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In a test of a weight loss program, weights of 40 subjects are recorded before and after the program. Assume that the before/after weights result in r = 0.876. 

Is there sufficient evidence to support a claim of a linear correlation between before/after weights?

Does the value of r indicate that the program is effective in reducing weight? Why or why not?

Comment on your classmates postings by comparing and contrasting your results.

 

 

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