes, due to

the income of celebrities, a positive consequence that

comes to them through their life choices, the celebri-

ties must also tolerate the negative consequence of

being constantly approached for photos. The essay’s

fnal sentence pulls the essay together, reiterating the

distinction between a life chosen by celebrities and a

life that is not chosen by their children.

342342

343343

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 343 9/7/17 2:09 PM

The writer offers strong organization, provid-

ing clear development of the writer’s position. This is

accomplished through a focus on the writer’s posi-

tion and support for this position through clear

details and examples. The writer also provides a vari-

ety of sentence lengths and types, which adds inter-

est and credibility to the essay. The essay is free from

errors in mechanics, usage, and grammar. All of

these qualities result in the essay clearly deserving a

score of 6.

Sample Score 5 Response I agree that paparazzi should not be allowed to take

photos of celebrities or their children, but I do not agree

that paparazzi are lazy. They do a great deal of work to

take the photos they take from day to day. Even though

these are photos they should not be taking, it does not

logically follow that the paparazzi are lazy.

It is very sad when human beings are not able to

go about their daily lives without having photographers

mob them and snap photos of them every time they

walk a few feet down the sidewalk. I’ve even seen photos

taken by the paparazzi that showed celebrities doing

workout exercises in places where the celebrities clearly

thought no cameras were nearby. It isn’t fair that celeb-

rities’ never have the chance to relax and just be them-

selves without the necessity to be performing every

minute of every day.

It is true that celebrities make a great deal of

money, but so do people in many other walks of life,

and all of them don’t have to push past huge groups of

photographers coming at them to take their photo-

graphs. There is no reason to assume that just because

a person makes large sums of money, that person

should lose the right to live a daily life like a normal

person. One of neighbors has a friend who is an actor

and lives in New York. My neighbor told me that his

friend was actually injured by paparazzi who just

wouldn’t stop coming closer and closer to try to snap

her photo. This was a terrifying experience for her just

as being pursued by paparazzi must be a terrifying

experience for all celebrities.

As bad as it is for paparazzi to race to celebrities to

take their photos, it is even worse when paparazzi race

toward children of celebrities. At least the adult celebri-

ties understand what is happening. The children likely

do not understand. No matter how many times the

paparazzi approach them, screaming and snapping

photos, the experience is a scary one for young children.

Celebrities have even testifed before Congress about the

fear their children feel when paparazzi approach.

The real problem here is not with the paparazzi. It

is with the magazines and Web sites that purchase these

photos. If the magazines and Web sites refused to buy

the photos, the paparazzi would stop taking them, as

they would not make any money from the photos they

snapped. Until the purchases of the photos stop, though,

it is necessary to punish the people who are constantly

approaching the celebrities and their children. Civil

penalties and criminal charges are strong admonitions

that show this type of behavior will not be tolerated.

About This Essay The essay opens by clearly stating the writer’s posi-

tion. The writer agrees with part of the prompt but

not with the entire prompt. The writer explains

agreement with the statement that paparazzi should

not be permitted to take photos of celebrities and

their children; however, the writer points out dis-

agreement with the statement that paparazzi are lazy.

The essay continues by pointing out that celeb-

rities are humans and should have the opportunity to

go about their daily lives without having paparazzi

constantly snapping photos of them. The essay pro-

vides an example of paparazzi managing to snap

photos at workout facilities.

As the essay continues, the writer points out

that celebrities do make great amounts money––as a

number of people do. The essay explains that all peo-

ple who earn substantial incomes do not have to tol-

erate paparazzi constantly coming at them. This

comparison provides strong support for the writer’s

position.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 344 9/7/17 2:09 PM

The essay goes on to make the point that as bad

as it is for adult celebrities to be approached by

paparazzi, it is even worse for the paparazzi to

approach celebrities’ children. To strongly exemplify

the seriousness of the problem, the writer details the

work of celebrities to bring this issue before members

of Congress.

In the conclusion, the writer details the cause of

the paparazzi problem, stating that if magazines and

websites refused to purchase the photos, the paparazzi

would stop taking them. Short of that event, however,

the writer states that civil penalties and criminal pun-

ishment would show that this type of behavior would

not be tolerated. This clearly shows that the writer

has come full circle in the essay––by opening with the

position, supporting the position, and reiterating the

position.

The writer does have clear organization

throughout the essay; however, the examples and

details, while applicable, would be stronger if they

were to offer greater perception about the depth of

the issue. The essay does offer a variety of sentence

types and lengths; however, the effectiveness of the

sentences is not consistent. Additionally, the vocabu-

lary could be more powerful. While the response has

few errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics, it does

contain a couple of errors, such as the use of the pos-

sessive celebrities’ rather than the plural noun celebri-

ties in the second paragraph and the lack of a comma

after the word her in this sentence: This was a terrify-

ing experience for her just as being pursued by paparazzi

must be a terrifying experience for all celebrities. These

issues keep the essay from rising to the level of an

essay scored at 6.

Sample Score 4 Response I agree that paparazzi should suffer consequences for

taking photos of celebrities’ young children; however, I

do not agree that paparazzi should suffer consequences

for taking photos of the celebrities, and I do not think

paparazzi are lazy.

Young children of celebrities can be vulnerable,

and they can be frightened by photographers, they can

be especially frightened when they are just walking out

the front door of a home.

Celebrities, on the other hand, should be used to

fame, he should be accustomed to having their photo-

graphs taken all the time. After all, celebrities sign on

for fame. This is what they ask for, so it only makes

sense that they must accept the constant attention that

comes along with this fame.

While I disapprove of the way paparazzi make

their living, I do not think it is correct to say that they

are lazy. They do their work, just as so many other peo-

ple do their work.

So, it is clear that paparazzi should suffer penal-

ties for going after the children of celebrities to take their

photos, but they should not be punished for taking pho-

tos of the celebrities.

About This Essay This essay demonstrates competence. The writer

clearly states positions, including agreement with the

position that paparazzi should be punished for pho-

tographing celebrities’ young children and disagree-

ment with the position that paparazzi should be

punished for photographing celebrities. The writer

also expresses disagreement with the position that

paparazzi are lazy. The essay is organized, beginning

with the position regarding celebrities’ young chil-

dren, continuing with discussion of the position

regarding photographing celebrities, going on to state

a position regarding whether the paparazzi are lazy,

and then wrapping up by restating two of the

positions.

The writer explains some key ideas with ade-

quate support; however, additional key ideas and

stronger, insightful support would make the essay rise

to a higher score. The essay is also in need of more

examples to support the positions stated by the

writer.

Overall, the writer shows control of grammar,

usage, and mechanics; however, there are some errors

344344

345345

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 345 9/7/17 2:09 PM

in these areas. For example, the writer includes a run-

on in the second paragraph: Young children of celebri-

ties can be vulnerable, and they can be frightened by

photographers, they can be especially frightened when

they are just walking out the front door of a home. The

writer also makes an error in parallelism in the third

paragraph: Celebrities, on the other hand, should be

used to fame, he should be accustomed to having their

photographs taken all the time.

Sample Score 3 Response It is true that these photographers should note be taking

pictures. Celebrities have rights. They’re children have

rights. But the papparzi are given too many rights. They

should suffer serious penalties for taking pictures of

celebrities and their children. They should be punished

for doing this. Don’t they ever think about how the peo-

ple they are taking pictures of feel. I don’t think they do,

I don’t think they care at all.

What happens to the celebrities after someone

takes the picture? What happens to they’re children?

There should be more caring about the feelings they

have, their should be more laws to stop papparzi from

behaving this way.

I don’t get why the papprazi get to make money.

Theyre kind of like a herd of elephants always stamped-

ing after others. They should be punished because they

fail to respect the rights of the people they are photo-

graphing.

About This Essay While there is some competence in this essay, it con-

tains serious faws. It limits itself to stating that

paparazzi are given too many rights and should suffer

serious penalties; however, it fails to detail what these

rights and penalties might be. The organization is

weak, and there is very little development of ideas.

While the writer indicates a disdain for the action of

paparazzi, the writer does not fully develop the rea-

sons for this disdain. The essay includes many errors

in grammar, usage, and mechanics.

Sample Score 2 Response Papparrazzi who take photos of celebrities and children

are ridiculous. They run around taking photos and

bothering people all day long. Why should they get real

jobs when all they have to do is take pictures? They are

just lazy and irritating.

You can see how scared the children are when

paparazzi take photos, but do the paparazzi care? No,

they don’t care about the children, they don’t care about

the celebrities. They only care about themselves.

In conklusun, the paparazi just take advantage of

celebrities and children to make money. They should

not be aloud to do this.

About This Essay This essay is seriously fawed; it contains only the

most minimal of development. It states no clear posi-

tion, and it lacks organization. The essay emotionally

states a lack of approval for the action of the

paparazzi; however, it fails to include examples and

strong details and it contains many errors in mechan-

ics, grammar, and usage.

Sample Score 1 Response No, I don’t think the paparazi shud take photos of peo-

ple who are celebrities. And they shouldn’t take pitchers

of their children. They are just lazy, they should get a

reel job. They should wurk for a living just lik we all do.

Who do they think they are anyway? Their not

important, they just want to take pitchers and make lots

of money. Everywon wants to make lots of money. That

is true. They just should never take these fotos. They

should have respect for others. Those poor children!

About This Essay This essay is underdeveloped; it alludes loosely to the

topic, but it fails to develop an argument. The essay

shows fundamental defciencies in writing skills. It

contains serious and persistent writing errors, dis-

playing issues with usage, mechanics, language facil-

ity, and development. All of these issues make the

essay very confusing.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 346 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Sample Responses for the Source-Based Essay

Sample Score 6 Response There is a clear division of opinion regarding whether

human missions to the Moon should be resumed. This

is an important issue, as resuming such travel could

result in millions of government dollars being spent. A

failure to resume such travel, however, could result in

the United States falling behind other nations in

research, potential alternative colonization, and poten-

tial weaponry for protection.

Sanjeev Patel believes human lunar missions

should resume (Research and Frontiers: The Moon).

Patel offers clear reasons, while countering potential

arguments against his stance. “Humans can much more

effectively conduct research than the research conducted

by robotic probes and rovers.” Humans can do delicate

work and critical analysis that cannot be accomplished

by robots (Patel).

Another reason for space exploration is that on

prior missions, only a very small quantity of the Moon

was explored (Patel). In examining the potential of the

Moon, Patel discusses possible colonization of the Moon,

which could be valuable in the event of a cataclysmic

Earth event; however, Patel offers almost no specifcs

regarding feasibility.

As referenced by Patel, the security of the United

States is an important concern. It is thought that many

nations are planning human lunar missions. Patel

admits that types of future weaponry might not be

known at the current time but that it is important that

the United States not fall behind other nations.

Midori Chin articulates her support for Obama’s

decision to suspend plans for human lunar missions.

Millions of dollars would have been spent for these

human lunar missions, “and there are so many needs

here on Earth for those funds” (Chin).

In referencing the argument of robotic rover ver-

sus a human on the Moon, Chin states that a human

can live only a short time on the Moon, while a rover

could remain there for a long period of time. The Mars

Rovers provide strong support regarding this longevity

(Chin). Still, Chin fails to reference the delicate work

and analytical skills of a human. This damages the

credibility of her position.

There are strong opposing views to Patel’s state-

ments regarding lunar colonization. “The assertion that

humans might colonize the Moon is so remote a possi-

bility as to be laughable.” Such colonization is far

beyond the technology available at the present time

(Chin). Chin discusses the possibility of private compa-

nies sending humans to the Moon, an interesting alter-

native to government funding.

In conclusion, there are strong pros and cons

regarding human lunar travel. Based on the arguments

and support presented in these two pieces, the benefts of

human lunar travel at the present time are not worth

the expense such travel would incur.

About This Essay This essay demonstrates a high degree of competence.

The writer explains why the concerns are important,

immediately identifying the issues upon opening the

essay: This is an important issue, as resuming such

travel could result in millions of government dollars

being spent. A failure to resume such travel, however,

could result in the United States falling behind other

nations in research, potential alternative colonization,

and potential weaponry for protection.

In addition to identifying the issues, the writer

provides insight into the importance of the issues and

the positions of each author. For example, the writer

notes Patel’s lack of support regarding feasibility of

human lunar colonization. The writer also recognizes

the failure of Chin to address the delicate and analyti-

cal nature of human work: Still, Chin fails to reference

the delicate work and analytical skills of a human. This

damages the credibility of her position. The writer’s

insight is an important element in elevating the essay

to a score of 6.

The writer incorporates information from both

sources, and the writer organizes and develops ideas

logically. The writer opens by stating the important

346346

347347

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 347 9/7/17 2:09 PM

issues. The writer continues by discussing Patel’s

positions and then discussing Chin’s positions. The

writer compares the positions of the two authors.

The writer offers substantial variety in sentence

structure and length throughout the essay. The writer

also cites both sources when paraphrasing and quot-

ing. The writer clearly displays facility in the use of

language, offering strong grammar, usage, and

mechanics. For all of these reasons, the essay most

certainly deserves a score of 6.

Sample Score 5 Response There is a clear division of opinion regarding human

lunar space travel by the United States government.

Some believe this type of travel is essential, others

believe it should not be pursued. The issues related to

human lunar travel are of great merit. Such travel could

add to the knowledge base of scientists. It could offer the

potential of lunar colonization, and it could provide a

base for weapons that could one day protect the security

of the United States.

In consideration of research. Some believe that

robotic probes and rovers could do a more effective job

than humans could (“Balancing Priorities: Earth and

Moon”). Midori Chin states that humans would be able

to live only a short time on the Moon, while rovers, such

as the Mars Rovers could remain on the Moon for many

years.

Not everyone agrees that rovers are the most effec-

tive vehicles for research. In Research and Frontiers: The

Moon, Sanjeev Patel explains that humans could much

more effectively move forward with research than rovers

could. “There simply is no replacement for human ana-

lytical skills and decisions to be made as research is

being conducted. A robotic rover simply lacks this capa-

bility, and the clunky ‘arms’ of a robotic probe are not

able to carefully and delicately extract and examine

samples from the lunar surface” (Patel).

As Patel explains, humans might one day need to

leave Earth as the result of a disaster, such as a volcanic

eruption or asteroid strike. Patel states that the Moon

holds the key to potential human colonization. Chin

strongly disagrees with this statement. “In order for

humans to live on the Moon, it would be necessary to

devise and develop some sort of artifcial atmosphere

under a dome or similar structure” (Chin). Chin states

that his simply would not be possible, based on the tech-

nology currently available.

Patel makes a strong point of discussing the secu-

rity of the United States, explaining that many nations

are believed to be developing human lunar missions.

Chin does not reference this point; however, national

security is vital.

Chin makes a very strong point in her piece. She

points out that private companies could fund human

lunar space travel. This idea makes sense, and it takes

the onus off of the United States to expend the funds for

human lunar space travel.

In summary, there is a clear split of opinion

regarding whether the United States should resume

human lunar space travel. While there are cogent ideas

on both sides of the argument, the idea that is most rea-

sonable is for human lunar space travel to continue

through the funding of private companies, not through

the funding of the United States government.

About This Essay This essay demonstrates clear competence; however,

it contains minor errors. The writer provides clear

organization by comparing the positions of Patel and

Chin when relevant throughout the essay. This

method of organization is effective, and it shows clear

links between the two pieces, while incorporating

information from both sources to identify and

explain important concerns. This is just one strong

example from the essay:

In consideration of research. Some believe that

robotic probes and rovers could do a more effective job

than humans could (“Balancing Priorities: Earth and

Moon”). Midori Chin states that humans would be able

to live only a short time on the Moon, while rovers, such

as the Mars Rovers could remain on the Moon for many

years.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 348 9/7/17 2:09 PM

Not everyone agrees that rovers are the most effec-

tive vehicles for research. In Research and Frontiers:

The Moon, Sanjeev Patel explains that humans could

much more effectively move forward with research than

rovers could. “There simply is no replacement for

human analytical skills and decisions to be made as

research is being conducted.”

While it is true that the writer clearly identifes

the opposing views of the two authors, the writer

does not offer keen insight and analysis regarding

these positions. Such insight and analysis would have

helped to elevate the essay to a score of 6.

The writer provides some sentence variety;

however, the essay would have been more powerful

with greater variety. The writer cites both sources

when paraphrasing and quoting, and the essay is gen-

erally free from errors in grammar, usage, and

mechanics, although the essay includes this fragment:

In consideration of research. The essay also contains

this run-on: Some believe this type of travel is essential,

others believe it should not be pursued.

Sample Score 4 Response The United States has stoped programs for human

lunar space travel. Some people think this is a bad idea.

Some people think this is a good idea. People could one

day live on the Moon. Researchers could do more

research on the Moon. There might be weapons the

United States could use from the Moon for protection.

Sanjeev Patel wrote Research and Frontiers: The

Moon. He thinks the United States should start sending

people to the Moon again. He says scientists could do

research there. He says robots can’t do this kind of

research.

There is more of the Moon to explore (Patel). Peo-

ple could colonize the Moon. At least, that’s what Patel

thinks. Midori Chin does not agree (“Balancing Priori-

ties: Earth and Moon”). She thinks it would be hard to

colonize the Moon.

It would be less expensive to send a rover to the

Moon than to send a person. The rover would not need

to come back (Chin).

The United States needs to be protected. Other

nations might send people to the Moon (Patel). What if

those other countries start putting weapons on the

Moon before the United States does. This could be disas-

trous. The United States might no longer be secure.

Chin does not discuss this issue in her piece.

It’s possible that someone could still go to the

Moon and the United States would not have to pay. Pri-

vate companies could send people to the Moon (Chin).

Then people would still be going to the Moon, but the

money would not have to come from the budget of the

U.S. governemetn. Many people on Earth need things.

It takes money to pay for those things. If private compa-

nies send people to the Moon, then the people on Earth

could still get the things they need from the goverment.

About This Essay This essay adequately explains why the concerns are

important. The essay also supports the explanation

with some links between the two sources. Although

the reasons and examples provided are adequate, they

are not powerful. For example, the writer skims the

surface of sending rovers rather than humans to the

Moon; however, the writer does not provide strong

reasons or in-depth analysis in this regard. More

powerful reasons and examples, as well as a stronger

explanation regarding the importance of the con-

cerns, could be instrumental in elevating this essay to

a higher score.

The essay cites both sources when paraphrasing,

and the writer shows some control in the organiza-

tion and development of ideas. The writer opens with

a rudimentary summary of the issues and then con-

tinues by discussing opposing viewpoints regarding

issues. The writer also mentions the lack of an oppos-

ing viewpoint: The United States needs to be protected.

Other nations might send people to the Moon (Patel).

What if those other countries start putting weapons on

the Moon before the United States does. This could be

disastrous. The United States might no longer be secure.

Chin does not discuss this issue in her piece.

348348

349349

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 349 9/7/17 2:09 PM

The essay demonstrates adequate use of lan-

guage and shows some control of grammar, usage,

and mechanics, though there are a number of errors

(e.g., the misspelling of stoped for stopped and a

period rather than a question mark at the end of a

question).

Sample Score 3 Response There are no more missions scheduled by the U.S. gov-

ernment for humans to travel to the Moon. There are

costs to think about. There is research to think about,

there is national security to think about. There is

another place for people to one day live to think abowt.

Robots could go to the Moon insted of humans.

But these robots could not do the kind of work humans

could do (Research and Frontiers: The Moon). We’ve

looked at only part of the Moon (Patel). People could

live on the Moon if something teribul happens.

The United States has to stay safe. That’s why the

United States needs to send peepul to the Moon. This is

important.

About This Essay This essay shows some competence, but it contains

many faws. The essay is limited in explaining why the

concerns are important. The writer opens by essen-

tially providing a list of things to “think about” but

gives little detail about explaining why these are

important concerns.

The writer uses a single source, the Patel source,

to identify concerns regarding the issue. Reasons and

details are inadequate. The writer fails to clearly

establish why human lunar space travel is important.

The writer has limited control in the organiza-

tion and development of ideas. The essay never fully

develops any ideas; instead, it states unclear refer-

ences regarding human lunar travel.

The essay contains an accumulation of errors in

the use of language and in grammar, usage, and

mechanics. For example, the writer includes run-ons,

such as the following: There is research to think about,

there is national security to think about. The writer

also includes many spelling errors, including abowt,

insted, teribul, and peepul.

Sample Score 2 Response It is ridiculus to think about spending money to go to

the Moon. A person can’t breath the air. A robot could

live they’re. A robot lives on Mars, it do good work. We

need money here. Not on the Moon.

How could even won person live on the Moon?

Why even think about lots of people living there. Its just

silly. The president said we wouldnt send people to the

Moon now. This makes sense. Money is to bee spent

here. Maybe we could go to live on the Moon in the

future, or maybe a companie could send people there

now.

About This Essay This essay is seriously fawed. It does not explain why

human lunar travel is an important issue. Instead, it

rambles on about the air on the Moon and how ridic-

ulous it is to think about spending money to travel

there. Only one source, the Chin source, is used, and

its use is weak and unclear. No source is cited. The

organization is weak, and there is very little

development.

The essay contains frequent serious errors in the

use of language and in grammar, usage, and mechan-

ics. For example, the essay contains this error in sub-

ject-verb agreement: it do good work. The essay

contains this fragment: Not on the Moon. The essay

also includes many spelling errors, such the follow-

ing: ridiculus, breath (for breathe), won (for one),

wouldnt, and companie.

Sample Score 1 Response Travel to space? Maybe good idea. Maybe not a good

idea. People could go. Robots could work there. Costs a

lot. Peepul couldnt live there for long times.

Country could protect from the Moon, people cud

live on the Moon. People needs money here and now.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 350 9/7/17 2:09 PM

This is not whut they need later on the Moon. Maybe

company would send people to the Moon, that cud

wurk. That wud cost less money.

About This Essay This essay demonstrates fundamental defciencies in

writing skills. Although it alludes to portions of the

topic, such as robots on the Moon, the essay is under-

developed and almost incoherent. It is flled with

serious and persistent writing errors (e.g., run-ons,

spelling errors, lack of subject-verb agreement, and

fragments).

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Mathematics Practice Test 4

Time: 85 Minutes

Directions: Choose the best answer to each of the fol-

lowing questions.

1. Select all of the statements that are true for the regular pentagon ABCDE:

A B

E C

a. There is at least one line of symmetry.

b. It has rotation symmetry with vertex E being

the center of rotation.

c. There is a glide refection that maps ABCDE

onto itself.

d. It has at least three angles of rotational

symmetry about the center of the pentagon.

e. There is a transformation that maps vertex A

to vertex D.

350350

351351

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 351 9/7/17 2:09 PM

2. Which sentence best describes the data in the scatterplot?

5. On the map of a national park, 1 inch corre- sponds to 2.4 miles. If the length of a hiking

trail on the map is 4.9 inches, what is the

length of the real trail?

a. 2.04 miles

b. 7.30 miles

c. 11.76 miles

d. 24.01 miles

e. 30.00 miles

6. Select all of the solutions to this system of equations:

X ⎧ ⎨ ⎩

−5x – 3y = 3

20x = 12y + 12 a. The data have a strong positive correlation.

b. The correlation is weak. a. x = 1, y = 1 c. There is a moderate negative correlation

between the variables.

d. There is a strong nonlinear relationship

between the two variables.

e. There is no relationship between the data.

3. Let f(x) = 2x3 – 3x + 4 and g(x) = –2x2 – 3x – 1.

b. x = 0, y = –1 __3 c. x = 5 , y = 0

__5d. x = –1, y = 3 e. x = 2, y = –3

7. Suppose that a random variable X has the fol- lowing probability distribution:

What is f(x) – 3x · g(x)?

a. 8x3 + 9x2 + 4

b. 8x3 + 6x + 4

c. –8x3 + 9x2 – 4

x –2 0 1 3 4

P(X = x) 1__ 6

1__ 4

1__ 8

5__ 24

1__ 4

What is the expected value of X as a simplifed d. (2x3 – 6x + 4)(–2x2 – 3x – 1) improper fraction? e. 2x3 + 2x2 + 5

4. The length of a rectangular room is 4 feet less than 3 times the width of the room. The

perimeter of the room is 56 feet. What is the

length of the room?

a. 8 feet

b. 14 feet

c. 15 feet

d. 41 feet

e. 20 feet

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 352 9/7/17 2:09 PM

8. Which of the following numbers is equivalent 8 3to ?16 15

10a. 5 1

b. 2 12 5c. 10

d. 2√5 5e. 40

9. A chairlift at a ski resort carries skiers from the base of the mountain to the top, as shown in

this diagram:

Top of Mountain

C Base of

Mountain

The distance a skier travels while on the chair-

lift is 6,200 feet. The horizontal distance a skier

travels as she moves on the chairlift is 5,000

feet. What is the approximate height of the

mountain, rounded to the nearest foot?

a. 1,200 feet

b. 3,666 feet

c. 5,000 feet

d. 7,965 feet

e. 11,200 feet

5,000 ft.

6,20 0 ft

10. Which of these scatterplots illustrates a moder- ate positive relationship between X and Y?

Ya.

b. Y

c. Y

d. Y

e. Y

352352

353353

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 353 9/7/17 2:09 PM

⎧ ⎨ ⎩

11. Consider this recursively defned function: − f(1) = 5

f(n + 1) = 3 – 2f(n), n ≥ 1

What is f(4)?

12. Which of these statements is true? a. p = 3.14

b. π 1 2 π

c. √2 + √14 = √16 d. √e ≈ 2.718

e πe. >π e

13. Which of these numbers is/are greater than 2? Choose all that apply.

a. p – 1 –1b. e

c. √3 d. e

e. √e

14. Choose the expression that is equivalent to 2 28x y3 – 4xy2 – 2x y.

a. 2xy(4xy2 – 2y – x) 2b. –2xy(–2y + 4xy – x)

c. 2xy2(4xy – 2y – x) 2d. 8x y3 – 2xy(2y – x) 2 3 3e. 8x y3 – 6x y

15. Consider the triangle ABC:

Which of the following transformations creates

an image of triangle ABC where A’ is at (–5,0),

B’ is at (–8,0), and C’ is at (–8,5)?

a. Rotate triangle ABC around the origin

counterclockwise by 90 degrees.

b. Translate triangle ABC to the left 14 units.

c. Refect triangle ABC across the x-axis.

d. Refect triangle ABC across the line x = –1.

e. Refect the triangle ABC across the line x = 3.

16. What is the median of the data set represented by this box-and-whisker plot?

a. 35

b. 40

c. 47

d. 50

e. 60

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 354 9/7/17 2:09 PM

17. Which of these numbers is a prime factor of b. 504?

a. 7

b. 9

c. 11

d. 17

e. 21

18. Which of these is a reasonable estimate for the c.

height of a full-grown cherry tree?

a. 150 mm

b. 1.5 km

c. 35 cm

d. 12 ft.

e. 20 in.

d. 19. What is the solution to this system of equations?

− y – x = –5

4y – x = 40

20. Which of the following distributions appears(s) to have a mean that is NOT positive? Select all

of the correct answers.

a. e.

⎧ ⎨ ⎩

354354

355355

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 355 9/7/17 2:09 PM

21. Bob’s favorite recipe for cake frosting calls for 1.5 cups of sugar and 0.5 cups of butter, but he

has only 1 cup of sugar in his pantry. If he

wants to produce the same type of frosting as

in the recipe, how much butter should he use

with his 1 cup of sugar?

a. 3 cups

b. 1 cup __1 c. cup3

d. __4 1 cup

__1 e. cup6

22. Find the value of x: __3 __3 4 x – 1 = –( 8 x – 2) __8 a. – 9

__9b. 24 __17 c. 9 __24d. 9

e. 15

23. If the radius of a circular garden is three times the radius of a circular fower bed, the area of

the garden is how many times the area of the

fower bed? __1 a. 9

b. 3

c. 6

d. 9

e. 27

24. What is the slope of the line graphed here?

__2 a. – 3 b. 0

__2 c. 3 __3d. 2

e. 2

25. Jeannette has 7__2 gallons of paint and wishes to5 paint as many panels of her fence as possible.

__7Each panel requires 8 gallon of paint. How

many complete panels can she paint?

26. Frank has $140 to spend at a cookware store. A specialty kitchen gadget costs $9.50 and a con-

tainer of spices averages $4.25. If G represents

the number of gadgets and S represents the

number of containers of spices, which of the

following inequalities accurately describes the

relationship between G and S?

a. 140 – 9.50G ≤ 4.25S b. 140 ≥ G + S c. 9.50S + 4.25G ≤ 140 d. 9.50G + 4.25S ≤ 140 e. (9.50G)(4.25S) < 140

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 356 9/7/17 2:09 PM

27. Consider the parallelogram WXYZ shown here. 29. Consider the following distribution, and then What is the value of d? choose all of the true statements:

a. 43°

b. 57°

c. 60°

d. 80°

e. 137°

28. The diameter of a spherical oil tank is 2 meters. What is the volume of the tank?

__1 a. 3 p cubic meters

b. __3 4 p cubic meters

c. 4p cubic meters __32d. 3 p cubic meters

e. 32p cubic meters

a. The distribution is symmetric.

b. The distribution is bimodal.

c. The distribution is skewed left.

d. The mean of this distribution is positive.

e. The median is greater than the mean.

30. The directions on a can of frozen orange-juice concentrate read, “Mix contents with two cans

of water.” How many 8-ounce cans of concen-

trate are needed to make 384 fuid ounces of

juice?

356356

357357

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 357 9/7/17 2:09 PM

______

___

_________

___________

_________

31. A sixth-grade teacher is going to select a stu- dent to serve as this month’s hall monitor. To

do this, he randomly selects a letter from the

alphabet and then chooses the frst student in

his roster whose last name begins with that let-

ter. Which statement is true?

a. This would be fair for a class of 50, but not

for a class of 20.

b. The selection is unfair because there may

not be an equal number of students for each

letter.

c. The selection is fair because students with an

uncommon last name will not be singled

out.

d. The selection is fair because each letter has

an equal chance of being selected.

e. The selection is unfair because he did a

random selection of letters instead of

numbers.

32. Which of the following quadratic equations has/have imaginary solution(s)? Select all that

apply.

a. 2x2 + 8 = 0

b. –2x2 – 6x = 0

c. x2 + 9x + 2 = 0

d. 2x2 – 15 = 0

e. 2x2 + x + 3 = 0

33. A professional tennis player can serve the ball at 110 miles per hour. Which of the following

numerical expressions is the speed of her serve

in feet per second? (Note that 1 mile = 5,280

feet.) 110 a. 60 × 60 feet per second

110b. 60 feet per second 110 × 5,280c. feet per second60 × 60 110 × 60 × 60d. feet per second5,280 110 × 5,280e. 60 feet per second

34. A tool shed is shaped like a cube. The surface area, including the foor and ceiling, is

294 square meters. What is the volume

of the shed?

a. 7 cubic meters

b. 49 cubic meters

c. 216 cubic meters

d. 294 cubic meters

e. 343 cubic meters

35. A single card is selected from a standard deck of 52 playing cards. Which of the following

statements is/are true?

I. P(getting a black card or getting a jack) __7 = 13

__3II. P(getting a 4 or getting a red 8) = 26 __16III. P(getting a king and a club) = 52

a. I only

b. I and II only

c. II and III only

d. III only

e. I, II, and III

36. Suppose that f is an invertible function. Look at the table of values for f(x).

x –4 –2 –1 0 1 2

f(x) 0 2 3 5 1 –1

What is the value of the expression f –1(f –1(–1)),

where f –1 represents the inverse function of f ?

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 358 9/7/17 2:09 PM

___

37. Which of these is equivalent to the expression __7 __1 12 × 23 + 12 × 24?

a. __3 2 × 23

__3b. × 64 __1 c. 2 × 23 __3d. 4 × 24 __3 e. 4 × 23

38. Two brothers are reading the same book, but one of them is 4 pages behind the other. If they

add their current page numbers together, the

sum is 408. On what page is the slower reader?

a. 98

b. 102

c. 202

d. 210

e. 206

39. There are 80 questions on a test. How many questions must you answer correctly to score

70%?

40. The side AC of the triangle ABC is the diameter of the pictured semicircle. If the radius of the

circle is 3, what is AB?

a. √3 b. 3

c. 3√3 d. 6

e. 6√3

41. One hundred college freshmen were asked if they intended to transfer to another university

for their sophomore year. The responses are

tabulated here:

MALE FEMALE

Yes 8 21 No 16 20 Maybe 22 13

What is the probability that the student is male

given that the answer is yes? 8 a. 100

__8b. 29 29 c. 100 46d. 100

__26 e. 29

358358

359359

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 359 9/7/17 2:09 PM

___________

_______

____________

___________

_______

_____ __

___

42. In the diagram, if segment DF is a diameter of 44. Which equation has solutions that correspond circle E, and segment DG is congruent to seg- to the x-intercepts in the following graph?

ment EG, what is the value of 2y?

a. 30°

b. 60°

c. 120°

d. 240°

e. 360°

43. Choose the expression that is equivalent to the following:

2 ______9 – x (x + 5)(3 – x) (x + 5)2 ÷ x (x + 3)x a. x + 5 (x + 3)(x – 3)2 b. (x + 5) x

x(x + 3)c. x2 + 10x + 25 x(x + 3)d. (x + 5)3 x2 + 3x e. x3 + 125

a. (x + 2)2 – 1 = 0

b. (x – 2)2 + 1 = 0

c. (x – 2)2 – 1 = 0

d. (x + 2)2 + 1 = 0

e. 3(x – 2)2 + 1 = 0

1 + x 345. What is the value of 2 2

when x = 4 ?1 – x __7 a. 25 175b. 256

c. 1 __4d. 3 7 __3 e. 4 7

46. What is the greatest common factor of 30, 45, and 60?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

e. 180

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 360 9/7/17 2:09 PM

47. A room measures 12 feet by 15 feet, and the ceiling is 9 feet high. One gallon of paint is

needed to apply one coat of paint to 250 square

feet of surface area. How many gallons will it

take to paint all but the foor of the room if

two coats of paint must be applied? Round

your answer to the nearest tenth of a gallon.

16 36?48. Which of these is equivalent to √121y z 4 6a. 11y z 8 18b. 11y z

8 18c. 121y z 4 6d. 121y z

32 72e. 11y z

49. Consider the set of geometric fgures shown:

R S T

4 6

6 U V

7 8

If a shape is selected at random, what is the

probability of selecting one whose area is at

least 10 square units? __4 a. 5 __3b. 5 __2 c. 5 __1d. 5

e. 0

50. Beth wishes to build three identical, adjacent rectangular pens on her farm so that the back

of all three pens is against the barn.

Barn

She will use 1,500 feet of fencing to construct

the pens, and fencing is not needed along the

side that touches the barn. The combined area

of all three pens is 65,000 square feet. What is

the width of each pen? Assume the width is

the longer side.

a. 25 feet

b. 50 feet

c. 200 feet

d. 325 feet

e. 433.3 feet

360360

361361

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 361 9/7/17 2:09 PM

_____

____________

___________

____________

51. A cross section parallel to the ground of an oil tank is as follows:

The tank is 5 feet high throughout. One cubic

foot of oil equals about 7.85 gallons. How

many gallons of oil can the tank hold?

a. 720 gallons

b. 1,130.4 gallons

c. 5,652 gallons

d. 4,867 gallons

e. 7,200 gallons

52. Suppose p and q are different prime numbers. What is the least common multiple of 4, 2p,

and 16q?

a. 2

b. 4p

c. 4pq

d. 148pq

e. 24 × p × q

53. Suppose that a company’s profts (in millions of dollars) for a 10-year period are shown in

this graph, where t = 0 corresponds to 2004

and t = 10 corresponds to 2014.

50 40 30 20 10

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Select all of the true statements.

a. The maximum proft during this 10-year

period occurred in the years 2005 and 2006.

b. The proft never dipped below $10 million.

c. Proft increased from 2011 through 2014.

d. Proft never increased for a period longer

than one year.

e. There are consecutive years during which

the proft remained the same.

54. Choose the expression that is equivalent to: ______1 1 – +(x – 3)2 x + 3

1 a. (x + 3)(x – 3)2 –6b. (x + 3)(x – 3)2 1 c. (x2 – 9)(x – 3)

x2 – 5x + 12d. (x + 3)(x – 3)2 (x – 6)(x – 1)e. (x + 3)(x – 3)2

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 362 9/7/17 2:09 PM

55. Consider these two sets of data: A = {5, 5, 5, 5, 5}

B = {4, 4, 4, 4}

Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. The mean of set A is greater than the

mean of set B.

II. The standard deviation of set A is greater

than the standard deviation of set B.

III. The median and mean of set A are equal.

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and III only

d. II and III only

e. None of the statements is true.

56. Assume that 0 < x < 1 and y is a negative inte- ger less than –1. Which of these must be

greater than 1? Select all answers that apply. __1 a. x

b. –y __1 c. – y 2d. x

e. y4

Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators:

Mathematics Practice Test 4 Answers and Explanations

1. a, d, and e. There are, in fact, fve lines of sym- metry (choice a). If you connect each vertex to

the midpoint of the opposite side, you will get a

line of symmetry. There are also four angles of

rotational symmetry (choice d) about the cen-

ter of the pentagon, and a rotation of 144

degrees about the center would accomplish the

transformation suggested in choice e. Choice b

would rotate the fgure around vertex E and

move the pentagon from its current location.

Once the fgure is moved, any refection (choice

c) would change the orientation of the vertices.

So this is not possible.

2. d. The points are closely grouped together, so the correlation is strong. And a quadratic

function describes the relationship, which is

nonlinear. The data do not rise from left to

right throughout the scatterplot, so the

trend is not positive, as is suggested in choice

a. The points are closely grouped together,

which suggests a strong, not a weak, correla-

tion, so choice b is incorrect. Choice c is

incorrect because, as already mentioned, the

points suggest a strong correlation. Addi-

tionally, the points do not fall from left to

right, so the trend is not negative. There is a

proven relationship as well, so choice e is

incorrect.

3. a. Distribute –3x through all terms of g(x), and then simplify:

f(x) – 3x · g(x) = (2x3 – 3x + 4) – 3x(–2x2 – 3x – 1)

= 2x3 – 3x + 4 + 6x3 + 9x2 + 3x

= 8x3 + 9x2 + 4

362362

363363

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 363 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________ __________

____________________

__ __ __ __ __ __

__ __ __

4. e. Let w represent the width of the room. That means that the length is 3w – 4. The perime-

ter of a rectangular room is twice the length

plus twice the width. Based on this informa-

tion, you’ll come to the following equation:

2w + 2(3w – 4) = 56

Then solve for w:

2w + 2(3w – 4) = 56

2w + 6w – 8 = 56

8w = 64

w = 8

So, the length of the room is 3(8) – 4 =

20 feet.

Choice a is the width of the room, not the

length. If w represents the width of the

room, then the length is 3w – 4, not 3w + 4

(choice b). If you chose c or d, you did not

multiply the width and length each by 2

when setting up the perimeter equation.

5. c. Let x represent the length of the real trail. Then set up a proportion:

1 inch 4.9 inches = 2.4 miles x miles

(1 inch)(x miles) = (2.4 miles)(4.9 inches) (2.4 miles)(4.9 inches)

x = 1 inch = 11.76 miles

So, x = 11.76 miles.

Choice a is incorrect because after setting up

a proportion, you need to multiply 4.9 by

2.4, not divide 4.9 by 2.4. If you chose choice

b it looks like you simply added 2.4 miles to

4.9 inches, which is incorrect. If you picked

choice d you may have multiplied 4.9 by

itself. This would mean that 1 inch on the

map represents 4.9 miles, which is not true.

Choice e is incorrect because of an arithme-

tic error.

6. b and c. Notice that the two equations are equivalent. (To see this, move the y-term to the

left in the second equation and divide both

sides by 4—you’ll get the frst equation.) Since

the equations are equivalent, you need to test

out a pair of x and y values only once—if they

work in one equation, they’ll work in the other. 3

This is the case for x = 0, y = –1 and x = 5 ,

y = 0. Through this logic, all other answer

choices are incorrect.

7. 17 __ 12. To compute the expected value of a random variable such as this, multiply x times P(X = x)

and add all of them. Doing so yields: 1 1 1 5 1 17

(–2)( 6 ) + 0( 4 ) + 1( 8 ) + 3(24) + 4( 4 ) = 12 8. c. Use the properties of radicals and multiply-

ing fractions to simplify the expression: 8 3 8 3 1 3 1= ⋅ = ⋅ = 16 216 15 15 3 ⋅ 5 2 5

Then rationalize the expression by multiply-

ing the numerator and denominator by √5 to get

1 1 5 5= ⋅ = 2 5 2 5 5 10

Choice a is the reciprocal of the correct

answer. If you picked choice b you sub-

tracted the radicands instead of dividing

them. The correct answer is 1 over the quan-

tity in choice d. Choice e is incorrect because 8 1 1

= 2 , not 8 .16

9. b. Use the Pythagorean theorem to determine the vertical distance v. Doing so produces

this equation:

5,0002 + v2 = 6,2002, which simplifes to

v2 = 13,440,000, so v = √13,440,000 ≈ 3,666 feet.

Choice c is incorrect because 5,000 is the

horizontal distance, not the vertical height.

In choice a, you forgot to square the sides. In

choice d, you treated AB as a leg instead of

the hypotenuse. The same applies to choice

e, but you also forgot to square the sides.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 364 9/7/17 2:09 PM

10. c. In this scatterplot, the data points rise from left to right, showing a positive relationship.

And while they aren’t packed extremely

tightly near a line with positive slope, such a

line is visible and shows a trend—meaning

that moderate describes the relationship. The

scatterplot in choice a shows a moderate

negative relationship, since the data points

fall from left to right. The scatterplot in

choice b shows a nearly constant relation-

ship, since the data points are packed

together in what looks like a horizontal line.

Choice d shows a nonlinear relationship

between X and Y. A positive relationship is

shown when data points are clustered near a

line with positive slope. The scatterplot in

choice e does not show a clear relationship

between X and Y.

11. –31. Since the function is recursively defned, start by computing f of the integer values, start-

ing at 2, as follows:

f(2) = f(1 + 1) = 3 – 2f(1) = 3 – 2(5) = –7

f(3) = f(2 + 1) = 3 – 2f(2) = 3 – 2(–7) = 17

f(4) = f(3 + 1) = 3 – 2f(3) = 3 – 2(17) = –31 212. b. Recall that √x = x, if x is a nonnegative real

number. Here, x = 1

. Choice a is incorrectp because p is an irrational number; 3.14 is only an approximation of it. The left side of

the equation in choice c is the sum of two

positive irrational numbers, so it must be

irrational, but the right side equals 4, which

is rational. Choice d is incorrect because the

number e itself is approximately equal to

2.718, whereas √e is smaller, around 1.648. Recall that e ≈ 2.718 and p ≈ 3.14. Therefore, e __ < 1 (so that π

e is also less than 1),p __p πwhereas > 1 (so that e is also greater e

than 1). This means that the inequality in

choice e is false.

13. a and d. Observe that p – 1 ≈ 3.14 – 1 = 2.14 and e ≈ 2.718, which are both greater than 2. The remaining answer choices are all less

than 2.

14. a. The greatest common factor of the three terms in the original expression is 2xy. Fac-

2 2tor it out, and you fnd that 8x y3 – 4xy – 22x y = 2xy(4xy2 – 2y – x). If you factor out

–1, you must change all of the signs of the

terms in the parentheses, making choice b

incorrect. Choice c is incorrect because you

cannot factor a y2 out of the last term in the

expression without creating a fraction. 2Notice that 2xy2(–x) = –2x y2, not –2x2y.

Choice d is almost right, but there is a mis-

take at the end of the expression: (2y – x)

should be (2y + x). You incorrectly added

the last two terms of the expression to arrive

at choice e. These expressions are not like

terms, so they can’t be added.

364364

365365

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 365 9/7/17 2:09 PM

15. d. Imagine drawing the line x = –1 on the graph. It’s a vertical line that runs 1 unit to

the left of the y-axis. Point A sits 4 units to

the right of that vertical line, at (3,0), which

means that if you refect triangle ABC across

the line, A’ would fall 4 units to the left of the

line, at (–5,0). Doing a similar conversion

for the other two points of the triangle also

gives the correct coordinates. Remember

that the origin (choice a) is the center point

of the graph, where the x- and y-axes inter-

sect. When a fgure is rotated around the ori-

gin counterclockwise by 90 degrees, (x,y)

becomes (–y,x), which means that A’ would

fall on (0,3), B’ on (0,6), and C’ on (–5,6).

This is not what the question asks for. Here

is a more informal way to understand this:

In the image, the triangle is “sitting” on the

x-axis, 3 units to the right of the origin. If we

rotate it by 90 degrees counterclockwise, it

will now “sit” on the y-axis, 3 units above the

origin. (If we rotate it again by 90 degrees

counterclockwise, it will “sit” on the x-axis, 3

units to the left of the origin, and so on.)

With the transformation in choice b, B’ and

C’ would have the correct coordinates, but A’

would fall on (–11,0), which is not what the

question asks for. With the transformation

in choice c, the triangle A’B’C’ would appear

in the fourth quadrant (the bottom right

corner of the graph), but based on the coor-

dinates in the question, we know that A’B’C’

should appear in the second quadrant (the

upper left corner). Refecting the triangle

across the line created by x = 3 (choice e)

would give A’ the same coordinates as A,

which is not what the question asks for. Fur-

thermore, B’ would fall on (0,0) and C’

would fall on (5,0), which are also incorrect.

16. c. The median is shown in a box-and-whisker plot as the vertical line segment occurring

within the box portion of the plot. Here, that

line occurs at the value 47, which means the

median of the data set is 47. Although 35

(choice a) is the midpoint between the outer

boundaries of the plot (which occur at 10

and 60), it is not the center of the data set;

the median of the data set is shown by the

vertical line within the box, and this occurs

at 47. Choice b represents the lower (or

25th) percentile, not the 50th percentile, or

median. Choice d represents the upper

(or 75th) percentile, not the 50th percentile,

or median. Choice e is the maximum value

of any data point in the data set, not the

middle (or median) of the data set.

17. a. The number 7 is prime and it divides 504 evenly. So 7 is a prime factor of 504.

Although 9 (choice b) is a factor of 504, it is

not a prime number. In choice c, 11 is a

prime number, but it does not divide 504

evenly. Choice d is incorrect because,

although 17 is a prime number, it does not

divide 504 evenly. Although 21 (choice e) is

a factor of 504, it is not a prime number.

18. d. Of all the choices listed, this is the most rea- sonable. It is about twice the height of an

adult person. There are 100 mm in 1 cm. So,

150 mm = 1.5 cm (choice a), which is less

than 2 inches. This is not a reasonable esti-

mate for a full-grown cherry tree. Choice b

would exceed a mile, which is much too tall

for the height of a tree. Choice c is less than

30 inches, or 2.5 feet. This is too small for

the height of a full-grown cherry tree.

Choice e is less than 2 feet, which is too

small for the height of a full-grown cherry

tree.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 366 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________________ _______________

__ __

__ __ __

19. x = 20, y = 15. First, fnd out what y equals in terms of x. Do this by isolating y in the frst

equation: y = x – 5.

Now use this information to change the y in the

second equation to x – 5. Doing this transforms

the second equation into an equation that has

only one type of variable: x. This allows us to

fnd out the number value of x, which is the key

to learning the number value of y. Here is the

math behind this process:

4(x – 5) – x = 40

4x – 20 – x = 40

3x – 20 = 40

3x = 60

x = 20

Now that we know that x equals 20, we can

replace x with 20 in either one of the equations

to solve for y.

20. a, c, and e. The means of choice a’s and choice c’s distributions are zero, which is not positive.

The mean of the distribution in choice e is neg-

ative. The means of the remaining distributions

are both positive.

21. c. Let b be the portion of butter needed in the reduced recipe. To keep the same balance of

butter and sugar as in the original recipe, set

up the following proportion: 1.5 cups of sugar 1 cup of sugar

= 0.5 cups of butter b cups of butter Then solve for b:

1.5 × b = 1 × 0.5 1.5b = 0.5

1 b = 3

So, to make his favorite frosting, Bob will need 1

to use 3 cup of butter with his 1 cup of sugar.

If you arrived at choice a, you used a pro-

portion to solve the problem, which is cor-

rect, but you inverted one of the fractions by

mistake. Choice b is incorrect because the

recipe does not call for equal parts of sugar

and butter. Choice d is less than how much

is needed. Choice e is half as much as the

amount needed.

22. d. First, simplify the right side and multiply both sides by 8 to clear the fractions. Then

gather the x-terms on one side and the con-

stants on the other to solve for x: 3 3 4 x – 1 = –( 8 x – 2) 3 3 3 4 x – 1 = –( 8 x – 2x – 1 = – 8 x + 2

6x – 8 = –3x + 16

9x = 24 24

x = 9 It looks as if you forgot to distribute the –1

through the parentheses on the right side of

the equation if you picked choice a. Choice b

is the reciprocal of the correct answer. To

arrive at choice c, you forgot to multiply the

1 by 8 when clearing the fractions. If you

picked choice e, it looks as if you subtracted

both sides by 9 rather than dividing by 9 in

the fnal step.

23. d. Let r be the radius of the fower bed, which means the radius of the garden is 3r. The

area of the fower bed is pr2, while the area 2of the garden is p(3r)2 = 9pr . So, the area

of the garden is 9 times the area of the

fower bed. Choice a is the reverse compari-

son. This is what you would multiply the

area of the garden by to fnd the area of the

fower bed. If you picked choice b, it looks as

if you forgot to square the 3 when comput-

ing the area of the garden. If you chose c,

you multiplied 3 by 2 instead of raising 3 to

the second power when squaring 3r. Note

that 32 = 9. If you chose choice e, you cubed

3 instead of squaring it.

366366

367367

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 367 9/7/17 2:09 PM

________ __ __

__ __

24. c. Use the two labeled points (–3,1) and (3,5) to compute the slope:

5 – 1 4 2 m = = = 3 – (–3) 6 3

The slope is positive, since the line rises from

left to right, and choice a shows a negative

slope, making it incorrect. The slope should

not be zero (choice b) because the line is not

horizontal. Choice d is the reciprocal of the

slope. Choice e is incorrect because you

subtracted the x-coordinate from the

y-coordinate of each point rather than com-

puting the change in y over the change in x. 2 725. 8 panels. First, divide 7 gallons by gallon:5 8

377 52 = 5 37 8 = 296 = 8 16= ×7 7 5 7 35 35 8 8

Then round down, since we need the number

of complete panels. Jeannette can paint 8 com-

plete panels.

26. d. The cost of G gadgets is $9.50G and the cost of S containers of spices is $4.25S. So the

total cost of G gadgets and S containers of

spices is 9.50G + 4.25S. Since Frank has $140

to spend, this total cannot exceed 140. So the

inequality 9.50G + 4.25S ≤ 140 accurately describes the relationship between G and S.

The inequality sign is reversed in choice a. In

choice b, you did not multiply the quantities

G and S by the cost per unit. The S and G

should be interchanged in choice c. The

expressions enclosed within parentheses on

the left side should be added, not multiplied,

making choice e incorrect.

27. b. In a parallelogram, the measures of opposite angles are equal. This means that the mea-

sure of angle X is equal to the measure of

angle Z, and therefore the measure of angle

Z is 43°. Use the sum of the measures of the

angles in a triangle equaling 180° on triangle

WYZ to set up an equation, and then solve

for d:

43 + 80 + d = 180

123 + d = 180

d = 57

These angles in a parallelogram are not

necessarily equal, so choice a is incorrect.

Choices c and d are incorrect because angle

Z measures 43° and angle ZWY measures

80°, so d cannot be 60° because this would

make the sum of three angles in a triangle

greater than 180°. Choice e shows the mea-

sure of angle Y, which is not the value of d.

28. b. The radius of the tank is 1 meter. The vol- 4

ume of a sphere with radius r is 3 pr3. Sub- stituting r = 1 meter into this formula gives

4 a volume of 3 p cubic meters. Choice a is incorrect because you need to multiply by 4.

Choice c is the surface area, not the volume.

In choice d you used the diameter instead of

the radius when computing the volume.

Choice e is the surface area of a sphere with

a radius of 2 meters, but we’re looking for

the volume of a sphere with a diameter of 2

meters.

29. a and b. If you fold the distribution over the y-axis, the graph lines up perfectly, which

implies that it is symmetric (choice a). There

are two identical peaks in the distribution, so it

is bimodal (choice b). If choice c were true,

most of the values would occur to the left and

taper down toward the right. The mean occurs

at 0, which is not positive, making choice d

incorrect. For symmetric distributions, the

mean and median are equal, so choice e is

incorrect.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 368 9/7/17 2:09 PM

_______________________ _________ _________ _______________ _________

___________

30. 16 cans. Let x represent the total number of 8-ounce cans needed. Note that each 8-ounce

can of concentrate is combined with two

8-ounce cans of water. So each 8-ounce can cre-

ates 24 fuid ounces of orange juice. Based on

this, set up the following proportion: _____________________1 can of concentrate x cans of concentrate 24 fuid ounces of juice = 384 fuid ounces of juice

Then solve for x:

24x = 384

x = 16

31. b. A fair selection would result in each student having an equal chance of being selected.

However, if 5 students have last names start-

ing with the letter S while 10 have last names

starting with the letter D, then the students

do not have an equal chance of being

selected. The size of the class (choice a) is

not the deciding criterion about the fairness

of the method. Rather, there may not be an

equal number of students for each letter. To

be fair, each student should have an equal

chance of being selected whether their name

is common or uncommon, making choice c

incorrect. While each letter has an equal

chance of being selected (choice d), there

may be different numbers of students for

each letter. Choice e is incorrect because

random selection can be done with letters or

numbers.

32. a and e. Since 2x2 + 8 is always positive (in fact, no less than 8), the equation in choice a has no

real solutions. In fact, the solutions are ±2i. In

choice e, the discriminant is 12 – 4(2)(3) = –23

< 0, so the solutions are imaginary. The solu-

tions for choice b are –3 and 0, which are real.

The discriminant is 92 – 4(1)(2) = 73 > 0, so the

solutions for choice c are real. The solutions for

choice d are ±√5, which are real.

33. c. There are 60 minutes in an hour and 60 sec- onds in a minute. So, there are 60 × 60 sec- onds in an hour. Also, there are 5,280 feet in

a mile. Using these two facts allows us to

convert from miles per hour to feet per sec-

ond as follows: 110 miles 110 miles 1 hour 5,280 feet

= ×1 hour 1 hour 60 × 60 seconds × 1 mile 110 × 5,280

= feet per second60 × 60 Choices a, b, and e are incorrect because you

did not account for the fact that there are

5,280 feet in 1 mile and 360 seconds in 1

hour. Choice d is incorrect because you

inverted both fractions, namely the ratio of

hours to seconds and the ratio of feet to

miles, when setting up the conversion.

34. e. Let s represent the length of an edge of this shed. Because the shape is a cube, each of the

edges has the same length. This means that

each of the faces has the same area, namely

s2 square meters. Because a cube has six

faces, the surface area is 6s2. And since we

know that the surface area is 294 square

meters, we know that 6s2 = 294, so s =

7 meters. Now we can fnd the volume of

the shed: s3 = 73 = 343 cubic meters. Choice

a is the length of an edge. You must raise this

to the third power to get the volume. You

must raise a side to the third power, not sec-

ond, when fnding the volume of a cube, so

choice b is incorrect. You incorrectly com-

puted the length of an edge as 6 meters in

choice c. It should be 7 meters. Generally,

surface area and volume are not the same.

They are not equal for this fgure, making

choice d incorrect.

368368

369369

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 369 9/7/17 2:09 PM

__ __ __ __

__ __

___

35. b. This is the correct answer. For I, there are 26 black cards and 4 jacks. But 2 of the jacks are

also black, and we don’t want to count them

twice in the total count. So, there are 28 pos-

sibilities, all of which are equally likely. This

means that the probability that the card is ___ ___7black or a jack is 28 = 13 . For II, there are52

four 4s and two red 8s. These conditions are

mutually exclusive, so there are 6 possibili-

ties, all of which are equally likely. So, the

probability that the card is a 4 or a red 8 is ___6 ___3 = 26 . For III, this is the probability that52 the card is either a king or a club. The

remaining answer choices are incorrect fol-

lowing this logic.

36. –2. We must use the fact that y = f(x) if and only if x = f –1(y). Using this with the table

values, notice that f –1(–1) = 2. So,

f –1(f –1(–1)) = f –1(2) = –2.

37. e. First, use the distributive property to factor 23 from both terms of the sum. Then sim-

plify the resulting quantity enclosed within

parentheses, as follows: 7 1 7 1

12 × 23 + 12 × 24 = 23(12 + 12 × 2) 7 2

= 23(12 + 12) 9

= 23(12) 3

= 23( 4 )

By commutativity, this is equivalent to 3 × 23.4 The fractional part is incorrect in choice a:

1 factoring 23 from the product 12 × 24 leaves

1 1 you with 12 × 2, not 12. In choice b you sim- plifed 23 incorrectly as 2 × 3. The fractional part is incorrect in choice c. The power of 2

is incorrect in choice d. You can only factor

23 from both terms of this sum.

38. c. Let x represent the page number of the faster reader. This means that the slower reader is

on page x – 4. We translate the second sen-

tence of the problem into the equation

x + (x – 4) = 408. This simplifes to 2x – 4

= 408, which yields x = 206. Because x is the

page of the faster reader, the slower reader

is on page 202. Choices a and b are incorrect

because when solving the equation for x, you

divided both sides by 4, not 2. It looks like

when you determined that x = 206, you mis-

takenly interpreted that as the slower read-

er’s page. In fact, this was the page for the

faster reader, making choice d incorrect.

Choice e is the current page of the faster

reader.

39. 56 questions. Rewrite 70% as 70 out of 100, and then set up a proportion to see how many

questions q out of 80 must be answered

correctly: 70 __ q= 100 80

Then solve for q:

5,600 = 100q

q = 56

So, you must answer 56 questions correctly to

score 70%.

40. c. A 30-60-90 triangle will always have sides in the ratio of 1x : 2x : √3x, where 2x is the length of the hypotenuse and √3x is the length of the side opposite the 60-degree

angle. The radius is 3, so the diameter must

be 6. The hypotenuse is 2x, so 2x = 6; thus

x = 3. This means that AB = 3√3x. Choice a is incorrect because of the ratio of the sides.

Choice b shows the length of BC, not AB,

and choice d shows the length of the hypote-

nuse. Choice e is incorrect because it is dou-

ble the correct answer.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 370 9/7/17 2:09 PM

_______ ____________ ____________ ____________

____________ ____________

_________

41. b. This is a conditional probability. Let A be the event that the student is male, and B be the

event that the answer is yes. We are asked to

compute P(A|B). Do so as follows: P(A∩B) 100

8 8P(A | B) = = 29 . Choice aP(B) 29

100

shows the probability that a student is male

and answers yes, but since the answer is yes is

given information, the answer should be

computed as a conditional probability.

Choice c also shows the probability that the

answer is yes, but it does not account for

whether the student is male or female.

Choice d shows the probability that a stu-

dent is not male given that the answer is yes,

and choice e shows the probability that the

student is male, but it does not account for

only those who answered yes.

42. d. Because segment DF is a diameter, it follows that segment DE is a radius. Furthermore,

since segment EG is also a radius (connect-

ing the center to a point on the circle), it fol-

lows that segments DG, GE, and DE are all

congruent. So triangle DGE is an equilateral

triangle. Thus, angle DEG has a measure of

60°. Because angle DEF is a straight angle,

y° + 60° = 180°, so that y = 120°. Therefore,

2y = 240°. Choices a and b are incorrect

because angle DEF is a straight angle,

y° + 60° = 180°, not 90°. Choices c and e

are incorrect because those answer choices

do not show the value of 2y.

43. d. This is the correct answer. First, factor the numerator of the frst rational expression.

Then rewrite the division problem as a mul-

tiplication problem using the reciprocal of

the divisor, and cancel like factors in the

numerator and denominator:

9 – x2 (x + 5)(3 – x) (3 + x)(3 – x) (x + 5)(3 – x)= ÷(x + 5)2 ÷ x (x + 5)2 x (3 + x)(3 – x) x = · (x + 5)2 (x + 5)(3 – x) (3 + x)(3 – x) x = · (x + 5)2 (x + 5)(3 – x) x(x + 3)= (x + 5)3

It looks as if you incorrectly canceled a fac-

tor of x + 5 in choice a. If you arrived at

choice b, you multiplied when you should

have divided. Remember that when convert-

ing a division problem into a multiplication

problem, you take the reciprocal of the divi-

sor. You are missing a factor of x + 5 in the

denominator for choice c. Choice e is incor-

rect because once you had the factored form,

it looks as if you incorrectly simplifed the

denominator. In general, (a + b)3 ≠ a3 + b3. 44. c. We must determine the equation of the

parabola. Its vertex is (2,–1), so the form of

the equation is y + 1 = a(x – 2)2. In order to

determine a, substitute one of the points,

say (3,0), into this equation. Doing so yields

a = 1. So the equation of this parabola is

y + 1 = (x – 2)2. Solving for y yields the

equivalent statement y = (x – 2)2 – 1.

In this form, the x-intercepts occur when

y = 0, which results in the equation

(x – 2)2 – 1 = 0. Choice a is incorrect because

the quantity within the parentheses should

be x – 2. Choices b and e are incorrect

because the 1 should be replaced by –1.

Additionally, in choice e, the 3 should not be

there. Both plus signs should be minus signs,

making choice d incorrect.

370370

371371

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 371 9/7/17 2:09 PM

45. d. Substitute the value of x, simplify the numerator and denominator separately, and

then divide the resulting fractions as follows: 1 + ( 34)

2 1 +1 + x2 16 9

16 25

2 = = 9 = 71 − x 1 − ( 3)2 1 −4 16 16

25 16 25 3 4= × = = 16 7 7 7

Choice a is the reciprocal of the correct

answer. After simplifying the fraction on the

top and bottom, you may have divided

incorrectly if you arrived at choice b.

Remember, to convert a division problem

into a multiplication problem, multiply the

top portion of the fraction by the reciprocal

of the bottom (the divisor). You cannot can-

cel like terms in the numerator and denomi-

nator of a fraction; you can only cancel like

factors, so choice c is incorrect. If you picked

choice e, you made a mistake when convert-

ing the answer into an improper fraction in

the fnal step.

46. c. The greatest common factor of a set of whole numbers is the largest whole number

that divides evenly into all of them. Notice

that 30 equals 15 × 2, 45 equals 15 × 3, and 60 equals 15 × 4. The number 15 divides evenly into 30, 45, and 60, and no other

number can do the same. The next candi-

date would be 30, but 30 does not divide

evenly into 45. The number in choice a is a

factor of all three numbers, but it is not the

greatest common factor. The number in

choice b is not a factor of 45, so it cannot be

the greatest common factor of all three

numbers. The number in choice d not a fac-

tor of either 30 or 45, so it cannot be the

greatest common factor of all three num-

bers. Choice e is the least common multiple

of the three numbers, not the greatest com-

mon factor of the three numbers.

47. 5.3 gallons. Two of the walls have dimensions of 12 feet by 9 feet each; the combined area of

these two walls is 12 × 9 × 2 = 216 square feet. The other two walls have dimensions of 15 feet

by 9 feet each; the combined area of these two

walls is 15 × 9 × 2 = 270 square feet. The ceiling has dimensions of 12 feet by 15 feet, so its area

is 180 square feet. This means that the total

square footage that must be painted is 216 +

270 + 180 = 666 square feet. Since two coats of

paint are needed, this number must be doubled,

making 1,332 square feet. The last step is to

divide 1,332 by 250, which yields 5.328 gallons

of paint, or 5.3 gallons when rounded to the

nearest tenth.

48. b. Rewrite the radicand as a quantity squared, 2and then use the fact that √a = a if a ≥ 0,

as follows: 16 36 8 8 18√121y z = √(11y z18)2 = 11y z

In choices a and d you mistakenly took the

square roots of the exponents. Additionally,

in choice d as well as choice c, you forgot to

take the square root of 121. In choice e you

multiplied the exponents by 2 instead of

dividing them by 2.

49. a. First, compute the areas of each of the geo- metric fgures:

Area(R) = 3 · 3 = 9 square units

Area(S) = p · 22 = 4p square units ≈ 12.6 square units

1 Area(T) = 2 · 6 · 6 = 18 square units

Area(U) = 2 · 7 = 14 square units

Area(V) = 3 · 8 = 24 square units

Since a geometric fgure is being selected at

random, they are all equally likely. Since four

of them have an area that is at least 10

square units, the probability of selecting 4

such a fgure is 5 . The remaining answer

choices are incorrect following this logic.

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 372 9/7/17 2:09 PM

__________

50. d. Because the three pens are identical and no 51. c. Divide the tank into three simpler parts— fencing is needed along the side that touches

the barn, there are four sides of width w and

three sides of length l that need fencing.

She will use 1,500 feet of fencing to con-

struct all three pens, so the sum of the

lengths of all sides of the three pens must be

1,500. This leads to the following equation:

4w + 3l = 1,500. The area of the three pens

combined is w · (3l). To get an expression in

terms of only w, solve the perimeter equa-

tion for l and substitute it in: 1,500 – 4w4w + 3l = 1,500 ⇒ l = 3

So, the combined area of the pens is:

w · (3l) = w · 3 · 1,500 – 4w 3 = w(1,500 – 4w)

= –4w2 + 1,500w

The combined area of the pens will be

65,000 square feet. To fnd the width of each

pen, set the expression for the area equal to

65,000 and solve for w:

–4w2 + 1,500w = 65,000

4w2 – 1,500w + 65,000 = 0

4(w2 – 375w + 16,250) = 0

4(w – 50)(w – 325) = 0

There are two solutions: w = 50 and w = 325.

The frst solution would yield a value of l

that was larger than w, which cannot be the

case since we are assuming the width is the

longer side. So, the width must be 325 feet,

and choice b is incorrect. Choice a is half of

the correct value of the width. Choice c is

the sum of the four segments needed to con-

struct the pens. You should have divided this

by 4. Choice e is approximately the length of

one pen, not the width.

the two rectangles on either side and the

middle rectangle. Compute the volume of

each part, and then add the volumes and

multiply the sum by the number of gallons

equivalent to 1 cubic foot.

Volume of each of the outer

rectangular parts:

10 ft. × 2 ft. × 5 ft. = 100 cubic feet Volume of middle rectangular portion:

13 ft. × 8 ft. × 5 ft. = 520 cubic feet So, the volume of the entire tank is 720 cubic

feet. Multiplying by 7.85 gallons per cubic

foot yields 5,652 gallons.

Choice a is incorrect because you forgot to

multiply by 7.85 (the conversion between

cubic feet and gallons). In choice b you for-

got to multiply by the height of the tank,

which is 5 feet throughout. Choice d is

incorrect because you accounted for only

one of the two side rectangles. In choice e

you multiplied the volume by 10, not 7.85.

52. e. The least common multiple of a group of whole numbers is the smallest whole num-

ber into which they all divide evenly. Take a

look at the prime factorizations of each of

the numbers in question:

4 = 22

2p = 2p

16q = 24 × q Now take the highest power of every prime

number that occurs anywhere in these prime

factorizations. You’ll arrive at 24 × p × q as the least common multiple. Choice a is the

greatest common factor of the three quanti-

ties, not the least common multiple. Choice

b cannot be the least common multiple,

because q is not included in the product.

The coeffcient in choice c is incorrect

because 16 is not a multiple of 4. Choice d is

a common multiple, but not the least com-

mon multiple.

372372

373373

–PRAXIS® CORE ACADEMIC SKILLS FOR EDUCATORS: PRACTICE TEST 4–

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 373 9/7/17 2:09 PM

______ _____ _____ ______

____________

_____________

_________________

____________

__ __

53. b and e. The lowest y-value shown on this graph is indeed $10 million (choice b). Proft

remained constant at $20 million in 2004 and

2005 and remained constant at $50 million in

2009 and 2010 (choice e). The points on the

graph at which the largest y-value occurs have a

t-coordinate of 5 and 6, which correspond to

the years 2009 and 2010, making choice a incor-

rect. Proft increased from 2011 to 2012, but

decreased from 2012 through 2014, so choice c

is incorrect. The intervals on which the proft

increases are (1,2), (3,5), and (7,8). The second

of these intervals shows two consecutive years

with an increase in proft; therefore choice d is

incorrect.

54. e. First, rewrite each fraction with the least common denominator (x + 3)(x – 3)2. Then

subtract the numerators by simplifying each

expression and combining like terms, as so: 1 1 1 1 – + = – (x – 3)2 x + 3 x + 3 (x – 3)2

____________(x – 3)2 x + 3 = – (x + 3)(x – 3)2 (x + 3)(x – 3)2 (x – 3) – (x + 3)= (x + 3)(x – 3)2 (x2 – 6x + 9) – (x + 3)= (x + 3)(x – 3)2

x2 – 6x + 9 – x – 3 = (x + 3)(x – 3)2 x2 – 7x + 6 = (x + 3)(x – 3)2

(x – 6)(x – 1)= (x + 3)(x – 3)2 In choice a, the denominator is correct, but

the numerator is not. If you arrived at choice

b, it looks as if you multiplied the numera-

tor and denominator of the frst term by

x – 3 only, when you need to multiply by

(x – 3)2. In choice c, you forgot to include

the numerator in your fnal answer. If you

arrived at choice d it appears that you added

the fractions instead of subtracting them.

55. c. The mean of set A is computed by adding the fve entries and dividing the sum by 5;

this yields a mean of 5. Similarly, the mean

of set B is computed by adding the four

entries of B and dividing the sum by 4; this

yields a mean of 4. Therefore the mean of set

A is larger than the mean of set B, and state-

ment I is true. The standard deviation of

both sets is 0 because for each set all of the

data points are equal to the mean, and there

is no variation among the data points. So

statement II is false. Finally, the median and

mean are both equal to 5 in set A, so III is

true. Following this logic the remaining

answer choices are incorrect.

56. a, b, and e. The reciprocal of any number between 0 and 1 must be larger than 1 (choice

a). Because y is a negative integer less than –1,

the least value of –y is –(–2) = 2. So for all val-

ues of y, the expression in choice b is greater

than 1. Because y is a negative integer less than

–1, the least value of y4 is (–2)4 = 16. So for all

values of y, the expression in choice e is greater

than 1. Choice c is incorrect because y is a nega-

tive integer less than –1, and the greatest value

of – 1 y is

1 2 , which is not greater than 1. Choice d

is incorrect because squaring a number between

0 and 1 always yields an answer that is less than

the original number.

PRAXISCorePP_06_287-374.indd 374 9/7/17 2:09 PM

PRAXISCorePP_07_Note_375-376.indd 375 9/7/17 2:09 PM

A NOTE ON SCORING

In order to evaluate how you did on the Praxis Core diagnostic and practice tests, frst count the number of questions you answered correctly on each test. You will recall that your scores on the multiple-choiceand fll-in segments of the tests are based on only the number of questions you answered correctly; there is no guessing penalty or penalty for unanswered questions. You will also recall that the Educational Testing

Service has not set passing scores for these tests; this is left up to the institutions, state agencies, and associations

that utilize the tests. Therefore, the interpretation of your score depends on the purpose for which you are tak-

ing the test.

If you are unsure of the passing score you will need, you can set yourself a goal of at least 70% of the

answers right on each multiple-choice/fll-in section of the Praxis Core. To fnd the percentage of questions you

answered correctly, add up the number of correct answers and then divide by the total number of questions to

fnd your percentage.

Even if you have scored well on the Reading test, the Mathematics test, and the multiple-choice subsec-

tions of the Writing test, don’t forget that you must receive a passing score on the essay portion of the Praxis

Core Writing test. On this portion, your essay will be scored by at least two writing experts, and their combined

score will be used to evaluate how you did. The scoring criteria are outlined in detail in the answer explanations.

The best way to see how you did on the essay portion of the exam is to give your essay and the scoring criteria to

a teacher or other reader whom you trust to see what scores he or she would assign.

n If you scored below 60% on any subject, you should seriously consider whether you are ready for the Praxis

Core test in this subject at this time. A good idea would be to take some brush-up courses, either at a uni-

versity or community college nearby or through correspondence, in the areas you feel less sure of. If you

don’t have time for a course, you might try private tutoring. n If your score is in the 60% to 70% range, you need to work as hard as you can to improve your skills. It

might also be helpful to ask friends and family to make up mock test questions and quiz you on them.

375

PRAXISCorePP_07_Note_375-376.indd 376 9/7/17 2:09 PM

– –A NOTE ON SCORING

n If your score is between 70% and 90%, you could

still beneft from additional work by brushing up

your reading, writing, and general math skills

before the exam. n If you scored above 90%, that’s great! This kind

of score should make you a success in the aca-

demic program of your choice or in a teaching

position.

Once you have honed your test-taking skills, study

again the areas that gave you the most trouble. The

key to success in almost any pursuit is to prepare for

all you are worth. By taking the practice tests in this

book, you have made yourself better prepared than

other people who may be taking the test with you.

You have diagnosed where your strengths and weak-

nesses lie and learned how to deal with the various

kinds of questions that will appear on the test. So go

into the tests with confdence, knowing that you’re

ready and equipped to do your best!

376376

PRAXISCorePP_08_Online_377-378.indd 377 9/8/17 8:52 AM

ADDITIONAL ONLINE PRACTICE

Using the codes below, you’ll be able to log in and access additional online practice materials!

Your free online practice access codes are: FVEQMD52JD0N3SV7C5468 FVEUPK7NNXX11LVFBWLJ FVE3I6067V3M1Q612YT1

Follow these simple steps to redeem your code:

• Go to www.learningexpresshub.com/affiliate and have your access code handy.

If you’re a new user: • Click the New user? Register here button and complete the registration form to create your account

and access your products. • Be sure to enter your unique access code only once. If you have multiple access codes, you can enter

them all—just use a comma to separate each code. • The next time you visit, simply click the Returning user? Sign in button and enter your username and

password. • Do not re-enter previously redeemed access codes. Any products you previously accessed are saved

in the My Account section on the site. Entering a previously redeemed access code will result in an error message.

If you’re a returning user: • Click the Returning user? Sign in button, enter your username and password, and click Sign In. • You will automatically be brought to the My Account page to access your products. • Do not re-enter previously redeemed access codes. Any products you previously accessed are saved

in the My Account section on the site. Entering a previously redeemed access code will result in an error message.

If you’re a returning user with a new access code: • Click the Returning user? Sign in button, enter your username, password, and new access code, and

click Sign In. • If you have multiple access codes, you can enter them all—just use a comma to separate each code. • Do not re-enter previously redeemed access codes. Any products you previously accessed are saved

in the My Account section on the site. Entering a previously redeemed access code will result in an error message.

If you have any questions, please contact Customer Support at [email protected]. All inquiries will be responded to within a 24-hour period during our normal business hours: 9:00 A.M.–5:00 P.M. Eastern Time. Thank you!

377

mailto:[email protected]

www.learningexpresshub.com/affiliate

PRAXISCorePP_08_Online_377-378.indd 378 9/8/17 8:52 AM

CONTENTS
CHAPTER 1 About the Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators Tests
CHAPTER 2 The LearningExpress Test Preparation System
CHAPTER 3 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Practice Test 1
CHAPTER 4 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Practice Test 2
CHAPTER 5 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Practice Test 3
CHAPTER 6 Praxis® Core Academic Skills for Educators: Practice Test 4
A Note on Scoring