personal trainer
161. Which of the following is the prime mover used in a pull-up?
A. Triceps
B. Deltoid
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Gastrocnemius
162. After training, how long does it typically take for DOMS to set in?
A. 6-11 hours
B. 49-72 hours
C. 12-48 hours
D. 1-5 hours
163. In a client's training cycle, one day or training session is known as which of the following?
A. Microcycle
B. Mesocycle
C. Macrocycle
D. Peak Cycle
164. What exercise should be performed FIRST?
A. Broad jump
B. Back squat
C. Split squat
D. Power clean
165. In which stage of the drawing in phase will you collect client data?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 3
C. Stage 2
D. Stage 4
166. At what age will most adults experience decrease ROM?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55
167. Exercises which include sprinting and weightlifting utilize which type of fiber?
A. Fast twitch
B. Slow twitch
C. Type I
D. Type A
168. Which of the following measures exercise intensity?
A. Rate of perceived exertion
B. Daily caloric intake
C. Basal metabolic rate
D. Heinneman's Size Principle
169. Which type of joint allows movement?
A. Cartilaginous
B. Synovial
C. Fibrous
D. Periosteum
170. How many hours after a meal should a diabetic train?
A. 1-3
B. 2-4
C. 7-8
D. 5-6
171. Utilizing the valsalva maneuver gives up to how much greater force?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
172. How long does the guided discovery stage of the drawing in phase last?
A. 2-3 weeks
B. 2-3 sessions
C. 4-6 weeks
D. 1 week
173. A client is 45 years old and has a resting heart rate of 75 bpm. Using the Karvonen formula, what is their target heart rate at an exercise intensity of 60%?
A. 145
B. 155
C. 165
D. 135
174. During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the trainer discuss the client's goals?
A. Stage 4
B. Stage 3
C. Stage 1
D. Stage 5
175. Which body type has a slower metabolic rate and does not tolerate carbohydrates well?
A. Endomorph
B. Mesomorph
C. Ectomorph
D. Endo-mesomorph
176. A conditioned client's resting heart rate will be which of the following?
A. Less than 60 BPM
B. 61-70 BPM
C. 71-80 BPM
D. More than 81 BPM
177. How often should information be collected when working with a client?
A. Only on the initial assessment
B. Once a month
C. Every time a trainer meets with them
D. Only at reassessments
178. Which of the following is an example of a behavior goal?
A. Lose 10 pounds
B. Increase back squat by 10 pounds
C. Workout 3 days a week
D. Decrease mile run time by 1 minute
179. A weight loss client is currently exercising 5+ hours a week and hits a plateau. What adjustments should a trainer suggest?
A. Increase k/cal by 250
B. Decrease k/cal by 100
C. Increase k/cal 100
D. Decrease k/cal by 250
180. How many hours of activity should portion sizes for meals be enough to sustain for?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
181. The Law of Overcompensation and Overload allows for which of the following in regards to intensity?
A. Progressively increase over a period to time
B. Progressively decrease over a period of time
C. Remain the same
D. Acute decrease over a period of time
182. Which principle states that we all undergo stress in three stages: shock, compensation, and exhaustion?
A. Individual differences
B. GAS
C. Overload
D. Specificity
183. When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage?
A. Heimlich maneuver
B. Valsalva maneuver
C. Mueller maneuver
D. Diaphragmatic maneuver
184. When levels of sodium in the blood are too low, which condition can occur?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Dehydration
C. Proteinuria
D. Decreased blood sugar
185. A bicep curl is an example of which of the following type of lever?
A. 1st class
B. 2nd class
C. 3rd class
D. 4th class
186. In which of the following are the triceps considered the agonist?
A. Bench press
B. Preacher curl
C. Overhead extension
D. Chin-up
187. What is the appropriate protein portion for women?
A. 2 palm portions
B. 2 cupped handfuls
C. 1 cupped handful
D. 1 palm portion
188. Which of the following detects the magnitude of mechanical stress at the musculotendinous junction?
A. Nociceptors
B. Muscle spindles
C. Golgi tendon organ
D. Chemoreceptors
189. The gluteus maximus is located superior to which muscle?
A. Biceps brachii
B. Erector spinae
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Brachioradialis
190. High impact exercise could be problematic for diabetics due to which of the following?
A. Muscle cramps
B. Nerve damage
C. Headaches
D. Dehydration
191. When working with a new client utilizing tempo training, which portion of the exercise is drawn out?
A. Concentric
B. Hold at the bottom
C. Eccentric
D. Hold at the top
192. Which of the following muscles make up the rotator cuff?
A. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
B. Supraspinatus, teres major, teres pectoralis minor, subscapularis
C. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, levator scapulae
193. A client is Type I diabetic and asks for a meal plan, what should the trainer do?
A. Refer to a dietician
B. Offer a templated meal plan
C. Ask what their goal is and then prescribe meal plan
D. Give a breakdown of macronutrients
194. Which of the following markers is an easy way to assess hydration levels in the body?
A. Paleness of skin
B. Excessive sweating
C. Urine color
D. Increased saliva
195. Which of the following rep ranges is appropriate for a client training for hypertrophy?
A. 1-3
B. 4-6
C. 8-12
D. 12 or more
196. Which of the following is caused by pain or stiffness in the skeletal joints?
A. Asthma
B. Hypertension
C. Arthritis
D. Coronary heart disease
197. What plane of motion does squatting take place in?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Lateral
198. Which of the following is an appropriate body fat range for a female client?
A. 6-9%
B. 10-13%
C. 14-18%
D. 19-23%
199. High Normal blood pressure is categorized as which of the following?
A. 140-159/90-99
B. 120/80
C. 130-139/85-89
D. 160/100
200. Weakness and numbness of the face, arm, or leg that is often only on one side of the body refer to which condition?
A. Stroke
B. Heart attack
C. Diabetes
D. Pancreatitis