Chapter 7 – Public Duties of the Physician and the HC Professional 1. A physician must include all of the following information on a death certificate except a. the presence or absence of pregn
Chapter 7 – Public Duties of the Physician and the HC Professional
1. A physician must include all of the following information on a death certificate except
a. the presence or absence of pregnancy.
b. if an autopsy took place.
c. the cause of death.
d. the date and time of death.
e. all of the above must be included.
2. A person who reports child abuse is protected by law
a. if the accused is found guilty.
b. if the person reports the crime in good faith.
c. only if the person has evidence beyond a reasonable doubt.
d. under the Good Samaritan laws.
e. only if the person is a trained healthcare professional.
3. Physicians who administer controlled substances to patients must renew their registration with the DEA every
a. six months.
b. year.
c. two years.
d. three years.
e. the registration does not have to be renewed.
4. The agency of the federal government authorized to enforce drug control is known as the
a. Food and Drug Administration.
b. Drug Enforcement Administration.
c. Controlled Substances Agency.
d. Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs.
e. none of the above.
5. Anabolic steroids are an example of a
a. Schedule I drug.
b. Schedule II drug.
c. Schedule III drug.
d. Schedule IV drug.
e. Schedule V drug.
6. The Good Samaritan laws
a. try to encourage physicians to offer aid to accident victims.
b. only require people to act within the limits of their skill and training.
c. apply when aid is given in which a physician–patient relationship has been established.
d. a and b only.
e. a, b, and c.
7. Signs of abuse include
a. poor growth.
b. lack of hygiene.
c. malnutrition.
d. bite marks.
e. all of the above.
8. Diphtheria is an example of
a. a reportable disease.
b. a Schedule I drug.
c. a narcotic.
d. a Schedule V drug.
e. a sign of abuse.
9. A Schedule I controlled substance
a. has a low potential for addiction and abuse.
b. is acceptable for medical use within the United States.
c. includes cocaine and opium.
d. cannot be prescribed.
e. c and d.
10. A coroner or health official will have to sign a death certificate in the case of
a. a death as a result of a criminal action.
b. an unlawful death such as assisted suicide.
c. unexplained or unexpected death.
d. a and b only.
e. a, b, and c.
Chapter 8 Workplace Law and Ethics
11. Physician and staff relationships are regulated by
a. state law.
b. local law.
c. federal law.
d. federal labor acts.
e. all of the above.
12. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
a. protects persons 40 or older from age discrimination.
b. establishes a mandatory retirement age of 65.
c. protects persons between the ages of 16 and 20 from age discrimination.
d. established Social Security benefits.
e. a and c.
13. A company with 20 or more employees must provide extended healthcare insurance to terminated employees for as long as 18 months under
a. The Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973.
b. FLSA.
c. COBRA.
d. the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938.
e. OSHA.
14. The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 requires
a. the employer to inform the employee of the intent to maintain a drug-free workplace.
b. employers contracting to the federal government to certify that they maintain a drug-free workplace.
c. the employee be informed of penalties for violation of the drug policy.
d. a and c only.
e. a, b, and c.
15. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 permits the court to award
a. compensatory damages.
b. regulatory agencies the power to enforce civil rights laws.
c. punitive damages.
d. a and c only.
e. a, b, and c.
16. This act establishes guidelines for the use of an individual’s credit information:
a. Truth in Lending Act of 1969
b. Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971
c. Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
d. Fair Labor Standards Act
e. Equal Credit Opportunity Act of 1975
17. The National Labor Relations Act includes each of the following except
a. employers may not threaten employees who become active in union activity.
b. employers cannot refuse to bargain in good faith.
c. employers cannot attempt to control union activity.
d. employers cannot discriminate because of union activity.
e. all of the above are included in this act.
18. In an interview, it is illegal, in all circumstances, to ask a question relating to
a. place of birth.
b. age.
c. race or color.
d. marital status.
e. the person’s address.
19. Wrongful discharge suits fall under the
a. Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972.
b. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.
c. Civil Rights Act of 1991.
d. Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
e. Equal Pay Act of 1963.
20. OSHA
a. protects healthcare workers from bloodborne disease.
b. regulations preempt all other state and local regulations.
c. requires employers to provide a safe and healthy work environment.
d. requires employers to provide detailed instructions that identify chemicals and the appropriate safety precautions.
e. all of the above.
Chapter 9 – The Medical Record
21. Medicare and Medicaid records should be retained for
a. one year.
b. five years.
c. 10 years.
d. for the lifetime of the patient.
e. for an indefinite period of time.
22. The contents of the medical record include all of the following except
a. past medical problems.
b. informed consent documentation.
c. patient’s income level.
d. family medical history.
e. a and b only.
23. Medical record entries should be made
a. within 60 days of the patient’s discharge.
b. at the physician’s discretion.
c. after the patient gives consent.
d. as soon as possible.
e. 10 days after the procedure.
24. The patient
a. has the legal right of “privileged communication.”
b. owns the medical record.
c. cannot have any portion of the medical record.
d. a and c.
e. a, b, and c.
25. When correcting a written medical record, one should
a. use a professional brand of error correction fluid to make the correction.
b. erase the error and make the correction.
c. draw a line through the error, write the correction above the error, and initial the change.
d. never make any corrections on the medical record.
e. none of the above.
26. The medical record is legally owned by the
a. patient.
b. physician.
c. state.
d. lawyer.
e. no one.
27. Medical records
a. provide a record from birth to death.
b. provide statistics on health matters.
c. are legal documents.
d. a and c only.
e. a, b, and c.
28. All of the following are guidelines to use when sending medical records by fax except
a. make sure that the intended receiver is waiting for the fax.
b. use a cover sheet marked “confidential.”
c. send the entire medical record via fax.
d. do not place the original fax in a trash container.
e. all of the above are correct.
29. An exception to the open-records laws in some states is/are
a. psychiatric history.
b. confidential medical record information such as HIV test results.
c. safety and criminal records of persons involved in the education of children.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.
30. The records of all adult patients , with the possible exception of Medicare and Medicaid patients, should be kept a minimum of
a. two years.
b. five years.
c. 10 years.
d. 20 years.
e. permanently.
Chapter 10 – Patient Confidentiality and HIPAA
31. In order to de-identify a patient’s public health information, all the following have to be removed except
a. telephone and fax numbers.
b. communicable disease.
c. social security number.
d. email address.
e. all of the above have to be removed.
32. The “minimum necessary” standard means that
a. a copy of the entire medical record can never be sent to anyone.
b. a copy of only the specific information requested from the medical record can be sent, minus the patient’s name.
c. it does not apply to any health information disclosures that are required by law.
d. electronic transfers of patient’s information cannot be made.
e. none of the above.
33. The national data bank that collects reports and disclosures of actions taken against healthcare practitioners for noncompliance and fraudulent activities is
a. HIPAA.
b. EIN.
c. PHI.
d. HIPDB.
e. None of the above
34. Under HIPAA, medical practitioners and other covered entities are required to
a. use their employer identification number for electronic transfers of patient information.
b. supply all their patients with notice of privacy practices.
c. meet all the notification requirements by the year 2028.
d. a and b only.
e. a, b, and c.
35. Under HIPAA, the rules relating to research must include which of the following?
a. a waiver from an Institutional Review Board
b. a waiver from the primary care physician
c. a notification about the research published in the Journal of the American Medical Association
d. a waiver from the coroner
e. none of the above
36. The purpose(s) of HIPAA is/are to
a. allow patients to have easier access to their health records.
b. protect computerized medical records and billing.
c. prevent the police from accessing a patient’s medical record.
d. prevent hospitals from placing patients’ names in their directory.
e. a and b only.
37. Signed authorizations from patients restricting disclosure of PHI
a. must be retained permanently.
b. are not enforceable.
c. should be retained for 10 years.
d. should be retained for six years from the date they were created.
e. do not have to be retained.
38. A privacy officer should
a. be appointed by every covered entity.
b. should be trained to receive complaints.
c. should be trained to provide information concerning the provider’s privacy notice materials.
d. a and c only.
e. a, b, and c.
39. Telemedicine is
a. illegal.
b. considered to be harmful to the general population.
c. is seen by many to be the future of medicine.
d. not to be used for providing continuing education to medical professionals.
e. none of the above.
40. People and organizations that require a patient’s health information include
a. police.
b. selected family members.
c. insurance companies.
d. ambulance services.
e. all of the above.
Chapter 11 – Ethical and Bioethical Issues in Medicine
41. Nontherapeutic research
a. will always benefit the research subject.
b. does not directly benefit the research subject.
c. is unethical.
d. should be justified with the benefits outweighing the risks.
e. b and d only.
42. A double-blind test means that
a. neither the patient nor the researcher knows who is getting the treatment.
b. the participants are visually impaired.
c. the results will not be gained from an objective method for testing.
d. the control group will eventually benefit from being in the experiment.
e. there is an unethical practice taking place.
43. Many professional codes of ethics are based on
a. current laws.
b. mandates from the government.
c. early writings of Hippocrates.
d. outdated value systems.
e. none of the above.
44. Stem cells are
a. genetically identical cells from a single common cell used to create identical organisms.
b. master cells in the body that can generate specialized cells.
c. the same as chromosomes.
d. the same as gene markers.
e. none of the above.
45. What topics are included under the topic of bioethics?
a. Stem cell research
b. Fetal tissue research
c. Random clinical trials
d. a and b only
e. a, b, and c
46. The Summary of Opinions of the Council on Ethical and Judicial Affairs of the AMA
a. describes fee splitting as an accepted practice.
b. admonishes the surgeon against “ghost surgery.”
c. admonishes the physician to be sensitive to the need to assist patients in suicide.
d. describes gene therapy as acceptable as long as it is for the purpose of altering human traits.
e. all of the above.
47. Taking away a license to practice medicine is called
a. revocation.
b. censure.
c. expulsion.
d. a and c only.
e. a, b, and c.
48. Medical issues relating to bioethics include
a. harvesting embryos.
b. DRGs.
c. withdrawing treatment.
d. HMOs.
e. a and c only.
49. Conflicts of interest occur
a. when there are financial interests present.
b. if stock is owned by the physician in the company that sponsors the research.
c. if the researcher can control the results of the research.
d. if the patient’s needs are not considered.
e. all of the above.
50. A model for making ethical decisions requires that
a. the potential consequences are not revealed in order to provide objectivity.
b. the alternative of “not doing anything” is not an appropriate consideration.
c. the ethical issues be defined in vague terms in order to look at all the dimensions of the problem.
d. the facts be determined by asking who, what, where, when, and how.
e. all of the above.
Chapter 12 – Ethical Issues Relating to Life
51. The current laws relating to artificial insemination
a. do not forbid artificial insemination.
b. state that the donor father must provide a portion of the child’s support.
c. provide for the records that relate to the donor to remain open.
d. clarify the child’s legitimacy.
e. all of the above.
52. The Baby M case is an example of
a. problems encountered with fertility drugs.
b. problems relating to the practice of eugenics.
c. problems encountered as a result of the use of a surrogate.
d. problems encountered due to involuntary sterilization.
e. problems encountered as a result of genetics.
53. Ethical issue(s) relating to contraception is/are
a. dispensing contraceptives in schools receiving federal funds.
b. requiring sex offenders to undergo sterilization.
c. providing contraceptives for women on Medicaid.
d. sterilization of mentally incompetent women.
e. all of the above.
54. A miscarriage is the same thing as a/an
a. induced abortion.
b. spontaneous abortion.
c. drug-induced abortion.
d. conscience clause.
e. eugenics.
55. A genetic disorder that causes severe joint pain, chronic weakness, and infections and is more prevalent in people of African heritage is
a. Tay-Sachs disease.
b. hemophilia.
c. cystic fibrosis.
d. sickle-cell anemia.
e. Cooley’s anemia.
56. Genetic testing of the newborn is required by law for
a. Tay-Sach’s disease.
b. phenylketonuria.
c. retinoblastoma.
d. Down syndrome.
e. Cooley’s anemia.
57. A disease that could cause serious birth defects for an unborn child if the pregnant mother is exposed to it during her pregnancy is
a. Down syndrome.
b. Huntington’s disease.
c. cystic fibrosis.
d. rubella.
e. retinoblastoma.
58. Withdrawing a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus for genetic testing is called
a. induced abortion.
b. eugenics.
c. amniocentesis.
d. spontaneous abortion.
e. drug-induced abortion.
59. A person appointed by the court to defend a lawsuit on behalf of an incapacitated person is
a. conscience clause.
b. surrogate.
c. AID.
d. AIH.
e. guardian ad litem.
60. Tay-Sachs disease
a. results from an enzyme deficiency.
b. is more common among people of Eastern European descent.
c. is curable if diagnosed early.
d. a, b, and c.
e. a and b only.
Chapter 13 – Death and Dying
61. The practice of allowing a terminally ill patient to die by forgoing treatment is called
a. active euthanasia.
b. passive euthanasia.
c. mercy killing.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
62. An electroencephalogram is used to
a. reverse a comatose patient’s condition.
b. measure cardiopulmonary function.
c. measure brain function.
d. reverse the condition of hypothermia.
e. reverse the condition of rigor mortis.
63. The Uniform Determination of Death Act
a. provides a definition of active euthanasia.
b. provides a definition of brain death.
c. is also called the doctrine of double effect.
d. mandates that everyone entering a nursing home must provide a written document stating the care he or she wishes to receive.
e. discusses the treatments that might be used for a comatose patient.
64. Criteria or standards for death include
a. rigor mortis.
b. hypothermia.
c. loss of body color.
d. biological disintegration.
e. all of the above.
65. What is the ethical term that is used to morally justify the removal of a cancerous uterus from a pregnant patient?
a. mercy killing
b. extraordinary means
c. ordinary means
d. doctrine of double effect
e. advance directive
66. Another term meaning death is
a. comatose.
b. expired.
c. proxy.
d. terminally ill.
e. hypothermia.
67. A hospice provides for
a. palliative care.
b. pain medications.
c. in-patient care.
d. home care.
e. all of the above.
68. Extraordinary care means that when caring for a comatose patient, one should include
a. CPR and mechanical breathing.
b. chemotherapy.
c. turning and hydration.
d. a and b only.
e. a, b, and c.
69. The Karen Ann Quinlan case involved
a. mercy killing.
b. removal of hydration from a comatose patient.
c. removal of a respirator from a comatose patient.
d. a heart transplant.
e. court order for a surgical procedure on an incompetent patient.
70. Terms referring to heart and pulmonary function include
a. cardiac.
b. comatose.
c. hypothermia.
d. cardiopulmonary.
e. none of the above.
Chapter 14 – Future Trends in Healthcare
71. Amy F.an indigent person on Medicaid, complained to her friend about having to pay so much extra for her medicines even though she was on Medicaid. This gap in Medicaid coverage is known as:
a. MRSA
b. The “donut hole”
c. Injury
d. Prescription Drug Abuse
e. None of the above
72. MRSA is:
a. A bacterium
b. A standard of measurement
c. Difficult to treat with standard types of antibiotics
d. a and c
e. all of the above
73. The most commonly abused drugs, especially by young people looking for a “high,” are:
a. methadone
b. OxyContin
c. Vicodin
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
74. Nicole P. is a young woman who wants to acquire health insurance under the Affordable Act. But she is concerned about what the health coverage will actually be. Which of the following will be allowed to Nicole under the new health coverage?
a. Tests for diabetes
b. Counseling for smoking
c. Well-baby visits for her infant son
d. Mammogram screenings for cancer
e. All of the above
75. Example of fraud in the health care field are:
a. Doctor or nurse practicing without a license
b. False Medicare billing
c. Drinking while driving
d. Conducting drug tests on groups of people without their knowledge.
e. a, b, and d
76. Which of the following pieces of sage advice is applicable to the health care profession
a. “Honesty if the best policy”
b.” When in doubt throw it out”
c.” First do no harm.”
d all of the above
e. None of the above
77. Hospital patients have the following rights:
a. The right to refuse any treatment
b. The right to be moved to another room
c. The right to be made as comfortable as possible
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
78. The following are examples of Accountable Care Organizations, except:
a. HMOs
b. CDC
c. PPOs
d. MCOs
e. POSs
79. Some of the benefits of the Affordable Care Act include:
a. Subsidies are offered to help those with low incomes to pay for their coverage.
b. Adult children under the age of 26 can remain covered under their parents’ health plan.
c. A person cannot be denied coverage due to preexisting medical conditions
d. Makes more people eligible for Medicaid.
e. All of the above.
80. The following are recommended health screenings, except:
a. Mammograms
b. Sexual health
c. Rotator cuff tears
d. Dental health
e. Osteoporosis
Miscellaneous Questions
81. Right & wrong conduct is known as:
a. empathy
b. criminal law
c. ethics
d. licensure
82.The most common type of medical tort is:
a. negligence
b. breach of contract
c. breach of confidence
d. fraud & deceit
83.The withdrawal of a Dr. from the care of a patient w/o reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is called:
a. contract
b. reasonable care
c. negligence
d. abandonment
84. An unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is:
a. litigation
b. assault
c. crime
d. libel
85.The health worker is protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonable compared with fellow workers. This is called:
a. respondeat superior
b. reasonable care
c. duty of care
d. statute
86. The breaking of a law or promise or duty is called:
a. statute
b. breach
c. consent
d. incompetent
87. The time established for filing law suits is called:
a. civil law
b. statute of limitations
c. contract
d. no correct answer
88. A writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding & to give testimony is called a(n):
a. habeas corpus
b. tort of appearance
c. subpoena
d. tort et a travers
89. A wrong committed against another person or the person's property is called:
a. defamation
b. libel
c. tort
d. plaintiff
90. Information given by a patient to medical personnel which cannot be disclosed w/o consent of the person who gave it is:
a. duty of care
b. respondeat superior
c. judgment
d. privileged communication
91. Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to another or their property is:
a. malpractice
b. negligence
c. slander
d. defamation
92. Permission granted by a person voluntarily & in his right mind is:
a. consent
b. litigation
c. breach
d. duty of care
93. Lack of physical or mental fitness is known as:
a. breach of duty
b. abandonment
c. competence
d. incompetence
94. A Latin term signifying the responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee is:
a. libel
b. malpractice
c. respondeat superior
d. civil law
95. A person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent is called a(n):
a. emancipated minor
b. plaintiff
c. defendant
d. tort
96. An impartial panel established to listen to & investigate patient's complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a _____ committee.
a. medical ethics
b. medical grievance
c. civil law
d. none of the above
97. Testimony of a witness under oath & written down before trial for possible use when the case comes to trial is _____.
a. deposition
b. citation
c. warrant
d. expert testimony
98. Violation or omission of a legal or moral duty is called:
a. negligence
b. breach of duty
c. defamation
d. malpractice
99. A statement given concerning some scientific, technical, or professional matter by an expert, such as a Dr., is called:
a. litigation
b. expert testimony
c. medical arbitration
d. burden of proof
100. The presumption of inference of negligence when an accident is otherwise unable to be explained of ordinary and known experience is called:
a. res judicata
b. res ipsa loquitur
c. locum tenems
d. res gestae
short essay definition of these terms with a little details of their relations: Informed consent, Patient autonomy, Standard of care
10 years ago
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