Project Management

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Question 1

1 points

Which of the following is an example of a project?

[removed]		a. Maintaining e-mail addresses
[removed]		b. Capacity planning
[removed]		c. Submitting travel and expense reports
[removed]		d. Sending monthly reports to top management

Question 2

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An effective project manager must:

[removed]		a. Tell his team members what to do
[removed]		b. Be the most capable person on the team technically
[removed]		c. Be focused on achieving results
[removed]		d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail

Question 3

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A key characteristic of an effective project team is that:

[removed]		a. Members have graduate degrees in project management
[removed]		b. Members come from the same professional background
[removed]		c. Members see themselves as stakeholders in the project
[removed]		d. Members adhere to a prescribed pecking order

Question 4

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A challenge of the matrix project organization is that:

[removed]		a. Team members are full of ego
[removed]		b. Team members are selected from the same functional area
[removed]		c. Team members have divided loyalties
[removed]		d. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers

Question 5

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A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that:

[removed]		a. It only focuses on things that can be measured
[removed]		b. It takes time frame into consideration
[removed]		c. It is too much based on subjective judgment
[removed]		d. It does not entail prioritizing

Question 6

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A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:

[removed]		a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project
[removed]		b. Show how many resources will be used on the project
[removed]		c. Show the interdependencies of tasks
[removed]		d. Show actual versus planned schedule status

Question 7

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If you want to shorten the length of a project, you must:

[removed]		a. Shorten the critical path
[removed]		b. Shorten the free float
[removed]		c. Spend more money
[removed]		d. Cut back on the features you plan to deliver

Question 8

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The critical path:

[removed]		a. Provides the duration of a project
[removed]		b. Has the shortest duration on a project
[removed]		c. Is the most expensive path to implement
[removed]		d. Contains the project's most significant tasks

Question 9

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A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:

[removed]		a. A chart of accounts
[removed]		b. A code of accounts
[removed]		c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)
[removed]		d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)

Question 10

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Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel?

[removed]		a. Crashing
[removed]		b. Fast tracking
[removed]		c. Leveling
[removed]		d. Hammocking

Question 11

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Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):

[removed]		a. Are based on historical trends
[removed]		b. Can be derived from the WBS
[removed]		c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages
[removed]		d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs

Question 12

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Bottom-up estimates:

[removed]		a. Are based on historical trends
[removed]		b. Can be derived from the WBS
[removed]		c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation
[removed]		d. a and c

Question 13

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Definitive estimates are generally derived from:

[removed]		a. Bottom-up estimates
[removed]		b. Top-down estimates
[removed]		c. Expert judgment cost estimates
[removed]		d. Order of magnitude estimates

Question 14

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The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called:

[removed]		a. A resource Gantt chart
[removed]		b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)
[removed]		c. A resource ogive
[removed]		d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)

Question 15

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Which of the following shows resource allocation over time?

[removed]		a. Resource Gantt chart
[removed]		b. Resource matrix
[removed]		c. S-Curve
[removed]		d. Resource leveling

Question 16

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What is the function of a change control board (CCB) in configuration management?

[removed]		a. To assess the management impacts of change requests
[removed]		b. To initiate changes needed on the project
[removed]		c. To focus on the technical implication of change requests
[removed]		d. To approve change requests coming from senior management

Question 17

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Good functional requirements

[removed]		a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed
[removed]		b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do
[removed]		c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do
[removed]		d. Are created after development of the technical specifications

Question 18

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The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is:

[removed]		a. Management by Objectives
[removed]		b. Management by Exception
[removed]		c. Management by Walking Around
[removed]		d. Management by Control Limits

Question 19

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Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system?

[removed]		a. SMART
[removed]		b. KISS
[removed]		c. MBO
[removed]		d. LOWBALLING

Question 20

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Which of the following is an elapsed time task?

[removed]		a. Paint is drying
[removed]		b. A painter paints the wall
[removed]		c. Software is being written
[removed]		d. A sandwich is being made

Question 21

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An autocratic management style:

[removed]		a. Is effective in most project management situations
[removed]		b. Is effective in highly routine efforts
[removed]		c. Is effective in high flux, state-of-the-art projects
[removed]		d. Will lead to the tyranny of the majority

Question 22

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A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as:

[removed]		a. Egoless
[removed]		b. Specialty
[removed]		c. Surgical
[removed]		d. Isomorphic

Question 23

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The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:

[removed]		a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates
[removed]		b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan
[removed]		c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant
[removed]		d. To re-baseline the project budget

Question 24

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If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have?

[removed]		a. 0.5 hours
[removed]		b. 1.5 hours
[removed]		c. 2.5 hours
[removed]		d. 8.5 hours

Question 25

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In risk management, insurance is an example of:

[removed]		a. Risk avoidance
[removed]		b. Risk deflection
[removed]		c. Risk acceptance
[removed]		d. Contingency planning

Question 26

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A four step risk assessment process reflecting standard risk management good practice consists of:

[removed]		a. Risk identification, Risk deflection, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control
[removed]		b. Risk acceptance, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control
[removed]		c. Risk deflection, Contingency planning, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control
[removed]		d. Risk identification, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control

Question 27

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Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:

[removed]		a. PERT
[removed]		b. GERT
[removed]		c. VERT
[removed]		d. Project Evaluation

Question 28

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If review of a project's status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is:

[removed]		a. On budget, behind schedule
[removed]		b. On budget, ahead of schedule
[removed]		c. Over budget, behind schedule
[removed]		d. Over budget, ahead of schedule

Question 29

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The poor man's hierarchy is a method for:

[removed]		a. Project estimation
[removed]		b. Project scheduling
[removed]		c. WBS construction
[removed]		d. Project selection

Question 30

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According to PMI, a WBS should focus on

[removed]		a. Tasks
[removed]		b. Deliverables
[removed]		c. Interrelationships among activities
[removed]		d. Cost of the project

Question 31

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If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)?

[removed]		a. $750
[removed]		b. $1,000
[removed]		c. $1,250
[removed]		d. $1,333

Question 32

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Which of the following is a scope planning tool?

[removed]		a. Benefit/cost analysis
[removed]		b. WBS
[removed]		c. Earned Value analysis
[removed]		d. Fast tracking

Question 33

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In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:

[removed]		a. Staff empowerment
[removed]		b. Technical requirements of the project
[removed]		c. Theory X management principles
[removed]		d. Theory Y management principles

Question 34

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The bottom-most level of the WBS -- the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured -- is called:

[removed]		a. Work package
[removed]		b. Code of accounts
[removed]		c. Budget baseline
[removed]		d. Change control level

Question 35

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Scope creep means:

[removed]		a. Needs emergence and identification
[removed]		b. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during project execution
[removed]		c. Migration of project needs to requirements
[removed]		d. Imprecise scope statement

Question 36

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Configuration management is a:

[removed]		a. Methodology for working closely with customers by developing and updating requirements for faster response to changing customer needs
[removed]		b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with evolving customer requirements
[removed]		c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
[removed]		d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer input

Question 37

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Rapid prototyping is a methodology for:

[removed]		a. Specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
[removed]		b. Specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating later changes to them with minimum customer in put
[removed]		c. Triggering early warning of unauthorized changes to the original prototype to enable project management to take remedial actions
[removed]		d. Working closely with customers by creating and updating prototypes that respond to customer input

Question 38

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Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of:

[removed]		a. Scope statement definition
[removed]		b. WBS construction
[removed]		c. Rapid prototyping
[removed]		d. Configuration management

Question 39

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Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request?

[removed]		a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources
[removed]		b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources
[removed]		c. If the request is coming from a valued customer
[removed]		d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer

Question 40

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Which of the following is not an activity carried out during project closeout?

[removed]		a. Reassignment of project staff
[removed]		b. Preparation of the project's baseline
[removed]		c. Reassignment of material resources
[removed]		d. Preparation of user manuals

Question 41

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When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 42

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The astute project manager typically uses only one management style in order not to confuse his/her teammates.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 43

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Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project's schedule.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 44

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A work package is to be found at the summary level of the WBS.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 45

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Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 46

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In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 47

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Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 48

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Needs recognition is the first stage of the needs-requirement life cycle.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 49

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Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 50

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A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 51

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Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 52

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There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 53

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When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 54

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The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 55

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A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 56

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An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 57

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A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 58

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Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 59

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Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

Question 60

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A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid.

[removed]	True
[removed]	False

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