Diagnose and repair light vehicle engines

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AURLTE002 Diagnose and repair light vehicle engines

Assessment 1 – Questioning – Written Assessment
Student Name		Student ID Number
Unit Start Date		Unit End Date
Assessment Due Date		Date Submitted
This cover sheet is to be completed by the student and assessor and used as a record to determine student competency in this assessment task
The assessment process and tasks were fully explained.	Yes / No
I am aware of which evidence will be collected and how.	Yes / No
I am aware of my right to appeal an assessment decision.	Yes / No
I am aware that I can locate the RTO’s Complaints and Appeals Policy and Procedure on their website at (insert website address)	Yes / No
I have discussed any additional educational support or reasonable adjustments I require in order to undertake this assessment with the Student Support Services Officer and Trainer / Assessor, (if applicable). e.g. Student Handbook and Access and Equity Policy (insert website address)	Yes / No
I have access to all required resources?	Yes / No
Cheating & Plagiarism Declaration
Student Declaration: In accordance with the RTO’s Plagiarism Policy, I hereby acknowledge by signing this declaration that I have not cheated or plagiarised any work regarding the assessment tasks undertaken in this unit of competency except where the work has been correctly acknowledged. NOTE: Student must sign this prior to submitting their assessments to the assessor
Signature		Date:	______ / ______ / 20______

Assessment Results	Satisfactory	or	Not Yet Satisfactory
	(Please circle the assessment result for this task)
Feedback to Student - Please provide general feedback on the Student’s performance


Student Declaration: - I verify that the work completed is my own and that I was adequately informed of the assessment process prior to commencing this assessment task.	Assessor Declaration: - I verify that I have adequately explained and negotiated the assessment tasks with the student prior to commencing assessment.
Student Signature	Assessor Signature
Date	Date

Context and Conditions of Assessment

This assessment will ensure that the elements, performance criteria, performance evidence and knowledge evidence required and conditions are adhered to demonstrate competency in this unit assessment task.

· Read the assessment carefully before commencing.

· This is an open book assessment and will be conducted at the RTO address.

· Your Assessor will use the assessment criteria in this document and will provide feedback / comment.

· You must answer all the questions in the assessment tasks in your own words and own handwriting.

· This assessment will be required to be completed in 16 hours

· Your Trainer / Assessor will inform you of the due date for this assessment task.

· Your Assessor will grade as either S – Satisfactory or NS – Not Satisfactory for the assessment. In all cases your Assessor will provide you with feedback.

· Only when all assessment tasks have been graded as S – Satisfactory you will be deemed C – Competent in the final result of the unit of competency; if you do not satisfactorily complete all the assessment tasks you will be deemed NYC – Not Yet Competent.

Re-Assessment Conditions

· If the evidence is graded as NS – Not Satisfactory you will be required to re-submit the evidence. In this case, you will be provided with clear and constructive feedback based on the assessment decision so that they can improve your skills / knowledge prior to reassessment.

· Where a ‘NS – Not Satisfactory’ judgement is made, you will be given guidance on steps to take to improve your performance and provided the opportunity to resubmit evidence to demonstrate competence. The assessor will determine and discuss the reasons for NS – Not satisfactory on any of the criteria and will assess you through a different method of assessment e.g. verbal/oral questioning, problem solving exercises.

· You will be notified within 10 working days of undertaking an assessment of their result in achieving competency

· If a student does not complete the assessment, they should notify their trainer as to why they did not complete the assessment and if due to illness, a medical certificate must be produced. “This process is detailed more in the “Training and Assessment Policy and Procedure”

· In the above scenario, student will be given an opportunity for reassessment within 5 working days with no reassessment fee charged.

· Students who are deemed to be Not Yet Competent (NYC) will be provided with information identifying the areas in which they failed to achieve competency. Students will then have the opportunity to repeat the assessment task within 5 working days of notification with no reassessment fee charged.

· If a student is deemed NYC in the reassessment or if the student did not approach the RTO within five working days with a valid reason for not availing themselves of the reassessment opportunity, then those students will be given a final chance to re-sit the assessment and will be charged at $200.00.

· After this no further reassessment attempt will be provided to the student and the student will be required to repeat the whole unit with full fee for the unit as per the fees policy of the RTO. The student will be made aware of the impact of repeating the unit may have on their student visa.

· If a student is found to be cheating or plagiarising their assessment, a $200.00 reassessment fee will be charged for reassessing the assessment within 5 working days.

· If the student is found to be plagiarising or cheating again after conclusion of the Intervention meeting with the Course Co-ordinator, the matter will be referred to the CEO / Operation Manager which may result in the suspension or cancellation of their enrolment

· The RTO has intervention strategies, including student support services available to enable students to complete qualification in the expected time frame. Students at risk of not completing within this time frame are identified as early as possible and an intervention strategy is put in place.

The RTO will ensure access to:

· automotive repair workplace or simulated workplace

· workplace instructions

· manufacturer engine specifications

· three different light vehicle engines with faults specified in the performance evidence

· diagnostic equipment for light vehicle engines

· tools, equipment and materials appropriate for repairing light vehicle engines.

Evidence to be submitted by the student: -

Completed written responses to the questions in the assessment task

Assessment Decision Making Rules

Your assessor will assess the evidence submitted for the following elements, performance criteria, performance evidence and knowledge evidence to confirm that the student evidence submitted demonstrates validity, sufficiency, authenticity and confirms current skills and knowledge relevant to the unit of competency.

Your assessor will be looking for the following in this assessment task: -

· work health and safety (WHS) and occupational health and safety (OHS) requirements relating to diagnosing and repairing light vehicle engines, including procedures for lifting and supporting light vehicle engines

· environmental requirements, including procedures for trapping, storing and disposing of fluids released from engines

· operating principles of light vehicle engines and associated components, including:

· combustion, including:

· air-fuel ratios and combustion cycles

· direct injection

· detonation

· engine design, including:

· swept volume and engine volume

· compression ratio

· engine efficiency, including volumetric efficiency, thermal efficiency and mechanical efficiency

· torque and horsepower, including brake horsepower

· application, purpose and operation of the following components of light vehicle engines and components, including:

· lubrication systems, cylinder blocks, cylinders, pistons, cylinder heads, combustion chambers, inlet and exhaust manifolds, connecting rods, crankshafts, piston rings, gudgeon pins, camshafts, timing gears, vibration dampers and flywheels

· diagnostic testing procedures for light vehicle engines, including:

· wet and dry compression tests

· cylinder leakage tests

· oil pressure tests

· checking sources of fluid leaks

· exhaust smoke diagnosis

· checking abnormal engine noises

· dismantling procedures for light vehicle engines, including procedures for:

· measuring clearances and tolerances

· inspecting components

· repair procedures for removing, replacing and adjusting light vehicle engines

· assembly procedures for light vehicle engines, including procedures for removing, replacing and adjusting them

· post-repair testing procedures for light vehicle engines, including:

· checking oil pressure

· road testing under load

· checking for fluid leaks.

Assessment 1 – Questioning

Written Assessment

1. Identify five (5) important items of personal safety when diagnosing and repairing engines?

2. Complete the following statement about safely removing an engine using the following words?

Words: Engine, Equipment, Hoist, Precautions, Procedure,

Before removing the __________, clean it and the area around it. Also, check the service information for the correct __________ for removing the engine from a particular vehicle. Make sure you adhere to all __________. Make sure you have the tools and __________ required for the job. In addition to hand tools and some special tools, you will need an engine __________ or crane and a jack.

3. When using lifting equipment, what does SWL stand for?

A. Safe weight lift.

B. Safe working load.

C. Safe working limit.

D. Secure working load

4. When handling, trapping, storing and disposing of new or waste engine oils and coolants, which document should you use to find this information?

5. What safety precautions must be observed when working around engines?

6. What precautions are needed when draining the engine oil from an engine?

7. How should waste engine fluids be stored and disposed?

8. Gasoline (petrol) and diesel engines are classified as external combustion engines.

True or False:

9. Describe the process of combustion.

10. Name the four (4) stroke of a four (4) stroke engine below.

A.

B.

C.

D.

11. Describe the four (4) stroke cycle.

12. Detonation occurs when part of the air/fuel mixture begins to ignite on its own. This results in the collision of two flame fronts.

True or False:

13. Detonation is caused by excessively advanced ignition timing, engine overheating, excessively lean mixtures, or the use of gasoline with too low of an octane rating.

True or False:

14. To complete a four-stroke cycle in one cylinder, the crankshaft must rotate _____ degrees.

A. 180

B. 360

C. 540

D. 720

15. The ideal, or stoichiometric mixture of air and fuel for a gasoline (petrol) engine is 14.7.

True or False:

16. GDI systems inject gasoline directly into the combustion chamber and produces a stratified air-fuel charge that allows for complete combustion with lean air-fuel ratios.

True or False:

17. In a GDI [gasoline direct injection] system, the tip of the injector is located ______.

A. Inside the combustion chamber

B. On the throttle body

C. In the intake port

D. In the intake manifold plenum

18. The volume of the combustion chamber when the piston is at BDC divided by the volume of the chamber when the piston is at TDC is called _____.

A. Displacement

B. Compression ratio

C. Volumetric efficiency

D. Mechanical efficiency

19. What is compression ratio?

A. The diameter of the cylinder

B. Cylinder arrangement

C. The ratio of the air to fuel mixture

D. None of these answers is correct

20. The volume of the combustion chamber when the piston is at BDC divided by the volume of the chamber when the piston is at TDC is called _____.

A. Displacement

B. Compression ratio

C. Volumetric efficiency

D. Mechanical efficiency

21. Complete the following statement about engine displacement using the following words.

Words: Changed, Cylinders, Displacement, Maintains, Sum, Superchargers, Torque

A cylinder’s __________ is the volume of the cylinder when the piston is at BDC. The trend in recent years has been toward smaller displacement engines fitted with turbo- or __________. Many manufacturers have moved from 8-cylinder to 6-cylinder or 6-cylinder to 4-cylinder engines to improve fuel economy. Using a turbo- or supercharger __________ high levels of performance while the smaller engine improves economy. As an example, Ford recently announced it will be offering its 1.0 litre turbocharged 3-cylinder EcoBoost engine. An engine’s displacement is the __________ of the displacements of each of the engine’s __________. Typically, an engine with a larger displacement produces more __________ than a smaller displacement engine; however, many other factors influence an engine’s power output. Engine displacement can be __________ by changing the size of the bore and/or stroke of an engine.

22. Engine displacement is commonly measured in cubic inches.

True or False:

23. Describe what volumetric efficiency is?

24. Thermal efficiency is a measure of how much of the heat formed during combustion is available as power from the engine.

True or False:

25. Explain Mechanical Efficiency.

26. Describe the difference between torque and horsepower.

27. _____ is a force that does work and tends to turn things.

A. Inertia

B. Momentum

C. Torque

D. All answers are correct

28. How much horsepower is generated by an engine running at 5800 rpm while producing 265 lbs./ft. of torque.

29. What is horsepower?

30. Brake horsepower (BHP) is the usable horsepower at the crankshaft.

True or False:

31. Name the main components of a typical lubricating system below.

1

2

3

4

32. Engine oil is specially formulated to lubricate and cool engine parts.

True or False:

33. Complete the following statement about engine displacement using the following words.

Words: Engine, Forces, Increases, Larger, Located, Oil, Pan, Passages, Pressure, Pump, Purpose, Suction, Volume

The oil __________ is the heart of the lubricating system. The oil pump may be __________ in the oil pan or mounted at the front of the engine. Its __________ is to supply oil to cool, clean, and lubricate the various moving parts in the __________. The pump is normally driven by the crankshaft and creates __________ to draw oil from the oil pan through a strainer. The pump then __________ the oil through the oil filter and to various passages throughout the engine. The oil then returns to the oil __________.

An oil pump does not create oil __________; it merely moves oil from one place to another. Oil pumps are positive displacement pumps; that is, the amount of __________ that leaves the pump is the same amount that enters it. Output __________ is proportional to pump speed. As engine rpm increases, pump output also __________. As the oil leaves the pump, it passes through many __________. These passages restrict oil flow. These restrictions are what cause oil pressure. Small passages cause the pressure to increase; __________ ones decrease the pressure.

34. Name the main components of a rotor-type oil pump below.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

35. Oil pumps have an oil pressure relief valve to prevent excessively high system pressures from occurring as engine speed increases.

True or False:

36. What is the function of the oil pan or engine sump?

37. Engine blocks are made from cast iron.

True or False:

38. Engine blocks are made from aluminium.

True or False:

39. The holes in the cylinder block that allow the removal of sand used in the casing process are sealed by core plugs.

True or False:

40. What part of the block is the deck?

41. Aluminium blocks normally have sleeves or steel liners placed in them to serve as cylinder walls.

True or False:

42. Name the main components of a piston below.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

43. Most pistons used today are made from _____.

A. Cast iron

B. Aluminium

C. Ceramic

D. None of these answers is correct

44. The piston forms the lower portion of the combustion chamber.

True or False:

45. A piston must be strong enough to face this pressure; however, it should also be as light as possible.

True or False:

46. What is the major thrust face?

47. A cylinder head may be made of cast iron or aluminium.

True or False:

48. A cylinder head that has the intake manifold and all the intake valves on one side and the exhaust manifold and exhaust valves on the opposite side is called a ____________________type cylinder head.

A. Top-flow

B. Cross-flow

C. Bottom-flow

D. Under-flow

49. Complete the following statement about cylinder heads using the following words.

Words: Block, Camshaft, Chamber, Combustion, Coolant, Cylinder, Drain, Exhaust, Heads, Ports, System, Valve

On OHV engines, the __________ head contains the valves, valve seats, valve guides, __________ springs, rocker arm supports, and a recessed area that makes up the top portion of the __________ chamber. On OHC engines, the cylinder head contains these items, plus the supports for the __________ and camshaft bearings. All cylinder __________ contain passages that match passages in the cylinder block. These passages allow __________ to circulate in the head and oil to __________ back into the oil pan. Oil also moves through the head to lube the camshaft and valve train. The coolant flows from passages in the cylinder __________ through the cylinder head. The coolant then flows back to other parts of the cooling __________. A cylinder head also has tapped holes in the combustion __________ to accept the spark plugs.

Intake and __________ ports are cast into the cylinder head. The size and shape of the __________ affect the velocity and volume of the mixture entering and leaving the cylinders.

50. The hemispherical combustion chamber provides excellent turbulence to the air and fuel mixture.

True or False:

51. The performance of an engine, its fuel efficiency, and its exhaust emissions all depend to a large extent on the shape of the combustion chamber.

True or False:

52. A pentroof combustion chamber is normally found on a(n) _____type cylinder head.

A. OHV

B. Four valves per cylinder

C. Two valves per cylinder

D. VVT [variable valve timing]

53. Valve guides are _____.

A. Integral [bores in cylinder head]

B. Pressed in cast iron inserts

C. Pressed in bronze inserts

D. All answers are correct

54. Modern intake manifolds for engines with port fuel injection are typically made of die-cast aluminium or plastic.

True or False:

55. Exhaust manifolds for most vehicles are made of cast or nodular iron.

True or False:

56. Variable intake manifolds tuning (IMT) system uses a butterfly valve to divide the plenum into two small chambers at low speeds. At high engine speeds, the butterfly valve opens to form one large plenum chamber.

True or False:

57. Variable intake manifold runner control (IMRC) system changes the path of air between long and short runners or between small-diameter and large-diameter runners according to engine speed.

True or False:

58. Complete the following statement about intake manifolds using the following words.

Words: Condensation, Coolant, Cylinder, Electric, Heat, Intake, Manifold, Plenum, Vaporise, Wet

An intake __________ distributes the clean air or air/fuel ratio as evenly as possible to each __________ of the engine. Older engines had cast-iron __________ manifolds. The manifold delivered air and fuel to the cylinders and had short runners. These manifolds were either __________ or dry. Wet manifolds had coolant passages cast directly in them. Dry manifolds did not have __________ passages but had exhaust passages through the manifold to __________ the floor of the manifold. This helped to __________ the fuel before it arrived in the cylinders. Other dry manifold designs used some sort of __________ heater unit or grid to warm the bottom of the manifold. Heating the floor of the manifold stopped fuel from condensing in the __________ area. Good fuel vaporisation and the prevention of __________ allowed for delivery of a more uniform air/fuel mixture to the individual cylinders.

59. The exhaust manifold collects the burnt gases as they are expelled from the cylinders and directs them to the exhaust pipe.

True or False:

60. Proper tuning of the exhaust manifold tubes can actually create a partial vacuum that helps draw exhaust gases out of the cylinder, improving volumetric efficiency.

True or False:

61. The connecting rod journal is also called the ______.

A. Pin boss

B. Vibration damper

C. Piston pin

D. Crank pin

62. The connecting rod is used to transmit the pressure applied on the piston to the crankshaft.

True or False:

63. Complete the following statement about crankshafts using the following words.

Words: Bearings, Connecting, Counterweights, Crankshaft, Damper, Drilled, Film, Flywheel, Forged, Inline, Journals, Oil, Pistons, Shorter, Smooth, Tolerance

Crankshafts are made of cast iron, __________ cast steel, or nodular iron, and then machined. At the centreline of the __________ are the main bearing journals. These journals are machined to a very close __________ because the weight and movement of the crankshaft are supported at these points. The number of main __________ varies with engine design. V-type engines have fewer main bearings than an __________ engine with the same number of cylinders. A V-type engine uses a __________ crankshaft.

The position of the rod __________ places the weight and pressure from the __________ away from the centre of the crankshaft. This creates an imbalanced condition. To overcome this imbalance, __________ are built into the crankshaft to offset the weight of the pistons and connecting rods. These are positioned opposite the __________ rod journals.

The main and rod bearing journals must have a very __________ surface. A clearance between the journal and bearing is needed to allow a __________ of oil to form. The crankshaft rotates on this film.

It is important that the journals receive an ample supply of clean __________. Each main bearing journal has a hole __________ into it with a connecting bore or bores leading to one or more rod bearing journals. Pressurised oil moves in, over, and out of the journals.

A crankshaft has two distinct ends. One is called the __________ end. The front end or belt drive end of the crankshaft has a snout for mounting the crankshaft timing gear and __________.

64. What is the function of the crankshaft thrust bearing?

65. The bottom ring on a piston is a compression ring.

True or False:

66. What is the function of compression rings?

67. A piston pin is sometimes called a wrist pin.

True or False:

68. A full floating piston pin.

A. Rotates in the piston

B. Rotates in the connecting rod

C. Both “rotates in the piston” and “rotates in the connecting rod”

D. Neither “rotates in the piston” and “rotates in the connecting rod”

69. The lobes of a camshaft designed for use with flat bottom lifters are slightly tapered. The taper causes the lifter to rotate in its bore.

True or False:

70. All of the following are correct statements about lifters EXCEPT:

A. Flat bottom [non-roller] lifters rotate in their bores

B. Roller lifters do not and should not rotate in their bores

C. The lobes on a camshaft designed for roller lifters may have a steeper ramp and a blunt nose

D. All engines equipped with roller lifters require periodic valve [lash] adjustment

71. A thrust plate is sometimes used to limit the fore and aft movement (endplay) of the camshaft.

True or False:

72. The height of the lobe is proportional to the amount the valve will open.

True or False:

73. In OHV engines, the camshaft fits in a bore above the crankshaft.

True or False:

74. A camshaft is driven by the crankshaft at half its speed.

True or False:

75. On the image of the valve timing diagram below, answer the following questions.

At what degree dose the exhaust valve begin to open?

Dose the exhaust valve begin to open before or after BDC?

At what degree dose the exhaust valve close?

Dose the exhaust valve begin to close before or after TDC?

At what degree dose the intake valve begin to open?

Dose the intake valve begin to open before or after TDC?

At what degree dose the intake valve close?

Dose the exhaust valve begin to close before or after BDC?

76. Timing belts are only used on OHC engines.

True or False:

77. Which of the following is NOT a type of camshaft drive mechanism?

A. Shaft

B. Gear

C. Chain

D. Belt

78. Hub, inertia ring, and elastomer [rubber] sleeve are parts of a _____.

A. Balance shaft assembly

B. Oil pump

C. Timing chain tensioner

D. Harmonic balancer

79. A vibration damper is often called a harmonic balancer.

True or False:

80. Timing chain tensioners are spring loaded or hydraulically operated.

True or False:

81. What is the function of the flywheel?

82. Complete the following statement about variable cam timing (VVT) using the following words.

Words: Emissions, Flow, Load, Module, Overlap, Phaser, Pressure, Torque, Valve, Vane

The variable __________ timing (VVT) system electronically adjusts valve __________ by changing exhaust valve opening times in response to engine speed and __________. The system provides an increase in horsepower and __________. It also reduces fuel consumption and exhaust __________. This VVT system uses a special camshaft and phaser. The __________ is attached to the end of the camshaft. Inside the phaser are vanes that move within a fixed cavity inside a sealed hub. The movement of the vanes is controlled by oil __________. The applied oil pressure is controlled by the powertrain control __________ (PCM). The PCM transmits a signal to a solenoid to move a valve spool that regulates the __________ of oil to the phaser cavity. As the applied oil pressure increases, the vanes move against spring pressure. Each __________ can rotate a total of 22.5 degrees inside its chamber.

83. Complete the following statement about compression testing using the following words.

Words: Accurate, All, Battery, Button, Comparison, Compression, Consistent, Cylinders, Four, Fuel, Gauges, Hole, Increase, Install, Observe, Reading, Recorded, Remote, Revolution, Screw-in, Spark, Starter, Test, Warm, Wide-open

1 Before conducting a __________ test, disable the ignition and the __________ injection system. Most manufacturers recommend that the engine be __________ when testing.

2 Prop the throttle plate into a __________ position to allow an unrestricted amount of air to enter the __________ during the test.

3 Remove __________ of the engine’s __________ plugs.

4 Connect a __________ starter button to the __________ system.

5 Many types of compression __________ are available. The __________ type tends to be the most __________ and easiest to use.

6 Carefully __________ the gauge into the spark plug __________ of the first cylinder.

7 Connect a __________ charger to the car to allow the engine to crank at __________ and normal speeds needed for accurate __________ results.

8 Depress the remote starter __________ and observe the gauge’s __________ after the first engine __________.

9 Allow the engine to turn through __________ revolutions, and __________ the reading after the fourth. The reading should __________ with each revolution.

10 Readings observed should be __________. After all cylinders have been tested, a __________ of cylinders can be made.

84. A wet compression test is performed on an engine after a dry compression test revealed low compression on one cylinder. If the compression on the low cylinder rises, it indicates __________?

A. Leaking valves

B. Worn rings

C. Worn camshaft

D. All answers are correct

85. A zero reading means there is no leakage in the cylinder. Readings of __________ indicate that the cylinder will not hold any pressure.

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 50%

D. 100%

86. Complete the following statement about cylinder leakage testing using the following words.

Words: Adaptor, Applies, Air, Crankshaft, Compressed, Compression, Escaping, Filler, Gauge, Leakage, Measure, Operating, Pressure, Radiator, Source, Spark, TDC, Test, Through

If a compression __________ shows that any of the cylinders are leaking, a cylinder __________ test can be performed to __________ the percentage of __________ lost and to help locate the __________ of leakage. A cylinder leakage tester __________ compressed air to a cylinder __________ the spark plug hole. The test normally includes the following steps:

1 Make sure the engine is at __________ condition.

2 Remove the __________ cap, oil __________ cap, dipstick tube, __________ filter cover, and all __________ plugs.

3 Rotate the __________ with a remote starter button so that the piston of the tested cylinder is at __________ on its compression stroke. This ensures that the valves of that cylinder are closed.

4 Insert the threaded __________ on the end of the tester’s air __________ hose into the spark plug hole.

5 Allow the __________ air to enter the cylinder.

6 Observe the __________ reading.

7 Listen and feel to identify the source of any __________ air.

87. An oil pressure test is used to determine the wear of an engine’s parts.

True or False:

88. Complete the following statement about oil pressure testing using the following words.

Words: Adapters, Clearances, Contaminated, Faulty, Engine, Gauge, High-pressure, Hose, kPa, Low, Manufacturer’s, Much, Oil, Operating, Pressure, Problems, psi, Reading, Relief, Run, Running, Screen, Sensor, Test, Viscosity

An oil __________ tester is a gauge with a __________ hose attached to it. The scale of the __________ typically reads from 0 to 100 __________ (0 to 690 __________). Using the correct fittings and __________, the hose is connected to an __________ passage in the __________ block. The __________ normally includes the following steps:

1 Remove the oil pressure __________ and tighten the threaded end of the gauge’s __________ into that bore.

2 __________ the engine until it reaches normal __________ temperature.

3 Observe the gauge __________ while the engine is __________ at about 1,000 rpm and at 2,500 rpm (or the specified engine speed).

4 Compare the readings to the __________ specifications.

Excessive bearing __________ are not the only possible causes for __________ oil pressure readings; others are oil pump-related __________, a plugged oil pickup __________, weak or broken oil pressure __________ valve, low oil level, __________ oil, or low oil viscosity.

Higher than normal readings can be caused by too __________ oil, cold oil, high oil __________, restricted oil passages, and a __________ pressure regulator.

89. Engine oil pressure testing should be tested with the engine cold?

True or False:

90. Identify the following fluid leaks

Description

Probable Source

Honey or Dark Greasy Fluid

Honey or Dark Thick Fluid with a Chestnut Smell

Green, Sticky Fluid

Slippery Clear or Yellowish Fluid

Slippery Red Fluid

Bluish Watery Fluid

91. On the picture of the engine gaskets and seals below, write down the areas where engine oil leaks could occur.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

92. Examining and interpreting the vehicle’s exhaust can give clues of potential engine problems.

True or False:

93. It is normal for white smoke to come out of the tailpipe. This is caused by the water that has condensed in the exhaust system as it becomes steam due to the heat of the exhaust system.

True or False:

94. The colour of the exhaust is used to diagnose engine concerns. For the engine types below, use the visual signs to help diagnose the problem and possible causes.

Engine Type

Visible Sign

Diagnosis

Probable Causes

Petrol

Grey or Black Smoke

Diesel

Grey or Black Smoke

Petrol and Diesel

Blue Smoke

Petrol

White Smoke

Diesel

White Smoke

95. Give some examples of abnormal engine noises, including a description of the sound, and their likely causes below.

Type

Sound

Mostly Heard During

Possible Causes

Ring noise

Piston slap

Piston pin knock

Main bearing noise

Rod bearing noise

Thrust bearing noise

Tappet noise

Timing chain noise

96. The maximum amount of cylinder out-of-roundness allowed in most cases is 0.0015 in. (.038 mm).

True or False:

97. The maximum amount of cylinder taper normally allowed is:

A. 0.0015 in. (.038 mm)

B. 0.006 in. (.15 mm)

C. 0.015 in. (.38 mm)

D. 0.06 in. (1.5 mm)

98. A cylinder bore can be checked for out-of-roundness with a _____.

A. Dial bore gauge

B. Telescoping gauge and micrometre

C. Both “dial bore gauge” and “telescoping gauge and micrometre”

D. Neither both “dial bore gauge” nor “telescoping gauge and micrometre

99. A cylinder can have a taper of up to 0.010 in. (.254 mm) and be acceptable.

True or False:

100. A micrometre is used to measure the connecting rod journal for taper.

True or False:

101. A micrometre is used to measure the connecting rod journal for out-of-roundness.

True or False:

102. Crankshaft endplay or end clearance check is carried out with a feeler gauge.

True or False:

103. Crankshaft endplay or end clearance check is carried out with a dial indicator.

True or False:

104. Undersized bearings are being discussed. A 0.001 in. or 0.002 in. bearing can be used on a stock crankshaft journal if the oil clearance [difference between the bearing diameter and the journal diameter] is slightly excessive and the journal is not excessively tapered or out of round.

True or False:

105. Undersized bearings are being discussed. A 0.010 in., 0.020 in., and 0.030 in. undersized bearings are only used when the crankshaft journals have been reground.

True or False:

106. Plastigage is used to check the clearance between _____.

A. Connecting rod journal and connecting rod bearing

B. Main bearing journal and main bearing

C. Both “connecting rod journal and connecting rod bearing” and “main bearing journal and main bearing”

D. Neither “connecting rod journal and connecting rod bearing” nor “main bearing journal and main bearing”

107. Maximum taper for a rod journal is typically 0.001, 0.04 in (0.04, 0.001 mm)

True or False:

108. Describe how to use Plastigage.

109. How is deck warpage checked?

110. To prevent cylinder head warpage during disassembly, the head bolts should be randomly.

True or False:

111. You should rotate the engine by hand until all the cam timing marks align to ensure that the cam timing was set properly before the belt tensioner pulley to remove its tension on the belt before removing the timing belt.

True or False:

112. While removing the cylinder head, you should keep all rocker arms and pushrods in order.

True or False:

113. Extreme care should be used when using a scraper or wire brush on parts made of _____.

A. Cast iron

B. Stainless steel

C. Titanium

D. Aluminium

114. You should use masking tape and a marking pen to label electrical connectors and vacuum line when disassembling an engine.

True or False:

115. Why would you want to have a digital camera available for an engine R&R job?

116. When disassembling an engine, what should you be looking for?

117. The flywheel for a vehicle with a manual transmission should be examined for damage and signs of clutch problems.

True or False:

118. Most cylinder wear occurs at the top of the ring travel.

True or False:

119. A cylinder wall with too smooth surface will prevent the piston rings from seating properly.

True or False:

120. Which operation must be performed before removing the pistons from an engine?

A. Install rod bolt protector sleeves

B. Remove the cylinder ridge with a ridge reamer

C. If the connecting rods are not marked from the factory, number the rods with a prick punch or number stamp

D. All answers are correct

121. A lifter that has a concave contact surface must be replaced.

True or False:

122. Valve springs should be checked for all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Freestanding height

B. Squareness

C. Compressed height

D. Open pressure

123. Cylinder head warpage can be measured with _____.

A. A straightedge and feeler gauge

B. A dial indicator

C. A surface gauge

D. A ball gauge and outside micrometre

124. While disassembling a cylinder head, what would indicate that the valve seals are worn or damaged?

125. Name three (3) areas on the cylinder head where cracks are most likely to occur?

1

2

3

126. What is the most common cause of warpage in an aluminium cylinder head?

127. When installing a segmented oil control ring, the end gaps of the three pieces must line up.

True or False:

128. Tightening of a bolt should be done with an impact wrench followed by a torque wrench.

True or False:

129. A torque-to-yield bolt can be reused if it is not damaged.

True or False:

130. Gasket sealants should be used on all gasket installations.

True or False:

131. A gasket installed upside down or reversed may cause loss of oil pressure, overheating and engine failure.

True or False:

132. After the break-in period, the cylinder head and intake manifold bolts may need to be retorqued.

True or False:

133. What keeps the cylinder head and block aligned before the head bolts are torqued?

A. Head gasket

B. Friction between head gasket and block

C. Gravity

D. Dowel pins

134. Describe how the rocker arms are adjusted on OHV engines with hydraulic lifters.

135. When installing a piston and connecting rod assembly, various markings can be used to make sure the installation is correct. Always check the service information for exact locations.

True or False:

136. When changing a timing belt or chain, a camshaft locking tool can be used to hold the camshaft in place.

True or False:

137. Consider the various post repair checks that you would make during a road test on the engine?

138. To prevent engine damage after it has been rebuilt and to ensure good initial oil control and long engine life, the proper break-in procedure must be followed. Describe what is the proper break-in procedure?

139. What the is objective of the break-in procedure?

140. Complete the following statement about relearn procedures using the following words.

Words: Based, Computer, Condition, Engine, Reconnected, Resets, Service, Vehicles,

The computer in most late-model __________ must undergo a relearn or initialization procedure after the battery has been __________. This procedure allows the computers to learn the condition of the __________ and make adjustments according to the engine’s restored __________. The last time the engine was run, the computer made adjustments __________ on the engine faults present. This procedure allows the __________ to see that those faults were corrected. Initialization also __________ the reference for the crankshaft position sensor and PCM. Always follow the manufacturer’s procedures as outlined in the __________ information.

141. Which source of information will give you the most detail about diagnosing and repairing engines on the vehicle you are working on?

A. Workshop manual

B. Owner’s manual

C. Google

D. Textbooks

142. Why is it very important that the Job Card is completed correctly?

Written Assessment – AURLTE002

Created Date:

10th June 2018

Aspen College

Last Modified Date:

21st March 2019

RTO ID 45482 CRICOS Code 03753A

Version 2.1

Page 1 of 5

Description	Probable Source
Honey or Dark Greasy Fluid
Honey or Dark Thick Fluid with a Chestnut Smell
Green, Sticky Fluid
Slippery Clear or Yellowish Fluid
Slippery Red Fluid
Bluish Watery Fluid

Engine Type	Visible Sign	Diagnosis	Probable Causes
Petrol	Grey or Black Smoke
Diesel	Grey or Black Smoke
Petrol and Diesel	Blue Smoke
Petrol	White Smoke
Diesel	White Smoke

Type	Sound	Mostly Heard During	Possible Causes
Ring noise
Piston slap
Piston pin knock
Main bearing noise
Rod bearing noise
Thrust bearing noise
Tappet noise
Timing chain noise

Written Assessment – AURLTE002	Created Date:	10th June 2018
Aspen College	Last Modified Date:	21st March 2019
RTO ID 45482 CRICOS Code 03753A	Version 2.1	Page 1 of 5