MGT 150-A key characteristic of an effective project team is that

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Q1. A key characteristic of an effective project team is that:
a
. Members have graduate degrees in project management
b
. Members come from the same professional background
c
. Members see themselves as stakeholders in the project
d
. Members adhere to a prescribed pecking order 

Q2. The critical path:
a
. Provides the duration of a project
b
. Has the shortest duration on a project
c
. Is the most expensive path to implement
d
. Contains the project's most significant tasks 

Q3. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:
a
. A chart of accounts
b
. A code of accounts
c
. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)
d
. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve) 

Q4. If you want to shorten the length of a project, you must:
a
. Shorten the critical path
b
. Shorten the free float
c
. Spend more money
d
. Cut back on the features you plan to deliver 

Q5. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of
how people should be managed
.
a
. true
b
. false 

Q6. Which of the following is a scope planning tool?
a
. Benefit/cost analysis

b. WBS
c
. Earned Value analysis
d
. Fast tracking 

Q7. Which of the following shows resource allocation over time?
a
. Resource Gantt chart
b
. Resource matrix
c
. S-Curve
d
. Resource leveling 

Q8. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final
cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)?
a
. $750
b
. $1,000
c
. $1,250
d
. $1,333 

Q9. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request?
a
. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources
b
. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and
resources
c
. If the request is coming from a valued customer
d
. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer 

Q10. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project
time frame
.
a
. true
b
. false 

Q11. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a
project's schedule
.
a
. true

b. false 

Q12. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what
tasks is called:
a
. A resource Gantt chart
b
. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)
c
. A resource ogive
d
. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram) 

Q13. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with
decision making under certainty
.
a
. true
b
. false 

Q14. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that:
a
. It only focuses on things that can be measured
b
. It takes time frame into consideration
c
. It is too much based on subjective judgment
d
. It does not entail prioritizing 

Q15. Scope creep means:
a
. Needs emergence and identification
b
. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during project execution
c
. Migration of project needs to requirements
d
. Imprecise scope statement 

Q16. Which of the following is an elapsed time task?
a
. Paint is drying
b
. A painter paints the wall
c
. Software is being written
d
. A sandwich is being made 

Q17. A challenge of the matrix project organization is that:
a
. Team members are full of ego
b
. Team members are selected from the same functional area
c
. Team members have divided loyalties
d
. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers 

Q18. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:
a
. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates
b
. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan
c
. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant
d
. To re-baseline the project budget 

Q19. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a
task produces the same results
.
a
. true
b
. false 

Q20. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):
a
. Are based on historical trends
b
. Can be derived from the WBS
c
. Can be determined by analyzing work packages
d
. Provide accurate assessments of project costs 

Q21. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.
a
. true
b
. false

 Q22. Good functional requirements
a
. Describe how the deliverable should be developed
b
. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do
c
. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do

d. Are created after development of the technical specifications 

Q23. In risk management, insurance is an example of:
a
. Risk avoidance
b
. Risk deflection
c
. Risk acceptance
d
. Contingency planning 

Q24. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no
longer be valid
.
a
. true
b
. false 

Q25. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:
a
. PERT
b
. GERT
c
. VERT
d
. Project Evaluation 

Q26. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on
a
. Tasks
b
. Deliverables
c
. Interrelationships among activities
d
. Cost of the project 

Q27. The poor man's hierarchy is a method for:
a
. Project estimation
b
. Project scheduling
c
. WBS construction
d
. Project selection 

Q28. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome. 

a. true
b
. false 

Q29. Which of the following is an example of a project?
a
. Maintaining e-mail addresses
b
. Capacity planning
c
. Submitting travel and expense reports
d
. Sending monthly reports to top management

 Q30. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel?
a
. Crashing
b
. Fast tracking
c
. Leveling
d
. Hammocking 

Q31. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:
a
. Staff empowerment
b
. Technical requirements of the project
c
. Theory X management principles
d
. Theory Y management principles 

Q32. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of
actions taken in response to change requests
.
a
. true
b
. false 

Q33. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:
a
. Offer a sophisticated model of a project
b
. Show how many resources will be used on the project
c
. Show the interdependencies of tasks
d
. Show actual versus planned schedule status 

Q34. The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the
acceptable range is:
a
. Management by Objectives
b
. Management by Exception
c
. Management by Walking Around
d
. Management by Control Limits 

Q35. Definitive estimates are generally derived from:
a
. Bottom-up estimates
b
. Top-down estimates
c
. Expert judgment cost estimates
d
. Order of magnitude estimates 

Q36. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system?
a
. SMART
b
. KISS
c
. MBO
d
. LOWBALLING 

Q37. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash
outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow
.
a
. true
b
. false 

Q38. Rapid prototyping is a methodology for:
a
. Specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
b
. Specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating later changes to them with minimum
customer in put
c
. Triggering early warning of unauthorized changes to the original prototype to enable project
management to take remedial actions
d
. Working closely with customers by creating and updating prototypes that respond to customer
input 

Q39. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottomup estimates converge.
a
. true
b
. false 

Q40. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications.
a
. true
b
. false

 

 

 

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