ReviewforACC320.docx

REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR TEST 2

QUESTION 1

The G0-Magic company uses job-order costing system. The following data relate to the first quarter of the company’s fiscal year

a. Materials and supplies purchased on account $690,000

b. Materials issued from store room to production,$700,000 [80% direct materials and 20% indirect materials].

c. Utility costs incurred in the factory $90,000

d. Cost of employee salaries

a. Direct Labour $900,000

b. Indirect cost and support workers in the factory $230,000

c. Marketing salaries $650,000

e. Advertising cost incurred = $800,000

f. Prepaid insurance expired during the quarter , $700,000.[ the ratio of insurance production to admin insurance = 3: 1

g. Rental cost = $360,000 [ selling cost consisits of 25% of the total rental cost

h. Other manufacturing overhead cost incurred during the month is $23,000 [credit]

i. Company applies manufacturing overhead based on direct machine hours . Budgeted cost for machine hours cost is $200,000 and estimated direct machine hours worked during the month are 45000 hours. Actual hours worked was 40,000 hours. Calculate the PR and journalize the applied cost

j. Goods costing to produce =$3,400,000 were completed during the quarter

k. Sales = $6,000,000. Cost to produce it = $4,000,000

l. Collections from customers during the quarter = $5,400,000

m. Cash paid to creditors =$2,500,000

REQUIRED

1. Prepare Journal entries for the quarter

2. Is production cost underallpied or overapplied?

SOLUTION

DEBIT $

CREDIT $

A

Raw materials

690,000

Accounts payable

690,000

B

WIP

540,000

Man / overhead

160,000

Raw materials

700,000

C

MO

90000

ACCOUNT PAYABLE

90000

D

WIP

900,000

MO

230,000

Sales / com expenses

650,000

Salaries/Wages Payable

1,780,000

I. Predetermined Rate = estimated MO/ estimated machine hours

Applied cost = Actual x PR

QUESTION 2

Venus Ltd has identified the following overhead costs and cost drivers for next year

Overhead Items

ESTIMATED( cost) $

Budgeted machine hours

34000

Budgeted overhead cost

$420,000

The following is one of the jobs completed during the year

Job 120

Direct materials

$1600

Direct Labor

$2400

Units completed

400

Direct Labour Hours [actual]

40

Machine hours actual

1

Number of orders

4

Machine hours [actual]

165

Kilowatt hours

25

Actual overhead

$2250

The company uses machine hours to allocate manufacturing overhead

REQUIRED

PART A

1. Calculate the predetermined rate for the plant using functional based costing for the job

2. Calculate the applied cost for Job

3. Calculate total product cost using FBC of the job

4. Calculate the unit cost for job ?

5. Is the overhead over-applied or under-applied

QUESTION 3 ON Project Management

Project information:

Initial investment = $25,000

Yearly CFS

CF1 =$ 5400

CF2 = $ 7500

CF3 =$ 4975

CF4 = $ 4950

CF5 = $13000

1. Payback Period

PBP =5400 + 7500 + 4975 + 4950 = $22,825. This is below $25000 . If we include last cahflow it will be more $25,000 [II]. So we calculate payback period at 4th year

PBP = 4 + {[25000 -22825] / 13000} = 4 + 0.17 = 4.17 years

IMPORTANT

NB PAYBACK PERIOD HAS 2 SHORTCOMINGS

1. NOT CONSIDER TVM

2. NOT CONSIDER THE CFS AFTER PBP

Discounted Pay Back Period [DPBP]

We use the same method as before except that we discount all the cash flows. This means thet this method will solve the TVM problem because the CFS are discounted

Discount Rate = Cost of capital = Required rate of return = 5%

Initial investment = $25,000

Yearly CFS

CF1 =$ 5400/ (1.05) =5143

CF2 = $ 7500/ ( 1.05)^2 =6803

CF3 =$ 4975 / (1.05)^ 3 =4298

CF4 = $ 4950/ (1.05) ^4 =4072

CF5 = $13000 / ( 1.05 ) ^ 5 = 10,186

Total PV = $ 30,502

So we can consider only 4 CFS = 20,316

DPBP = 4 + [25000 – 20316 / 10186] =4.46 years

The DPBP improves PBP from 4.17 to 4.46 years because we considerd the time value of money.

But later CFS issue is not solved . SO NPV will solve it

3. NPV

a. Discount Rate = Cost of capital = Required rate of return = 5%

b. Initial investment = $25,000

c. Yearly CFS

d. CF1 =$ 5400/ (1.05) =5143

e. CF2 = $ 7500/ ( 1.05)^2 =6803

f. CF3 =$ 4975 / (1.05)^ 3 =4298

g. CF4 = $ 4950/ (1.05) ^4 =4072

h. CF5 = $13000 / ( 1.05 ) ^ 5 = 10,186

i. Total PV = $ 30,502

NPV =Total PV – II = 30,502 – 25000 = + $5502

Net Present Value

Net Present Value [NPV] = Total return – Initial investment

Decision Making wih NPV

[NPV should be + ]

Project must be selected if it has a higher +NPV than other projects

-NPV should be rejected

4. Profitability Index = 1 + ( NPV / II ) =

PI = 1 + (5502 /25000) = 1.22

PI is used for ranking projects especially when a company has limited fund to invest in all the viable projects

5. IRR = Internal Rate of return

Step1 make a table and place the NPV already calculated:

NPV

DR

+5502

5%

-2069

15%

Step 2

Find the negative NPV by increasing the discount rate. This is done by trial and error

For the –NPV , the DR has to be increased

So increase DR to 15% , NPV = -$2069

WORKING

Initial investment = $25,000

Yearly CFS

CF1 =$ 5400/ (1.15) =4696

CF2 = $ 7500/ ( 1.15)^2 =5671

CF3 =$ 4975 / (1.15)^ 3 =3271

CF4 = $ 4950/ (1.15) ^4 =2830

CF5 = $13000 / ( 1.15 ) ^ 5 = 6463

Total PV = 22,931

Net Present Value [NPV] = Total return – Initial investment = 22931 - 25000 = -2069

Step 3

Find IRR

IRR = DR s + { [DR b –DR s] x [+NPV / [+NPV - -NPV]

= 5 +{ [15 -5] x [(5502 / 5502+2069]) }= 12.26

Calculator === 11.8% When you use financial calculator

So very close to the exact number

Why do we have to find the negative and the positive NPV in order to get IRR

IRR = DR when NPV is 0

DR low = NPV high

DR high = NPV low

DR is negatively related to NPV