personal trainer
81. During a biceps curl, the triceps play what role in contraction?
A. Antagonist
B. Assistant
C. Prime mover
D. Agonist
82. What type of contraction is involved in controlling and stopping a movement?
A. Eccentric
B. Isometric
C. Agonist
D. Concentric
83. Who should recommend a GXT for a client prior to starting an exercise program?
A. Trainer
B. Client
C. Nutritionist
D. Physician
84. Which of the following is responsible for sensing excessive stretch to protect the muscle?
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Muscle fiber
D. Sarcomere
85. In order to calculate lean and fat mass, you must multiply the body fat percentage by which of the following?
A. Height
B. Age
C. Activity level modifier
D. Total body weight
86. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for testing upper body strength?
A. Bench press
B. Push-up
C. Zipper stretch
D. Bicep curl
87. Which type of mover is MOST powerful during the contraction?
A. Assistant mover
B. Agonist
C. Stabilizer
D. Proprioceptor
88. Which joint performs adduction, abduction, horizontal adduction and abduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction?
A. Spine
B. Shoulder
C. Knee
D. Ankle
89. A client has a BMI of 24.8, which of the following categories would they fall into?
A. Normal
B. Overweight
C. Obesity Class 1
D. Underweight
90. Which of the following is the antagonist in the dumbbell curl?
A. Triceps
B. Deltoid
C. Rhomboid
D. Biceps
91. Obesity and stress are confirmed risk factors for which of the following?
A. Arthritis
B. Coronary heart disease
C. Type II diabetes
D. Kidney disease
92. Which muscle fiber type is best for competing in a triathlon?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IIA
D. Type III
93. During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the liability waiver be signed?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 3
C. Stage 2
D. Stage 5
94. What plane of motion do lateral raises take place in?
A. Rotational
B. Transverse
C. Frontal
D. Sagittal
95. A client with celiac disease asks for a nutrition plan, what should the trainer recommend?
A. Refer to a dietician
B. 3-day food log to prescribe meal plan
C. A templated meal plan
D. Give a breakdown of macronutrients
96. Which of the following are the four elements of fitness programs?
A. Strength, cardio, flexibility, body composition
B. Warm-up, cardio, strength, power
C. Strength, power, cardio, flexibility
D. Warm-up, strength, cardio, flexibility
97. Which of the following populations are environmental considerations such as pollen, allergies, and extreme temperatures key for?
A. Youth
B. Asthma
C. Arthritis
D. Hypertension
98. What should a cool-down include?
A. Static stretching
B. Dynamic balance
C. Dynamic stretching
D. Contract-relax method
99. What exercise should be performed LAST?
A. Shuttle runs
B. Power snatch
C. Overhead press
D. Front raise
100. How is strength usually measured?
A. 12-minute run walk assessment
B. Push-up test
C. Zipper stretch test
D. 1RM test
101. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a male client?
A. 1 thumb
B. 2 thumbs
C. 1 fist
D. 2 fists
102. Which type of stretching is beneficial for sports performance and involves momentum?
A. Static stretching
B. Self-myofascial release
C. Contract-antagonist relax method
D. Dynamic stretching
103. The ATP/CP Pathway is best for which of the following activities?
A. Running a marathon
B. 100m sprint
C. 30 minutes steady state cardio
D. Tabata workout
104. Which macronutrient contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecules?
A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Fats
D. Glycogen
105. Metabolism can be categorized in which of the following phases?
A. Symbiosis and anabolism
B. Morphosis and catabolism
C. Symbiosis and catabolism
D. Catabolism and anabolism
106. Which muscle fiber type is best for a 1RM test?
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Type II
D. Type I
107. Which of the following intake forms is necessary to ensure no prior medical concerns for a client?
A. Liability waiver
B. Comprehensive client form
C. PAR-Q
D. Recovery assessment
108. Which macronutrient is made up of carbon and hydrogen elements joined together in long groups called hydrocarbons?
A. Proteins
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Fats
109. If a client has a hard time touching their head to the wall during postural analysis, they may have which of the following postural deviations?
A. Tight shoulders
B. Swayback
C. Kyphosis
D. Forward head
110. Approximately how many calories are in 1 gram of fat?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 9
111. Which of the following training principles dictates increasing load or intensity each mesocycle?
A. Progressive overload
B. GAS
C. Quality training
D. Individual differences
112. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?
A. Stop the workout, offer her water
B. Ask another trainer what to do
C. Refer her to her doctor
D. Ask the training manager what to do
113. The "hunchback", or rounded appearance of the upper back is known as which postural deviation?
A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Forward head
D. Swayback
114. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a female client?
A. 1 thumb
B. 2 thumbs
C. 1 fist
D. 2 fists
115. What is an inexpensive, portable, and common way to assess body fat in the fitness industry?
A. DEXA
B. Bioelectrical impedance
C. Skinfold testing
D. Hydrostatic weighing
116. Macrocycles, mesocycles, and microcycles are a part of which training protocol?
A. Synchronization
B. Optimization
C. Periodization
D. Stabilization
117. All activities begin in which energy pathway?
A. ATP/CP
B. Oxidative
C. Glycolytic
D. Aerobic
118. Which of the following describes a mesomorphic body type?
A. Slim and linear
B. Muscular
C. Short and stout
D. Round
119. When the spine develops an S- or C-shaped curve, this imbalance is referred to as which of the following?
A. Lordosis
B. Flatback
C. Scoliosis
D. Kyphosis
120. What are the recommended servings of fruits and vegetables per day?
A. 11-15 servings per day
B. 3-4 servings per day
C. 1-2 servings per day
D. 5-10 servings per day
121. During training, clients with hypertension should avoid which of the following?
A. Seated resistance exercises
B. Squat jumps
C. Rising slowly from seated exercises
D. Flexibility training
122. A client completed 2 or more repetitions in the last 2 consecutive workouts. Which of the following indicates the client needs a load progression?
A. Henneman's principle
B. Karvonen formula
C. 2-for-2 rule
D. Harris-Benedict equation
123. Which resistance training system helps to increase intensity and optimize time?
A. Rest-pause
B. Pyramid
C. Occlusion
D. Superset
124. Marathon training primarily recruits which type of fibers?
A. Type IIx
B. Type II
C. Fast twitch
D. Slow twitch
125. Which of the following states that energy is never created nor destroyed, it's just transferred between entities?
A. Newton's 1st law
B. Law of thermodynamics
C. Newton's 3rd law
D. General adaptation syndrome
126. If a client is in a hypertrophy-based phase, how many repetitions should be programmed?
A. 2-4 reps
B. 12-15 reps
C. 1-6 reps
D. 8-10 reps
127. Programming tempo runs for a client who wishes to compete in a race represents which training principle?
A. Progressive overload
B. SAID principle
C. Henneman's size principle
D. 2-for-2 rule
128. Which of the following represents a portion control strategy for women regarding carbohydrates?
A. 4 cups a day
B. 1 cupped handful
C. 120 grams
D. 3 servings
129. Which type of contraction requires the muscles to "activate" but have no movement or change in muscle length?
A. Concentric
B. Isometric
C. Eccentric
D. Isotonic
130. Individuals with hypertension should moderate their intake of which of the following?
A. Salt
B. Fiber
C. Water
D. Fruit
131. Which of the following is primarily responsible for strength gains in youth clients?
A. Hypertrophy training
B. Neurological factors
C. Power training
D. Environmental factors
132. The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle?
A. Gluteus
B. Soleus
C. Hamstrings
D. Quadriceps
133. The FITT acronym stands for which of the following?
A. Fitness, Intensity, Training, Time
B. Frequency, Integration, Training, Time
C. Frequency, Integration, Total Volume, Tmax
D. Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
134. Cycling your training to help account for shock, compensation, and exhaustion is an important part of periodization and refers to which principle?
A. Henneman's principle
B. GAS principle
C. Principle of size recruitment
D. SAID principle
135. Which of the following is the agonist used in the upright row exercise?
A. Triceps
B. Deltoid
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Gastrocnemius
136. Which of the following stabilizes the knee on the posterior side?
A. Sartorius
B. Gracilis
C. Hamstrings
D. Quadriceps
137. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of protein?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 7
D. 5
138. Which of the following are categorized as carbohydrates?
A. Sugar, animal proteins, starch
B. Fiber, sugar, starch
C. Starch, fiber, animal proteins
D. Fiber, sugar, animal proteins
139. Which joint in the body is known as the saddle joint?
A. Knee
B. Ankle
C. Thumb
D. Atlanto-axial
140. When the scapular adductors are weak, which postural deviation can occur?
A. Swayback
B. Kyphosis
C. Forward head
D. Lordosis
141. Which of the following is an acceptable body fat range for a male client?
A. 6-9%
B. 10-14%
C. 15-18%
D. 19-23%
142. What is the appropriate protein portion for men?
A. 2 palm portions
B. 3 palm portions
C. 2 cupped handfuls
D. 3 cupped handfuls
143. A client has a history of heart disease, what should the trainer request?
A. 12 min run/ walk test
B. Medical clearance
C. Signed waiver
D. PAR-Q form
144. Which of the following is the best way to earn a client's trust when they are feeling the water before jumping in?
A. Utilize a plan that has worked for similar clients
B. Let the client tell you what they want the plan to be
C. Dictate to the client what the plan will be
D. Create a plan that you have both jointly discovered
145. Which assessment allows a trainer to understand a client's lean body and total fat mass?
A. Body fat calculation
B. Girth measurements
C. Scale weight
D. Photographs
146. Which type of muscle fiber is highly resistant to fatigue and injury?
A. Type I
B. Fast twitch
C. "Couch potato" fibers
D. Type II
147. Which joint permits limited gliding movement and can be found in the bones of the wrist?
A. Arthrodial
B. Condyloid
C. Ball and socket
D. Trochoidal
148. Which of the following is an environmental stressor a client may experience?
A. Job problems
B. Allergies
C. Overuse stress
D. Schedule conflicts
149. A lateral leg raise demonstrates which type of movement?
A. Adduction
B. Extension
C. Abduction
D. Hyperextension
150. Client differences are an important part of periodization and refer to which principle?
A. SAID
B. GAS
C. Use/disuse
D. Individual differences
151. If body fat has decreased but the scale has stayed the same, this means your client has gained which of the following?
A. Fat mass
B. Water weight
C. Bone density
D. Lean mass
152. Which principle do emergency medical professionals use to reduce the pain and inflammation from an athletic injury?
A. RICE principle
B. FITT principle
C. HITT principle
D. NCAA principle
153. Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition?
A. A cheat meal once a week
B. Meal prep routine
C. Adequate sleep and recovery
D. Repetitive weekends full of not following the plan
154. A trainer has an explosive-sport athlete client and has them perform explosive movements. Which of the following principles does this describe?
A. Individual differences
B. Progressive overload
C. SAID
D. GAS
155. The incorporation of which of the following in a program can help reduce the extent of DOMS?
A. Static stretching
B. Warm-up
C. Cool-down
D. HIIT
156. Which of the following is the best carbohydrate source to consume for weight/fat loss?
A. Minimally processed, slow digesting
B. Processed quickly, fast acting
C. A combination of fast and slow carbohydrates
D. Moderately processed, absorbed quickly
157. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin H
B. Reservatrol
C. Beta Alanine
D. Vitamin C
158. The angle of muscle pull is known as which of the following?
A. Angle at which a muscle pulls against the short axis of the bone that it pulls on
B. Angle at which a muscle pulls relative to the long axis of the bone that it pulls on
C. Angle at which a muscle pulls relative to the short axis of the bone that it pulls on
D. Angle at which a muscle pulls against the long axis of the bone that it pulls on
159. What is the term for when inspired oxygen during the recovery phase from exercise is in excess of resting needs?
A. Oxygen deficit
B. Oxygen debt
C. Aerobic fitness
D. Anaerobic fitness
160. What resistance training method divides one set into several mini-sets with rest?
A. Eccentrics
B. Rest-pause
C. Pre-exhaustion
D. Post-exhaustion