Information Security

Question 1

Malicious cyber activity directed at private and public entities can manifest itself in which of the following ways?

		Denial of service through DOS attacks, and data and property destruction.
		Business disruption (sometimes for the purpose of collecting ransoms) and theft of proprietary data.
		Theft or corruption of intellectual property, and sensitive financial and strategic information.
		All of the above.

Question 2

A cyber activity is considered malicious when it compromises at least one component of what is known as the “CIA triad”: confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

 True

 False

Question 3

A DOS attack which interferes with a firm’s web-based services is categorized as an attack on availability.

 True

 False

Question 4

A cyber-theft of funds from a bank’s customer account is considered an attack on confidentiality.

 True

 False

Question 5

A cyber-enabled theft of the personally identifiable information (PII) of a firm’s customers or employees compromises data confidentiality.

 True

 False

Question 6

A basic conceptual framework that describes the functions of a networking or telecommunications system is referred to as the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

 True

 False

Question 7

The TCP/IP model has become the defacto standard for real-world implementation of networking.

 True

 False

Question 8

Network Analysis uses the Signature Analysis method for the following action(s)

		Testing
		Hunting
		Campaign Detection
		All of the responses

Question 9

In general, a Network Forensic Examination includes the following steps, in the following order:

		Incident response, identification, preservation, collection, examination, analysis, presentation
		Identification, preservation, collection examination, analysis, presentation, Incident Response
		Identification, presentation, collection, examination, analysis, preservation, incident response.
		Analysis, collection, examination, Identification, Incident Response, presentation, preservation

Question 10

Network behavior analysis (NBA) helps in enhancing network safety by monitoring traffic and noting unusual activity or departures from a normal network operation.  

 True

 False

Question 11

Under GDPR, a controller is the entity that determines the purposes, conditions and means of the processing of personal data.

 True

 False

Question 12

The eHIPAA Privacy Rule defines "covered entities" as which of the following:

		Health plans
		Health care providers
		Health care services
		All of the above

Question 13

The first step in the Configuration Management Process is

		Detail design and development phase
		Preliminary design phase
		Conceptual design phase
		Production and construction phase

Question 14

Under GLBA, financial institutions must provide their clients a privacy notice that explains the following:

		What information the company gathers about the client
		Where this information is shared
		How the company safeguards that information
		All of the above

Question 15

NIST 800-53, rev 4 provides a catalog of security and privacy controls for federal information systems which federal agencies implement as part of an organization-wide process that manages information security and privacy risk.

 True

 False

Question 16

GDPR enhanced individual control over the use of personal data by introducing two new rights – the right to be forgotten and the right to data portability.

 True

 False

Question 17

The HIPAA Security Rule requires covered entities to do all of the following, except:

		Ensure  the confidentiality,  integrity, and availability  of all e-PHI they create, receive,  maintain or transmit
		Protect against reasonably  anticipated, impermissible  uses or disclosures
		Identify and  protect  against every possible identified  threats to the security or integrity  of the information
		Ensure compliance  by their workforce

Question 18

Which of the following reflect good uses of application hosting?

		Applications available only internally in the organizations
		Applications that format data for display
		Shopping cart services
		Email services
		A and B
		C and D

Question 19

Application hosting is also commonly called SAAS, or software as a service.

 True

 False

Question 20

The use of duplicate servers as a deception strategy is simplified when the organization utilizes DHCP.

 True

 False

Question 21

The term “protected element” refers to a proxy’s network clients or servers.

 True

 False

Question 22

Several benefits of using a honeypot or honeynet include.

		Deception and frustration of an attacker.
		the ability to study an attacker.
		Little initial work because one can use the default parameters for deception
		Determined attackers are generally slow to recognize honeypots or honeynet.
		A and B
		C and D
		All of the above

Question 23

Datagrams, used in UDP transfers, help guarantee the accuracy of data being transmitted and are commonly used when ensure that data is transmitted correctly

 True

 False

Question 24

TCP transmissions are usually referred to as “packets” as distinguished from “datagrams.”

 True

 False

Question 25

Information transmitted in segments is referred to as a “packet” of a “datagram” depending on where it is travelling

 True

 False

Question 26

A “datagram” can include the following: IP header fields, TCP header fields, UDP header fields, AH header fields and ESP psychic connections.

 True

 False

Question 27

The term “protected element" refers to a proxies network clients or servers.

 True

 False

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT an advantage ?

		Login failures track would-be attackers
		Login timeouts after several failed attempts block and thwart repeated attacks by an attacker
		Login failure documentation helps systems administrators target needed changes to storage and access mechanisms.
		Multiple login failures indicate thwarted attacks and mean the system is worry-free.

Question 29

Proxies inspect outside traffic before it passes into internal systems

 True

 False

Question 30

A stateful router is one that remembers common and accepted paths for reconnection and will not suffer from a query overload.

 True

 False

Question 31

A host’s defense against an exploiter’s asymmetric advantage includes which of the following (Choose all that apply):

		Defenders choose what systems to run
		Defenders choose how to connect systems
		Defenders generally maintain the default settings on vendor devices
		Defenders choose which policies to implement

Question 32

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of mathematical mode.

		Mathematical models are clear and unambiguous
		Mathematical models can address every predictable human variation and situation
		Mathematical models are static and do not need revision over time
		Mathematical models permit infinite complexity

Question 33

What features of application-level proxies make them more vulnerable to adversaries, and what are ways to mitigate them?

Question 34

Match the model to its description

Biba Model                                                    Bell-LaPadula                                                    Chinese Wall                                                    Integrity Model

a. Identifies both (i) confidential information (e.g., files and documents) and (ii) users permitted to access each type of confidential information, and defines access to permit only those users from accessing information for which they have confidential privileges.  is specifically used when an organization has two or more projects or sets of documents that are highly confidential and for which exposure to members of the other team could competitive or ethical conflict.  It is commonly used to describe information barriers within businesses and law firms that are created to prevent exchanges, sharing of information or other communications that could lead to conflicts of interest. b. Systems or rules or procedures that are used to help ensure that data is not modified, accessed, destroyed or otherwise compromised or misused by persons who should not have the proper level of access. c. Data and system integrity model using both mandatory and discretionary components for enforcing access control, and uses an algebraic formula to express its enforcement.  It is more common in government and military applications. Each object (e.g., program, machine, document) is given a label assigning it a confidentiality level.  Each subject (user) is given a clearance level. No subject can access an object with a classification level higher than the subject’s clearance.  No subject may write down to an object with a classification level lower than the confidentiality level of the subject. d. Formal state mandatory integrity modelling system that describes a set of access control rules.  These rules are designed and enforced to protect data integrity, and assign an integrity class and rating to each object (data).  Data and subjects (users) are grouped into ordered levels of integrity, such as “user” and “administrator.” This model tends to use only a few classifications and classifications cannot be changed by the system once set, although an object can be duplicated and assigned a new integrity level.

Question 35

You have been hired to organize a new network which will be accessible to attack from outside users, what are two deception strategies you can use to mitigate these attacks and why are they effective?

Question 36

You have been hired by a company whose former employee stole then deleted all user passwords. They do not wish to suffer this type of loss again. What do you tell them to do?

Question 37

Basic factors for authentication include

		What the subject knows
		What the subject has
		What the subject is
		Where the subject is
		All of the above
		None of the above
		A,B,C

Question 38

Which of the following are examples of multi-factor authentication:

		Combining a password with the subject’s mother’s maiden name
		Combining a password with the subject’s place of birth
		Combining a password with the subject’s fingerprint
		Combining a password with a security token
		None of the above
		All of the above
		A and B
		C and D

Question 39

CAPTCHA is an authentication method that demonstrates:

		What a subject knows
		Where a subject is
		What the subject is
		Whether the subject is authorized to access the network

Question 40

What is Role-Based Access Control (“RBAC”)?  Is it a good approach? Advantages? Disadvantages?

Question 41

Common change management drivers include which of the following:

		Technology evolution
		Consumer habit changes
		Pressure from new business entrants
		All of the above

Question 42

What is Change Management?  What is Configuration Management?  How are they different?

 

Question 43

How would you document Change Management?

Question 44

Compare and contrast:  Privacy and Security

Question 45

HIPAA relates to what industry?

		Financial, i.e., banks, investment houses, lenders
		Education
		Manufacturing
		Healthcare

Question 46

Gramm-Leach-Bliley relates to what kind of information?

		non-public financial information
		personnel records
		educational records
		medical records

Question 47

FERPA applies to which entities?

		Healthcare professionals and business associates
		educational agencies and institutions that receive funds under any program administered by the Department of Education
		Banks and other financial institutions
		Manufacturers of internet-connected devices

Question 48

What is the best way to mitigate liability from a network breach?

		Faithfully execute your restoration and remediation plan
		Lobby your regulatory agency for minimal fines
		Blame a third party for the breach
		None of the above

Question 49

Discuss the sources of liability that may arise after a network breach.  Consider whether liability may arise from harm to customers, violation of laws or rules. Bonus for specific industry focus.

Question 50

A PIA stands for

		Private Industry Assessment
		Privacy Industry Assessment
		Privacy Impact Assessment
		Privacy Impact Analysis

Question 51

The Privacy Act determined that policy guidance, assistance and oversight of implementation of the Act is provided by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)

 True

 False

Question 52

What is FOIA?

		Federal Organization Information Act
		Freedom of Information Act
		Federation of Information Act
		Federal Organization Information Agreement

Question 53

NIST issues Special Publications to provide guidance for federal information systems.

 True

 False

Question 54

Federal agencies have adopted a risk-based approach to operating their agency’s information security systems and they rely on the ATO process to accomplish this.  Briefly explain the ATO process.

Question 55

NIST has developed information security standards such as Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS), which are mandatory for the Federal agencies to follow. FIPS 200 is used to determine the system impact level, based on the categorization. FIPS 200 established a “high water mark” as the highest potential impact value assigned to each security objective for each type of information resident on those information systems.  Explain what that means and provide an example of your analysis.