A+ Answers

Exam: 084070RR - Pharmacy Operations

1. Labels that indicate warnings and side effects are known as _______ labels.

A. warning

B. auxiliary

C. counseling

D. formulary

2. Refills are prohibited on which of the following drug schedules?

A. Schedule IV

B. Schedule V

C. Schedule III

D. Schedule II

3. Stock bottles should be moved on the shelves

A. by placing new stock behind old stock so stock closest to expiration gets used first.

B. by placing new stock in front of old stock so the freshest is used first.

C. from left to right in alphabetical order.

D. from left to right in numeric order based on the NDC.

4. _______ technology is used in many hospitals to verify that the correct medication is being dispensed to

the applicable patient.

A. CHAMPVA

B. Bar code

C. CPT code

D. Open formulary

5. The two key elements of any computer system are the _______ and the _______.

A. network, keyboard

B. hardware, software

C. monitor, mouse

D. hard drive, CPU

6. In addition to requesting payment for the cost of medications and related dispensing costs, pharmacies

are now allowed to bill for

A. a percentage of overhead expenses such as electricity, water, and heat.

B. costs related to automatic dispensing machines.

C. medication therapy management services.

D. pharmacy technician payroll costs.

7. Mr. Steinmetz has returned to the pharmacy a day after he picked up a prescription for codeine tablets.

He wants to return them, saying he doesn't need to take them. What is the proper procedure?

A. Mark the label as expired and place the container in the area for expired drugs.

B. Restock the tablets after reversing the charges to his insurance plan.

C. Accept the return and place the tablets in the area for returned drugs.

D. Explain that controlled substances can't be returned after dispensing.

8. Each medication within a pharmacy has a unique identifying number known as the

A. Drug Identifier Number.

B. Class Code Identifier.

C. National Drug Code.

D. Federal Medication Code.

9. A patient's prescription drug coverage under Medicare would be billed under which type of Medicare?

A. Part C

B. Part A

C. Part B

D. Part D

10. Generic medications are often dispensed as an alternative to a brand name drug. A list of drugs

approved as therapeutic equivalents can be found in a book referred to as the _______ Book.

A. Orange

B. Gen Eq

C. Generics

D. OTC/Rx

11.Hospital operating suites, cardiac and intensive care units, and emergency departments have

decentralized drug delivery systems that use

A. satellite pharmacies.

B. 12-hour fill carts.

C. OTC-only fill carts.

D. on-demand delivery.

12. Two or more computers connected together is referred to as a

A. network.

B. hard drive.

C. CPU.

D. software program.

13. When the patient comes into the pharmacy to pick up a prescription, the pharm tech must

A. confirm the patient's home phone number.

B. verify the prescribing physician's name and address.

C. ask if the patient has any additional shopping to do.

D. ask if the patient has any questions for the pharmacist.

14. Which of the following is not a governing body for pharmacy policy and procedure?

A. Pharmacy Technician Certification Board

B. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy

C. Drug Enforcement Administration

D. Food and Drug Administration

15. Drugs such as methylphenidate, morphine, and oxycodone are included in which class of drugs?

A. Schedule III

B. Schedule V

C. Schedule IV

D. Schedule II

16. Identifiable information related to a patient's medical condition is referred to as

A. personal medical information.

B. protected medical information.

C. physical medical information.

D. protected health information.

17. A fairly new technology that uses radio signals to send and receive information is referred to as

A. RFID.

B. bar coding.

C. MAR.

D. GUI.

18. IV admixtures are prepared in _______ settings.

A. refrigerated

B. sterile

C. clean

D. heated

19. A hospital's formulary is developed by a group of administrators, pharmacists, doctors, and other staff

members, collectively known as the

A. MTMS consortium.

B. P & T committee.

C. Pharmacy Alliance.

D. IVR committee.

20. The vial sizes for tablets and capsules range from _______ drams.

A. 8–150

B. 1–32

C. 8–120

D. 7–15

Exam: 084069RR - Regulations for Drug Development

1. The OTC monograph for a specific class of ingredients was codified in an official, legally binding

A. Treatment IND Program.

B. FDA journal.

C. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).

D. amendment to the Orphan Drug Act of 1983.

2. Phase _______ of clinical testing is required by the FDA before drug approval and uses the greatest

number of subjects.

A. 1

B. 4

C. 2

D. 3

3. The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 categorized drugs such as morphine and meperidine as Schedule

_______ drugs.

A. I

B. II

C. IV

D. III

4. Phase _______ of clinical testing uses the fewest number of subjects and establishes the dose at which

signs of toxicity appear.

A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 1

5. Given the following information for three new drugs, which drug has the greatest margin of safety?

  LD50 (milligrams) ED50 (milligrams)

Drug A 200 60

Drug B 120 10

Drug C 240 2

A. Drug A

B. Drug C

C. They all have the same margin of safety.

D. Drug B

6. A tragedy with which drug was responsible for the passage of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

of 1938 that required the establishment of drug safety standards?

A. Strychnine

B. Thalidomide

C. Sulfanilamide

D. Ergot

7. The Federal Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 defined an adulterated drug as a drug that

A. was prepared with alcohol or similar substances.

B. contains ergot, digitalis, or quinine.

C. contains a decomposed substance or whose strength, quality, or purity is different from what's indicated on the label.

D. has false or misleading labeling.

8. A tragedy with which drug was responsible for the passage of the Kefauver-Harris Amendment in 1962

that called for more drug safety?

A. Ergot

B. Sulfanilamide

C. Thalidomide

D. Strychnine

9. Phase 4 of Clinical Trials and the New Drug Application may take _______ years to monitor durability

of response.

A. 5–10

B. 3–5

C. 10–15

D. 1–5

10. The dose of a test drug that causes death in the animal during short-term toxicity testing is referred to

as the

A. lethal dose.

B. control.

C. placebo.

D. effective dose.

11. The Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 required that a drug be

A. not only safe but effective.

B. inventoried by the pharmacist every two years.

C. labeled as either an over-the-counter (OTC) or prescription drug.

D. used prior to proof of effectiveness, if necessary.

12. According to the Controlled Substances Act of 1970, drugs that have the lowest abuse rate are under

what schedule?

A. IV

B. V

C. III

D. I

13. How long does it take for the average new drug to be tested and approved for sale in the United States?

A. 2 years

B. 30 days

C. 3 to 5 years

D. 11 years

14. Which of the following is not a birth defect that's caused by a teratogenic effect?

A. Missing ears

B. Cleft palate

C. Different colored eyes

D. Open spinal cord

15. The "treatment use" of investigational drugs usually occurs at which stage of drug testing?

A. During FDA review of a new drug application (NDA)

B. During Phase 1 clinical testing

C. During long-term animal toxicity testing

D. During FDA review of the investigational new drug application

16. Quinine, which is found in the bark of the cinchona tree, is effective in

A. reducing the burning sensations of St. Anthony's Fire.

B. reducing convulsions caused by the use of strychnine.

C. reducing fever and other symptoms associated with malaria.

D. treating serious bacterial infections.

17. The approval of a new drug application (NDA) by the FDA allows for which of the following?

A. The drug is allowed to be shipped for the first time through interstate commerce.

B. The manufacturer is allowed to sell the drug in the United States.

C. The drug is allowed to be tested in humans for the first time.

D. The drug is allowed to be tested in animals for safety.

18. The post-marketing surveillance phase of drug development

A. reports previously discovered toxic reactions.

B. includes surveys and reports of adverse reactions as well as consumer watchdog information.

C. reports only short-term toxicity test results.

D. depends solely on the reports of prescribers of the drug.

19. The Federal Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 was concerned with

A. establishing guidelines for drug labeling and interstate transport of certain foods and drugs.

B. establishing guidelines for dispensing controlled substances.

C. placing regulations on drug manufacturers and pharmacists.

D. safety issues regarding botanicals and adulterated drugs.

20. The law that prohibited the marketing of new drugs unless they were adequately tested to demonstrate

safety was the

A. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938.

B. Controlled Substances Act of 1970.

C. Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970.

D. Federal Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906.

Exam: 084068RR - The Profession of Pharmacy

1. Over-the-counter drugs (OTCs) can be dispensed without a prescription because they

A. are generally safe but can cause reactions in certain patients.

B. are safe only when dispensed with a prescription.

C. must never be sold in grocery stores.

D. are considered to be safe under any circumstances.

2. In most states, pharmacists are required to renew their license every

A. year.

B. 2 years.

C. 18 months.

D. 6 months.

3. Patients can usually phone in refill requests using a/an _______ system.

A. electronic prescribing

B. interactive voice response

C. automated dispensing

D. robot delivery

4. To protect the public from distribution of unsafe drugs, the U.S. government passed several

amendments that restrict pharmacies from selling _______ drugs.

A. cosmetic and dangerous

B. liquid and refrigerated

C. nasogastric and parenteral

D. adulterated and misbranded

5. While working as a pharmacy technician in a local community pharmacy, Susan receives a prescription brought in by a customer. First, she must

A. count the tablets ordered.

B. prepare the label.

C. get the retail bag ready.

D. review the prescription.

6. Healthcare has been around for many centuries. Those who practiced in ancient times were called

A. nurses.

B. physicians.

C. healers.

D. doctors.

7. Unit-dose medications are

A. unit-of-use medications used in hospitals for efficiency and to control costs.

B. used in a retail pharmacy.

C. packaged only by hospital pharmacists.

D. bulk medications that come in large stock bottles.

8. Concerning the dispensing of drugs, prescription drugs are

A. recommended by a pharmacy technician.

B. available only over the counter.

C. dangerous drugs that may be dispensed only when prescribed by a physician.

D. routinely sold by wholesalers to those without a terminal distributor's license.

9. By law, a technician may fill prescriptions or physician's orders only if

A. his or her work is double-checked by a pharmacist.

B. his or her work is double-checked by another pharmacy technician.

C. the computer does not flash any warnings about potential problems with the prescription.

D. he or she double-checks the prescriptions before handing them to patients.

10. To dispense dangerous drugs, the pharmacy department must display a

A. terminal distributor's license.

B. renewal application.

C. registration.

D. pocket-sized pharmacist license.

11. To become a pharmacologist, a person needs to complete at least _______ years of schooling.

A. 8

B. 10

C. 6

D. 4

12. Technicians employed by an Internet pharmacy can typically expect to

A. collect data related to what drugs are dispensed within the managed care setting.

B. handle a large volume of medications during each day.

C. talk to patients on a daily basis.

D. work with other institutional staff members in the care of their patients.

13. When a technician professionally greets a patient in a community pharmacy, the first thing he or she should do is

A. ask for the patient's insurance card.

B. introduce himself or herself to the patient.

C. ask if the patient has any allergies.

D. ask if the patient has a new or refill prescription.

14. Today, the pharmacy technician performs many duties formerly completed by the pharmacist.

However, it's still not appropriate for the pharmacy technician to

A. mix medications using a method known as compounding.

B. give medical advice to the patient concerning his or her prescriptions.

C. work with intraveneous drugs.

D. enter patient information into the electronic patient profile.

15. Which of the following is not one of the duties of a pharmacist?

A. Answer phones, order supplies, and record keeping

B. Advise how to properly prescribe medications

C. Discuss with the patient if the medication is working properly

D. Review the patient's history each time a prescription is filled

16. A _______ studies the actions and effects of drugs and often publishes the results of this research.

A. toxicologist.

B. pharmacist.

C. pharmacy technician.

D. pharmacologist.

17. A request for a medication that's to be administered to a patient in a hospital is called a(n)

A. auxiliary dispensation.

B. pharmaceutical receipt.

C. prescription.

D. medication order.

18. The Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) is an organization that

A. requires registration to a list for pharmacy technicians.

B. sponsors a mandatory licensure exam for pharmacy technicians.

C. sponsored the first national voluntary certification exam.

D. is based primarily in Canada, but does allow students from the United States to sit for its examination.

19. Duties that are often performed by pharmacy technicians include

A. answering phones, ordering supplies, and record keeping.

B. recommending over-the-counter products to customers.

C. writing reports and counseling patients on medications.

D. answering drug information questions for doctors.

20. David has just been tasked with stocking a large order of drugs that was purchased by his retail

pharmacy to keep in inventory. They were probably delivered from a

A. mail order facility.

B. wholesaler.

C. health maintenance organization.

D. return goods specialty company.